2018 Test Bank

: 438 5. The most severe form of an allergic reaction is called: a. Rash b. Anaphylaxis c. An antigen response d. Rhinorrhea

: b Objective: 14-4

13. When you are placed in charge of the treatment unit at the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, which of the following four patients will you treat first? a. A confused 69-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a rapid and weak radial pulse b. An elderly female patient with a femur fracture and a yellow tag on her wrist c. A 21-year-old male who goes into cardiac arrest d. A 13-year-old boy who walked to the treatment area complaining of a severe headache

a. A confused 69-year-old male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a rapid and weak radial pulse

1. A 49-year-old man has been stabbed in the lower right chest. After assessing him, you suspect that the knife punctured the lung and is causing internal bleeding. In this situation, the mechanism of injury would be: a. A penetrating injury b. An assailant with a knife c. Blunt trauma to the lungs d. Internal hemorrhage

a. A penetrating injury

20. The most common source of burns in children is: a. A scalding-hot liquid b. A candle c. Chemicals d. A cigarette lighter

a. A scalding-hot liquid

10. The underlying pathophysiology associated with an ectopic pregnancy is that a fertilized egg: a. Implants in a fallopian tube b. Develops without a placenta c. Contaminated with abdominal bacteria d. Implants in the top part of the uterus

a. Implants in a fallopian tube

14. You are immobilizing a 4-year-old boy on a long spine board. Which of the following actions would be appropriate when performing this intervention? a. Avoid applying the chest strap across the patient's thorax. b. Place padding between the patient's shoulders and the spine board. c. Secure the patient's chest and legs to the board after the head has been secured. d. Place a pillow under the patient's neck to keep the airway open.

b. Place padding between the patient's shoulders and the spine board.

25. Many elderly patients participate in a practice called "polypharmacy," which is the: a. Use of mail-order pharmacies. b. Simultaneous taking of multiple medications. c. Use of generic drugs. d. Use of designer drugs.

b. Simultaneous taking of multiple medications.

2. While responding to an MCI drill involving an explosion, you recognize that the dozen ambulances sitting in a parking lot three blocks away from the incident constitute the: a. Transport unit b. Staging unit c. Treatment unit d. Triage area

b. Staging unit

: 1051 12. Which of the following behaviors is a sign of potential aggression in a patient? a. Avoiding eye contact b. The clenching of both fists c. Refusal to answer some questions d. Increased sighing

b. The clenching of both fists

12. One of the skiers in a group of adaptive athletes has spina bifida. If you needed to care for this patient, it is important to remember that: a. They have also had a traumatic spinal cord injury. b. They may be allergic to natural latex, so contact with latex can result in anaphylactic shock. c. They may have a drain for lymph that is protected because it is inside the body. d. Contrary to other spinal cord injuries, they will not have sensory deficits.

b. They may be allergic to natural latex, so contact with latex can result in anaphylactic shock.

21. A patient who is conscious and breathing has been pulled from a cold stream. To decrease the patient's loss of heat via the mechanism of conduction, OEC Technicians should immediately: a. Apply hot packs to the patient. b. Thoroughly dry the patient and then apply a blanket. c. Provide positive-pressure ventilation. d. Encourage the patient to stop shivering.

b. Thoroughly dry the patient and then apply a blanket.

6. Which of the following activities is not considered a special operation? a. A vehicle extrication b. Toboggan transportation c. A low-angle rescue d. A lift evacuation

b. Toboggan transportation

16. An effective way to interview a geriatric patient is to: a. Keep repeating your question if the patient is slows to respond. b. Use active listening skills. c. Write your questions down on paper and show them to the patient. d. Offer possible responses to assist the patient before she answers.

b. Use active listening skills.

6. Most emergency care systems deploy personnel to emergencies using a stratified approach based on the patient's condition or anticipated needs. Which of the following lists presents the normal order of deployment of responders? a. EMT, AEMT, EMR, Paramedic b. EMR, AEMT, Paramedic, EMT c. EMR, EMT, AEMT, Paramedic d. AEMT, Paramedic, EMT, EMR

c. EMR, EMT, AEMT, Paramedic

8. A 24-year-old woman complains of sharp pain in her left lower abdominal quadrant. She states that her last period was 7 weeks ago. Which of the following conditions would you most suspect? a. Appendicitis b. Abruption placenta c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Colitis

c. Ectopic pregnancy

18. Which of the following tasks is the first component of a scene size-up? a Identify the number of patients involved. b Determine the MOI. c Determine whether additional resources are needed. d Scene safety

d Scene safety

4. Which of the following statements shows that an OEC Technician has an accurate understanding of vital signs in relation to geriatric patients? a. "The typical resting heart rate in geriatric patients is less than 60 beats per minute." b. "Fever tends to be more common and more severe in elderly patients." c. "There is no difference between the vital signs of a geriatric patient and those of a young adult." d. "Respiratory capacity is greatly reduced in geriatric patients."

d. "Respiratory capacity is greatly reduced in geriatric patients."

11. Which of the following SPF ratings would provide the greatest level of protection? a. 6 b. 15 c. 30 d. 50

d. 50

: 928 13. Trauma from a dive injury that results in tissue damage within any air-filled structure of the body is called: a. Internal dive trauma b. Tonicity c. Upper pressure trauma d. Barotrauma

d. Barotrauma

20. Who is in charge of a crime scene that occurs at your ski area? a. The area's operation manager b. The area's patrol director c. The area's risk manager d. The responding law enforcement officer

d. The responding law enforcement officer

18. Critical care providers who bring advanced life support equipment, therapies, and interventions to the scene are typically deployed in what tier? a. Tier 1 b. Tier 2 c. Tier 3 d. Tier 4

d. Tier 4

19. When mechanically restraining a patient, you should: a. Tell the patient you will release the restraints as soon as he calms down. b. Speak as harshly as necessary to get the patient to cooperate. c. use a prone position when possible to ensure an open airway d. use a method consistent with your local protocols

d. use a method consistent with your local protocols

50. A secondary assessment should take about how long? a. 30 seconds b. 1 minute c. 2-5 minutes d. 6-8 minutes

: c Objective: 7-5

: 607 18. the most frequent injury in skiing is a: a. Concussion b. Knee sprain c. Thumb strain d. Fractured radius

: b Objective: 20-2.3

: 819, 820 11. Your friend, who is a paramedic, is describing an emergency call he was on last weekend. He tells you that he cared for a 78-year-old woman who had slipped while getting out of her bathtub and had been lying on a tile floor with no clothing for almost 24 hours. When your friend arrived he found the woman confused and cold to the touch. Although it was 80 degrees outside, the temperature in the apartment was only 68 because she had her air conditioner running on high. Based on your OEC training, you recognize that this patient was probably suffering from hypothermia due to: a. Conduction b. Convection c. Evaporation d. Radiation e. All of the above

: e Objective: 25-1

: 975 24. A mother brings her 3-year-old son into the aid room. She says he has a low grade fever and seems to be having slight difficulty breathing. Which of the statements by the mother would make you think the child may have croup? a. "Last night, he had a barking-like cough." b. "There are times when he continually drools." c. "When I turn the air conditioner on, he gets more short of breath." d. "He has a rash on his chest."

a. "Last night, he had a barking-like cough."

17. A geriatric patient's cardiovascular response to stress, illness, and injury is different than that of younger patients. Which of the following statements is false? a. As the heart ages, the ventricles become stiffer. b B The volume of blood in the body decreases in geriatric patients. c The heart slows due to decreased electrical conductivity in geriatric patients. d. Blood vessels become stiffer from atherosclerosis in geriatric patients.

b B The volume of blood in the body decreases in geriatric patients.

31. Falls result in ____ percent of all deaths in the geriatric population. a. 5 b. 12 c. 40 d. 72

b. 12

7. Which one of the following organs is not located in the abdomen? a. Stomach b. Kidney c. Pancreas d. Small intestines

b. Kidney

9. The best natural material used in winter clothing is: a. Cotton. b. Wool. c. Silk. d. Polyester.

b. Wool.

21. A formal, organized method for managing an incident, regardless of its cause, size, scope, or complexity, is called: a. A multi-agency coordination system. b. A federal incident management system. c. An incident command system. d. An emergency strike team.

c. An incident command system.

17. In the event that OEC Technicians are exposed to an organophosphate or a chemical nerve agent, they may need to self-administer the nerve agent antidote. Which of the following statements regarding the self-administration of a nerve agent antidote is false? a. "If severe symptoms are present, three atropine auto-injectors and three 2-PAM Cl injectors are administered in rapid succession." b. "The medication is administered in a way that is similar to that for an Epi-Pen." c. "If the nerve agent has been ingested, exposure may continue for some time, and a relapse is a possibility." d. "Depending on the symptoms observed, the initial treatment will either be an atropine auto-injector or a 2-PAM Cl injector."

d. "Depending on the symptoms observed, the initial treatment will either be an atropine auto-injector or a 2-PAM Cl injector."

21. You are caring for a 15-year-old male with a laceration of the left ear. Which of the following actions would you not take in dressing this injury? a. Placing a bulky dressing between the ear and the scalp b. Securing the dressing with gauze that is wrapped securely around the head c. Using direct pressure to control the bleeding d. Wrapping gauze loosely around the head and under the opposite axilla

d. Wrapping gauze loosely around the head and under the opposite axilla

11. You are describing techniques for remaining safe when responding to a call for a patient with a behavioral emergency. Which of the following statements is appropriate? a. "You need to encounter the patient first, and then come up with your safety plan." b. "If a patient raises his/her voice, you should raise yours to match it. " c. "You should approach patients quietly and try to surprise them so they don't have time to develop a plan to attack you." d. You should be sure that you have at least one exit route, and do not let the patient get between you and that way out."

d. You should be sure that you have at least one exit route, and do not let the patient get between you and that way out."

: 345 31. The smaller branches of the arterial tree that contain a muscular layer that enables changes in vessel diameter are called _______; these vessels ________. a. Resistance vessels; enable the body to control how much blood is directed toward an area based on that area's metabolic needs b. Distributive vessels; sense oxygen levels and increase heart rate when the brainstem detects dropping O2 levels or rising CO2 levels c. Vernicles; exchange O2 and CO2 and rid the body of waste products d. Metabolic vessels; trigger the release of glucose into the circulatory system

: a Objective: 10-2

: 332 23. Which of the following statements correctly defines cardiac output? a. It is the volume of blood that is pumped in one minute. b. It is the amount of blood pumped in each heartbeat. c. It is the number of heartbeats per minute. d. Reduced stroke volume always means reduced cardiac output.

: a Objective: 10-4

: 335 19. Which of the following statements about irreversible shock is correct? a. Even with treatment, death will result. b. If the pupils are dilated, the patient is in irreversible shock. c. In irreversible shock, the radial pulse is weak but the carotid pulse stays strong. d. To survive, the OEC technician should give the patient fluids and get the patient to the hospital quickly.

: a Objective: 10-5

: 340-341 17. Which of the following lists of assessment findings indicates that a trauma patient may be in compensated shock? a. Anxious, tachycardia, normal BP, pale and cool skin b. Slightly confused, tachycardia, hypotensive, warm and flushed skin c. Confused and anxious, very tachycardic, very hypotensive, cool and mottled skin d. Confused, very bradycardic, hypotensive, cool and cyanotic skin

: a Objective: 10-5

: 339 3. Which of the following conditions is the most probable cause of cardiogenic shock? a. Myocardial infarction b. Severe vomiting and diarrhea c. Gastrointestinal bleeding d. Systemic infection

: a Objective: 10-6

16. If a patient gags while you are inserting an oropharyngeal airway, you should remove the airway and: a. Have suction ready b. Reattempt to insert it c. Reattempt to insert it using a smaller airway d. Use a tongue depressor to better place the airway

: a Objective: 9- 6

: 335 28. You are caring for a 55-year-old man with significant trauma. His medical history reveals high blood pressure for which he takes a beta blocker. You realize that this group of drugs may: a. Inhibit his heart's ability to beat faster. b. Cause him to have higher-than-normal blood pressure. c. Diminish his reactions to pain. d. Cause his heart rate to increase.

: a Objective: 10-7

: 332 32. You are treating a 42-year-old female exhibiting signs of shock. You do not suspect a spinal injury. To try to improve blood flow to the heart, you should position the patient: a. Supine with her feet elevated 8-12 inches above the level of the heart. b. Flat on her left side. c. Supine with the bed tilted so that her head is higher than her feet. d. With her head slightly elevated and her arms raised over her head.

: a Objective: 10-9

: 336-339 9. You are treating a patient with severe chest pain and believe they are in cardiogenic shock. One of your first treatments would be: a. High-flow oxygen b. Application of an AED c. Having the patient take their nitroglycerin d. Rapid transport in a prone position

: a Objective: 10-9

: 371 13. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an accurate understanding of altered mental status (AMS)? a. "AMS describes any abnormal change in a person's level of awareness." b. "AMS occurs only when a patient is not responsive to verbal or painful stimuli." c. "AMS should be suspected only when a patient is on medications that can cause confusion." d. "AMS is any mental state in a person with diabetes."

: a Objective: 11-1

: 361, 377 28. In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the E stands for: a. Epilepsy, environment, and electrolyte imbalance b. Edema, electrolyte imbalance, and endocarditis c. Epilepsy, echovirus, and environment d. Electrolyte imbalance, environment, and echovirus

: a Objective: 11-2

: 361, 380 35. Insulin: a. Enables transfer of glucose from blood into cells b. Increases the level of glucose circulating in the blood. c. Makes glucosamine work better as an energy source. d. Increases the transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream.

: a Objective: 11-3

: 367 38. Hyperglycemia: a. Has a more gradual onset than hypoglycemia. b. Is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors. c. Has a more rapid onset than hypoglycemia. d. Is more easily treated in prehospital environments than is hypoglycemia.

: a Objective: 11-3

: 364 23. Status epilepticus is best differentiated from a generalized seizure by: a. The duration of the seizure. b. The length of the postictal period. c. The presence of an aura prior to seizing. d. A pre-existing history of seizures.

: a Objective: 11-4

: 373 22. You have been called to the lodge for a behavioral emergency. When you arrive, you find a male in his forties sitting up against a wall. He is confused and incontinent. Bystanders state that he suddenly fell to the ground and was grunting and shaking. From this description what should you suspect first that the man has had? a. A generalized seizure b. A diabetic reaction c. An absence seizure d. A syncopal episode

: a Objective: 11-4

: 380 19. After a delayed response, you arrive in the lodge and find a 62-year-old female is still seizing. Which one of the following should you do first? a. Assess her airway and breathing. b. Determine if she has a seizure history. c. Ascertain the duration of the seizure. d. Move her to the aid room for further assessment and then transport her to the hospital.

: a Objective: 11-4

: 380 17. A young boy tells you that his twin brother suffers from seizures and asks what he can do if he sees his brother convulsing. You should give him which one of the following instructions? a. "Move any moveable objects and furniture away from him." b. "Hold him firmly against the floor until he stops seizing or until the EMTs arrive." c. "Insert a spoon into his mouth to keep him from swallowing his tongue." d. "Call EMS only if the seizure lasts more than 10 minutes or he loses control of his bladder." "When he quit seizing, give him sugar, so his blood sugar is OK."

: a Objective: 11-4

: 371 12. The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA): a. Are temporary and resolve within 24 hours. b. Can persist for a few days before they resolve. c. Are mild but permanent. d. Are severe and permanent.

: a Objective: 11-5

: 376, 377 9. Your assessment reveals a drooling 48-year-old male to have gurgling speech and left arm paralysis. Which of the following would be your priority? a. Suction the patient's airway b. Protect the patient's left arm c. Determine the patient's risk factors for stroke d. Monitor the patient's blood pressure

: a Objective: 11-5

: 397 table-12-2 1. A passive process whereby compounds move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called: a. Diffusion b. Osmosis c. Metabolism d. Inhalation

: a Objective: 13-1

: 415 20. You are called to aid a 65-year-old man who is having difficulty breathing. When you arrive, you find that he is sitting upright in a chair and is in obvious respiratory distress. His airway is open and his respirations are 28 per minute. At this time you would: a. Provide him oxygen with a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute b. Assess his breath sounds c. Try to obtain a medical history from him d. Assist him to a supine position

: a Objective: 13-10

: 421 30. Which of the following respiratory rates may signify significant respiratory issues in an adult? a. Fewer than 8 respirations per minute b. More than respirations 24 per minute c. Fewer than 12 respirations per minute d. More than 20 respirations per minute

: a Objective: 13-11

: 416 25. You are assessing a 34-year-old man who is complaining of "not feeling well." He is alert and pale. His respirations are regular at 20 per minute. Based on your training, you recognize that his respirations are: a. Normal for an adult b. Rapid for an adult c. Rapid but OK because they are regular d. To be bradypnea

: a Objective: 13-7

: 419 8. In an adult, the most common cause of airway obstruction is: a. The tongue b. A food bolus c. Mucous secretions d. An inflamed pharynx

: a Objective: 13-8

31. You are checking equipment at the beginning of your shift. The D size oxygen cylinder measures 1000 psi. You calculate that if you needed to use this tank at 15 LPM it would last: A. 8.5 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 12 minutes

: a Objective: 9- 7

: 425 24. A 74-year-old male with a history of chronic emphysema is complaining of sudden onset of shortness of breath. He appears to be in acute respiratory distress. Physical exam of the anterior chest wall reveals crepitus. Based on the patient's history and physical exam, you would suspect which of the following conditions? a. Spontaneous pneumothorax b. Congestive heart failure c. Acute bronchitis d. Carbon monoxide poisoning

: a Objective: 13-9

: 435 17. A foreign substance that triggers an allergic response in the body is known as: a. An antigen b. Histamine c. An antibody d. A mast cell

: a Objective: 14-1

: 437 19. The overreaction of the immune system to a substance that is otherwise harmless is known as: a. Hypersensitivity b. Hives c. Anaphylaxis d. Immunity

: a Objective: 14-1

: 440 7. A patient informs you that any time she uses a particular soap; she experiences a mild allergic reaction. You recognize that: a. The soap contains an allergen. b. Her soap contains non-organic ingredients. c. The soap contains antibodies that react in her body. d. With continued use the allergic reaction will diminish.

: a Objective: 14-2

: 437 6. When the respiratory effects of an allergic reaction are obvious within a few seconds to minutes: a. The reaction tends to be more severe. b. The reaction tends to be localized. c. A large amount of allergen is likely involved. d. Epinephrine will not be effective.

: a Objective: 14-4

: 440, 444 3. During a primary assessment, which of the following findings would most lead you to suspect an allergic reaction? a. Hives on the face and neck b. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg c. Heart rate of 55 beats per minute d. A complaint of dizziness

: a Objective: 14-4

: 437 11. Your patient is having an allergic reaction and needs to use his epinephrine auto-injector. He is concerned that he does not recall the correct way to do it. Which of the following things would you tell him? a. "Press the injector onto the outer thigh, push the tip against the thigh until the needle deploys b. "Place the injector against the outer upper arm, push the tip until the needle deploys, and then push the plunger slowly to inject the medication." c. "Pinch the skin on the anterior thigh, press the injector tip against the skin, and wait until it activates." d. "Pinch the skin on the lateral thigh, press the injector against the skin, and rapidly push the plunger to inject the medication."

: a Objective: 14-5

: 448 12. You are staffing a first-aid booth at a mountain bike event. A mother approaches you with her 15-year-old son and informs you that her son is severely allergic to bees. Although he hasn't been stung, she is concerned about the auto-injector he carries. The mother states that it was prescribed when her son was 13 years old. She shows you the 0.15 mg auto-injector, and you note that it expired about 12 months ago. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate for you to make? a. "Call your doctor's office for a new prescription because this auto-injector is out of date." b. "If you go to the pharmacy where you got this they will be able to give you a new one." c. "Most medications are still good for months after the expiration date. You can use this one for a little while longer." d. "This medication is good for today but you should call your doctor as soon as possible to replace this."

: a Objective: 14-5

: 459 20. Which of the following statements concerning arteries is true? a. They carry blood away from the heart. b. They have a lower pressure than veins. c. They always carry oxygenated blood. d. They drain into the venae cavae.

: a Objective: 15-1

: 477 38. In performing CPR on an infant: a. Place two fingers on the sternum just beneath an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are approximately one-third the depth of the chest. b. Stop to check for a pulse after administering about 100 compressions. c. Place the heel of one hand on the sternum just above an imaginary line between the nipples, and make compressions that are about ½ inch deep. d. Check the carotid artery for a pulse before beginning compressions.

: a Objective: 15-10

: 482-3 36. When performing cardiac compressions on a 12-year-old child, you would: a. Administer cycles of 30 chest compressions followed by two breaths. b. Compress the chest about 1 inch. c. Recheck the pulse every four cycles. d. Place the heel of your hand on the upper section of the sternum.

: a Objective: 15-10

: 460 23. The walls of the capillaries are only one cell thick. This allows the exchange of nutrients and oxygen and waste products. The capillaries serve as the bridge between: a. Arterioles and venules. b. The atrium right and the left atrium. c. The pulmonary vein and the pulmonary artery. d. Arteries and veins.

: a Objective: 15-3

: 459 27. A hardening and loss of elasticity of the arterial walls is known as: a. Arteriosclerosis. b. High blood pressure. c. Angina pectoris. d. Atherosclerosis.

: a Objective: 15-4

: 465 31. One complication of an acute myocardial infarction may be cardiogenic shock. Based on your training, you would define cardiogenic shock as a (n): a. Condition whereby tissues of the body are oxygen deprived due to the heart's inability to adequately pump blood. b. Absolute or relative shortage of blood supply to a tissue due to a blood clot. c. Abrupt cessation of the regular electrical activity of the heart. d. Acute illness in which the cardiac muscle does not get enough oxygen.

: a Objective: 15-5

: 475 34. Your neighbor tells you that he is concerned about his 70-year-old wife. She is at home recovering from a heart attack that occurred about 3 weeks ago. He explains that over the last few days her ankles and lower legs have been gradually swelling and are painful to touch. Today she seems to be a little short of breath. You recommend that your neighbor seek immediate medical attention because these findings are suggestive of: a. Congestive heart failure b. Tension pneumothorax c. An acute myocardial infarction d. Pericarditis

: a Objective: 15-5

: 483 17. Which of the following statements made by a patient would cause you to suspect an aortic abdominal aneurysm? a. "I have really bad belly pain that I also feel in my back." b. "My heart is beating so hard, you can feel it on my chest." c. "The pain is sharp and spreads to both arms." d. "I seem to be vomiting up some blood."

: a Objective: 15-5

: 373, 376 5. Which of the following pieces of information is assessed by the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? a. Blood glucose level b. Presence or absence of facial droop c. Duration of symptoms d. Age of the patient

: b Objective: 11-5

: 483 41. You are assessing a 38-year-old woman who is complaining of the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath. She describes the pain as sharp and states that it increases when she takes a deep breath. You note that she is breathing rapidly. Her BP is 130/82 and her pulse is 100. Based on her presentation, you suspect that she may have: a. Pulmonary embolism b. Pericardial effusion c. Unstable angina d. An aortic dissection/aneurysm

: a Objective: 15-5

: 472 8. When assisting a patient to take a nitroglycerin tablet, it is: a. Placed under the tongue. b. Swallowed with only an ounce of water. c. Chewed and then allowed to dissolve slowly. d. Placed between the cheek and teeth.

: a Objective: 15-8

: 486 9. Before nitroglycerin is administered, you should ensure that: a. Nitroglycerin is in fact prescribed for the patient. b. The patient rates his chest pain as at least 7 on a scale of 1 to 10. c. The patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 110 mmHg. d. The patient is standing.

: a Objective: 15-8

: 521 18. Dislocating a shoulder after catching a ski pole on a tree branch is an example of an injury caused by which MOI? a. Rotational injury b. Blunt injury c. Whiplash injury d. Compressive injury

: a Objective: 17-3

: 523-524 7. The term golden hour refers to the: a. Time period when patient survival rates may be enhanced if critical injuries are identified and managed. b. Amount of time you have to decide if a patient needs to be sent to a trauma hospital. c. Amount of time it takes to stop the bleeding from a penetrating injury. d. Hour before sunset, when most cases of on-hill trauma occur.

