PM Chapter 11
37. A(n) _____ is a diagramming analysis technique used to help select the best course of action in situations in which future outcomes are uncertain. a. decision tree b. activity-on-arrow c. workaround d. backward pass
a. decision tree
40. A _____ is a technique used to show the effects of changing one or more variables on an outcome. a. sensitivity analysis b. decision tree c. Monte Carlo analysis d. systems analysis
a. sensitivity analysis
51. A project _____ is an uncertainty that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives.
risk
49. _____ are unplanned responses to risk events used when project teams do not have contingency plans in place. a. Workarounds b. Fallback plans c. Contingency plans d. Triggers
a. Workarounds
45. _____ involves allocating ownership of the risk to another party. a. Risk exploitation b. Risk sharing c. Risk enhancement d. Risk acceptance
b. Risk sharing
28. _____ involves monitoring identified and residual risks, identifying new risks, carrying out risk response plans, and evaluating the effectiveness of risk strategies throughout the life of the project. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis b. Planning risk responses c. Controlling risk d. Performing qualitative risk analysis
c. Controlling risk
44. _____ involves shifting the consequence of a risk and responsibility for its management to a third party. a. Risk avoidance b. Risk acceptance c. Risk transference d. Risk mitigation
c. Risk transference
33. The _____ lists the relative probability of a risk occurring and the relative impact of the risk occurring. a. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking chart b. requirements traceability matrix c. probability/impact matrix d. expectations management matrix
c. probability/impact matrix
42. _____ involves reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence. a. Risk avoidance b. Risk acceptance c. Risk transference d. Risk mitigation
d. Risk mitigation
48. _____ risks refer to those that are direct results of implementing risk responses. a. Architectural b. Primary c. Residual d. Secondary
d. Secondary
58. _____ is the process of understanding what potential events might hurt or enhance a particular project.
contingency reserves
18. The risk register can be created with a simple Microsoft Word or Excel file.
true
68. _____ is the product of a risk event probability and the risk event's monetary value.
EMV
35. Identifying risks is a subprocess of the _____ process of project risk management. a. planning b. executing c. monitoring and controlling d. closing
a. planning
32. A(n) _____ represents decision problems by displaying essential elements, including decisions, uncertainties, causality, and objectives, and how they influence each other. a. risk breakdown structure b. influence diagram c. process flow chart d. work breakdown structure
b. influence diagram
19. Risk utility rises at a decreasing rate for a _____ person. a. risk-seeking b. risk-averse c. risk-neutral d. risk-indifferent
b. risk-averse
59. _____ is a technique by which a group attempts to generate ideas or find a solution for a specific problem by amassing ideas spontaneously and without judgment.
brainstorming
39. What is the first step in a Monte Carlo analysis? a. Determine the probability distribution of each variable. b. For each variable, such as the time estimate for a task, select a random value based on the probability distribution for the occurrence of the variable. c. Assess the range for the variables being considered. d. Run a deterministic analysis or one pass through the model using the combination of values selected for each one of the variables.
c. Assess the range for the variables being considered.
30. Unenforceable conditions or contract clauses and adversarial relations are risk conditions associated with the project _____ management knowledge area. a. integration b. quality c. procurement d. human resources
c. procurement
69. _____ are provisions held by the project sponsor or organization to reduce the risk of cost or schedule overruns to an acceptable level.
contingency reserves
60. The basic concept of the _____ technique is to derive a consensus among a panel of experts who make predictions about future developments.
delphi
10. Risk events refer to specific, certain events that may occur to the detriment or enhancement of the project.
false
12. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking is a quantitative risk analysis tool.
false
15. The lower the earned monetary value calculation for a project, the chances of project success is higher.
false
4. Unknown risks can be managed proactively.
false
54. The term _____ is used to describe risks that the project team has identified and analyzed.
known risks
72. Risk _____ refers to reducing the impact of a risk event by reducing the probability of its occurrence.
mitigation
50. Potential problems that might occur on the project and how they might impede project success are _____ risks.
negative
73. _____ risks are risks that remain after all of the response strategies have been implemented.
residual
71. _____ involves accepting the consequences should a risk occur.
risk acceptance
57. A(n) _____ is a hierarchy of potential risk categories for a project.
risk breakdown structure
65. _____ are numbers that represent the overall risk of specific events, based on their probability of occurring and the consequences to the project if they do occur.
risk factors
56. A(n) _____ documents the procedures for managing risk throughout the project.
risk management plan
64. The _____ is the person who will own or take responsibility for the risk.
risk owner
62. A(n) _____ is a document that contains results of various risk management processes.
risk register
66. The main output of qualitative risk analysis is updating the ________.
risk register
52. _____ is the amount of satisfaction or pleasure received from a potential payoff.
risk utility
53. Risk utility rises at a decreasing rate for a(n) _____ person.
risk-averse
70. _____ helps professionals to see the effects of changing one or more variables on an outcome.