: a Objective: 17-5

: 526 13. You arrive alone at a scene at which a 16-year-old skier has collided with a tree. He is unresponsive and has blood flowing from his ears and nose. He was not wearing a helmet. Which of the following lists reflects the most appropriate care of this patient? a. Primary assessment, airway management, immobilization, transport as soon as possible b. Primary assessment, oxygen administration, rapid transport to the aid room, immobilization in the aid room c. Immobilization, transfer to a sled, completion of the assessment in the aid room d. Primary assessment, immobilization, bandaging of the ears to control bleeding, airway management

: a Objective: 17-5

: 542 10. The skin performs which of the following functions? a. Regulation of temperature b. Prevention of blood loss c. Elimination of carbon dioxide d. Dissipation of internal cold

: a Objective: 18-1

: 543 15. When assessing a patient you note a bruise on the chest. Another word for documenting a bruise is: a. Ecchymosis b. Cyanosis c. Erythematic d. Hematoma

: a Objective: 18-3

: 546 17. You respond to a patient who has an avulsion on the left arm. When you assess this patient, you would expect to find: a. A loose flap of torn skin on the left arm. b. Abraded skin with an underlying bone fracture. c. Bruised skin with a piece of bone protruding from the left arm. d. A long and deep laceration on the left arm.

: a Objective: 18-4

: 558 31. Which of the following statements about a high-pressure injection injury is false? a. The presenting wound is typically large. b. The injury involves the introduction of a liquid or gas into the body from a pressurized source. c. The injury may require surgical amputation of the injured part. d. The injury typically involves the limbs.

: a Objective: 18-4

: 551, 553 4. Severe external bleeding should be controlled during what phase of a patient assessment? a. The primary assessment b. The scene size-up c. The rapid secondary survey d. The reassessment

: a Objective: 18-5

: 553 9. You are having a difficult time controlling bleeding from a small skin avulsion on a patient's ankle. Which of the following statements made by the patient best explains why the bleeding has been so difficult to control? a. "I take Coumadin (an anticoagulant) for my irregular heartbeat." b. "My blood pressure sometimes runs a little high." c. "I take steroids for my lung disease." d. "I drank a lot of alcohol last night."

: a Objective: 18-5

: 556 39. Which of the following statements about an impaled object is true? a. The primary treatment goal in the field is to stabilize the object in the position found. b. The primary treatment in the field is to remove the object without causing further bleeding or causing as little bleeding as possible. c. OEC Technicians may remove only objects that are impaled in an extremity. d. OEC Technicians may remove objects that are impaled in the chest or abdomen.

: a Objective: 18-5

: 553-554 7. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands the application of a tourniquet? a. "A tourniquet should be applied tightly enough so that arterial blood flow distal to the tourniquet is completely stopped." b. "If the tourniquet appears to have stopped the bleeding, you should loosen it slightly to allow a small amount of blood to perfuse the tissues." c. "Arteries run close to the body's surface in a joint, so the best place to apply a tourniquet is over the joint just above the artery." d. "A tourniquet should be applied only when directed by medical control."

: a Objective: 18-6, 18-8

: 554 36. Using a very narrow material such as wire or rope for a tourniquet can cause: a. Serious tissue damage b. Inadequate pressure to control bleeding c. Worse bleeding d. Venous pooling

: a Objective: 18-8

: 581 14. Which of the following substances cause the most serious chemical burns? a. An acid with a pH of 1 b. A chemical with a pH of 7 c. An alkaline chemical or base with a pH of 8 d. An acid with a pH of 6

: a Objective: 19-1

: 610 24. The structure responsible for transmitting the force of a contracting skeletal muscle to a bone is a: a. Tendon b. Ligament c. Cartilage d. Joint

: a Objective: 20-1.1

: 615 table 20-1 16. The inside layer of a joint capsule where cells make a viscous fluid for lubricating the joint is the: a. Synovium b. Cartilage c. Callus d. Fascia

: a Objective: 20-1.1

: 613 22. A fracture of a bone will cause bleeding, and a hematoma forms around the fracture site. Over the next several weeks, this hematoma organizes into a substance called: a. A callus b. Calcium c. Cartilage d. A synovium

: a Objective: 20-1.3

: 621 8. Your secondary assessment of a patient who is complaining of pain in his right leg reveals an opening in the skin where the fractured tibia broke through the skin and retreated back into the leg. You would recognize this injury as a (n): a. Open fracture b. Closed fracture c. Laceration d. Partial fracture

: a Objective: 20-1.6

: 603 13. Displacement of the bones of a joint is known as: a. A dislocation b. A fracture c. A strain d. A sprain

: a Objective: 20-1.8

: 627 1. For a person to make a fist, which of the following must occur? a. The central nervous system must send a message through the spinal cord and then through the peripheral nerves. b. The central nervous system must send a message through the spinal cord and then through the autonomic nervous system. c. The peripheral nervous system must send a message to the brain and then back through the peripheral nervous system. d. The muscles must signal the brain to send a message through the autonomic nervous system.

: a Objective: 21-1

: 699 8. A young intoxicated male patient cannot move his lower extremities after diving into the shallow end of a pool and hitting the bottom with his head. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely to be responsible for this injury? a. Compression b. Rotation c. Distraction d. Penetration

: a Objective: 21-4

: 700 36. A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has a deformity to the left side of the head. The skin overlying the deformity is still intact. Based on these assessment findings, which of the following conditions would be your greatest concern? a. A possible brain injury b. A spinal cord injury c. The potential for infection of the brain d. Soft tissue trauma to the scalp

: a Objective: 21-4

: 705 42. A male soccer player was struck in the head with a soccer ball. Players state that he was dazed for several seconds following the impact and then asked the same questions over and over. He is currently conscious and oriented to person but is confused as to place and time. He also has a reddened area on the side of his head and face. As you proceed with your assessment, his memory continues to improve. Based on these findings, you would suspect which of the following injuries? a. A concussion/TBI b. An open head injury c. An epidural hematoma d. A cerebral contusion

: a Objective: 21-4

: 708 44. You are called to the lodge by a family who is concerned that their mother is not acting right. The family tells you that they are concerned because their mother has been complaining of a headache and is very confused today. Assessment reveals a bruise on the right side of the head that the family states she got about a week ago when she fell. Which of the following conditions would you be concerned about based on the history and assessment findings? a. A subdural hematoma b. A scalp laceration c. A concussion d. A cerebral contusion

: a Objective: 21-4

: 709 45. Which of the following findings is most consistent with a skull fracture? a. Bruising behind the ear that develops several hours after the injury b. Bilateral dilated pupils that do not respond to light c. A hematoma in the occipital area of the head d. Altered mental status

: a Objective: 21-4

: 702 30. You should recognize a possible spinal column injury with no spinal cord involvement when you discover which of the following assessment findings? a. Tenderness to the thoracic spine with intact motor and sensory function in each extremity b. Intact motor ability to all four extremities with the loss of sensation to the legs c. Pain in the cervical spine with the loss of sensation to the right arm and leg d. Intact sensation to all four extremities with the loss of motor ability in the arms

: a Objective: 21-5

: 705 40. Which of the following assessment findings is most indicative of increasing pressure within the skull from a closed head injury? a. Blood pressure of 192/82 mmHg b. Heart rate of 132 beats per minute c. Blood pressure of 110/50 d. Pupils equal and reactive

: a Objective: 21-7

: 716 14. Which of the following statements about the care and treatment of a patient with a spinal injury in a prehospital setting is true? a. Prehospital care for a patient with a spinal injury involves correcting life-threatening injuries and limiting secondary injury. b. It is important to identify the site of spinal injury so that proper prehospital care can be rendered. c. Before transporting a critically injured patient with a spinal injury, OEC Technicians must perform a detailed head-to-toe neurological assessment. d. If a patient with a possible spinal injury is in shock, it is permissible to forego immobilization because doing this uses up time during the golden hour.

: a Objective: 21-8

: 723 21. You are securing a patient to a long backboard. Which of the following lists indicates the appropriate order for securing the straps? a. Torso, pelvis, legs, head b. Head, torso, pelvis, legs c. Head, legs, torso, pelvis d. Legs, head, torso, pelvis

: a Objective: 21-9

: 745 3. Light stimulates nerve endings in which of the following structures to send signals to the brain via the optic nerves? a. Retina b. Iris c. Lachrymal glands d. Lens

: a Objective: 22-1

: 745 9. A patient who was hit in the face with a cloud of dust while working in an industrial setting is complaining of pain and discomfort to his left eye. While performing your assessment on the eye, you note some redness of the globe but do not see any obvious foreign object. The most appropriate care you can provide to this patient would be to: a. Flush eye with copious amounts of water. b. Carefully wipe the eye with a soft piece of sterile gauze. c. Gently massage the eye to promote tearing. d. Have the patient keep his eye open during transport to a medical facility.

: a Objective: 22-10

: 747 8. You are assessing a patient who was punched in the eye. You note blood in the white part of his eye. This area of the eye is known as the: a. Sclera b. Cornea c. Lens d. Retina

: a Objective: 22-2

: 762 15. A young boy was running through the lodge with a pencil and tripped. The pencil impaled the boy's left eye and remains lodged in place. Appropriate care for the eye would include: a. Stabilizing the impaled object and providing immediate transport. b. Quickly removing the pencil from the eye to prevent the loss of vision. c. Applying ice to the affected eye to decrease pressure and reduce subsequent damage. d. Applying gentle pressure to the pencil and the eye to keep the pencil from moving.

: a Objective: 22-4

: 763 20. You are on a snowmobiling trip with friends when you see members of the lead group hollering and waving their hands up ahead. When you get to the scene you note that the lead rider apparently did not see a chain across the road, and he struck the chain with his neck so forcefully that he was thrown backward off his machine. Someone in the group is maintaining manual in-line stabilization. When you assess the injured person, which of the following signs would indicate the injury that must be addressed and managed first? a. Difficulty speaking b. A laceration to the forehead c. An open fracture of the left arm d. A partially avulsed ear

: a Objective: 22-6

: 743 6. Which of the following statements concerning the eye socket or orbit is false? a. It is easy to injure the orbital bones. b. It protects the fluid-filled eyeball. c. It anchors the muscles that control voluntary eye movement. d. It is formed by the skull and facial bones.

: a Objective: 22-7

: 772 18. The thorax is enclosed by the: a. Ribs, sternum, thoracic spine, and diaphragm. b. Ribs, clavicles, diaphragm, and mediastinum. c. Thoracic vertebrae, diaphragm, mediastinum, and clavicles. d. Clavicles, sternum, diaphragm, and thoracic spine.

: a Objective: 23-1

: 772 19. The heart and lungs are located in the: a. Thoracic cavity b. Pericardial cavity c. Pleural cavity d. Mediastinum

: a Objective: 23-1

: 794 2. A patient complains of severe and sharp pain in the right shoulder when palpating the right upper abdominal quadrant. Based on this sign and location, what organ or structure is most likely involved? a. Liver b. Kidney c. Spleen d. Appendix

: a Objective: 24-1

: 802 6. The abdomen is located between the: a. Diaphragm and the pelvic brim. b. Mid-chest and the level of the umbilicus. c. Nipple line and the coccyx of the spine. d. Base of the 5th rib and the pelvic base.

: a Objective: 24-1

: 795 4. The spleen of a patient has ruptured. Because the spleen is a solid organ, you recognize that the primary threat to life is most likely: a. Blood loss b. Pain c. Infection d. Inflammation

: a Objective: 24-2

: 795 & 796 13. Blunt trauma to the upper left abdominal quadrant can injure the: a. Spleen b. Liver c. colon d. Appendix

: a Objective: 24-3

: 793 & 805 11. A crying 42-year-old woman states that she has sharp abdominal pain that she localizes to her right lower quadrant. When assessing this patient's abdomen, you would look for distention and symmetry and then: a. Start the exam by palpating the abdomen in the quadrant farthest away from the one that is painful. b. Avoid palpating the entire abdomen. c. Start the abdominal exam by palpating the right lower quadrant. d. Avoid palpating the right lower quadrant.

: a Objective: 24-4

: 805 19. In most cases, the position of comfort in abdominopelvic trauma is: a. Supine, with padding under the knees to keep them slightly bent. b. In a right recumbent position with the knees straight. c. In a left recumbent position with the back bent. d. In the Trendelenburg position.

: a Objective: 24-6

: 805 20. To prepare a patient with a pelvic fracture for transportation, you should: a. Apply a pelvic binder. b. Place the patient on a scoop stretcher in the right recumbent position. c. Place the patient in a supine position on a backboard. d. Place the patient in a seated position in a toboggan.

: a Objective: 24-7

: 816, 817 12. A young boy complains of pain in his fingers after spending several hours outside riding a sled in cold temperatures. After ensuring that he has no life-threatening conditions, you turn your attention to his hands and note that his fingers are cold and the skin is pliable to the touch. Which of the following signs or symptoms would help confirm your suspicion that he is suffering from early or superficial frostbite? a. Soft and tingling skin on the fingers b. A history of being exposed to temperatures in the 70s c. Swelling of and blisters on the fingers d. Firm and numb cold skin on the fingers

: a Objective: 25-3

: 826 31. You are with a candidate OEC Technician who is attending to snowboarder who has fallen. The candidate is very concerned that the snowboarder is shivering vigorously and asks you what this indicates. Which of the following statements would be your best response? a. Shivering is a sign of mild hypothermia. b. Shivering indicates moderate hypothermia. c. Individuals who are shivering cannot maintain their normal body temperature. d. It is good to try to get a shivering patient to stop because shivering burns energy.

: a Objective: 25-5

: 824 25. The continued drop in core body temperature after removal from exposure to the cold is known as: a. After drop b. Secondary hypothermia c. Thermoregulation d. Shock

: a Objective: 25-6

: 816, 828 8. Prevention of heat loss in the care of a patient with a cold injury should include: a. Carefully removing wet clothing b. Placing the OEC technician's jacket over the patient c. Rubbing cold extremities d. Placing the patient in a prone position

: a Objective: 25-7

: 817 5. Which of the following actions should you take to most effectively decrease a patient's heat loss due to radiation? a. Put a hat/cover on the patient's head. b. Turn off all fans in the room. c. Wipe the patient's skin down with warm water. d. Apply warm packs to the patient's chest

: a Objective: 25-7

: 830, 831 14. Which of the following instructions is most appropriate when moving a patient who has severe generalized hypothermia? a. "I want everyone to take extra care in moving her very gently to the stretcher; we do not want her to go into cardiac arrest." b. "Be careful when moving her to the stretcher; the cold makes her very prone to bone fractures." c. "Let's place her on her side on the stretcher because her body temperature contraindicates placement of a nasal airway." d. "Let's secure her with her arms and legs extended because this position promotes the retention of body heat."

: a Objective: 25-7

: 824, 830 20. Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician understands the care of a patient with a localized cold injury to the foot? a. "Warming a frozen body part can cause severe pain" b. "If the patient has blisters on his foot, it is beneficial to break them so that the fluid inside will not freeze and cause additional injury." c. "Gentle massage of the foot is beneficial because it enhances the circulation of warm blood in the affected area." d. "You should avoid immobilizing the foot because doing so will further decrease the circulation of blood in the affected area."

: a Objective: 25-8

: 827 23. After successfully rewarming a foot that has frozen toes, an OEC Technician should: a. Cover the foot and toes with dry dressings. b. Gently massage the foot and toes. c. Ambulate the patient to ensure return of adequate motor function. d. Place the foot below the level of the heart to enhance circulation.

: a Objective: 25-8

: 843 6. You are at a park with your family when you hear a call for help. There is a teenager who is "sick." On scene you find a 16-year-old boy who is mildly confused. Friends state that they have been playing basketball for most of the morning and afternoon. The temperature is in the 90s and the humidity is high. The boy's airway is patent and his breathing rate is elevated but adequate. His pulse is weak and rapid. Observation of his skin reveals it to be pale, cool, and moist. Which of the following would you do first for this patient? a. Lay him in the shade in a supine position, and elevate his feet. b. Lay him down in a side-lying position. c. Administer salt tablets by mouth every 15 minutes. d. Get some newspaper and fan him vigorously.

: a Objective: 26-3

: 853 9. Your friend, who is a landscaper, tells you that he got really sunburned at work today. He describes his torso and face as being very red, and he has blisters on his back. He asks you what to do. Based on his description, your recommendation would be to: a. Apply cool compresses and seek medical attention. b. Apply a thick layer of an aloe-based lotion on the sunburned areas. c. Take ibuprofen for the discomfort. d. Cover the sunburned areas with zinc oxide.

: a Objective: 26-3

: 900 7. Your family is planning a ski trip to a resort that is at about 10,000 feet of elevation. You suggest that you spend the first two nights of the trip at a hotel where the elevation is about 6,500 feet. When your children protest that they are in good shape and want to go immediately to the resort, you explain that you are concerned about altitude sickness and that: a. "Physical fitness does not necessarily prevent altitude sickness." b. "Just because you children are fit and don't need the gradual change doesn't mean your mom and I don't need it." c. "Your mom and I will exercise more before the trip so that maybe we can reduce the delay to one night." d. "I'll see if I can get some medication so that we don't need to stop over at the lower elevation."

: a Objective: 28-4

: 904-905 13. The most effective method for preventing high-altitude illness is to: a. Make gradual ascents. b. Maintain adequate hydration and eat a high-carbohydrate diet. c. Take medications such as Diamox. d. Avoid drinking alcohol.

: a Objective: 28-4

: 904 17. In order to assess for a key symptom of HACE, you would ask patients to: a. Walk a straight line heel to toe. b. Take a deep breath and let you know if it hurts. c. Tell you if their rings are fitting tightly. d. Read an eye chart.

: a Objective: 28-6

: 912 19. Your group of climbers has reached an elevation of 8,500 feet. One of the climbers is increasingly short of breath and now has audible chest congestion. Your party has a limited supply of oxygen, which you immediately apply to the climber at 15 LPM via a nonrebreather mask. Based on your assessment that the climber has HAPE, you recognize that the next necessary treatment is: a. A rapid descent of at least 1,500 to 3,000 feet. b. To administer diuretics such as Diamox to reduce the patient's pulmonary edema. c. To get the patient to a physician who can administer dexamethesone. d. To place the patient in the shock position.

: a Objective: 28-7

: 921 2. The distinction between dry drowning and wet drowning is based on: a. How much fluid enters the lungs. b. The amount of trauma to the laryngopharynx. c. The closing of the epiglottis. d. The pressure against the cricoid cartilage.

: a Objective: 29-1

: 925 6. Patients who die 24-72 hours after a water emergency are said to die from: a. Secondary drowning b. Near-drowning c. Drowning d. Post-drowning

: a Objective: 29-3

46. The basic unit of all living things is: a. The cell b. An organ c. A hormone d. Plasma

: a Objective: 6-1

48. In humans, the body systems interact with each other to maintain a stable internal environment. An example of this is the nervous system, which works with the cardiovascular system to maintain a steady blood pressure. The ability of an organism to adjust its physiologic processes to maintain a relatively stable internal environment is known as: a. Homeostasis b. Electrophysiology c. Metabolism d. Compensatory auto-regulation

: a Objective: 6-1

50. Of the following responses, the best answer to the question, "What is a tissue?" is: a. "A collection of cells acting together to perform a specific function in the body." b. "The basic unit of all living things." c. "A structure that removes extra fluid from cells." d. "The site where minerals are stored and blood cells are made."

: a Objective: 6-1

42. The term used to describe the action of taking an extremity away from the midline of the body is: a. Abduction b. Flexion c. Adduction d. Extension

: a Objective: 6-2

24. The pressure exerted on the inside walls of arteries when the left ventricle contracts is called: a. Systolic pressure b. contraction pressure c. Diastolic pressure d. ventricle pressure

: a Objective: 6-5

32. A patient has suffered a burn to the skin. Based on the functions of the skin, to which of the following conditions is the patient most susceptible? a. Infection b. Fluid overload c. Heart problems d. Endocrine disorders

: a Objective: 6-5

33. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system? a. Producing blood cells b. Securing the abdominal organs in place c. Providing structure to blood vessels d. Preventing the body from infection

: a Objective: 6-5

37. Which of the following statements regarding the integumentary system is true? a. The skin protects the body against bacteria and other pathogens. b. The skin contains four layers: the epidermal, dermal, subcutaneous, and nerve layers. c. The epidermis is the thickest and most important layer of the skin. d. The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the skin and contains sensory nerves.

: a Objective: 6-5

52. You arrive at an accident scene and find a patient lying on the ground with her right arm straight out to the side (at a 90-degree angle to her body). You ask her if she is able to pull the arm toward her body, but she cannot. You would document this as an inability to __________ her right arm. a. Adduct b. Abduct c. Hyperflex d. Hyperextend

: a Objective: 6-7

5. You have been dispatched for an elderly male complaining of shortness of breath. When should you start the process of forming a general impression about this patient? a. While you and your partner are approaching him b. After completing a primary assessment c. As soon as you obtain his chief complaint d. After you have taken his vital signs

: a Objective: 7-1

29. Which of the following responses is an appropriate response for the letter P in the OPQRST mnemonic for a patient with abdominal pain? a. "It hurts worse when I take a deep breath." b. "My pulse feels as though it is racing." c. "I have a past history of asthma." d. "I ate pizza about two hours ago."

: a Objective: 7-10

10. You are by the side of a patient who is unresponsive and has a history of heart failure. When assessing the airway, which one of the following observations best indicates an open airway? a. You can hear normal respirations and see the chest rise and fall. b. She has a pulse of 80 per minute. c. Her mouth is open and you can hear gurgling sounds. d. You can see that her tongue has fallen back where it appears to be blocking the airway.

: a Objective: 7-4

11. You are assisting at an Outdoor Emergency Care course. One of the students asks you how the head tilt-chin lift airway maneuver works to open the airway. Your best response is: a. "It opens the airway by lifting the tongue from the back of the throat." b. "It creates an open airway by separating the lips, thereby allowing air to enter." c. "It stimulates the patient to begin taking deeper breaths, thereby moving air into the lungs." d. "It opens the airway by relaxing and expanding the size of the throat."

: a Objective: 7-4

4. You arrive at the scene of a fall, where a 42-year-old woman fell backward off a stepladder while cleaning windows. She is lying on the ground complaining of pain to her ankle. She tells you, "If I had just been more careful and moved the ladder instead of reaching, this never would have happened!" Based on this information, which of the following can you conclude? a. She has an open airway, is breathing, and has circulating blood to her brain. b. Her pulse rate is within normal limits. c. She does not require rapid transport. d. She does not have any other injuries.

: a Objective: 7-4

51. A primary assessment should take about how long? a. 30-60 seconds b. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes

: a Objective: 7-4

13. A secondary assessment consists of which of the following three steps? a. SAMPLE, physical exam, and vital signs b. Applying an AICD, the on-going exam, and vital signs c. Medical history, trauma exam, and vital signs d. The on-going exam, detailed physical exam, and vital signs

: a Objective: 7-5

24. A complete set of vitals is taken at the: a. Beginning and end of the secondary assessment. b. Beginning of the secondary assessment. c. End of the secondary assessment. d. End of the primary assessment.

: a Objective: 7-5

32. Which of the following actions should you take during a secondary assessment of a 45-year-old female with a severe headache? a. Assess from head to toe, obtain a SAMPLE history, and obtain vital signs b. Reassess vital signs, open the airway, and obtain OPQRST information c. Continue emergency care, obtain the chief complaint, and gather a SAMPLE history d. Assess the head, reevaluate vital signs, and continue emergency care

: a Objective: 7-5

41. Which of the following findings is a sign, not a symptom? a. An open leg fracture b. An upset stomach c. A sharp headache d. Chest pain

: a Objective: 7-6

21. A 44-year-old male was on a ladder cutting limbs from a tree when he fell. He is found to be unresponsive with normal respirations. His breathing is adequate at a rate of 12 per minute and his carotid pulse is strong at 88 per minute. Following the primary assessment and initial management, which one of the following actions will the OEC Technician complete while performing the secondary assessment? a. Get a medical history from a family member. b. Start positive pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask. c. Place an oral airway and put a cervical collar on the patient. d. Perform a jaw-thrust maneuver to open the airway.

: a Objective: 7-7

23. When monitoring a patient receiving oxygen through a nasal cannula, which of the following observations warrants immediate intervention? a. An oxygen flow rate of 15 LPM b. Prongs in the nostrils that curve posteriorly into the nose c. Tubing that is positioned over the ears and under the chin d. Normal patient breathing while the nasal cannula is in place

: a Objective: 9- 10

9. Which of the following statements describes the correct positioning of a BVM on an adult patient's face? a. The narrow part of the mask is over the bridge of the nose, and the bottom part is in the. Groove between the lower lip and chin. b. If two rescuers are using the BVM, the mask need only be placed over the mouth while the nose is pinched closed. c. The wide portion of the mask is at the top of the nose, and the narrow part is below the lower lip. d. The mask is properly positioned when the top portion lies over the bridge of the nose, and the lower portion is below the chin.

: a Objective: 9- 10

: 299-300 34. You have been asked to put a patient on a nonrebreather mask at 15 LPM. After you have finished attaching the regulator to the oxygen cylinder, your next step is to: a. Turn the valve stem on the top of the cylinder using a special oxygen wrench or key. b. Attach the nonrebreather mask to the regulator and fill the reservoir. c. Turn the oxygen control knob to 15 LPM. d. Check the pressure gauge indicator to determine how much pressure is in the cylinder.

: a Objective: 9- 10

: 305-306 36. You hear a candidate OEC Technician explaining the use of a barrier device to another candidate. Which of the following statements would indicate that he fully understands its purpose or how to use it? a. "When ventilating a patient with a barrier device, watch for the rise and fall of the patient's chest." b. "A barrier device cannot be used as personal protective equipment." c. "A barrier device will keep the tongue from blocking the airway" d. "It is important to prefill the oxygen reservoir prior to using the barrier device"

: a Objective: 9- 10

28. You have opened and cleared your unresponsive patient's airway and there is no evidence of head or spinal injury. While waiting for other equipment or personnel, the easiest way to maintain this state and ensure adequate breathing is to put this patient into the recovery position. Which of the following best describe this position? a. Place the patient onto his left side b. Place the patient with his head down and feet up c. Place the patient onto his back d. Place the patient into a semi seated position

: a Objective: 9- 4

2. Which of the following patients has an actual or potential critical occlusion of the upper airway? a. 3-year-old with a fever and swelling of the larynx b. 45-year-old with spasm of the bronchioles c. 61-year-old with a severe cough d. 78-year-old with a mucus plug in a right bronchioles

: a Objective: 9-1

3. Your patient has just had a seizure and is presenting with snoring respirations. You will open her airway with the head tilt - chin lift method. Which option correctly describes this method? a. Place on hand on the forehead and one hand on the boney part of the lower jaw b. Place one hand on the forehead and one hand in the mouth c. Place one hand on the forehead and one hand under the back of the neck d. Place your fingers under the angles of the jaw

: a Objective: 9-2

7. You are correctly performing the jaw-thrust maneuver when you: a. Use the thumbs or fingers as a lever to lift the patient's mandible forward. b. Maintain the patient's head in a neutral position and tilt the head slightly backward. c. Open the patient's airway by slightly pushing down on the forehead and thrusting the jaw upward. d. Place one hand on the patient's forehead and lift the jaw upward with the other hand by inserting the thumb in the mouth.

: a Objective: 9-2

13. You are observing a rescuer insert an oropharyngeal airway into the airway of a 36-year-old male who has overdosed. Which one of the following observations indicates correct technique? a. The rescuer inserts the airway into the patient's mouth with the tip pointed towards the roof of the mouth and then turns it 180 degrees once it is halfway in the mouth. b. The rescuer inserts the airway into the patient's mouth with the tip pointed towards the roof of the mouth and then turns it 90 degrees. c. The rescuer inserts the airway with the tip pointed towards the tongue until the flange of the airway is 1 cm above the patient's lips. d. The rescuer inserts the airway sideways into the mouth and then rotates it 180 degrees once it has reached the base of the tongue.

: a Objective: 9-6

: 389 6. The speed at which a toxin is distributed in the body is affected by: a. The heart rate b. Body mass c. The respiratory rate d. Urination

: a Objective: 12-1

: 365 1. Which of the following statements regarding poisonings is true? a. A poison is any substance that causes harmful effects when introduced into the body. b. A toxin is poison produced by minerals. c. Majorities of poisonings are intentional and result in homicide or suicide. d. The number-one cause of poisoning in the United States is from taking to much.

: a Objective: 12-3

: 389 7. A 15-year-old admits to taking "a bunch" of extra strength Tylenol tablets. Her mother states it's nothing to worry about because it was just Tylenol. Based on your training you recognize that this ingestion could have serious consequences. It is because toxic amounts acetaminophen can cause irreversible: a. Liver damage b. Stomach damage c. Brain damage d. Hearing damage

: a Objective: 12-5

: 390 16. A patient in the third day of withdrawal from alcohol could develop all of the following conditions except: a. Rash b. Seizure activity c. Hallucinations d. Muscle tremors

: a Objective: 12-5

: 392, 396 14. Agitation, elevated heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are signs of intoxication with which of the following types of substances? a. Cocaine and hallucinogens b. Antipsychotics and carbon monoxide c. Inhalants and sleeping pills d. Alcohol and ethylene glycol

: a Objective: 12-5

: 394, 397 10. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands inhalation poisonings? a. "They can occur from inhaling common household products." b. "They affect the lungs only and do not circulate systemically." c. "An inhalation emergency cannot be occurring if you don't smell anything." d. "Most inhalation poisonings are easily identifiable by a residue around the mouth."

: a Objective: 12-5

: 401 21. The mnemonic DUMBELS and the acronym SLUDGE can help identify specific signs and symptoms associated with: a. Exposure to nerve agents b. Ingestion of ethylene glycol c. Ingestion of LSD d. Overdoses of antipsychotic drugs

: a Objective: 12-5

: 416 10. Involuntary breathing is controlled by: a. The amount of carbon dioxide dissolved in the blood. b. A conscious effort of inspiration. c. The amount of oxygen dissolved in the blood. d. Tissue hypoxia.

: a Objective: 13-5

: 476 3. You have been called to treat a 47-year-old man complaining of chest pain. He is alert, oriented, and complaining of pain in his chest that came on suddenly about 15 minutes ago. His skin is sweaty and cool. Which of the following actions should you take first? a. Apply oxygen at 15 LPM through a nonrebreather mask. b. Begin CPR. c. Help him administer his nitroglycerin. d. Obtain a SAMPLE history.

: a Objective: 15-8

: 522 19. Your patient is a skier who tells you that she "caught an edge and twisted her leg. You later find out that the skier suffered from a fractured tibia and fibula. This injury was the result of which mechanism: a. Rotational b. Blunt c. Crush d. Penetration

: a Objective: 17-3

: 589-590 4. Which of the following sentences best describes a partial-thickness burn? a. The skin is red and moist, and blisters have formed. b. The skin is charred or blackened and lacks sensation. c. The skin is red, but dry, no blisters formed and painful. d. The skin is white and dry with no sensation of pain.

: a Objective: 19-2

: 582 12. Exposure to direct or alternating electrical current produces severe external AND internal burn injuries because: a. The skin is a poor conductor with a high resistance, and blood vessels are good conductors with low resistance. b. Both the skin and blood vessels are good conductors with low resistance. c. The skin is a good conductor with a high resistance, and blood vessels are good conductors with low resistance. d. Skin is a poor conductor with a low resistance, and blood vessels are good conductors with low resistance.

: a Objective: 19-3

: 583 18. According to the Rule of Nines, the percentages of total body surface area that are taken up by the heads (front and back) of adults and children are: a. 9 percent and 18 percent, respectively b. 4.5 percent and 9 percent, respectively c. 18 percent and 36 percent, respectively d. The same

: a Objective: 19-6

: 927 9. Decompression sickness can cause: a. Swelling of the vocal cords b. Severe muscle and joint pain c. Swelling of the tongue d. Swelling of the cricoid cartilage

: b Objective: 29-7

: 586 5. Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who was exposed to a dry chemical powder and is complaining of severe pain at the site of contact on both of his hands. There is no decontamination shower on site. Which of the following actions would be the best way to manage this situation? a. Brush away as much of the powder as possible and then have the patient hold his hands under running water from a faucet or garden hose. b. Have the fire department connect to a hydrant and spray the patient down from head to toe. c. Brush away as much powder as possible and then pour a bottle of sterile saline solution over the patient's hands. d. Brush away the powder and then bandage the patient's hands in a position of function.

: a Objective: 19-7

: 591 21. In treating a burn patient, you should cool and irrigate the burned tissue with: a. Room-temperature tap water for 15 minutes. b. Chilled tap water for 5 minutes. c. Tap water warmed to 102 degrees F for 15 minutes. d. Tap water warmed to 95 degrees F for 10 minutes.

: a Objective: 19-7

: 594 1. The type of muscle found in the forearm is: a. Skeletal muscle b. Smooth muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. Contractor muscle

: a Objective: 20-1.1

: 606 17. Joints provide different degrees of movement. There are five different types of joints. An example of a "pivot" joints is the: a. Radioulnar joint of the elbow. b. Vertebrae of the spine. c. Acromio-clavicular joint of the shoulder. d. Knee.

: a Objective: 20-1.1

: 609 25. While you are putting wood into your wood stove, your hand comes in contact with the hot surface. Your body responds by pulling your hand away from the heat. How is this action accomplished? a. One or more skeletal muscles receive a signal from the brain to contract. b. The smooth muscles in the arm automatically respond to heat. c. You use conscious thought to pull your hand from the heat. d. Extension of the ligaments in the elbow joint pulls the lower arm up.

: a Objective: 20-1.2

: 607 4. Which of the following statements about musculoskeletal injuries is true? a. A sprain is an injury to a joint that involves the stretching or tearing of ligaments. b. Strains are injuries that occur to ligaments and to the joints to which they are attached. c. A fracture occurs when a tendon connecting a muscle to a bone is overstretched and becomes injured. d. A dislocation occurs when a bone that forms part of a joint is broken.

: a Objective: 20-1.4

: 665 7. Your patient was struck in the right upper arm with a baseball bat. Which of the following signs or symptoms indicates the highest probability that the humerus has been fractured? a. Feeling or hearing bone ends moving on palpation b. Pain in the right upper arm c. Swelling in the upper arm d. Decreased sensation in the right hand

: a Objective: 20-2.2 note table

: 613 30. A common injury to the carpal bones among snowboarders who fall forward on an outstretched hand is a fractured: a. Scaphoid b. Ulna c. Radius d. Thumb

: a Objective: 20-2.3

: 855 1. You are teaching a basic OEC class and need to explain toxins. Which of the following statements is the best description of a toxin? a. It is a poison made by a living creature, including plants and animals. b. It is a poison that comes from a chemical. c. It is a usually transmitted by a bite or a sting. d. It is anything ingested that causes an anaphylactic reaction.

: a Objective: 27-1

: 868 6. A specific toxin or poisonous secretion of an animal that is usually transmitted by a bite or sting is known as: a. Venom b. Antigen. c. Bullae d. Nettle

: a Objective: 27-1

: 888 22. Your neighbor has been cleaning up the wooded area around his yard and burning brush and weeds. He tells you that he is trying to rid the area of poison ivy. You recognize that his actions could: a. Cause significant respiratory problems for anyone exposed to the smoke. b. Encourage the poison ivy to grow into any area where the smoke travels. c. Temporarily solve his problem but will not permanently kill the poison ivy. d. Be a great solution that you should use around your house.

: a Objective: 27-3

: 862 10. A spider bite that can resemble a "bull's-eye target" is most often caused by a: a. Black widow spider b. Brown recluse spider c. Hobo spider d. Funnel web spider

: a Objective: 27-4

: 874 13. Which of the following signs and symptoms is not a characteristic of a bee, wasp, or hornet sting? a. Nausea and vomiting b. Joint aching c. Pain d. Swelling

: a Objective: 27-4

: 878 17. The phrase "red on yellow, kill a fellow; red on black, venom lack" is helpful in identifying which of the following kind of poisonous snakes? a. Coral snakes b. Rattlesnakes c. Pit vipers d. Copperheads

: a Objective: 27-4

: 879, 880 19. Marine life can cause varying degrees of injury and illness. Which of the following marine creatures can cause respiratory failure and cardiovascular collapse in humans? a. Jellyfish b. Spiny fish c. Biting fish d. Moray eels

: a Objective: 27-4

: 889 26. When caring for someone who has been attacked by a large animal such as a moose or bear, you should assume that: a. The potential for spinal injury exists. b. The animal probably has rabies or it would not have attacked. c. Unless there is a bite, there is no potential for infection. d. Bleeding from claw injuries is the most dangerous injury.

: a Objective: 27-5

: 903-904 2. A patient at a mountain ski resort has notable shortness of breath. She denies any past medical history and takes no medications. After applying oxygen, you realize that the fundamental treatment to helping this patient improve is to: a. Descend to a lower altitude. b. Administer a respiratory medication by a metered-dose inhaler. c. Position her in a left lateral recumbent position. d. Place her in a supine position with her legs elevated.

: a Objective: 28-7

: 969 7. You are caring for a 2-year-old girl whose mother reports that the child has been ill for two days. It is important to remember that children in this age group generally: a. Are fearful of strangers b. Readily tolerate separation from their caregivers c. Prefer to be addressed through their caregivers d. Will be cooperative during your exam

: a Objective: 30-2

40. Which of the following systems is not a body system? a. The endocrine system b. The thoracic system c. The skeletal system d. The respiratory system

: b Objective: 6-1

29. Your patrol director has asked you to check the oxygen tanks and let her know how long they will last at an accident. To calculate this information you would use which of the following formulas? a. (Gauge pressure in psi minus safe residual pressure) times cylinder size constant divided by flow rate in LPM b. (Flow rate in LPM divided by cylinder size) times gauge pressure c. (Gauge pressure divided by flow rate) minus safe residual pressure d. (Cylinder size minus safe residual pressure in psi) times flow rate in LPM

: a Objective: 9- 7

: 553 35. Which of the following statements about the use of a tourniquet is true? a. It should be placed as distal as possible but at least several inches proximal to the wound. b. It can be used on most any part of the body except the neck. c. On an arm or leg, it should be placed 1 inch from either the elbow or knee. d. Tourniquets are a last resort and should be used rarely, if ever.

: a d is correct also change d to a tourniquet needs to be less than 1 inch wide, so the tissue under it is not compromised Objective: 18-8

: 527 12. After determining the mechanism of injury, you are able to form an initial impression of what could be injured and how bad the injury might be. This is called: a. Kinematics b. Index of suspicion c. Multi - system trauma assessment d. Kinetic energy

: b Objective 17-1

: 332-334 25. The degree to which hemoglobin has bound to oxygen is called: a. Deoxyhemoglobin saturation b. Oxygen saturation c. Hematocrit d. Oxygen capacity

: b Objective: 10-3

: 335 18. You are reassessing a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the chest. Which one of the following reassessment findings best indicates that the patient is deteriorating and is in the decompensating phase of shock? a. Strong pulse of 96 beats per minute b. Blood pressure of 88/50 c. Blood oozing from an abdominal laceration d. Skin that is cool and dry

: b Objective: 10-5

: 336-343 5. Which of the following statements made by a patient's family member would lead you to suspect that the patient is suffering from hypovolemic shock? a. "He has had a rash for the past three days." b. "He cannot stop throwing up." c. "He has been taking an antibiotic for a chest cold." d. "He got up this morning and was having hard time breathing."

: b Objective: 10-6

: 342 8. A patient in shock with abdominal pain indicates he noticed lots of blood in the toilet after having a bowel movement this morning. You would recognize the possibility of what type of shock? a. Septic b. Hypovolemic c. Hypoxic d. Obstructive

: b Objective: 10-6

: 333 26. A Factor that does not affect the body's ability to compensate for shock is: a. The lack of injury or illness b. Mental health and mind altering substances c. Preexisting medical conditions d. Body Temperature

: b Objective: 10-7

: 345 29. Which of the following factors must be kept in mind when considering the severity of external bleeding? a. Signs of shock do not appear until a large amount of blood is lost. b. A person in poor health cannot tolerate the same amount of blood loss as a healthier person. c. The amount of blood loss is easily estimated by the amount of blood visible on the snow. d. Children show signs of shock much more quickly than do adults.

: b Objective: 10-7

: 331-334 12. When performing a primary assessment, one of the first signs that the body may be in shock is: a. Skin that is warm and diaphoretic b. Tachycardia c. Hypertension d. A slowed respiratory rate

: b Objective: 10-8

: 361, 378 29. In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the O stands for: a. Osteosarcoma and oxygen b. Oxygen and overdose c. Overdose and oliguria d. Overdose and otitis

: b Objective: 11-2

: 361, 379 31. In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the T stands for: a. Thyroiditis and thrombophlebitis b. Trauma and tumors c. Thrombophlebitis and tinnitus d. Trauma and thrombophlebitis

: b Objective: 11-2

: 361, 380 34. In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the S stands for: a. Steroids, seizure, and sinusitis b. Seizure, stroke, and syncope c. Sjogren's syndrome, seizure, and sinusitis d. Sickle cell anemia, Sjogren's syndrome, and steroids

: b Objective: 11-2

: 363 27. In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the A stands for: a. ADHD and alcohol b. Alcohol and acidosis c. Acidosis and anemia d. Abscess and acidosis

: b Objective: 11-2

: 358 36. The primary problem in Type II diabetes is that: a. Sugars cannot be easily digested in the stomach and small intestine. b. Cells exhibit resistance to insulin preventing glucose from entering the cells. c. Insufficient insulin is produced. d. Too much insulin is produced.

: b Objective: 11-3

: 369 39. Glucose: a. Assists the pancreas in the manufacture of insulin. b. Is an energy source for brain cells and other cells in the body? c. Is an essential building block for body tissues such as muscle and bone? d. Allows the body to use insulin.

: b Objective: 11-3

: 364 21. When performing a secondary assessment on a confused patient, which of the following signs is most suggestive of a seizure? a. Right sided facial droop b. A bitten tongue c. Pinpoint pupils d. A slow heart rate

: b Objective: 11-4

: 365 24. Some patients experience a premonition indicating a seizure is about to happen known as a (n): a. Syncopal stage b. Aura c. Colonic phase d. Postictal state

: b Objective: 11-4

: 376 16. You have been called for a seizure emergency. You find an adult female actively seizing with a bystander attempting to place a spoon between her teeth. The bystander tells you that he is trying to keep the person from biting her tongue. Which one of the following would be an appropriate response? a. Tell the bystander to continue trying to get the spoon in place. b. Ask the bystander to discontinue his efforts and then turn the patient onto her side to facilitate the drainage of oral secretions. c. Instruct the bystander to restrain the patient while you put the spoon in place. d. Tell the bystander that a padded tongue blade works better.

: b Objective: 11-4

: 370 11. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands hemorrhagic strokes? a. "They occur when clots form in blood vessels in the brain." b. "They occur when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures." c. "Their signs and symptoms generally resolve within 24 hours." d. "They can sometimes be treated by clot-destroying medications."

: b Objective: 11-5

: 374 4. Which of the following questions is critical for establishing a window of treatment for a patient who is weak and dizzy and may have suffered a stroke? a. "Does your father have a history of heart problems or stroke?" b. "What time did the weakness and dizziness start?" c. "What medications do you take?" d. "Do you have any pain in your arms or legs?"

: b Objective: 11-5

: 375 7. Which of the following statements shows that the speaker has an accurate understanding of assessment findings related to stroke? a. "For a stroke to be suspected, both arms must be equally weak." b. "If one arm is weak, a stroke should be suspected." c. "A stroke should be suspected only when one arm is paralyzed, not just weak." d. "If one arm is weak, stroke should be suspected only if the patient's blood pressure is also elevated."

: b Objective: 11-5

: 412 15. You and your OEC candidate are evaluating a 67-year-old patient with respiratory distress. You tell the candidate to document that the patient complains of dyspnea. The candidate asks you what "dyspnea" means. You explain that dyspnea is: a. A term that describes a patient who is in respiratory distress. b. a subjective term that means difficulty breathing c. A term that describes your objective assessment of a patient's difficulty in breathing. d. Another term for tachypnea.

: b Objective: 13-1

: 417 21. A 30-year-old male arrives in the aid room complaining of shortness of breath. Which of the following actions would you perform first? a. Ask him if he has an inhaler b. Assess the adequacy of his breathing c. Determine the cause of his shortness of breath d. Check his pulse oximetry

: b Objective: 13-10

: 418 29. You are called to assist a 16-year-old female who is reportedly having trouble breathing. Your assessment reveals an anxious female with rapid respirations who is complaining of pins and needles around her lips. Based on your training you suspect that: a. She is close to respiratory failure. b. These findings will disappear if she slows her rate of breathing because she is most likely hyperventilating. c. Having her lie down with her feet elevated 8-12 inches will relieve the pins and needles. d. She is having an allergic reaction and should be treated with an epi-pen.

: b Objective: 13-10

: 410 12. Which of the following conditions is responsible for a finding of wheezing accompanying shortness of breath? a. Significant hypoxia b. Bronchiole constriction c. Swelling in the throat d. Mucus in the lungs

: b Objective: 13-6

: 411 17. Which of the following signs would you recognize as an early sign of respiratory distress in a 7-year-old boy who complains of difficulty breathing? a. Barrel chest b. Nasal flaring c. Tremors of his hands d. Ecchymosis on his chest

: b Objective: 13-6

: 413 13. The normal range for respiratory rate in children is: a. 5-10 breaths per minute b. 15-20 breaths per minute c. 25-40 breaths per minute d. 40-45 breaths per minute

: b Objective: 13-7

: 418 7. During a scene size-up, which of the following observations most strongly suggests that your adult patient is suffering from an acute respiratory emergency? a. The patient is holding a metered-dose inhaler. b. The patient is in the tripod position. c. The patient's respiratory rate is 20. d. The patient's hands are trembling.

: b Objective: 13-8

: 418 18. You are having a hard time getting the medical history of a patient who is short of breath. Which one of the following pieces of information would lead you to believe that the patient has a history of a chronic lung disease such as chronic emphysema? a. She takes one aspirin every day b. Her chest is barrel shaped c. Her respirations are tachypneic d. She has a frequent cough

: b Objective: 13-9

: 418 22. You are in the cafeteria and suddenly hear someone calling for help because her friend is choking. Which of the following signs would tell you that you need to intervene immediately? a. The patient appears frightened b. The patient cannot speak c. The patient was eating steak d. The patient says she has a bone stuck in her throat

: b Objective: 13-9

: 418 28. You are assessing a 24-year-old skier who is anxious, wheezing, and complaining of shortness of breath. She tells you that this sometimes happens when she is exercising. Her respirations are rapid and shallow. Based on this information, you suspect the patient is suffering from: a. Hyperventilation syndrome b. Asthma c. Crepitus d. Pneumothorax

: b Objective: 13-9

: 436 18. A patient can have an allergic reaction caused by intramuscular administration of a medication. This method by which an allergen enters the body is called: a. Inhalation b. Injection c. Ingestion d. Topical

: b Objective: 14-1

: 437 20. Which of the following statements concerning allergies is true? a. Allergies affect young healthy individuals only. b. An allergic reaction to a substance can occur minutes, or hours, after exposure to the substance. c. Once hypersensitized to a substance, a given individual will experience allergic reactions to that substance randomly, not consistently. d. Anaphylaxis is the mildest type of allergic reaction.

: b Objective: 14-1

: 444-445 16. An acquired, abnormal immune response to a substance that does not normally cause an allergic reaction is known as: a. Syncopal episode b. An allergy c. An allergen d. An antigen

: b Objective: 14-1

: 444 4. The patient has swollen lips and hives. Which of the following scene size-up observations supports your suspicion that the patient is having an allergic reaction? a. He has a glucometer among his belongings. b. He has a new container of antibiotics with only two pills missing. c. He states that several members of his family have the flu. d. He has a bottle of expired nitroglycerin tablets.

: b Objective: 14-3

: 439, 444 2. A patient who is responsive only to painful stimuli is covered with hives. He has labored respirations and a weak and tachycardic pulse. His vital signs are pulse 128, respirations 24, and blood pressure 80/50 mmHg. Given this presentation, you would suspect: a. Pulmonary embolism b. An anaphylactic reaction. c. A stroke. d. A head injury.

: b Objective: 14-4

: 475 16. You have just arrived with an AED at a scene where fellow OEC Technicians are treating a patient in cardiac arrest. EMS has been contacted and is about 1 minute away. Which of the following actions should you take? a. Let the OEC Technicians continue CPR and wait for ALS. b. Apply and use the AED. c. Help count compressions. d. Go outside to direct ALS when they arrive.

: b Objective: 15-10

: 472, 476 42. After jogging with your friend for about 30 minutes, she stops and asks why your heart rate increases and your heart feels like it is pumping harder after you exercise for a while. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, your best response would be which of the following statements? a. "You're out of shape. Those things wouldn't happen if you exercised more." b. "Exercise makes your body need more nutrients and oxygen; your heart pumps harder and faster to deliver more blood containing those things to your muscles." c. "When you exercise, your blood pressure increases, so your heart has to work harder to overcome the higher blood pressure." d. "Exercise pushes more blood into your heart, so your heart has to work harder and faster to pump the blood out so you don't go into heart failure."

: b Objective: 15-2

: 459 26. The left side of the heart: a. Receives poorly oxygenated blood from the body. b. Pumps oxygenated blood to the body. c. Contains the pulmonic and tricuspid valves. d. Pumps poorly oxygenated blood to the lungs.