sensitivity analysis
9. The Delphi technique is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events.
true
24. _____ involves determining which risks are likely to affect a project and documenting the characteristics of each. a. Identifying risks b. Planning risk management c. Performing qualitative risk analysis d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
a. Identifying risks
27. _____ involves taking steps to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to meeting project objectives. a. Performing quantitative risk analysis b. Planning risk responses c. Controlling risk d. Performing qualitative risk analysis
b. Planning risk responses
47. _____ applies to positive risks when the project team cannot or chooses not to take any actions toward a risk. a. Risk enhancement b. Risk acceptance c. Risk sharing d. Risk exploitation
b. Risk acceptance
46. _____ involves changing the size of the opportunity by identifying and maximizing key drivers of the positive risk. a. Risk exploitation b. Risk sharing c. Risk enhancement d. Risk acceptance
c. Risk enhancement
31. _____ is a fact-finding technique that can be used for collecting information in face-to-face, phone, e-mail, or instant-messaging discussions. a. Brainstorming b. Monte Carlo analysis c. The Delphi technique d. Interviewing
d. Interviewing
26. _____ involves numerically estimating the effects of risks on project objectives. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Planning risk responses c. Identifying risks d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
21. A _____ person achieves a balance between risk and payoff. a. risk-seeking b. risk-averse c. risk-fearing d. risk-neutral
d. risk-neutral
5. The last step in project risk management is deciding how to address this knowledge area for a particular project by performing risk management planning.
false
63. _____ are indicators or symptoms of actual risk events.
triggers
1. Risks can have both negative and positive effects on meeting project objectives.
true
11. A probability/impact matrix or chart lists the relative probability of a risk occurring on one side of a matrix or axis on a chart and the relative impact of the risk occurring on the other.
true
13. The Microsoft Solution Framework (MSF) includes a risk management model that includes developing and monitoring a top-ten master list of risks.
true
14. Quantitative risk analysis need not be done for projects that are large and complex.
true
16. The Monte Carlo analysis can predict the probability of finishing by a certain date or the probability that the cost will be equal to or less than a certain value.
true
17. Identified risks may not materialize, or their probabilities of occurrence or loss may diminish.
true
2. One possible response to managing negative risk it to accept the potential effects from the risk.
true
3. A risk-seeking person prefers outcomes that are more uncertain and is often willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
true
6. Contingency plans are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs.
true
67. A(n) _____ is a list of risks that are low priority, but are still identified as potential risks.
watch list
74. Project teams sometimes use _____, which are unplanned responses to risk events, when they do not have contingency plans in place.
workarounds
29. _____ are predefined actions that the project team will take if an identified risk event occurs. a. Secondary risks b. Workarounds c. Contingency plans d. Management reserves
c. Contingency plans
7. Brainstorming is a systematic, interactive forecasting procedure based on independent and anonymous input regarding future events.
false
61. System or process _____ are diagrams that show how different parts of a system interrelate.
flowcharts
25. _____ involves prioritizing risks based on their probability and impact of occurrence. a. Performing qualitative risk analysis b. Identifying risks c. Planning risk responses d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
a. Performing qualitative risk analysis
41. _____ involves eliminating a specific threat, usually by eliminating its causes. a. Risk avoidance b. Risk acceptance c. Risk transference d. Risk mitigation
a. Risk avoidance
43. _____ involves doing whatever you can to make sure the positive risk happens. a. Risk exploitation b. Risk sharing c. Risk enhancement d. Risk acceptance
a. Risk exploitation
36. Performing qualitative and quantitative risk analyses are subprocesses of the _____ process of project risk management. a. planning b. executing c. monitoring and controlling d. closing
a. planning
23. The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is a. risk appetite b. risk tolerance c. risk utility d. unknown risk
a. risk appetite
20. Those who are _____ have a higher tolerance for risk, and their satisfaction increases when more payoff is at stake. a. risk-seeking b. risk-averse c. risk-neutral d. risk-indifferent
a. risk-seeking
22. _____ involves deciding how to approach and plan the risk management activities for the project. a. Identifying risks b. Planning risk management c. Performing qualitative risk analysis d. Performing quantitative risk analysis
b. Planning risk management
38. _____ analysis simulates a model's outcome many times to provide a statistical distribution of the calculated results. a. Sensitivity b. Systems c. Monte Carlo d. NPV
c. Monte Carlo
34. _____ are/is a qualitative risk analysis tool that maintains an awareness of risks throughout the life of a project in addition to identifying risks. a. SharePoint portal b. Probability/impact matrices or charts c. Expectations management matrix d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
d. Top Ten Risk Item Tracking
8. The psychology literature shows that individuals, working alone, produce fewer ideas than the same individuals produce through brainstorming in small, face-to-face groups.
false
55. The main output of the _____ process is the start of a risk register.
identifying risks