: b Objective: 15-3

: 475 19. Blood in the right ventricle is pumped into the: a. Left ventricle. b. Pulmonary artery. c. Left atrium. d. Aorta.

: b Objective: 15-3

: 464 29. You are preparing to teach a class on hypertension. Which of the following statements provides incorrect information that you would not include in your presentation? a. Hypertension is defined as a blood pressure with a systolic reading greater than 140 or a diastolic reading greater than 90. b. There are no known treatable risk factors for hypertension. c. The increased pressure in hypertension damages small arteries in many of the body's organs. d. Hypertension results from the restriction of blood flow when the internal diameter of small arterioles is reduced by atherosclerosis or other factors.

: b Objective: 15-4

: 474 5. A patient with chest pain informs you that he has a bad heart. You think he may have congestive heart failure. When performing your secondary assessment, which of the following signs or symptoms does not indicate that the patient is in congestive heart failure? a. Swollen ankles b. Bradycardia c. Bubbling breathing noises d. Shortness of breath

: b Objective: 15-5

: 475 33. A 62-year-old man presents with a complaint of abdominal pain radiating to his groin. He also complains of dizziness. On examination, his abdomen is tender and you feel a large pulsating mass. His signs and symptoms are suggestive of: a. Acute embolism. b. An abdominal aortic aneurysm c. A ruptured spleen d. Cardiogenic shock

: b Objective: 15-5

: 485 14. Which of the following signs or symptoms is suggestive of right-sided congestive heart failure? a. Elevated blood pressure b. Edema in the legs and feet c. A bounding pulse d. An irregular heart rate

: b Objective: 15-5

: 475 18. You are assessing a 68-year-old man who is complaining of severe abdominal pain that radiates to his back. He tells you that he has a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Based on this history and his complaints, on your physical exam you would look for: a. Bruising on his abdomen. b. A pulsating mass in his abdomen. c. Blood pressure that is higher in one arm than in the other. d. Abdominal pain that is relieved when you place the patient on his side.

: b Objective: 15-7

: 486 12. Which of the following actions is most important before assisting a patient to take prescribed nitroglycerin? a. Determine whether the patient has any allergies. b. Evaluate the patient's blood pressure. c. Determine whether the patient has a headache. d. Attach the patient to an AED.

: b Objective: 15-8

: 464 2. You are called to assist a 62-year-old female who is complaining of fatigue, jaw discomfort, and excessive sweating. When asked, she denies having chest pain or shortness of breath. She tells you that she has a history of hypertension and takes a blood pressure pill. She also has nitroglycerin. Which statement is inappropriate for this event? a. "I am not going to attach the AED because she is conscious and has a pulse." b. "She is not short of breath, so we don't need to transport her." c. "I am going to call for ALS because she could be having a cardiac event." d. "I am going to check her blood pressure."

: b Objective: 15-8 depends on book edition David

: 481 39. Three commonly used cardiac medications are: a. Plavix, Nitroglycerine, and Albuterol b. Nitroglycerine, Coumadin, and Lasix c. Lipitor, Dilantin, and Tenormin d. Coumadin, Zesteril, and an Epi-pen

: b Objective: 15-9

: 522 23. High-velocity penetrating, an injury is usually the result of: a. The collision of cars traveling at greater than 65 mph b. The impact of a bullet from a high-powered rifle c. An out-of-control skier hitting another skier d. Stab wounds

: b Objective: 17-2

: 530 - 532 22. High-velocity injuries and low-velocity injuries are two types of which mechanism of injury? a. Blunt trauma b. Penetrating injury c. Blast injury d. Closed trauma

: b Objective: 17-2

: 521 2. A patient involved in an altercation was struck in the ribs with a baseball bat. Your assessment reveals intact skin with significant bruising to the right lateral chest. When palpating this area you note instability and crepitus to the rib cage. An OEC Technician would recognize a: a. Thoracic injury caused by penetrating trauma. b. Chest injury caused by blunt trauma. c. Pulmonary injury caused by penetrating trauma. d. Chest wall injury caused by acceleration forces.

: b Objective: 17-3

: 521 6. You are called to the vehicle maintenance department on the mountain, where a fairly large explosion has occurred. The first injured person you talk to tells you that he is having excruciating ear pain. You recognize that his ear pain may be caused by: a. A crush injury b. A blast injury c. A penetrating injury d. A blunt injury

: b Objective: 17-3

: 532 5. Your friends are discussing a hunting accident they heard about on the news. A hunter was shot with a high-powered rifle, and the report indicated that he had damage to several internal organs. From your knowledge of mechanisms of injury, you can tell your friends that this type of injury is called a: a. High-impact injury b. High-velocity penetrating injury c. Projectile injury d. Blast injury

: b Objective: 17-3

: 527 11. Trauma centers are specifically designed to: a. Provide training to physicians who will work with trauma patients. b. Manage patients with multi-system trauma. c. Encourage patients with less urgent injuries to use lower-level facilities. d. Be testing areas for physicians who wish to be "board certified" as trauma surgeons.

: b Objective: 17-4

: 519 4. A 23-year-old skier falls about 20 feet from the chairlift. Aside from his complaints of soreness, you don't see any obvious injuries. The skier states that as long as his legs aren't broken, he's going to continue skiing. Which of the following statements would be your best response to him? a. "Since this happened at a ski area you should get evaluated. You may be able to sue." b. "From a fall of that height, you may have some injuries. You really should be examined." c. "Since you did not lose responsiveness, it's probably OK to go back to skiing. If your legs start to hurt, you should probably get checked." d. "You may feel OK now, but you will probably be sore later. You should go to the hospital and get some pain medication."

: b Objective: 17-5

: 542 30. Which of the following statements about impaled objects not affecting the airway is true? a. Allow only the patient to pull the impaled object out because that will hurt less. b. The impaled object should be left in place during transport. c. A wound made by an impaled object always bleeds profusely. d. An impaled object never causes serious underlying tissue damage.

: b Objective: 18-4

: 549 33. A patient has been stabbed in the chest with a 6-inch-long ice pick. When you assess the wound, you find it to be very small and insignificant in appearance, with minimal bleeding. Which of the following assumptions can you correctly make about this injury? a. The wound is most likely superficial. b. Damage to the underlying structures is likely. c. Not enough information is available to make any assumptions. d. Because the entrance wound is small, severe bleeding is highly unlikely.

: b Objective: 18-4

: 561 27. Which of the following injuries is most likely to result in capillary bleeding only? a. An avulsion b. An abrasion c. A laceration d. A penetration

: b Objective: 18-4

: 539-540 11. A patient has suffered abrasions to the legs after falling on a moving treadmill. In treating this injury, you would be most concerned about: a. The loss of body heat b. The risk of infection c. The formation of scar tissue d. Swelling and bruising

: b Objective: 18-5

: 555 21. A young boy was out riding his bike in the neighborhood when he fell onto a stick protruding from the ground. The stick impaled him in the neck. The boy immediately pulled the stick out. Assessment reveals a gaping wound to the boy's right neck. Which of the following types of dressing would you use on this injury? a. Sterile gauze carefully placed inside the open wound to control bleeding b. An occlusive dressing that is taped on all sides c. A sterile dressing placed over the wound and bandaged with roller gauze around the neck d. A moist sterile dressing that is taped to the neck

: b Objective: 18-5

: 540, 542 3. You arrive at a scene at which a 16-year-old girl who tells you she has cut her wrist with a knife. She appears to be pale, and blood is spurting from the cut. Which of the following actions should you take first after making the scene safe? a. Ask her how the injury happened b. Apply direct pressure to the cut c. Apply oxygen at 15 LPM via a nonrebreather mask d. Obtain a blood pressure reading

: b Objective: 18-6

: 547 34. For which of the following injuries may elevation be used to control bleeding? a. For a laceration to the forearm b. For no injuries; elevation has not been shown to help control bleeding. c. For an abrasion on the lower leg d. For a puncture wound to the foot

: b Objective: 18-6

: 553 6. Which of the following actions should you take next when direct pressure, elevation, and femoral artery pressure have failed to control arterial bleeding on a patient lower leg? a. Provide oxygen at 15 LPM with a nonrebreather mask. b. Apply a tourniquet below the knee c. Immediately transport the patient by ambulance. d. Apply a tourniquet above the knee and splint the extremity.

: b Objective: 18-6

: 567 8. You have just arrived on scene, where a young girl has pushed her arm through a plate glass window. She is responsive and has a patent airway. Bright red blood is spurting from a large laceration on her right upper arm. When your partner tells you to apply direct pressure to the laceration to prevent the further blood loss, you would: a. Place a tourniquet proximal to the laceration, being careful not to get blood on your hands. b. Put gloves on before applying direct pressure over the injury site. c. Control the bleeding by pushing the edges of the laceration together until you can put gloves on. d. Apply direct pressure to the site with your hands until someone wearing gloves can take over.

: b Objective: 18-6

: 556 23. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands bandaging? a. "Bandages are sterile gauze pads used to stop bleeding." b. "Bandaging material is used to secure a dressing in place." c. "Bandaging material must always be sterile." d. "After you apply a bandage, a dressing should always be put over it."

: b Objective: 18-7

: 560 26. Which of the following statements about pressure dressings and bandages is true? a. All pressure dressings must be airtight to prevent contamination. b. Bandages should be applied in a distal-to-proximal manner. c. Dressings are placed over bandages. d. Gauze should be placed in an open wound before a pressure dressing is applied.

: b Objective: 18-8

: 583 16. Hoarseness or voice changes in a burn patient should alert an OEC Technician that the: a. Patient may be extremely anxious about the injury. b. patient most likely is experiencing an inhalation injury causing swelling to the airway, a true emergency c. Patient should be treated as a pediatric patient. d. Patient has altered mental status.

: b Objective: 19-4

: 608 3. During your SAMPLE inquiry, a patient reports that he had surgery to repair a torn ligament. Based on your training, you know that a ligament is: a. A thick muscle that surrounds a joint. b. A tissue that stabilizes two contiguous bones ends. c. A muscle that connects to a bone. d. Connective tissue that connects muscle and bone.

: b Objective: 20-1.1

: 609 26. Which of the following terms describes a type of bone except? a. Long b. Short c. Flat d. Irregular

: b Objective: 20-1.1`

: 612 15. A fracture that has three or more fragments is called a (n): a. Impacted fracture b. Comminuted fracture c. Oblique fracture d. Pathologic fracture

: b Objective: 20-1.6

26. The terms occipital, frontal, and parietal refer to what part of the body? a. The chest b. The cranium c. The pelvis d. The spine

: b Objective: 6-2

: 626 21. Which of the following statements would you make to the parent of a 10-year-old snowboarder who took a hard fall and complains of some discomfort in a wrist that is slightly swollen but has no deformity? a. "It's probably just a sprain." b. "The child needs to be medically evaluated to ensure there is not a fracture." c. "This is probably a pathologic fracture." d. "This looks like an open fracture."

: b Objective: 20-1.6

: 619 11. Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician has a good understanding of what a joint dislocation is? a. "If a joint is dislocated the patient can move it without pain." b. "A dislocation is a separation or displacement of the bones of a joint." c. "A distal pulse is absent, only in the case of a fracture." d. "Patients with a joint dislocation experience very little pain."

: b Objective: 20-1.7

: 640 10. A 42-year-old man has fallen 25 feet while rock climbing. He hit the ground feet first and suffered open fractures to both tibias, which are protruding through the skin. When you arrive, you note the scene is safe, the patient is responding to painful stimuli. His airway is open, his breathing is adequate, his radial pulse is strong and rapid and your patient is alert and oriented. At this point in his care, it is a priority for you to: a. Cover him to help prevent shock. b. Preform a secondary survey to look for other injuries. c. Obtain a medical history from his friends. d. Immobilize the fractures.

: b Objective: 20-2.1

: 612 5. The _____________ can be injured when a hip is dislocated, resulting in numbness or paralysis of a lower extremity. a. Cranial nerve b. Sciatic nerve c. Tibial nerve d. Central nervous system

: b Objective: 20-2.4

: 632 19. the most commonly dislocated joint in the body: a. The elbow b. The shoulder c. The thumb d. A knee

: b Objective: 20-2.4

: 700 35. You are assessing a patient who tells you she had a previous head injury in which a portion of the cerebellum was destroyed. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you expect to find in relation to this injury? a. Inability to remember information such as a past medical history b. Poor coordination when walking c. Problems with the regulation of heart rate and blood pressure d. Inability to move or feel sensations in one side of the body

: b Objective: 21-1

: 705 34. A patient was killed immediately following a self-inflicted gunshot wound to the head. Which portion of the central nervous system was most likely damaged in order to cause the rapid death of the patient? a. The cerebrum b. The brain stem c. The cerebellum d. The meninges

: b Objective: 21-1

: 718 47. When explaining the priorities of helmet removal to a candidate patroller, you would stress: a. Sliding the helmet rearward off the head so that you don't hit the patient's nose. b. Sliding the fingers under the occiput so that the head doesn't drop backward. c. Applying a cervical collar before removing the helmet to help stabilize the head. d. Removing the helmet to ensure the patient's proper alignment on a backboard.

: b Objective: 21-10

: 723 26. Which of the following statements about removing a helmet in a prehospital setting is correct? a. Helmets should be removed only if they are too tight or if spinal immobilization is required. b. It is acceptable to leave a helmet on a patient if the patient has no airway or breathing problems. c. Any patient wearing a helmet should have it removed so that the airway and breathing can be properly assessed. d. Helmets should never be removed, so OEC Technicians must be creative in working around the obstacle of a helmet while providing care.

: b Objective: 21-10

: 700 3. Which of the following signs or symptoms might be evident for an injury to the autonomic nervous system? a. Vomiting b. Elevated heart rate c. Inability to move facial muscles d. Trouble remembering one's own name

: b Objective: 21-5

: 711 10. While performing a primary assessment on a patient who has an isolated spinal cord injury, you note that he is in severe respiratory distress and struggling to breathe. Where should you suspect that the spinal cord injury has occurred? a. The diaphragm b. The cervical spine c. The thoracic spine d. The lumbar spine

: b Objective: 21-5

: 712 29. A 22-year-old female rock climber has fallen 25 feet to the trail below. The primary assessment shows her to be confused and to have an open airway and shallow breathing. Her pulse is 72 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 78/50 mmHg. She has no motor ability or sensation in her legs. Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation? a. Internal bleeding b. Spinal cord injury c. Hemorrhagic shock d. Hypoglycemia

: b Objective: 21-5

: 702 9. A young female was involved in a motor-vehicle collision in which her car struck the rear end of another vehicle. As a result of the impact, her neck muscles were overstretched and torn. She is complaining of neck pain. Based on this mechanism, the most likely type of injury she has is: a. Neural ischemia b. Whiplash c. Translational strain d. A Jefferson fracture

: b Objective: 21-6

: 719 15. Which of the following signs is a characteristic sign that may be seen during a secondary assessment of patients with spinal cord injury? a. Normal skin color and complaint of headache and nausea b. Flushed skin color below the level of the injury and impairment or absence of sensation and movement c. Bruising on the back and on the abdomen at the level of the injury, with normal or impaired sensation d. Flushed skin color at the level of pinpoint back pain

: b Objective: 21-6

: 715 13. Which of the following questions or statements indicates that an OEC Technician is correctly assessing motor function in the arms of a patient with potential spine injuries? a. "Can you tell me what finger I am touching?" b. "Can you hold up two fingers on each hand?" c. "I am going to move your arm; tell me if it hurts." d. "I am going to feel for a pulse in your wrist."

: b Objective: 21-8

: 718 12. An elderly patient has fallen down a flight of stairs and is complaining of neck and back pain and weakness to both legs. Your primary assessment reveals no life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation. Manual in-line spinal stabilization is being maintained. Which of the following actions should you take next? a. Apply high-flow oxygen and move the patient to a stretcher for transport. b. Complete a secondary assessment looking for injuries. c. Place an oral airway and begin assisting ventilation. d. Place a cervical collar on the patient and immobilize him to a long spine board.

: b Objective: 21-8

: 723 20. A patient with a head and midline posterior neck injury was sitting found leaning against a tree. You have placed a vest type short immobilization device on the patient. To transport the patient you would: a. Remove the vest-type short immobilization device and secure the patient to a long backboard. b. Immobilize the patient with the vest-type short immobilization device to a long backboard. c. Place the patient in a Semi-Fowler's position on the stretcher for transport to the hospital. d. Secure the patient with the vest-type short immobilization device on a stretcher in a supine position with the feet elevated.

: b Objective: 21-9

: 725 1. Which of the following structures works like a camera shutter to adjust the amount of light entering the eye? a. The sclera b. The iris c. The lens d. The posterior chamber

: b Objective: 22-1

: 760 16. While running outside the lodge, a teenage girl tripped and fell. She hit her face and mouth, knocking one of her top front teeth from its socket. Although she is upset, you have assessed no threats to life, and the bleeding has been controlled. Your partner finds the tooth and asks you what to do with it. Which of the following responses would be best? a. "Wrap the tooth in dry gauze and put it in a plastic bag placed in cool water." b. "Avoid touching the root of the tooth. We will gently irrigate it and place it back in its socket." c. "Scrub the base of the tooth to be sure it's clean and then we'll place it back in its socket." d. "Just put it in dry gauze and bring it with you. They probably won't be able to do anything with it."

: b Objective: 22-10

: 743 5. The lower jaw, the only "movable" bone of the face, is hinged on both sides of the skull by the: a. Maxillary/occipital joints b. Temporomandibular joints c. Occipital/temporal joints d. Maxillary sutures

: b Objective: 22-7

: 761 14. You respond to the vehicle maintenance department, where a middle-aged man is flushing his eyes with tap water. He tells you that acid splashed in his eyes and that they are burning. Which of the following questions is the most important one to ask right away? a. "What is your past medical history?" b. "Are you wearing contact lenses?" c. "Do you take any medications?" d. "Have you ever had a previous eye injury?"

: b Objective: 22-9

: 772 21. The diaphragm plays a major role in respiration. During inhalation, the diaphragm: a. Elongates and descends into the abdomen, allowing air to enter the lungs. b. Contracts and creates a negative pressure in the thorax, which draws air into the lungs. c. Relaxes so that it can be stretched as you pull air into the lungs. d. Contracts and increases internal thoracic pressure, which pushes air out of the lungs.

: b Objective: 23-2

: 772 23. Your 35-year-old patient has received major chest trauma. He complains of shortness of breath and pain. Your assessment reveals distended neck veins and pulsus paradoxus. Based on these signs and symptoms, you believe the patient to be suffering from: a. Acute myocardial infarction b. Pericardial tamponade c. Pleural effusions d. Aortic rupture

: b Objective: 23-3

: 784 26. You are treating a 26-year-old man with a pneumothorax. The patient's breathing has been inadequate, and you have been assisting his ventilations with a bag valve mask. The patient's condition seems to be worsening. Because you understand the pathology involved in a pneumothorax, you are most concerned that: a. You are not maintaining an adequate seal around the facemask, and thus the patient is not getting enough oxygen. b. The pressure from the BVM is causing more air to enter the pleural space and is causing a tension pneumothorax. c. The patient's airway is not being maintained, so you should insert an oropharyngeal airway. d. You may have missed an injury.

: b Objective: 23-3

: 785 14. An OEC candidate indicates that she understands the difference between a pneumothorax and a tension pneumothorax when she makes which of the following statements? a. "A tension pneumothorax causes blood to accumulate around the lung; a pneumothorax involves the accumulation of air only around the lung." b. "A tension pneumothorax can cause cardiac output to decrease; a pneumothorax does not." c. "A pneumothorax describes a collapsed lung; a tension pneumothorax involves both a collapsed lung and blood loss." d. "A pneumothorax is caused by a closed chest injury; a tension pneumothorax is caused by an open chest injury."

: b Objective: 23-3

: 775 9. You are managing a patient with a large flail segment in the right lateral chest. The immediate threat to this patient's life is: a. Blood loss b. Hypoxia c. Infection d. Rib fractures

: b Objective: 23-4

: 785 11. You have applied a nonporous dressing to a puncture wound on a patient's chest. An OEC candidate asks you why the dressing was taped only on three sides. Your best response is that taping the dressing on three sides: a. Permits oxygen to enter the lungs. b. Allows trapped air to escape upon exhalation. c. Is less painful for the patient. d. Decreases the chances that air will enter the chest upon exhalation.

: b Objective: 23-6

: 785 12. You treated a 19 year old with a puncture wound to the chest by covering the wound with an impermeable dressing. Now, as you perform your ongoing assessment, you note that the patient is tachypneic and is complaining of difficulty breathing. Breath sounds on the side of the injury are also diminished. Which of the following actions should you take immediately? a. Assist his breathing with a bag-valve mask. b. Lift a corner of the dressing from the wound for a few seconds; then reapply and check his breath sounds. c. Add another layer to the dressing. d. Insert an oropharyngeal airway

: b Objective: 23-6

: 795 802 3. You have been called to aid a patient with generalized abdominal pain. The patient states that he recently had his gall bladder removed. You know that the gallbladder is located in the: a. Left upper abdominal quadrant. b. Right upper abdominal quadrant. c. Lower left abdominal quadrant. d. Lower right abdominal quadrant.

: b Objective: 24-1

: 799 16. An injury to the abdominal wall allowing the intestines to come out of the abdominal cavity is a: a. Laceration b. Evisceration c. Contusion d. Abrasion

: b Objective: 24-3

: 799 17. When taking care of a patient with an abdominal injury, your first priority is: a. Controlling massive bleeding. b. Keeping the scene, patient and all rescuers safe. c. Achieving proper airway management. d. Stabilizing the patient.

: b Objective: 24-5

45. A man lying in the prone position is: a. Lying on his left side, knees slightly bent b. Lying face down c. Lying face up on his back. d. Lying on his back with his legs elevated higher than his head.

: b Objective: 6-3

: 816 2. A young man who was angry with friends wandered away from a party and spent the night outside uncovered in 40-50 degree temperatures. He is confused, has decreased but adequate breathing, and has a weak radial pulse. His skin is cool, and capillary refill is delayed. When looking to see if he is shivering, you note that he is not. Based on this presentation, OEC Technicians can safely conclude that the: a. Patient is exhibiting signs indicating that he is ineffectively compensating and conserving heat. b. Patient's body temperature is most likely dangerously low. c. Absence of shivering indicates that body temperature is almost back to normal. d. Cause of his confusion is not related to exposure to the low overnight temperatures.

: b Objective: 25-2

: 819 3. You and your friends are camping on a 20-degree day. Which of the following assessment findings best illustrates that your bodies are no longer capable of compensating for the effects of the cold? a. Cool and clammy skin b. Loss of fine motor coordination c. Shivering d. Hypertension

: b Objective: 25-2

: 825 10. Which of the following statements about immersion hypothermia is true? a. Death typically occurs within a few minutes of submersion in very cold water. b. It can take more than 30 minutes for a person who has fallen into very cold water to become hypothermic c. Protective winter clothing will always protect a person from immersion hypothermia d. Immersion hypothermia is most typically associated with traumatized or critically ill patients.

: b Objective: 25-4

: 819-820 29. A patient with moderate hypothermia will have a: a. Core body temperature. above 95 b. Slow pulse and/or slow respirations. c. Active shivering d. High risk of ventricular fibrillation.

: b Objective: 25-5

: 818, 819 13. When assessing the vital signs of a severely hypothermic patient, OEC Technicians should: a. Vigorously shake the patient to assess the true level of responsiveness. b. Monitor the patient's pulse and respirations for ten seconds. c. Check the patient's radial pulse to avoid exposing the patient's head and neck to the cold. d. Warm their own fingers for a full minute to ensure that they can feel the patient's pulse.

: b Objective: 25-7

: 825-826 16. When obtaining a history of a five-year-old boy with generalized hypothermia, which of the following questions provides the most important information and should an OEC Technician ask first? a. "Are all of his childhood shots up to date?" b. "Does he have any medical conditions?" c. "When did he last eat or drink?" d. "Why was he outside without adult supervision?"

: b Objective: 25-7

: 831 18. You have been called to aid an alert and oriented male patient whose friends state he spent several hours locked out of his house in cold temperatures. Given that the primary and secondary assessments have ruled out immediately life-threatening conditions, you have decided to rewarm the patient. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate for this patient? a. Place the patient in a tub of warm water. b. Apply hot packs to the patient's chest, groin, and armpits. c. Massage the patient's arms and legs after applying warm blankets. d. Blow hot air from a hair dryer over the patient's arms and legs.

: b Objective: 25-7

: page 817 7. A patient who is conscious and breathing has been pulled from a stream of cold water. To decrease her loss of heat via the mechanism of conduction, an OEC Technician should immediately: a. Cover her with a blanket. b. Remove her wet clothing then cover her with blankets. c. Provide positive-pressure ventilation. d. Encourage her to stop shivering.

: b Objective: 25-7

: 829 27. It has taken you 45 minutes to extricate an avalanche victim. Based on your knowledge of hypothermia and avalanche victims, you know that: a. Hypothermia during an avalanche burial generally occurs quicker than during cold water immersion b. Hypothermia can occur after extrication due to a cold, windy environment c. A pulseless victim can most likely be resuscitated after rewarming. d. A patient who is responsive is not hypothermic.

: b Objective: 25-9

: 831, 832 1. The signs of heat exhaustion are: a. Cool and clammy skin, bradycardia, slow respirations b. Warm and very sweaty skin, elevated body temperature, headache c. Diaphoretic skin, decreased heart rate, hunger d. Hot dry skin, elevated heart rate, elevated body temperature

: b Objective: 26-2

: 852, 854 10. You are treating a patient with suspected heat cramps. Which of the following treatments is the usual recommended treatment? a. Have the patient drink a mixture of one tablespoon of table salt in one quart of Gatorade. b. Have the patient drink a mixture of ¼ to ½ teaspoon of table salt in a quart of cool water. c. Administer salt tablets every 15 minutes until the cramping subsides. d. Have the patient drink one quart of cold tap water every 15 minutes until he needs to urinate.

: b Objective: 26-3

: 898 5. As altitude increases: a. Barometric pressure increases. b. The partial pressure of oxygen decreases. c. The concentration of oxygen per cubic foot decreases. d. Air density becomes greater.

: b Objective: 28-2

: 902 9. Which of the following processes does not occur during acclimatization? a. An increase in respiratory rate and depth b. Dilation of pulmonary blood vessels c. An increase in red blood cell production d. An increase in heart rate

: b Objective: 28-2

: 909 14. You are working at the summit of a 9,000-foot mountain. A 60-year-old woman is brought to you complaining of headache, fatigue, and shortness of breath. You prepare to do your assessment and recognize that your goal is to: a. Give her some ibuprofen to ease her headache. b. Determine whether this is an emergent condition so that you can initiate life-saving treatment. c. Gets the patient lying down to relieve her presenting symptoms? d. Find out if she has an inhaler she can use to relieve her shortness of breath.

: b Objective: 28-6

: 909 1. The final event in the series of events in drowning is: a. Unresponsiveness leading to respiratory arrest. b. Cardiac arrest. c. Altered mental status leading to respiratory arrest. d. A seizure leading to unresponsiveness leading to respiratory arrest.

: b Objective: 29-3

: 922 4. Two types of submersion injuries are: a. Diving and drowning b. Drowning and near-drowning c. The mammalian diving reflex and near-drowning d. Delayed submersion and advance drowning syndrome

: b Objective: 29-3

: 928 10. Large nitrogen bubbles can act as a (n): a. Carrier for glucose b. Embolus that blocks blood flow c. Oxygen inhibitor d. Carbon dioxide carrier

: b Objective: 29-3

53. You are assisting in the care of an elderly patient complaining of shortness of breath. You place the patient on 15L of oxygen via a nonrebreather mask and place him in a high Fowler's position. This means that you will place this patient on his: a. Left side, with his left arm over his head. b. Back, with his upper body elevated at 90o from the waist. c. Back, with his head down and his legs elevated higher than the head. d. Back, with his upper body elevated at 45o from the waist.

: b Objective: 6-3

27. A patient has suffered damage to his brainstem. As a result of this injury which of the following signs might you expect to see? a. Sweating b. Abnormal respirations c. Pinpoint pupils d. Muscle spasms

: b Objective: 6-5

31. The thyroid glands, adrenal glands, pituitary glands, and gonads are part of the: a. Nervous system. b. Endocrine system. c. Hormonal system. d. Respiratory system.

: b Objective: 6-5

34. A patient experiencing thoracic spine pain has pain in his: a. Neck b. Upper back c. Lower back d. Tailbone

: b Objective: 6-5

51. After examining his patient, your partner tells you that he believes the patient has hyperflexed the knee. What has happened if a patient has hyperflexed a knee? a. The patient has straightened the knee beyond its normal range of movement. b. The patient has bent the knee backward beyond its normal range of movement. c. The patient has pushed the kneecap too far to the right or left. d. The patient has straightened the knee into a normal position.

: b Objective: 6-7

14. An OEC Technician's assessment of a trauma patient's circulation status during a primary assessment should include: a. Carotid palpation, capillary refill, blood pressure, and skin color. b. Radial pulse, examination for the presence of external bleeding, and LOR. c. Skin color, pulse rate, blood pressure, and skin temperature. d. Pulse rate, blood pressure, capillary refill, and skin condition.

: b Objective: 7-4

3. Which of the following statements would indicate that an OEC Technician is ready to begin the first phase of a patient assessment? a. "I have placed an oral airway in the patient." b. "The scene is safe and appears to be free of hazards." c. "Blood pressure is 124/80 mmHg." d. "Can you tell me why you called for help?"

: b Objective: 7-4

7. A 36-year-old patient on the AVPU scale who has overdosed on an unknown drug is breathing and will not open his eyes, even when his name is loudly called. Which one of the following should the OEC Technician do next? a. Check the patient's vital signs. b. Perform a shoulder pinch. c. Assess the patient for a radial pulse. d. Identify what drug the patient took.

: b Objective: 7-4

9. You are assessing a four-year-old patient whose panicked mother states that she cannot wake him. The child is breathing but his eyes are closed. To best determine the child's level of responsiveness, you should first: a. Apply pressure to the child's nail beds. b. Say loudly, "Open your eyes!" c. Ask the mother how long the child has been asleep. d. Consider the child to be unresponsive.

: b Objective: 7-4

27. While you are performing a secondary assessment, your trauma patient complains of the sudden onset of difficulty breathing. Which of the following is your most appropriate response? a. Make a mental note and continue with the assessment. b. Stop the assessment and provide appropriate care. c. Reassess the patient, beginning with the head. d. Reevaluate the mechanism of injury.

: b Objective: 7-5

23. You are performing a secondary assessment on the unrestrained adult passenger of a motor vehicle that rolled several times at a high rate of speed. The patient has a skull laceration and is responsive to painful stimuli and in a state of hypoperfusion. When assessing the head, which one of the following is appropriate? a. Cleaning a scalp laceration b. Checking the pupils with a pen light c. Performing a blind finger sweep to clear the airway d. Applying pressure to a skull laceration

: b Objective: 7-6

25. DCAP-BTLS is mnemonic to assist you in remembering: a. A trauma patient's vital signs. b. What to assess while inspecting and palpating a patient. c. Medications, allergies, and the patient's medical history. d. The order in which to assess a patient only during a primary physical exam.

: b Objective: 7-6

36. A chief complaint is defined as the: a. Findings from a primary survey. b. Primary reason the person is seeking medical care. c. Findings from a secondary survey. d. Findings from a SAMPLE interview.

: b Objective: 7-6

39. As you assess a patient using the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic, the letter that denotes edema of the ankle is: a. C b. S c. P d. T

: b Objective: 7-6

24. Which of the following occurs during the proper application and use of a nasal cannula is true? a. The oxygen flow rate can be adjusted anywhere from 10 LPM to 15 LPM, depending on how much oxygen the patient needs. b. Patients often prefer a nasal cannula over a non-rebreather because it is less restrictive c. A nasal cannula provides high flow oxygen d. It is best to see how a patient tolerates a nasal cannula before attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on the patient.

: b Objective: 9- 10

: 307-308 35. Which of the following statements shows an understanding by the speaker of the use of a pocket mask? a. "Although a pocket mask is very effective at ventilating a patient, you are directly exposed to the patient's secretions." b. "A pocket mask must be securely placed over the patient's mouth and nose." c. "When using a pocket mask to ventilate a patient, you must make sure that the reservoir bag is in place." d. "A pocket mask should be used only when oxygen is connected to it."

: b Objective: 9- 10

27. the most commonly used method for opening a patient's mouth to suction the oropharynx, to perform a finger sweep, or to insert an oral airway is: a. Sellick's maneuver b. The crossed finger technique c. A Yank Auer catheter d. The finger sweep

: b Objective: 9- 2

: 300 33. To clear an airway of fluid and debris: a. Suction the airway deep by using an up and down motion b. Insert the tip of the suction catheter only as far as you can see c. Apply suction prior to placing the tip into the mouth d. Insert the tip of the suction catheter as deeply as possible

: b Objective: 9- 5

: 947 4. You are reviewing psychosocial development of a preschooler in your OEC class. You recognize that "preschooler" includes children who are: a. 2-3 years old b. 3-5 years old c. 6-8 years old d. Over 9 years of age

: b Objective: 30-2

17. You have been ventilating the patient with an oropharyngeal airway and bag-valve mask. Suddenly the patient regains consciousness and starts to gag. Your immediate action should be to: a. Leave the airway in but stop ventilations. b. Remove the airway. c. suction around the airway d. Reassure and calm the patient.

: b Objective: 9- 6

22. What is the most common oxygen delivery device used by OEC Technicians? a. A nasal cannula b. A nonrebreather mask c. A simple face mask d. A venture mask

: b Objective: 9-11

4. How is the jaw-thrust maneuver indicated for a patient with a possible spinal injury? a. It is a permanent intervention that does not require insertion of an airway if performed correctly. b. It minimizes movement of the head and cervical spine. c. It is less painful for the patient. d. It is the rescuer's preference as to whether to use the jaw-thrust maneuver.

: b Objective: 9-2

10. By placing an oropharyngeal airway in a patient, you have: a. Protected the airway from vomit or other secretions. b. Kept the tongue from occluding the airway. c. Obtained a patent airway by keeping the mouth and nares from closing. d. Minimized the risk of vomiting by closing off the esophagus.

: b Objective: 9-6

: 331 22. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the heart? a. It has four chambers and two sides. b. It pumps oxygen-depleted blood to the lungs through the pulmonary veins. c. It pumps blood through arteries to the tissues of the body. d. It is about the size of a clenched fist.

: b Objective: 10-2

: 394 4. Distribution of a poisonous substance in the body occurs primarily through the: a. Lymphatic system b. Circulatory system c. Endocrine system d. Gastrointestinal system

: b Objective: 12-1

: 387-388 3. A 44-year-old patient was found at home unresponsive. Based on his clinical presentation and the fact that he was heating with a kerosene heater in an enclosed room, you suspect that he is suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning. Based on this information, which route of exposure would you recognize as responsible for the poisoning? a. Transdermal route b. Inhalation c. Ingestion d. Absorption

: b Objective: 12-2

: 389-390 18. A poisonous substance that comes from a living organism is known as a(n): a. Antipsychotic b. Toxin c. Chemical d. Legume

: b Objective: 12-3

: 398-399 13. You are teaching a class about drug-related emergencies, specifically opiate overdose. Which of the following statements made by students indicates an understanding of possible signs of opiate overdose? a. "Only illegal narcotics can cause hallucinations, which may make the patient violent." b. "When assessing a patient, you must be alert for respiratory depression." c. "You should always ask patients if they have pain because narcotics suppress pain." d. "You should always check the patient's pupils because they will be dilated in a narcotics overdose."

: b Objective: 12-5

: 593 10. Thermal burns caused by the skin directly contacting hot water or hot steam: a. Is the least common type of burn b. Is the most common type of burn c. Result from tanning beds d. Result from exposure to Gamma radiation

: b Objective: 19-1

: 583 13. Thermal burns result from: a. Transmitted Gamma radiation b. Direct contact between a heat source and the skin c. Indirect contact between a heat source and the skin d. A chemical reaction stimulated by a heat source

: b Objective: 19-1)

: 592, 594 22. When treating a patient burned by a dry chemical, it is important to brush away any dry residue before flushing with water because: a. Flushing will expose other areas around the burn. b. Some dry chemicals are activated by water. c. A containment area needs to be set up to catch the runoff water. d. Flushing will cause the skin's pores to open.

: b Objective: 19-7

: 824 17. A severely hypothermic patient is in cardiac arrest. Most studies indicate that for patients who have been submerged in cold water for more than one hour, you should: a. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation. b. Focus on rewarming and rapidly transporting the patient. c. Provide ventilations but not compressions. d. Does nothing because there is no chance such patients will survive?

: b Objective: 25-7

: 863 3. You and your friends have been examining cactus plants when your friend gets stuck by one of the plant's spines. You recognize that a cactus spine can: a. Inject a toxin that causes a systemic reaction. b. get stuck in the skin and cause pain and redness in the affected area c. Cause an immediate anaphylactic reaction in some individuals. d. Just be uncomfortable but will not cause a reaction.

: b Objective: 27-2

: 870, 871 8. Its early fall and you have been backpacking on part of the Appalachian Trail with some friends. One member of the group comes up to you holding some bright orange mushrooms that resemble pumpkins and asks if you think they are safe to eat. Based on your training, you would respond with which of the following statements? a. "Those are very toxic and would definitely kill you if you ate them." b. "Those mushrooms can cause some pretty severe vomiting, diarrhea, cramps and loss of coordination"." c. "If you just eat the mushroom cap, you should be OK." d. "Most toxic mushrooms are brown, so those are probably all right to eat."

: b Objective: 27-2

: 876 15. Most reptile-related injuries are caused by: a. Alligators b. Snakes c. Sharks d. Crocodiles

: b Objective: 27-4

: 864 23. When a young child at a neighborhood cookout cries out that he was stung by a bee on his forearm, you should: a. ask if anyone has an epinephrine auto-injector and assist in giving the injection b. scrape the stinger off the skin with a firm flat object such as a credit card and then apply ice to reduce the swelling and pain. c. Immobilize the arm and place it at the level of the child's heart to prevent spread of the venom. d. Scrub the area with soap and water to remove the stinger.

: b Objective: 27-7

: 912 3. You are accompanying a team of hikers up a high mountain. The next morning you are summoned to a tent and find one of the climbers confused and complaining of a headache. His airway is patent and his respirations are 24 per minute. He has no medical history and was in good health until found ill this morning by his friend. Suspicious of high-altitude cerebral edema (HACE), which of the following actions should you takes? a. Immobilize the patient b. Provide high-flow oxygen c. Insert an oropharyngeal airway d. Administer oral glucose

: b Objective: 28-7

: 971 10. Which of the following behaviors would an OEC Technician recognize as uncharacteristic of a conscious and stable 2-year-old boy who fell and hurt his hand? a. He cries any time you touch him. b. He does not cry or protest when you take him from his mother to assess him. c. He becomes upset when you lift his shirt to assess his abdomen. d. He does not tell you where the pain is when you ask.

: b Objective: 30-2

: 945 9. You must assess the pupils of a 5-year-old boy who fell. Which of the following statements would be most appropriate for you to make before performing the assessment? a. "I am going to look into your pupils with my light." b. "I am going to use this light to look into your eyes." c. "I need to test your visual acuity by shining a light in your eyes." d. "Open your eyes so that I can look into them."

: b Objective: 30-4

: 964 6. You are assessing a 2½-year-old child who was involved in a minor car collision. She is currently alert and oriented. While you are assessing her for possible injuries, which of the following actions would be considered most appropriate? a. Assess the child starting at her head and moving to her feet. b. Allow the child to hold a favorite toy during the assessment. c. Be stern with the child and provide strict instructions on what you expect from her. d. Examine possible painful sites first.

: b Objective: 30-4

33. Which one of the following statements best describes the purpose of obtaining a single Glasgow Coma Scale score (GCS) in a patient with a head injury? a. The score gives information about the type of injury to the brain. b. The score provides an objective measure of the patient's overall neurologic condition. c. The score guides an OEC Technician's treatment of the patient. d. The score helps determine whether a patient's mental status is improving or deteriorating.

: b Objective: 7-12

: 589 2. Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who spilled a cup of hot coffee on herself two hours ago. An area on her right thigh that is about twice the size of the palm of her hand is red and painful but has no blisters. Which of the following actions would be appropriate for an OEC Technician to take? a. Apply a lotion containing a topical anesthetic and aloe vera b. Apply a dry sterile dressing c. Apply an antibiotic ointment d. Apply a plastic bag full of ice to the skin of the affected area

: b ok Objective: 19-2

1. Which of the following statements regarding assessment of the abdomen is false? a. Assessing abdominal complaints can be difficult because the nerve pathways for the gastrointestinal, urinary, and reproductive systems are in relatively close proximity to each other b. Abdominalpelvic organs are close to each other and problems affecting one system or organ can seriously affect organs in another system c. Assessment of the abdominal organs is straightforward because the abdominal organs are specifically located and easily palpated d. One of the problems encountered while assessing abdominal complaints is a patient's reluctance to allow the exam is due to embarrassment or pain

: c

: 414 9. A patient whose lungs alveoli are filled with fluid and pus secondary to pneumonia is at risk of: a. Decreased movement of air into the lungs. b. Decreased movement of the diaphragm. c. Decreased exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs. d. Collapse of the trachea and bronchi.

: c Objective 13.5

: 520 15. Your patient is an adult skier who collided with a snowboarder and was found to be unresponsive. The scene is safe. After establishing the ABCs and stabilizing the patients head and spine, you will: a. Take off a ski boot and see if you can find a pulse. b. Try to obtain a medical history c. Perform a head- to- toe secondary assessment d. Reassess the patient every 5 minutes

: c Objective 17-5

: 329-330 21. The cardiovascular system is composed of the: a. Heart, aorta, alveoli and venae calvae b. Blood vessels, plasma, and the lungs c. Heart, blood vessels, and blood d. Heart, lungs, and blood

: c Objective: 10-2

: 332 24. The key components of blood are: a. Red blood cells, platelets, hemoglobin, and glycerin. b. White blood cells, plasma, proteins, and fat. c. Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets, and plasma. d. Hemoglobin, neuroses, platelets, and plasma.

: c Objective: 10-3

: 336-345 (Specifically 344) 27. In decompensated shock, the failure of body systems despite the body's attempt to oxygenate vital organs becomes apparent as: a. Increased blood pressure and reduced pulse rate. b. Augmented capillary refill and increased respiratory rate. c. Increased pulse rate and decreased blood pressure. d. Increased respiratory rate and reduced level of consciousness.

: c Objective: 10-5

: 336-339 16. Septic shock is caused by: a. A failing heart b. Blood loss c. An infection d. A collapsed lung

: c Objective: 10-6

: 336-339 2. A patient with severe gastrointestinal bleeding is in what type of shock? a. Hypovolemic b. Cardiogenic c. Hemorrhagic d. Distributive

: c Objective: 10-6

: 339-341 7. Which of the following conditions could be responsible for causing obstructive shock? a. Sepsis b. Hemorrhage c. Pulmonary Embolism d. Arrhythmia

: c Objective: 10-6

: 344 30. You get a call for a "serious" injury on the expert trail. As you are skiing up to the patient your first priority is: a. Looking to see how much blood is on the snow b. Trying to determine how many people may be injured c. Assessing the scene for rescuer safety d. Performing a primary survey

: c Objective: 10-8

: 347 10. You approach a patient and notice a large amount of blood on the ground. The patient appears confused, pale, and diaphoretic. Which one of the following should you do first? a. Apply oxygen b. Look for the source of the blood c. Ensure that the patient's airway is open and clear d. Treat the patient for shock

: c Objective: 10-9

: 367 37. Which of the following actions may result in hypoglycemia in a diabetes patient? a. Failure to take insulin or an oral diabetes medication b. Lack of exercise c. Missing a meal when the patient has taken their insulin d. Overeating

: c Objective: 11-3

: 364 25. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands the danger posed by status epilepticus? a. "Status epilepticus is an extremely dangerous condition because the patient can go into shock from blood loss." b. "Patients who do not have a history of seizures are at greater risk for status epilepticus." c. "The longer the seizure continues, the greater the likelihood of permanent brain damage." d. "Status epilepticus indicates that the patient's medications have reached toxic levels in the body."

: c Objective: 11-4

: 380 18. As a general rule, a seizing patient should be transported in what position? a. Supine b. Sitting upright c. On their side d. Supine with legs elevated

: c Objective: 11-4

: 356 14. Your patient is unresponsive and there is no evidence of trauma. Which piece of information given to you by the patient's family is most important in relation to the treatment of a possible stroke? a. "He forgot to take his blood thinner last night." b. "We think he had too much to drink last night." c. "We noticed him acting oddly about 7 p.m. last night." d. "He took some ibuprofen last night for a fever and cough."

: c Objective: 11-6

Chapter 11 1. When assessing a patient with a possible stroke, the priority of care is: a. Identifying risk factors for stroke. b. Determining if there is a family history of stroke. c. Recognizing the signs of a stroke. d. Determining the type of stroke.

: c Objective: 11-7

: 391 11. You are driving on the highway and see an overturned tanker. A fluid is spilling from the tanker rapidly covering the ground around the driver's door. The driver appears to be unresponsive. The only marking on the tanker seems to be the name of the tanker company and hazard symbol. Your first step should be: a. Try not to step in the liquid while pulling the driver away from the truck. b. Have someone call 911 and assess the driver's ABCDs. c. Secure the scene, you must ensure your safety... d. Cover your mouth and nose so that you don't breathe any fumes while you rescue the driver.

: c Objective: 12-6

: 421 11. You are documenting your assessment of the patient who just left in an ambulance. The patient told you that he felt short of breath. You would document this as: a. Respiratory failure b. Arrhythmia c. Dyspnea d. Anoxia

: c Objective: 13-1

: 410 4. The most important muscle of respiration is the: a. Pectoralis major b. Intercostal muscle c. Diaphragm d. Sternocleidomastoid

: c Objective: 13-3

: 411 5. Which of the following actions causes an individual to inhale? a. The intercostal muscles relax b. The chest cavity decreases in size c. The diaphragm contracts and flattens d. Pressure within the chest increases

: c Objective: 13-5

: 411 6. A tachypneic patient is breathing: a. More slowly than normal b. Normally c. More rapidly than normal d. Irregularly

: c Objective: 13-6

: 412 14. You receive a call that there is an infant in the lodge who seems to be having difficulty breathing. As you are approaching the scene with a new candidate patroller, you ask him what the normal respiratory rate is for an infant. The candidate would be correct if he told you the rate should be: a. 15-20 breaths per minute b. 20-30 breaths per minute c. 25-50 breaths per minute d. 15-40 breaths per minute

: c Objective: 13-7

: 418 23. You arrive on scene where an unresponsive patient is being treated. The OEC Technician on scene tells you that she thinks the patient may have had a stroke. You suggest to the patroller to first: a. Place a nasal airway and suction the patient. b. Assist ventilations with a BVM. c. Apply a nonrebreather mask and provide oxygen. d. Determine if a pulse is present.

: c Objective: 13-9

: 437 8. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands allergic reactions and anaphylaxis? a. "An allergic reaction only occurs when the patient ingests or inhales an allergen; anaphylaxis occurs when the allergen is injected." b. "Allergic reactions are caused by pollen and food; anaphylactic reactions are caused by venoms and medications." c. "Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that will lead to death without emergency care." d. "Anaphylaxis describes a severe allergic reaction that occurs the first time a person is exposed to an allergen."

: c Objective: 14-1

: 439 10. You are called to the lodge to help a patient who has developed an allergic reaction after taking an antibiotic medication. You would describe this route of exposure as: a. Injection b. Contact c. Ingestion d. Inhalation

: c Objective: 14-2

: 437 9. Which of the following foods most commonly causes an allergic reaction? a. Shellfish b. Chocolate c. Peanuts d. Eggs

: c Objective: 14-3

: 448 13. As an OEC technician, which of the following findings would be a contraindication to the administration of epinephrine for a patient suffering an anaphylactic reaction? a. The patient is allergic to eggs. b. The patient has a heart rate of 120 bpm. c. The name on the injector is not the patient's name. d. The patient has hypertension or bradycardia.

: c Objective: 14-5

: 460 21. Which of the following statements concerning the cardiovascular system is true? a. It consists of four major components: the heart, the lungs, the blood vessels, and blood. b. The heart is a muscular organ located behind and to the right of the sternum. c. An electrical impulse that starts in the right atrium stimulates contraction of the heart muscle. d. The subclavian arteries supply blood to the pelvis and legs.

: c Objective: 15-1

: 460 22. The largest artery in the body is the: a. Carotid artery. b. Femoral artery. c. Aorta. d. Jugular artery.

: c Objective: 15-1

: 480 37. Which of the following is not a reason to stop CPR? a. The patient has the spontaneous return of a pulse and breathing. b. You are ready to use an AED. c. It has been 25 minutes, so brain damage has occurred. d. Rescuers are too tired to continue administering CPR.

: c Objective: 15-10

: 539-540 13. When managing a patient with soft-tissue injuries, it is essential that you: a. Thoroughly clean all lacerations. b. Control any bleeding with sterile dressings only. c. Use the appropriate personal protective equipment. d. Cover any hematomas with an occlusive dressing.

: c Objective: 18-5

42. Which of the following findings is a symptom? a. A deep laceration b. Hives resulting from an allergic reaction c. High blood pressure d. Ringing in the ears

: d Objective: 7-6

: 475 35. You are out shopping when a middle-aged man suddenly falls to the ground. You quickly run to assist him and note that he is not breathing and does not have a carotid pulse. You begin CPR because you know that prompt intervention with an AED is needed. Which of the following statements is not a reason that prompt intervention with an AED is needed? a. Since AED was first used by trained and lay rescuers, patient survival from sudden cardiac arrest has doubled. b. Two common arrhythmias that are associated with sudden cardiac death—ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia—can respond to AED use. c. Asystole, which can accompany an acute MI, is often reversed by the use of an AED. d. Studies show that after 10 minutes of pulseless cardiac arrest due to V-fib or V-tach, the heart is less responsive to electrical stimulation.

: c Objective: 15-11

: 487 40. Which of the following actions is not an action you should take when using an AED? a. Ensure that no one is touching the patient when analyzing the patient's heart rhythm and when delivering a shock. b. Ensure that the chest is dry and wiped clean of any medications. c. Apply any set of electrodes as patient age is not relevant. d. Use the electrode to rip away excess chest hair if the electrode is not sticking well to the chest.

: c Objective: 15-11

: 459 25. Which of the following structures help direct blood flow forward and prevent the backflow of blood within the heart? (This is tough question: I would not use it) a. Septa b. The coronary arteries c. The atrioventricular valves d. The pulmonary vein and the pulmonary artery

: c Objective: 15-3

: 437 1. You are teaching a class on cardiovascular disease and need to describe what atherosclerosis is. Which of the following statements is the most appropriate explanation? a. "It affects the arteries of the heart and is caused by a heart attack." b. "The walls of the coronary arteries lose elasticity, which leads to a heart attack." c. "Cholesterol and lipid material accumulate within the walls of arteries." d. "It affects veins and is caused by untreated high blood pressure."

: c Objective: 15-4

: 465 30. Which of the following statements about cardiovascular disease (CVD) is false? a. CVD involves a number of diseases that affect either the heart or blood vessels. b. CVD is the leading cause of death worldwide. c. Most cases of CVD are congenital and could be prevented with improved prenatal care. d. The underlying cause of most cases of CVD is coronary artery disease or atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries."

: c Objective: 15-4

: 475 6. Aspirin may be used in a patient who has chest pain suggestive of a heart attack because aspirin may: a. Break up a blood clot that is occluding a coronary artery. b. Relieve the headache that is caused by the administration of nitroglycerin. c. Decrease the ability of platelets to form clots. d. Decrease the chest pain caused by the possible heart attack.

: c Objective: 15-8

: 486 10. Which of the following medications, if taken in the last 24 hours, would be a contraindication to administering nitroglycerin? a. Coumadin b. Aspirin c. Viagra d. Tylenol

: c Objective: 15-8

: 486 11. You are assisting a 67-year-old patient with chest pain. He has taken two nitroglycerin tablets but his pain remains a 7 out of 10. He is diaphoretic; his respirations are 18 per minute and adequate; his pulse is 72; and his blood pressure 80/62 mmHg. He is on a nonrebreather mask at 15L per minute. You would: a. Assist him in taking his third and final nitroglycerin tablet. b. Attach him to an AED. c. Reassess his vital signs every 5 minutes and transfer him by EMS care. d. Give him only half of a nitroglycerin tablet.

: c Objective: 15-8

: 486 7. You are caring for a patient with chest pain who has just taken his nitroglycerin. The patient's chest pain has been alleviated. You understand that nitroglycerin is effective in treating chest pain because it: a. Increases the heart rate and gets more blood to the heart muscle. b. Has a sedative effect, which makes the patient less aware of the pain. c. Dilates the arteries and veins, which decreases the workload on the heart. d. Causes the body to relax, decreasing the need for oxygen.

: c Objective: 15-8

: 522 17. Which of the following terms is not a "mechanism of injury"? a. Blunt trauma to the abdomen b. Rotational spiral mid-shaft tibia fracture c. Kidney stone d. Crushed foot

: c Objective: 17-1

: 530 - 532 14. Which of the following factors does not directly relate to the severity of bodily injury? a. The amount of kinetic energy absorbed b. The direction the kinetic energy travels c. The size of the injured person d. The density of the structures impacted

: c Objective: 17-1

: 522 24. Tissue damage caused by low-velocity injuries is usually: a. Not very deep b. Not life-threatening c. Limited to the path of the object d. Known to occur to avalanche victims

: c Objective: 17-2

: 522-523 20. A rock climber falls when several boulders give way. His arm is pinned between two boulders. This MOI is best described as: a. Blunt b. Penetrating c. Crush d. Rotational

: c Objective: 17-3

: 530-532 16. Your patient has been stabbed in the chest with a ski pole. The mechanism of injury is: a. Blunt b. Crush c. Penetrating d. Rotational

: c Objective: 17-3

: 527 10. Trauma centers have five levels which are based on: a. Proximity to ski areas b. Number of doctors on staff c. Specialization, complexity, and availability of care d. Insurance providers

: c Objective: 17-4

1. A patient has a laceration on his arm from a table saw. Assessment reveals dark red blood flowing slowly from the wound. You would recognize this type of bleeding as: a. Arterial bleeding b. insignificant bleeding c. Venous bleeding d. Lymphatic bleeding

: c Objective: 18-2

: 546 19. You are assessing a patient who received multiple injuries in a fight. Which of the following injuries would present the greatest danger for infection? a. A contusion to the chin b. A closed crushing injury to the thigh c. An abrasion on the right side of the face d. A hematoma in the left foot

: c Objective: 18-4

: 548 32. Mechanical tattooing is defined as: a. A form of body art in which dye is injected under the skin. b. A type of self-mutilation requiring psychiatric follow-up for the patient. c. The introduction of foreign debris such as dirt, gunpowder, or small rocks into the skin. d. Multiple punctures made by a nail gun.

: c Objective: 18-4

: 558 40. During your secondary assessment, a patient with a stab wound to the abdomen tells you that he is taking Coumadin, a blood thinner. Which of the following implications would taking this medication have for this patient? a. The medication would not affect the patient or the care you provide. b. The medication would cause this patient's blood to clot more quickly, thereby minimizing any bleeding that might occur. c. The medication could cause the patient to bleed more profusely. d. The medication would reduce the patient's blood pressure, so bleeding would be less profuse.

: c Objective: 18-5

: 551 5. You are treating a patient who has cut herself while working in the lodge kitchen. She has a jagged laceration on her left forearm that is bleeding steadily and heavily. While attempting to control the bleeding, you should first: a. Tightly wrap roller gauze around a large sterile dressing placed over the injury. b. Apply direct pressure to the elbow pressure point to slow the flow of blood into the arm. c. Place a sterile dressing over the site and hold steady pressure on the dressing with your gloved hand. d. Wrap the injury tightly with roller gauze and apply a tourniquet proximal to the laceration.

: c Objective: 18-6

: 561 25. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands dressing and bandaging a wound? a. "When applying a bandage over a dressing, apply it very tightly so the bandage won't fall off." b. "If bleeding from a wound cannot be stopped initially with direct pressure, apply a bandage so you can take care of other injuries." c. "Leave the tips of the fingers or toes exposed when bandaging an arm or a leg so you can continue to assess CMS." d. "Place a bandage across the joint proximal to the wound because this helps control bleeding by applying pressure to the underlying blood vessels."

: c Objective: 18-8

: 616 12. Which of the following functions is not one of the several functions of bones? a. Providing structure and form for body tissues b. Protecting vital organs c. Responding to sensory nerve stimulation to protect skin and other tissues d. Producing red blood cells

: c Objective: 20-1.1

: 613 9. You respond to a 9-year-old boy who was injured in the terrain park. He is complaining of pain in his right wrist. Upon examination you note deformity and swelling of the right wrist, pinkness of the right hand, and a strong radial pulse. Which of the following actions would be part of the proper care for this boy? a. Straighten the wrist to promote blood flow to the hand. b. Maintain the wrist below the level of the heart to decrease swelling. c. Apply a cold pack to the wrist to reduce swelling. d. Massage the wrist gently to decrease the pain.

: c Objective: 20-3.1

: 631 6. You are treating a patient who is complaining of moderate pain in the right knee. The knee is swollen, discolored, and flexed about 45 degrees. CMS is intact. How would you treat this patient? a. Place the patient on a long spine board and transport to the aid room, where you can examine the injury more efficiently. b. Straighten the injured knee and then immobilize it by attaching it to the other leg. c. Splint the knee in the position found before moving the patient. d. Apply a traction splint and straighten the knee until the pain is decreased.

: c Objective: 20-3.2

: 700 2. Based on the structure of the nervous system, which of the following statements is true? a. A stroke represents an injury to the peripheral nervous system. b. A gunshot wound to the spinal cord will directly damage the peripheral nerves. c. A deep laceration to an arm can sever peripheral nerves. d. Numbness of a leg secondary to a fracture is caused by a central nervous system injury.

: c Objective: 21-1

: 700 4. You are notified that a patient is coming to the first-aid room with bruising to the lumbar area of the back. Based on this statement, you would expect to find bruising in which area? a. The upper back b. The neck c. The lower back d. The buttocks

: c Objective: 21-3

: 711 5. You respond to an accident at which a male patient is complaining of severe back pain. He informs you that his back pain is coming from a recent fracture of his coccyx. Based on this information, what area of the back would the pain be emanating from? a. The neck b. The upper back c. The tailbone d. The lower back

: c Objective: 21-3

: 705 43. You are participating in training OEC candidates and are asked about cerebral contusions. You would explain to the class that a cerebral contusion is: a. An open skull fracture with increased pressure within the skull. b. The formation of a pocket of blood within the brain tissue. c. Bruising and swelling of the brain tissue. d. Active bleeding between the brain and the skull.

: c Objective: 21-4

: 712 33. You suspect that an unhelmeted climber who struck his head during a fall may have a basilar skull fracture. As you conduct your assessment, which of the following findings reinforces this suspicion? a. Blood coming from both ears b. Dilation and sluggish response to light of the right pupil c. Clear fluid coming from the right ear and left nostril d. Paralysis of the left arm and left leg

: c Objective: 21-4

: 715 39. A 68-year-old female patient is complaining of a headache and generalized weakness. Her husband informs you that she was with a friend yesterday and struck her face on the dashboard during a motor vehicle collision. Her past medical history includes a stroke that caused right arm weakness and high blood pressure. When assessing this patient, which of the following findings should concern you the most? a. A contusion to her left cheek b. Weakness in the grip of the right hand c. Bruising behind her left ear d. A complaint of pain when she moves her jaw

: c Objective: 21-4

: 712 11. Which of the following signs or symptoms best indicates that a patient has suffered an injury to the thoracic spine? a. Altered mental status b. Paralysis of the arms c. Tingling in the legs d. Cool and diaphoretic skin

: c Objective: 21-5

: 712 7. Based on the anatomy of the spine, which one of the following injuries is possible? a. A fracture of the ninth cervical vertebra b. A dislocation of lumbar vertebra 7 c. A disk injury between thoracic vertebrae 11 and 12 d. A compression fracture of lumbar vertebra 12

: c Objective: 21-5

: 705, 706 37. A 41-year-old male snowboarder struck his head on a metal rail. As you approach him, you note that he appears confused and has blood on the left side of his face and head, and on his shirt. His breathing appears to be labored. Which of the following actions should you perform immediately? a. Check his pupils for equality and reactivity. b. Apply oxygen at 15 LPM via nonrebreather mask. c. Apply manual in-line spinal immobilization. d. Expose the chest to look for possible bleeding.

: c Objective: 21-8

: 714 38. You are called to aid a 61-year-old man who has fallen off a second-floor lodge patio. He is unresponsive and has very slow, shallow breathing at a rate of 6 breaths per minute. When you arrive, a fellow patroller has already opened the airway and has stabilized the head. Which of the following actions should you take immediately? a. Apply a cervical collar. b. Place the patient in the shock position. c. Assist ventilation with a BVM. d. Transfer the patient to a stretcher for emergency transport.

: c Objective: 21-8

: 718 16. A patient is complaining of back pain and numbness in both legs after being thrown from a bicycle. When should you check the motor function, sensory function, and pulses in this patient? a. Immediately after achieving manual in-line spinal immobilization b. Immediately after applying a cervical collar c. During the primary assessment d. During the secondary assessment

: c Objective: 21-8

: 722 18. Which of the following instructions from one OEC Technician to another describes the appropriate application of a cervical spine immobilization collar? a. "Carefully flex his head forward a little so I can pass the collar underneath his neck." b. "Let's log roll the patient to one side so I can apply a cervical collar." c. "Keep his head in neutral position while I apply a cervical collar." d. "I need you to extend the patient's chin backward a little so I can fit the collar under his chin."

: c Objective: 21-8

: 723 25. You and your partner are preparing to backboard a patient using a vest type short spine immobilization device. After ensuring that inline manual spinal stabilization is being maintained, your next instruction should be: a. "Let's get the cervical collar applied before we place the vest." b. "Let's turn the patient away from the tree before applying the vest." c. "Let's check motor, sensory, and pulses in the arms and legs." d. "Let's place the vest on the backboard and carefully move him onto it."

: c Objective: 21-8

: 724 27. A 2-year-old boy fell down a flight of stairs. Which of the following instructions would you provide to other patrollers who are immobilizing the patient? a. "After he is on the board, place a towel behind his head to keep his airway open." b. "It is better if the collar is a little too big because it will be more comfortable for him." c. "Let's place a folded towel under his shoulders to help maintain his head alignment." d. "Just apply a cervical collar and then place him directly on the stretcher."

: c Objective: 21-8

: 714 17. A patient with a high probability of a cervical spine injury has just been fully immobilized to a long backboard. Which of the following instructions should you provide to your team next? a. "Loosen the collar so you can palpate the back of the neck." b. "Maintain manual in-line spinal stabilization until he is on the toboggan." c. "Check for CMS before we move him to the toboggan." d. "Remove the chest straps so he can breathe more easily now that his head and legs are secured."

: c Objective: 21-9

: 722 22. A patient has just been log rolled and positioned onto the long backboard. Which of the following actions should be performed next? a. Apply a properly sized cervical collar b. Secure the patient's head c. Secure the patient's chest with straps d. Release manual in-line stabilization

: c Objective: 21-9

: 745 2. The part of the eye that focuses light on the retina is called the: a. Vitreous humor b. Sclera c. Lens d. Iris

: c Objective: 22-1

: 757 19. You are assisting another OEC Technician to treat a young male with a deep laceration on his neck. Your partner appears to have controlled the bleeding. He asks you to apply an occlusive dressing. In addition to helping to control the bleeding, you recognize that another important benefit to this type of dressing on a neck wound is: a. Preventing a cervical collar from irritating the wound. b. Promoting clot formation to prevent further bleeding. c. Preventing the entry of air into the circulatory system. d. Providing neck stabilization.

: c Objective: 22-10

: 760 13. You have responded to a scene at which a young man tells you he splashed a chemical into his eye. He is complaining of burning and pain in his right eye. After performing a primary assessment and finding no life-threatening conditions, you would: a. Obtain a set of vital signs and SAMPLE. b. Identify the exact chemical involved so that you can get the antidote. c. Hold the patient's injured eye open and flush it with large amounts of sterile water from the nose to the outer edge of the eye. d. Instruct the patient to keep his eyes closed and not rub them while you arrange for emergency transport.

: c Objective: 22-10

: 761 10. A young girl is complaining of eye pain after having bleach thrown in her face. When assessing her eyes, you note redness and significant tearing in the right eye. You would treat this girl by: a. Stopping the tearing by applying gentle pressure to the eye. b. Covering both eyes immediately. c. Flushing the eye with sterile water. d. Gently wiping the inner eye with pieces of sterile gauze.

: c Objective: 22-10

: 756 18. A 10-year-old boy arrives in the aid room bleeding from his nose. He states that he did not injure himself and just started bleeding while he was skiing, and that he can't get it to stop. Based on your OEC training, which of the following statements about treating epistaxis is false? a. The nares, or nostrils should be pressed together just below the bony prominence of the nose. b. You should maintain pressure up to 15 minutes before evaluating ongoing bleeding. c. Your initial treatment is to pack the nose with tightly rolled gauze and then apply direct pressure to the nose. d. Have the patient lean forward to allow blood and secretions to drain out of the nose and mouth.

: c Objective: 22-8

: 772 20. The diaphragm separates the: a. Right lung from the left lung b. Lungs from the heart c. Thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity d. Heart and lungs from the spine

: c Objective: 23-1

: 778 16. You are listening to two patrollers discuss the accident to which they just responded. Which of the following injuries would lead you to believe that one of the patients had suffered from traumatic asphyxia? a. A chest wound that makes a sucking sound b. Abdominal bruising and distention c. Bluish discoloration of the neck and face d. A bilateral femur deformity

: c Objective: 23-4

: 785 13. You have placed an occlusive dressing on a puncture wound on the right side of the chest of a 33-year-old woman. During your ongoing assessment your primary concern is monitoring the injury for: a. Arterial bleeding b. Infection at the wound site c. Tension pneumothorax d. Ecchymosis at the wound site

: c Objective: 23-4

: 783 25. You are following the L.A.P. method to examine the chest of a 38-year-old trauma patient. To assess for thoracic cage instability, you would apply moderate downward pressure on the sternum while asking the patient to take a deep breath, and then you would: a. "Walk" the patient's clavicles with your fingertips while the patient exhales. b. Have the patient exhale slowly while you listen to the breath sounds. c. Apply moderate inward pressure on the lateral walls of the rib cage and ask the patient to take a deep breath. d. Palpate the upper thorax for subcutaneous emphysema.

: c Objective: 23-5

: 785 27. You are treating a 16-year-old male who was skiing out of control and ran off the trail and into the woods. When you arrive, he is alert and complaining of pain in his right lower chest. Upon examination you note that he has impaled himself with a tree branch. He tells you he will feel better if you just remove the branch. Based on your training as an OEC technician, you would respond by making which of the following statements? a. "I need to get a bulky dressing ready in case there is bleeding when I remove the branch." b. "Once my helpers arrive and we are ready to transport you, we can remove the branch." c. "We need to leave the branch in place until we get you to a hospital." d. "I'm not supposed to remove the branch, but you can if you think it will make you more comfortable."

: c Objective: 23-6

: 786 1. When palpating the anterior portion of a patient's abdomen, you note tenderness in the left upper quadrant. You would recognize that which organ might be involved? a. The kidney b. The gallbladder c. The spleen d. The liver

: c Objective: 24-1

: 795 7. The pancreas is best described as a (n): a. Nonfunctional organ b. Hollow organ c. Solid organ d. Fluid-filled organ

: c Objective: 24-1

: 796 14. the most common mechanism of injury to the pancreas is: a. Trauma to the left flank b. Rotational trauma to the chest wall c. Direct trauma to the middle of the abdomen d. Trauma to the right flank

: c Objective: 24-3

: 802 12. Blunt trauma to the upper right abdominal quadrant can injure the: a. Pancreas b. Spleen c. Liver d. Small intestines

: c Objective: 24-3

: 794 & 805 10. Which of the following statements indicates that you correctly understand the goal of assessing and managing a patient who has abdominal pain? a. "It is important to determine if the liver is the cause of pain, because that is the most life-threatening condition." b. "If the patient has tenderness upon any palpation of the abdomen, OEC Technicians should assume that bleeding is the cause." c. "It is more important to recognize a possible abdominal injury or emergency than it is to identify the exact cause." d. "To best treat the patient, OEC Technicians must identify the exact cause of the patient's pain."

: c Objective: 24-4

: 795 9. Upon entering the treatment room of a 62-year-old woman who has an unknown medical complaint, which one of the following clues observed during the scene size-up would increase your suspicion that the patient is suffering from an acute abdominal condition? a. She is sweating even though the air conditioning is on "high." b. A portable commode is next to the bed. c. She is lying on her side clutching her abdomen with her knees drawn up to her chest. d. She is wearing a nasal cannula attached to oxygen at 2 LPM.

: c Objective: 24-4

: 805 18. If a scene becomes unsafe for a patient with abdominopelvic trauma, OEC Technicians should: a. Leave the scene. b. Continue to care for the patient and then "load and go." c. Move the patient to a safer place, so long as doing so does not place rescuers at risk. d. Call for more help.

: c Objective: 24-5

: 819 a. 4. Which of the following processes best describes the emission of infrared heat? a. Conduction b. Respiration c. Radiation d. Evaporation

: c Objective: 25-1

: 806 1. You are assessing a conscious but confused hiker who became lost in the woods on a cold day. Your assessment shows that he has an open airway, adequate breathing, and a weak radial pulse. His skin is cold to the touch and he is shivering. OEC Technicians should recognize that the: a. Cold caused the patient's brain to become dysfunctional, as evidenced by the shivering. b. Shivering actually represents a small seizure, which indicates that the brain is cold. c. Shivering is a protective means by which the body is attempting to warm itself. d. Shivering is the only indicator that the patient's core body temperature has fallen below 85°F.

: c Objective: 25-2

: 824, 829, 830 9. Which of the following signs would you observe earliest in a hypothermic patient? a. Confusion b. Hypotension c. Shivering d. Bradycardia

: c Objective: 25-2

: 825-826 30. Which of the following findings is a sign of severe hypothermia? a. Slurred speech b. Active shivering c. Coma d. Confusion

: c Objective: 25-5

: 830 15. Which of the following findings best indicates that a patient with cold skin is suffering from moderate hypothermia? a. Cold waxy fingers b. Respirations at 28-30 per minute c. A heart rate of 52 beats per minute d. A pulse oximetry reading of 95 percent

: c Objective: 25-7

: 828 24. You have initiated the rewarming of a local cold injury in a patient's hand and fingers. On scene the patient had no sensation in his hand or fingers. Which of the following statements is a cause of concern when made by the patient? a. "The blisters on my fingers haven't broken yet." b. "My fingers are really starting to hurt now!" c. "I still can't feel my fingers when I rub them with my other hand." d. "My hand is feeling funny. It seems to be starting to tingle a little bit."

: c Objective: 25-8

: 816, 825 32. The initial priority for avalanche victims is: a. Warming the extremities b. Cervical stabilization c. Ensuring adequate ventilation d. Treating for hypothermia

: c Objective: 25-9

: 839 4. You recognize that heat cramps are the probable cause of a patient's problem when the patient makes which of the following statements? a. "I am having a hard time moving my fingers." b. "I cannot remember what day it is." c. "I have pain in my belly and legs." d. "My neck feels as though it is in spasm."

: c Objective: 26-2

40. Your patient is 5 years old and has fallen, resulting in a scraped knee. What letter indicates the scraped knee in the DCAP-BTLS mnemonic? a. D b. L c. A d. S

: c Objective: 7-6

: 839-840 3. You are at a football practice on a very hot summer day. A young player is panting and lying under a tree. His skin is flushed, and his teammates are continually wiping the sweat off his face, arms, and chest with towels and offering him fluids to drink. Which of the following statements is most appropriate for this situation? a. "Keep wiping. You are helping him retain water that his body needs." b. "Don't give him fluids. It will only make him sweat more." c. "It's OK for him to sweat. It is helping his body cool down." d. "Let's put his shirt back on to keep him from sweating."

: c Objective: 26-3

: 854 8. You are in the aid room with a patient who is unresponsive and has hot, dry skin. His friends state that he has been drinking and passed out in the hot sun for several hours. ALS has been called. Which of the following actions would be most beneficial to this patient now? a. Prepare the patient for vomiting by placing him in a prone position. b. Try to give the patient sugar because he could be having a diabetic reaction. c. Place cold packs on the patient's groin and armpits. d. Gently pour cold water over the patient to rapidly cool him down.

: c Objective: 26-3

: 852 11. A group of three golfers have been struck by lightning on a golf course. Two of the golfers are responding; the third is in cardiac arrest. You are the lone witness. When deciding which patient to treat first, you should remember that: a. To save the most people, the patient in cardiac arrest should be treated last. b. You must somehow provide head stabilization for all three victims. c. In a lightning strike, patients who are apparently dead should be treated first. d. You can't do everything by yourself; run and get help.

: c Objective: 26-5

: 912 4. The height or vertical elevation above a fixed point is known as: a. Ascent b. Elevation c. Altitude d. Ataxia

: c Objective: 28-1

: 913 20. You are asked to speak to a college group that is planning a ski trip to the Alps. In order to help them plan for reducing their risks for developing altitude-related illnesses, you suggest all of the following except: a. Plan a layover day at between 6,000 feet and 8,000 feet. b. Drink 3-4 quarts of fluid a day. c. Do a lot of heavy physical exertion early in the trip to help them acclimate. d. Sleep at an elevation that is lower than where they will be skiing.

: c Objective: 28-4

: 905 12. Labored breathing at rest and audible chest congestion herald the development of a serious, potentially life-threatening stage of what altitude-related condition? a. Acute mountain sickness b. Peripheral edema c. HAPE d. Khumbu cough

: c Objective: 28-5

43. The wrist is: a. Proximal to the elbow. b. Lateral to the elbow. c. Distal to the elbow. d. Medial to the elbow.

: c Objective: 6-2

41. The diaphragm separates the thoracic cavity from the: a. Pelvic cavity b. Spinal cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Heart

: c Objective: 6-4

23. The liquid that blood cells and nutrients are suspended in is called: a. Platelet fluid b. Hemoglobin c. Plasma d. Lymph

: c Objective: 6-5

28. What body system provides support and structure to the body? a. The endocrine system b. The nervous system c. The skeletal system d. The exocrine system

: c Objective: 6-5

30. As a patient gives her medical history to you, which of the following would you relate to the endocrine system? a. Removal of the gallbladder b. Failure of the kidneys c. Removal of the thyroid d. Heart failure

: c Objective: 6-5

35. You are called to the lodge for a patient who has fallen. The report indicates the patient has a hematoma in the occipital area of her head. Based on this description, you should expect to find the injury in which area of the head? a. The top b. The side c. The back d. The front

: c Objective: 6-5

38. Under normal circumstances, carbon dioxide is excreted from the body by what system? a. The intestinal tract b. The urinary tract c. The respiratory system d. The integumentary system

: c Objective: 6-5

55. Which of the following is the largest organ of the body? a. The heart b. The liver c. The skin d. The spleen

: c Objective: 6-5

20. Forming a general impression is done before which phase of patient assessment? a. Reassessment b. Secondary assessment c. Primary assessment d. Communication and documentation

: c Objective: 7-1

Chapter 7 1. Which of the following lists presents the order in which an OEC Technician should assess a patient in a field setting? a. Primary assessment, reassessment, secondary assessment b. Scene size-up, secondary assessment, primary assessment c. Scene size-up, primary assessment, secondary assessment d. Scene size-up, history, secondary assessment, primary assessment

: c Objective: 7-1

34. The Glasgow Coma Scale score for verbal reaction that is assigned to a patient who answers questions inappropriately is: a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5

: c Objective: 7-12

19. You are interviewing a prospective candidate for the position of OEC Technician with your service. During the interview, you ask the applicant to describe the purpose of the primary assessment. Which of the following best describes that purpose? a. To establish a chief complaint and gather an extensive medical history b. To determine if the patient's vital signs are stable c. To identify and treat life-threatening conditions d. To perform a comprehensive exam focused on the patient's chief complaint

: c Objective: 7-4

6. You have been called for an adult patient who suffered a seizure. He is sitting on the floor, and he looks at you as you enter the room. When questioned, he responds to his name, but cannot remember the date or where he is. This patient's mental status is best described as: a. Alert and not confused. b. Lethargic and agitated. c. Having an altered response to verbal stimuli. d. Visually disoriented.

: c Objective: 7-4

28. An OEC Technician should obtain the medical history of an alert and oriented trauma patient during the: a. Primary assessment b. Scene size-up c. Secondary assessment d. Reassessment

: c Objective: 7-5

38. An easy way for an OEC Technician to remember what to look for in assessing injuries in a trauma patient is the: a. Acronym SAMPLE. b. Mnemonic APVU. c. Mnemonic DCAP-BTLS. d. Mnemonic OPQRST.

: c Objective: 7-6

30. During assessment of a responsive medical patient, you gather a medical history using the memory aid SAMPLE. To obtain information related to M, which one of the following questions should you ask? a. "Do you have any past medical problems?" b. "Are you allergic to any medications?" c. "Are you currently taking any medications?" d. "Can you point to where it hurts the most?"

: c Objective: 7-9

20. Which of the following occurs during the proper application and use of a nonrebreather mask? a. The mask will cover the mouth only so that air can be breathed into the nose. b. The flow rate should be set to 1 to 6 p.m. c. The oxygen reservoir should be inflated prior to application of the mask d. The oxygen reservoir should completely collapse each time the patient inhales.

: c Objective: 9- 10

21. Despite coaching and explaining the benefits of a nonrebreather face mask, a female patient with chest pain panics and states that she cannot tolerate the mask over her face. The more that she panics, the worse the chest pain becomes. Your best course of action is to: a. Remove the nonrebreather mask and apply a simple face mask. b. Decrease the oxygen flow rate entering the nonrebreather mask. c. Disconnect the nonrebreather and replace it with a nasal cannula. d. Discontinue oxygen therapy and continually monitor breath sounds.

: c Objective: 9- 10

14. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker knows how to properly size an oropharyngeal airway before its placement? a. "The length of the airway should approximate the distance from the tip of the nose to the angle of the jaw." b. "To select an appropriately sized airway, you must first estimate the patient's height and weight." c. "The length of the airway should approximate the distance from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw." d. "An appropriately sized oral airway can be selected by looking in the patient's mouth and estimating the length of the tongue."

: c Objective: 9- 6

18. You appropriately size a nasopharyngeal airway by measuring the: a. Distance from the patient's mouth to the angle of the jaw. b. Diameter of the patient's larger nostril. c. Distance from the patient's nose to the earlobe. d. Diameter of the patient's thumb.

: c Objective: 9- 6

19. If while checking a size D oxygen tank you notice that the reading on the pressure regulator is 1000 psi, you should recognize that the tank is: a. Leaking b. Overfilled c. Half full d. Almost empty

: c Objective: 9- 8

5. Which of the following statements about airway management in trauma patients is correct? a. The jaw-thrust maneuver is useful in trauma patients but only if they are complaining of head or neck pain. b. Research has shown that the jaw-thrust maneuver is easiest to perform and is therefore indicated only for critically injured trauma patients. c. Performing the head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a patient with a possible spinal injury could further injure the patient. d. Trauma patients should always have their airway opened with the jaw-thrust maneuver, whereas medical patients should receive the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.

: c Objective: 9-2

: 295-297 8. You are caring for an unconscious patient who has vomited and appears to have a blocked airway. Using the crossed finger technique you open the patient's mouth and can see a large piece of undigested food near the back of the throat. You would: a. Insert an airway b. Administer abdominal thrusts c. Perform a finger sweep d. Encourage the patient to cough

: c Objective: 9-3

12. For which of the following patients is placement of an oropharyngeal airway indicated? a. A responsive but confused patient with stridor us respirations b. A patient who has vomited and responds to painful stimuli by moaning c. An unresponsive patient who has neither a gag reflex nor a cough reflex d. A patient with snoring respirations who coughs as the oral airway is placed into his mouth

: c Objective: 9-6

26. The lower airway consists of which of the following structures? a. Epiglottis, trachea, and bronchi b. Pharynx, bronchi, and alveoli c. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli d. Larynx, bronchi, and alveoli

: c Objective: 9-6

: 389 5. The process by which the body breaks down a substance is known as: a. Elimination b. Detoxification c. Metabolism d. Distribution

: c Objective: 12-1

: 390 2. Which of the following terms does not indicate a route of absorption in the body? a. Ingestion b. Inhalation c. Distribution d. Transdermal

: c Objective: 12-2

: 393 17. Which of the following parts of the body is least often affected by substances? a. The eyes b. The heart c. The lymphatic vessels d. The blood

: c Objective: 12-5

: 393 8. You are visiting a friend's home and suddenly hear a child crying out in the kitchen. As you assess the scene you note kitchen cabinets are open with bottles tossed around. The child is holding her hand to her mouth. Your friend tells you that the child must have tasted something that she didn't like. Based on your scene assessment, you would: a. Agree with your friend and suggest that a cookie would take the bad taste away. b. Ask your friend if she has Ipecac so you can make the child vomit. c. Call 911 and try to identify which bottle the child may have been drinking from. d. Offer the child a glass of milk to dilute any chemical he may have ingested.

: c Objective: 12-6

: 393 20. In the United States, poison-related information is available 24 hours a day by contacting the: a. National Institute on Drug Abuse b. Substance Abuse and Mental Health Hotline c. National Poison Center d. Chemical Emergency Center

: c Objective: 12-7

: 465 15. An alert and oriented 65-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, noisy respirations, jugular vein distention, and edema in her feet and ankles. Her pulse is 132, her respirations are 24, and her blood pressure is 86/68. Based on these findings, you would suspect that the patient: a. Has an aortic dissection/aneurysm. b. Is having a hypertensive emergency. c. Is experiencing congestive heart failure. d. Has pericardial tamponade.

: c Objective: 15-5

: 546 20. Which of the following instructions is appropriate for helping a new patroller care for a patient with a very large abrasion on his arm? a. "When you are done cleaning the abrasion, apply some sterile gauze soaked in sterile saline." b. "It is best to let the wound bleed some. This is the body's natural way of cleaning the wound." c. Wash the gross contamination off pouring on sterile saline, put on a sterile dressing, and recommend the patient go to the hospital for further care. d. "Do not cut away the sleeve over the top of the laceration because that will restart the bleeding."

: c Objective: 18-5

: 589-590 19. Another simple method for estimating the total percentage of area burned is the ______ approach One percent of body area is roughly the size of a _____ a. Fist b. Three-fingers c. Palm d. A peach

: c Objective: 19-6

: 582 15. When managing electrical burns, OEC Technicians should always: a. Use moist dressings b. Use antibiotic ointments c. Assess for signs and symptoms of internal injuries d. Use a topical ointment on the skin

: c Objective: 19-7

: 585 8. For the OEC, the first priority in managing a patient with an electrical burn is: a. Assessing for airway compromise b. Assessing for potential c-spine injury c. Ensuring the power source has been turned off d. Ensuring you have an AED available if needed

: c Objective: 19-7

: 594 9. For the OEC, the first priority in managing a patient with a thermal burn is: a. Assessing for airway compromise b. Completing a secondary survey c. Stopping the burning process to prevent further injury d. Applying dry sterile dressings

: c Objective: 19-7

: 594 6. Your patient is a 25-year-old man who has a reddened area with blisters across the palm of his hand after grabbing the handle of a very hot iron skillet. Which of the following actions must be avoided in the prehospital management of this wound? a. Applying a dry, sterile dressing b. Cooling the burn with cool water c. Applying an antibiotic ointment d. Monitor for shock

: c Objective: 19-7

: 615 14. A patient for whom you recently provided care stops by to thank you. He reports that he was diagnosed with a strain to his lower right leg. Which of the following structures is the primary structure affected in that injury? a. A joint b. A ligament c. A muscle d. A bone

: c Objective: 20-1.5

: 829 19. You need to begin rewarming an unresponsive patient who has a core temperature of 93°F. Which of the following measures would most benefit this patient? a. Give the patient warm drinks to increase internal body temperature. b. Gently massage the patient's arms and legs. c. Wrap the patient in several warm blankets. d. Place one extremity at a time into warm water.

: c Objective: 25-7

: 862 2. You have been doing some spring-cleaning in your yard, and the next day you notice a red, itchy rash developing on your arms. Your doctor tells you that you have poison ivy. You recognize that this reaction occurs because: a. Poison from the plant entered your bloodstream. b. Venom from the plant reacted with your body. c. A toxin, plant oil, came in contact with your skin. d. Your body was unable to create an antigen.

: c Objective: 27-3

: 870, 871 9. Plants most commonly cause toxic reactions through which of the following routes? a. Ingestion and inhalation b. Topical contact and injection c. Ingestion and topical contact d. Inhalation and injection

: c Objective: 27-3

: 871 11. The bite of which of the following spiders that are indigenous to Australia may produce significant toxicity and thus should be treated as potentially life threatening? a. Black widow spider b. Bark scorpion c. Funnel web spider d. Wolf spider

: c Objective: 27-4

: 875, 876 14. DEET (N, N-Diethyl-meta-toluamide) is quite often effective as a (n): a. Antidote for snake bites. b. Anti-inflammatory medication for tick bites. c. Repellent for mosquitoes. d. Analgesic for relieving pain caused by bee stings.

: c Objective: 27-4

: 879 18. Attacks by which of the following creatures do not cause both soft-tissue injuries and fractures? a. Alligators b. Sharks c. Swordfish d. Crocodile

: c Objective: 27-4

: 882 21. You are working at the first-aid station at the local scout camp. A counselor brings in two young boys that he thinks were playing in an area where poison oak was found. Which of the following actions would not be a part of your treatment for the possible exposure to poison oak? a. Putting on non-latex gloves before examining the boys b. Washing the boys' hands and arms with hot water and soap c. Applying a topical cream such as bacitracin to the boys' hands and arms d. Using a commercial cleanser such as Oak-N-Ivy to wash the boys' hands and arms

: c Objective: 27-6

: 889 25. Which of the following actions is not an appropriate treatment measure for a sting by a marine creature? a. Applying a tourniquet if required for controlling life-threatening hemorrhaging b. Irrigating the affected area with fresh water c. Rubbing the affected area to remove any spines d. Rinsing the affected area with a vinegar solution

: c Objective: 27-7

: 902 10. In an otherwise healthy individual, the presence of a headache and feelings of sickness at high altitude is known as: a. A high-altitude migraine b. Acute mountain encephalitis c. Acute mountain sickness d. High-altitude pulmonary edema

: c Objective: 28-5

: 947 11. A 9-month-old boy has been stung on his tongue after sucking on a bottle that had a bee on the nipple. In comparison to the same injury in an adult, why would an OEC Technician be more concerned over this child? a. A child's airway has more blood vessels than an adult's, making bleeding more of a concern. b. Children tend to be highly allergic to bee stings, whereas the same allergy in adults is rare. c. A child's tongue is proportionally larger, increasing the chances of airway occlusion from even minor swelling. d. When injured, a child's mouth produces more saliva, making choking a major concern.

: c Objective: 30-1

: 947 5. Which of the following instructions would you give an OEC Technician who is preparing to assess a stable 9-month-old boy with a rash? a. "Keep the baby calm; do not touch him during the assessment." b. "Start at the head and slowly work your way to the feet." c. "Have the mother hold him as you do the assessment." d. "Make sure that you do not undress the baby for the assessment."

: c Objective: 30-4

: 486 13. You are in the first-aid area assisting a patient who just arrived with chest pain. He relates a history of angina that usually resolves with nitroglycerin. The patient states that the pain started when he was skiing through the bumps. Over the last 20 minutes, he has taken three nitroglycerin tablets and rested, but the pain has not gone away. Your next action would be to: a. Try one more nitroglycerin tablet because nitroglycerin usually relieves his pain. b. Attach an AED in case he goes into cardiac arrest. c. Place him on high-flow oxygen, and call for transfer to medical facility. d. Offer an aspirin.

: c (I think this is a bad question, fix it the way I showed d should be: start CPR (David) Objective: 15-8

: 542, 553 1. Which of the following statements concerning a patient who received electrical burns to his hand after grabbing a live wire is true? a. The burning will continue for hours, perhaps days. b. The patient will remain an electrocution hazard to rescuers for several minutes after being removed from the source of electricity. c. The extent of tissue damage may be much greater than it appears on the surface. d. Electrical burns are a minor injury.

: c ok Objective: 19-2

1. Rather than rewriting the whole report when an error is made, which of the following is the best method for correcting written errors on the report? a. Erase the error then write the correct information then initial, date, and time the change. b. Scratch the error out completely then write the correct information then initial, date, and time the change. c. Use white out to cover the mistake then correct the information and initial, date and time the change. d. Draw a single line through the error, then write the correct information, initial, date and time the change.

: d

: 604 27. The outermost part of a bone is a tough lining known as: a. The cortex. b. Articular cartilage. c. Synovium. d. The periosteum.

: d Objective: 20-1.1

: 604 28. Which of the following terms describes a type of joint except? a. Ball and socket b. Hinge c. Gliding d. Post

: d Objective: 20-1.1

: 335-336 20. Shock is defined as: a. Adequate blood pressure but no pulse. b. A decrease in the amount of circulating blood for any reason. c. Adequate blood pressure and multiple organ failure. d. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion.

: d Objective: 10-1

: 346-347 11. Shock can best be described as: a. The cells are getting glucose and other nutrients but not oxygen. b. The amount of oxygen reaching the cells is adequate, but carbon dioxide is not being removed. c. The blood contains an adequate amount of oxygen but not enough nutrients for cells to survive d. Inadequate tissue perfusion in which cells do not receive sufficient amounts of oxygen and nutrients.

: d Objective: 10-1

: 304-305 Chapter 10 1. A patient in early onset of shock informs you that he has had severe diarrhea and vomiting over the past four days. Given this history, you would recognize the pathophysiology of the shock is probably related to: a. The loss of red blood cells b. Decreased formed elements in the blood c. Stoppage of the capillaries d. The loss of plasma volume

: d Objective: 10-6

: 336-339 6. The underlying cause of distributive shock is: a. Poor fluid intake b. Loss of blood volume c. A damaged heart that has poor contractility d. Dilation of blood vessels

: d Objective: 10-6

: 339-340 4. The four major types of shock are: a. Hemorrhagic, distributive, hypoxic, and obstructive. b. Burn, hypovolemic, distributive, and hypoxic. c. Hypoglycemic, obstructive, distributive and hypovolemic. d. Hypovolemic, cardiogenic, obstructive, and distributive.

: d Objective: 10-6

: 347-348 15. A patient who sustained blunt trauma to the abdominal and pelvic areas in a very serious collision is probably in which type of shock? a. Obstructive b. Cardiogenic c. Distributive d. Hypovolemic

: d Objective: 10-6

: 345 13. Which of the following statements best indicates that the speaker understands the role of caring for a patient in shock in a prehospital setting? a. "The job of the prehospital provider is not to treat the patient for shock and get the patient to the hospital, where treatment for shock can be started." b. "Because shock is a life-threatening condition, it is important to identify its exact cause so that the OEC technician can administer the proper care to correct it." c. "If shock is in the compensatory or early stage, it is not yet life threatening, so you can take your time to carefully assess and treat the patient." d. "Because shock is best treated in the hospital, one should provide care to correct problems affecting ABCDs and then rapidly transport the patient."

: d Objective: 10-9

: 345-346 14. A 56-year-old female has struck a tree. Your assessment reveals gurgling respirations, rapid breathing, and cool, diaphoretic skin. You also observe bruising to the chest and abdomen. Which one of the following should be your first concern? a. Determine her pulse rate b. Elevate her feet c. Evaluate her for shock d. Open and maintain her airway

: d Objective: 10-9

: 361, 379 30. In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the U stands for: a. Urticarial b. Usher syndrome c. Ulcers d. Uremia (kidney failure)

: d Objective: 11-2

: 361, 379 32. In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the first and second I stands for: a. Insomnia and intestine b. Impetigo and injury c. Interstitial cystitis and iodine d. Insulin and infection

: d Objective: 11-2

: 361, 380 33. In the mnemonic AEIOU-TIPS, the P stands for: a. Parathyroid disorders and Parkinson's disease. b. Parathyroid disorders and psychiatric conditions. c. Parkinson's disease and peripheral nerve disorder. d. Poisoning and psychiatric conditions.

: d Objective: 11-2

: 365 26. Which of the following statements concerning the causation of seizures is correct? a. A seizure occurs when the heart beats irregularly, causing a decreased amount of oxygen-rich blood to reach the brain. b. All seizures are caused by epilepsy, a term that describes a problem somewhere in the body. c. A seizure condition is a muscle problem that causes the arms and legs to jerk. d. A seizure occurs when there is an electrical disturbance in the brain.

: d Objective: 11-4

: 380 20. You are called to the lodge to assess a 3-year-old boy. The parents state that their son was playing with his brother and "blanked out" and "stared off into space" for several seconds. They deny any convulsing-like movement. Based on this description, you would suspect what type of seizure? a. A febrile seizure b. A simple partial seizure c. A grand mal seizure d. An absence (petit mal) seizure

: d Objective: 11-4

: 374, 375 8. You have been called for a 63-year-old woman with slurred speech and right arm weakness. On arrival, the patient informs you that the slurred speech and weakness have resolved. Since your assessment reveals no deficits, you would tell the patient: a. "It would be best to start taking one baby aspirin every day; this will decrease the chance of this happening again." b. "Sometimes seizures present this way; call your doctor in the morning to schedule an appointment." c. "If this happens again, wait 10 minutes to see if you are okay. If the symptoms don't go away, call 911." d. "You really need to be evaluated in the hospital. You could be having a stroke."

: d Objective: 11-5

: 375 3. Which of the following instructions to a possible stroke patient describes the proper procedure for assessing an arm drift? a. "Hold your arms up over your head for 20 seconds." b. "Grab my fingers with both of your hands and squeeze as hard as you can." c. "Raise your hands above your head and close your eyes." d. "Hold your arms straight out in front of you with your palms facing up with your eyes closed."

: d Objective: 11-5

: 376 6. You have assessed a patient and found a patent airway, adequate breathing, and a strong radial pulse. The patient is having no difficulty speaking and no facial droop, but exhibits a slight left arm drift. You should interpret these findings as: a. Not suggestive of a stroke. b. Suggestive of a stroke only if the patient's blood pressure is also elevated. c. Suggestive of a stroke only if the patient's pupils are not equal. d. Suggestive that a stroke may be occurring.

: d Objective: 11-5

: 377 10. Which of the following events best describes an ischemic stroke? a. An artery in the brain has ruptured. b. Blood has collected throughout the brain tissue. c. A heart attack has occurred at the same time as a stroke. d. A blood clot has obstructed a blood vessel in the brain.

: d Objective: 11-5

: 373 (ok.... verified) 15. The benefit of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale is that it: a. Enables you to screen patients at risk for a future stroke. b. Enables you to identify the type of stroke a patient is having. c. Helps you predict the likelihood a patient will die from a stroke. d. Helps you identify the probability that your patient is having a stroke.

: d Objective: 11-6

: 375 2. When assessing a patient for a possible stroke patient, you should NOT: a. Ask the patient stick his tongue straight out. b. Ask the patient to repeat a simple phrase. c. See if one side of the patient's mouth is drooping. d. Write questions on note cards for the patient to read.

: d Objective: 11-6

: 410 16. Which of the following statements about respiratory accessory muscles is NOT correct? a. They are recruited whenever the body's oxygen demand exceeds oxygen availability. b. They include chest, shoulder, and abdominal muscles. c. They bring more oxygen into the body by helping the chest wall expand more fully. d. They decrease negative internal chest pressure to draw more air into the lungs.

: d Objective: 13-1

: 408 2. Which of the following lists best represents the correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs once it passes the pharynx? a. Bronchi, larynx, trachea, cricoid b. Epiglottis, esophagus, trachea, alveoli c. Trachea, uvula,, bronchi, alveoli d. Larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

: d Objective: 13-2

: 411 3. When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which of the following events occurs? a. Inhalation b. Release c. Inspiration d. Exhalation

: d Objective: 13-5

: 413 26. Hyperventilation syndrome is a common psychological condition that: a. Is always benign and resolves with no treatment. b. Is characterized by shallow, irregular, rapid breaths. c. Is often precipitated by exercise. d. Results in abnormally low blood carbon dioxide levels.

: d Objective: 13-9

: 418 19. A 71-year-old woman is complaining of the sudden onset of shortness of breath and also some chest pain during deep breaths. She is cyanotic and appears somewhat panicked. Her respirations are rapid and deep. Her husband tells you that she had knee surgery about one week ago. Based on your assessment and the patient's history, you suspect that the patient is suffering from: a. An anxiety attack b. An asthma attack c. COPD d. A pulmonary embolus

: d Objective: 13-9

: 418 27. Several abnormal lung sounds can be helpful in understanding what condition may be affecting a patient. One such sound is wheezing. Which of the following statements about wheezing is false? a. It indicates constriction of the lower airway passages. b. It is typically caused by asthma. c. It may be heard on inhalation, exhalation, or both. d. It can be heard only with a stethoscope.

: d Objective: 13-9

: 418 1. Which of the following statements from a patient suggests he may be having a mild allergic reaction? a. "I have had a fever and chills for the past two days." b. "My heart feels as though it is skipping some beats." c. "I feel dizzy and weak." d. "I have a rash on my face and neck."

: d Objective: 14-4

: 447-448 15. Which of the following findings is present in anaphylaxis but is not a sign of a mild allergic reaction? a. Anxiousness b. Swelling at the site of a bee sting c. Hives d. Hypotension

: d Objective: 14-4

: 447 14. When administering epinephrine to an infant or child, the injector should be placed at what location? a. The outer buttock b. The anterior thigh c. The upper arm d. The lateral thigh

: d Objective: 14-5

: 462 24. Which of the following statements concerning the flow of blood to and through the right side of the heart is correct? a. Blood reaches the right atrium from the aorta, is pumped through the mitral valve into the right ventricle, and is then pumped through the pulmonary veins to the lungs. b. Poorly oxygenated blood reaches the right ventricle from the venae cavae, is pumped through the pulmonic valve into the pulmonary artery, and then enters the right atrium and is pumped into the lungs. c. Oxygenated blood reaches the right atrium from the pulmonary veins, is pumped through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, and is then pumped into the aorta and throughout the body. d. Poorly oxygenated blood reaches the right atrium from the venae cavae, is pumped through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, and is then pumped through the pulmonic valve and on to the lungs through the pulmonary arteries.

: d Objective: 15-3

: 465 28. A patient tells you that he has been diagnosed with coronary artery disease. You recognize this diagnosis to mean that the patient has: a. A history of acute myocardial infarction. b. Had an operation known as coronary artery bypass grafting? c. A failure of the heart to efficiently pump blood. d. Narrowing of the small arteries that supply blood and oxygen to the heart.

: d Objective: 15-4

: 466-467 32. Hypotension, distended neck veins, and muffled or distant heart tones are hallmark signs of: a. Pericarditis b. Congestive heart failure c. Aortic aneurysm d. Pericardial tamponade

: d Objective: 15-5

: 911 16. What percentage of patients who have HAPE do not develop AMS first? a. 10 percent b. 20 percent c. 40 percent d. 50 percent

: d Objective: 28-6

: 485 4. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker has an understanding of chest pain and acute myocardial infarction? a. "If the chest pain started during activity, it is most likely cardiac in origin. If the pain started while the patient was at rest, it is most likely not cardiac in origin." b. "If the patient's chest pain does not go away with nitroglycerin, you can assume that the medication has expired and is no longer effective." c. "If the patient experiences chest pain that radiates into the left arm, it is most likely a heart attack. If the pain radiates anywhere else, it is most likely not cardiac in origin." d. "Some patients experiencing acute myocardial infarction do not have actual chest pain; instead, they may experience a sensation of 'severe heartburn.' "

: d Objective: 15-5

: 521 3. A heavy-set snowboarder was critically injured when he crashed into a tree on a dimly lit trail. It was reported that he appeared to be out of control while traveling at a high rate of speed down the expert trail. Which of the following factors had the greatest impact on the extent of his injuries? a. The skier's weight b. The size of the tree he hit c. The dimly lit trail d. The speed the skier was going

: d Objective: 17-1

: 526 8. Which of the following best defines mechanism of injury? a. Physical injury caused by an external force b. A set of problems associated with a specific source of trauma c. The study of movement of body segments without consideration given to its mass or the forces making it move. d. The method that an injury occurs.

: d Objective: 17-1

: 521 9. Your patient has been involved in a backcountry hiking accident and has multi-system trauma. It is most important to consider which of the following when making your evacuation plans: a. Location of the patient's home b. Location of the patient's nearest family member c. Location of the patient's primary doctor d. Location of the nearest trauma center

: d Objective: 17-4

: 524 522-523 21. Assessment and management of the trauma patient should include: a. Reassessing the patient every 30 minutes b. Transporting trauma patients as soon as the Scene Size Up is complete c. Initiating CPR on all patients with chest trauma d. Gathering information about the mechanism of injury

: d Objective: 17-5

: 540, 542 2. You are responding to a call to aid a patient who has cut himself with a knife. Reportedly arterial bleeding is involved. Given this information, which of the following findings do you expect? a. Flowing dark-red blood that is difficult to control b. Oozing bright-red blood that is easy to control c. Spurting dark-red blood that is difficult to control d. Bright-red blood that is spurting with each beat of the heart

: d Objective: 18-2

: 545 12. Which of the following lists correctly names the layers of the skin? a. Dermis, muscle, epidermis b. Epidermis, subcutaneous, muscle c. Dermis, subcutaneous, muscle d. Subcutaneous, epidermis, dermis

: d Objective: 18-2

: 546 28. What is the function of subcutaneous fat? a. It produces glucose needed for energy. b. It has no real function and is unhealthy and detrimental to survival. c. It always projects underlying organs from trauma. d. It insulates the body and stores energy.

: d Objective: 18-2

: 540 29. Which of the following phrases best describes a closed-tissue injury? a. A wound that has scabbed over or healed b. A wound in which platelets and proteins have formed a plug c. A wound with no obviously visible opening, such as a needle stick d. A wound in which underlying tissues are damaged but the overlying skin remains intact

: d Objective: 18-3

: 551 14. Assessment of a patient who fell reveals bruising to her right buttock. Her skin is intact and she complains of tenderness in the area when you palpate it. You would recognize which of the following types of injury? a. An avulsion b. An abrasion c. An open injury d. A contusion

: d Objective: 18-3

: 543 16. Which of the following assessment findings best indicates that a patient's injury should be classified as an abrasion? a. Intact skin with ecchymosis noted; patient describes minor pain b. Jagged breaks in the skin; bleeding moderate but controllable c. Intact skin with a large accumulation of dark blood underneath d. Red scrapes involving the outermost layer of skin only

: d Objective: 18-4

: 546-547 18. A 49-year-old man was climbing on rocks when he fell backward to the ground. He presents with a two-inch linear wound on the top of his head. Bleeding has been controlled. You would document this type of injury as a (n): a. Avulsion b. Contusion c. Abrasion d. Laceration

: d Objective: 18-4

: 554 37. the most effective method for treating a contusion is to apply a (n): a. Pressure dressing b. Tourniquet c. Bandage d. Ice pack

: d Objective: 18-5

: 561 22. A patient has had part of his right thumb amputated in an accident. Friends have retrieved the thumb and wrapped it in a towel. When you arrive, you would demonstrate appropriate handling of the amputated part by: a. Placing the thumb in a plastic bag filled with ice. b. Keeping the thumb in the towel. c. Placing the thumb in a container of sterile saline or sterile water. d. Wrapping the thumb in a moist sterile dressing, placing it in a sterile bag, and keeping it cool.

: d Objective: 18-5

: 559 24. You have applied a pressure dressing to the calf of a woman who suffered a deep laceration from a piece of broken glass. Which of the following actions should you take next? a. Apply a splint b. Obtain a follow-up blood pressure reading c. Apply a tourniquet above the laceration d. Check CMS in the patient's foot

: d Objective: 18-8

: 592 3. Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants while he was standing near the pilot light of his hot-water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, circumferentially around both legs. According to the Rules of Nines, the man burned ____ of his body surface. a. 9 percent b. 4.5 percent c. 36 percent d. 18 percent

: d Objective: 19-6

: 608 2. Which of the following statements about skeletal (voluntary) muscles is true? a. They are mostly located on the torso of the body. b. They make up less mass in the body than do involuntary muscles. c. They have the ability to cause movement by extending. d. They generally connect to the skeletal system.

: d Objective: 20-1.1

: 610 23. Which of the following musculoskeletal tissues does not heal? a. A tendon b. A ligament c. A muscle d. A cartilage

: d Objective: 20-1.3

: 625 20. Your friend tells you that he wants to try snowboarding. He is concerned about his safety and asks you which type of fracture is most common in snowboarders. You learned in your OEC training that this injury involves the: a. Humerus b. Elbow c. Tibia d. Radius

: d Objective: 20-2.3

: 705 32. A primary injury to the central nervous system would be caused by: a. Drowning b. A hematoma c. A brachial plexus injury d. A laceration of the spinal cord

: d Objective: 21-3

: 711 6. A patient involved in a motor-vehicle collision has suffered the separation of a rib from a spinal vertebra. Based on the anatomy of the spine, where has this injury occurred? a. The lumbar spine b. The cervical spine c. The middle spine d. The thoracic spine

: d Objective: 21-3

: 702 31. A mechanical injury to the brain that results in a short-term and/or a long-term neurologic deficit is: a. A repetitive head injury b. A subdural hematoma c. Neural ischemia d. A traumatic brain injury

: d Objective: 21-4

: 715 19. For which of the following patients involved in a motor vehicle collision is the use of a vest-type short immobilization device indicated? a. A 42-year-old male who was ejected from the vehicle and is lying supine in the roadway complaining of back pain b. A 25-year-old restrained driver who is responsive and has a history of diabetes c. A 15-year-old female complaining of neck and back pain who got out of the car and is standing next to it d. A 33-year-old female in the backseat who complains of midline posterior neck pain and a headache

: d Objective: 21-6

: 718 41. Your patient is a young female who was thrown from her mountain bike and is now confused. Assessment findings include an open airway, adequate breathing, and a strong radial pulse. Which of the following questions would be the most important to ask her friends who were with her? a. "Has she ever needed to be hospitalized before?" b. "Are all of her immunizations up to date?" c. "Is she allergic to anything?" d. "Did she lose responsiveness?"

: d Objective: 21-6

: 724 28. You are assessing 30-year-old man who has fallen about 20 feet. He is alert and oriented but states that he cannot move or feel his legs. Additionally, because his blood pressure is 82/48 mmHg, you suspect neurogenic shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings reinforces your suspicion of neurogenic shock? a. Warm and dry skin b. Heart rate of 144 c. Shallow rapid respirations d. Heart rate of 44

: d Objective: 21-6

: 705 46. Which of the following findings indicates that a patient who received a blow to the head is suffering from something other than a concussion/TBI? a. He cannot remember what happened. b. He asks the same questions over and over. c. His heart rate is 92 and his blood pressure is 144/86. d. His pupils are noticeably unequal.

: d Objective: 21-7

: 715 24. Which of the following statements indicates that OEC Technicians are correctly using a vest type short spine immobilization device? a. The cervical collar is applied after the chest has been secured to the device. b. The head is secured first, followed by the torso and legs. c. The head is secured to the device immediately after the cervical collar is applied. d. The head is secured to the device after the chest has been secured.

: d Objective: 21-8

: 722 23. You are maintaining manual in-line stabilization of the cervical spine for a patient being log rolled, transferred, and secured to a long backboard. At what point should you release the manual in-line stabilization? a. Once the patient has been log rolled onto the long backboard b. After the patient's head, chest, and knees have been secured with straps c. Once the patient has been placed in the waiting ambulance d. After the body has been fully strapped and the head immobilized with blocks and straps

: d Objective: 21-9

: 760 12. What instructions would you give to an OEC candidate who asks how to treat a patient who has visible blood in the anterior chamber of the eye? a. "It is important to keep the pressure in the eye low, so we will transport this patient in a sitting position." b. "Apply a cold pack to the eye and transport this patient immediately." c. "Put a shield over the eye and bandage tightly to apply some pressure to the eye." d. "Put a shield over the eye and cover both eyes before immediately transporting this patient."

: d Objective: 22-10

: 761 11. During an altercation, your patient was cut with a sharp knife. Your assessment reveals a laceration across the right eyelid down to the right cheek that is oozing dark red blood. It also appears that the patient's eye was cut with the knife. You would: a. Apply direct pressure to the eyelid and the eye to control the bleeding. b. Apply cold packs to the eyelid to decrease swelling. c. Clean the incisions with sterile water. d. Cover both eyes with a sterile dressing.

: d Objective: 22-10

: 744 7. The sternocleidomastoid muscle is responsible for: a. Anatomically dividing the neck into right and left sides. b. Protecting the larynx from injury. c. Securing the clavicle to the shoulder. d. Rotation of the head.

: d Objective: 22-7

: 746 4. The largest bone of the face, which forms the upper jaw, the hard palate, the floor of the nose, and the lower portion of each eye socket, is the: a. Mandible b. Zygoma c. Frontal bone d. Maxilla

: d Objective: 22-7

: 757 17. A 15-year-old girl struck in the mouth with a baseball bat has lost her front teeth and is splitting a significant amount of blood. Your primary concern in treating this patient is: a. Saving her teeth so they can be reimplanted. b. Checking her for a jaw fracture. c. Watching her for seizure activity. d. Observing her for possible airway compromise.

: d Objective: 22-9

: 772 22. Injuries at which level of the spinal cord can affect the phrenic nerves and therefore respiration? a. T1-T3 b. T4-T6 c. C6-T1 d. C3-C5

: d Objective: 23-2

: 781 17. Which of the following actions occurs when the diaphragm and the intercostal muscles relax? a. Inhalation b. Release c. Inspiration d. Exhalation

: d Objective: 23-2

: 777 15. You suspect that a trauma patient is suffering from a hemothorax to the left lung. Which of the following assessment findings would reinforce your suspicion? a. Neck vein distention and absent breath sounds in the right lung b. Cyanosis and a blood pressure of 210/100 c. Bradycardia and hypertension d. Respiratory distress and the signs and symptoms of shock

: d Objective: 23-3

: 779 24. You are instructing a class in Outdoor Emergency Care when a student asks you to explain the L.A.P. method of examining the thorax. Your best reply to this question would be which of the following statements? a. "The L.A.P. method divides the chest into three exam areas: the lateral, anterior, and posterior thorax." b. "The L.A.P. method can be used under any conditions and in any environment." c. "The L.A.P. method is a rapid assessment for deformities of the chest." d. "The L.A.P. method directs you to look, auscultate, and palpate the chest."

: d Objective: 23-5

: 775 10. You are assisting at an accident scene and are asked to apply a dressing over a sucking chest wound on the patient's left anterior chest wall. Which of the following items would you use? a. A dry sterile gauze dressing b. Sterile gauze soaked in sterile water c. A clean cravat d. Vaseline gauze

: d Objective: 23-6

: 496 & 798 8 The function of organs in the abdomen is: a. Only digestion b. The storage of fat c. The absorption of oxygen d. Digestion, production of white blood cells, and the filtering of blood

: d Objective: 24-2

: 798 15. In which of the following injuries can the abdominal cavity migrate into the thoracic cavity? a. A rib fracture b. An abdominal hernia c. An intestinal tear d. A tear in the diaphragm

: d Objective: 24-3

: 798 5. You would recognize which one of the following situations as an acute abdominal emergency? a. A patient who complains of stomach pain and has bad-smelling gas b. A woman who says she drank tequila last night and now has stomach pain with diarrhea c. A child whose sister has hepatitis and who has just vomited for the first time d. A ski racer who hit a tree and has significant left flank pain prior to and during palpation.

: d Objective: 24-3

: 806 21. Because pelvic fractures can result in large blood losses, you should: a. Give the patient liquids by mouth to replace lost body fluids. b. Apply O2 at 2 to 3 LPM via a non-rebreathing mask. c. Give the patient glucose. d. Call for ALS to begin treatment ASAP to replace lost body fluids.

: d Objective: 24-8

: 817, 828 6. Which of the following patients is losing body heat by the mechanism of convection? a. A 41-year-old female who is intoxicated and has passed out and is buried in the snow b. A 56-year-old male who is confused, wet and perspiring heavily c. A 63-year-old female who took a drug that depressed her brain function and is sitting in the lodge d. A 30-year-old male exposed to a light breeze in a cold environment

: d Objective: 25-1

: 832 28. Which of the following statements concerning immersion hypothermia is true? a. It occurs only when the entire body and head are submersed. b. Death will typically occur within a few minutes. c. The function of arm and leg muscles will not affect the outcome. d. It can take more than 30 minutes for an individual to become hypothermic.

: d Objective: 25-4

: 820 26. To prevent a continued drop in core body temperature after treatment for hypothermia has begun, the patient should: a. Immediately start exercising to produce body heat. b. Have the extremities vigorously rubbed to move fluids into the body's core. c. Be entirely immersed in warm water. d. Remain quiet and in a supine position.

: d Objective: 25-6

: 827 22. One of your friends on a hunting trip in Montana has suffered a severe localized cold injury to his hand and fingers. He does not have any life-threatening conditions and you elect to rewarm the affected areas. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for your friend? a. Immerse the hand and fingers in water that is hotter than 120°F. b. Vigorously rub the hands and fingers. c. Slowly and gradually warm the affected hand and fingers d. Thaw and rewarm the tissue as quickly as possible.

: d Objective: 25-8

: 828 21. You are facilitating a talk on cold emergencies in the backcountry. You are asked when one should attempt to rewarm a hand or foot that is frostbitten. Which of the following statements would be your best response? a. "You never want to rewarm a frozen body part because doing so can cause additional damage." b. "Attempt to rewarm a frozen body part only if the person still has some feeling in it." c. "Rewarm the frozen body part if the patient needs to self evacuate a. d. "Rewarming should take place only when there is no chance that the tissue will refreeze."

: d Objective: 25-8

: 843 2. The body cools itself primarily by: a. Conduction b. Respiration c. Radiation d. Evaporation

: d Objective: 26-1

: 843, 851 5. Which of the following patients would have the highest priority for transport? a. A 24-year-old who is intoxicated and is complaining of pain and spasms in his legs b. A 34-year-old who is responsive, has cool diaphoretic skin, and is complaining of nausea c. A 28-year-old who is responsive, has tachycardia, and has cool, moist skin d. A 19-year-old who is lethargic, has hot dry skin, and has tachycardia

: d Objective: 26-3

: 852, 854 7. When cooling a patient with a possible heat stroke, which of the following findings would be of most concern to a rescuer? a. An increase in blood pressure to 100/80 b. A decrease in heart rate from 140 beats per minute to 120 beats per minute c. Observing your partner applying an ice pack to the patient's neck d. Observing your partner giving the patient two aspirin to bring down his temperature

: d Objective: 26-3

: 900 6. The concentration of oxygen at sea level is approximately: a. 35 percent b. 43 percent c. 40 percent d. 21 percent

: d Objective: 28-2

: 903 8. You are teaching a class on acute mountain sickness. When one of your students asks you to explain the term acclimatization in relation to AMS, your best response would be which of the following statements? a. "Physiologic changes that increase the body's ability to adjust to extreme changes in temperature." b. "Physiologic changes that decrease the body's need for oxygen at high altitudes." c. "Physiologic changes that decrease the body's need for slow ascents." d. "Physiologic adjustments that increase the delivery of oxygen to cells."

: d Objective: 28-4

: 903 11. You are with a group of hikers on the third day of an 11,000-foot mountain ascent. One of the hikers has not been feeling well for a couple of days. Today, members of the group notice that he is having difficulty getting dressed and speaking. From your training in outdoor emergency care, you recognize that these signs and symptoms are most often associated with: a. Acute mountain sickness b. Peripheral neuropathy c. Frostbite d. HACE

: d Objective: 28-5

: 912 18. You have a 32-year-old male patient who just arrived at the aid room on the top of a 9,000-foot peak. He is exhibiting signs of altitude sickness and HAPE. You recognize that the final key to a successful outcome of treatment is to: a. Get him to lie down so his symptoms do not worsen. b. start him on O2 while waiting for him to be transported c. Prevent further body cooling by covering him with blankets. d. Recognize the patient's signs and descend to a lower elevation.

: d Objective: 28-7

: 922 3. The mammalian diving reflex is most prominent in: a. Experienced swimmers b. Deep-water divers c. Adults in warm water d. Young children

: d Objective: 29-2

: 925, 926 5. Drowning is defined as: a. Fluid oxidation of the lungs. b. Death by traumatic injury to the airway. c. Respiratory impairment due to trauma. d. Suffocation by submersion in a liquid.

: d Objective: 29-3

: 926 8. Decompression sickness (DSC) or the "bends" is a (n): a. Excessive O2 level in the body b. Buildup of nitrous acid in the body c. High level of carbon dioxide in the body d. Buildup of nitrogen bubbles in the body

: d Objective: 29-3

: 926 7. Two of the most important conditions that can complicate drowning and near-drowning are: a. Water depth and PH b. Undertow and turbidity c. Time of day and air temperature d. Water temperature and salinity

: d Objective: 29-3

39. The study of human and animal structures at the gross and microscopic levels is known as: a. Physiology b. Homeostasis c. Biology d. Anatomy

: d Objective: 6-1

47. The study of mechanical, physical, and biochemical functions of humans is known as: a. Endocrinology b. Biology c. Anatomy d. Physiology

: d Objective: 6-1

44. The pelvic cavity contains which of the following organs? a. The bladder and the kidneys b. The kidneys and the spleen c. The pancreas and the bladder d. The rectum and the reproductive organs

: d Objective: 6-4

25. The nervous system is subdivided into which two main parts? a. The brain and spinal cord b. The spinal cord and peripheral nerves c. The brain and extremity nerves d. The central and peripheral nervous system

: d Objective: 6-5

29. Which of the following lists identifies the regions of the spinal column from superior to inferior? a. Cervical, lumbar, thoracic, sacral, and coccyx b. Coccyx, lumbar, thoracic, cervical, and sacral c. Thoracic, lumbar, cervical, coccyx, and sacral d. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccyx

: d Objective: 6-5

36. A patellar fracture affects which part of the body? a. The tibia b. The hip c. The elbow d. The knee

: d Objective: 6-5

49. The spleen is part of which body system? a. The cardiovascular system b. The endocrine system c. The gastrointestinal system d. The lymphatic system

: d Objective: 6-5

54. Cerebrospinal fluid provides three beneficial properties. Which of the following is one of those properties? a. Conducts electrical impulses b. Provides cooling to the cerebellum c. Helps regulate the endocrine system d. Helps cushion the brain

: d Objective: 6-5

2. You have been dispatched to an 89-year-old female with an unspecified complaint. When assessing this patient, which one of the following will the OEC Technician do as quickly as possible to develop a better understanding of the emergency? a. Obtain the patient's vital signs and current medications. b. Gather a medical history, including information on allergies. c. Contact medical direction for advice. d. Determine if the chief complaint is medical (NOI) or trauma related (MOI).

: d Objective: 7-1

48. What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patient's report that difficulty in breathing became worse about two hours ago? a. Q b. R c. S d. T

: d Objective: 7-10

35. A Glasgow Coma Scale score less than ____ is associated with a high risk for major neurological injury. a. 12 b. 10 c. 8 d. 13

: d Objective: 7-12

: 217 37. Which of the following things does not indicate a possible safety issue during a scene size-up? a. Downed wires b. Ice or mud c. Wild animals d. ABCDs

: d Objective: 7-2

12. How should an OEC Technician best determine the adequacy of a patient's breathing during a primary assessment? a. Determine the patient's mental status. b. Compare the patient's blood pressure and pulse rates. c. Assess the patient's ability to raise their shoulders. d. Look for the rise and fall of the patient's chest.

: d Objective: 7-4

18. Which of the following statements indicates that an OEC Technician correctly understands capillary refill? a. "Capillary refill is a reliable sign of perfusion in adults, but not as reliable in infants and children." b. "Flushed skin in an adult is a normal finding when assessing capillary refill." c. "A capillary refill of four or more seconds in a patient of any age indicates that the patient is well oxygenated." d. "For a capillary refill test to be normal, it must be assessed at room temperature and be less than two seconds."

: d Objective: 7-4

15. While taking vital signs, you cannot locate a radial pulse in a possible broken arm of a 42-year-old male who is alert and breathing adequately. Which one of the following should you do? a. Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation. b. Attach the automated external defibrillator (AED). c. Skip taking pulse and move on to splinting. d. Assess the carotid artery gently for a pulse.

: d Objective: 7-5

16. You are assessing an eight-month-old whose mother states has been vomiting for two days and not eating or drinking. When assessing the pulse in an infant, which site should you check first? a. The temporal artery b. The radial artery c. The femoral artery d. The brachial artery

: d Objective: 7-5

17. The finding that a patient's skin is warm, pink, and dry during a primary assessment suggests: a. Possible shock b. Possible fever c. Poor oxygenation d. Normal circulation

: d Objective: 7-5

49. Which of the following tasks is part of a secondary assessment? a. Opening the airway b. Checking for life-threatening bleeding c. Inserting an OPA d. Taking a blood pressure reading

: d Objective: 7-5

22. Which one of the following signs should an OEC Technician detect during a secondary assessment of a critically injured patient? a. Decreased level of responsiveness b. Weak carotid pulse and clammy skin c. Inadequate respiratory effort d. Bruising and tenderness to the abdomen

: d Objective: 7-7

31. An OEC Technician identifies the medications a patient takes during which portion of a patient assessment? a. The primary assessment b. The OPQRST exam c. The chief complaint d. The medical history

: d Objective: 7-7

32. You have been asked to teach a new patroller how to put a patient in the recovery position. Which of the following statements about the recovery position would be correct? a. "Roll the patient onto his back and then hold him there until help arrives." b. "After turning the patient on his side, rest the patient's head on your aid pack." c. "Elevate the patient's lower body so that his oral secretions will drain out easily." d. "Turn the patient on his side and flex his upper leg so that it anchors him on his side."

: d Objective: 9- 4

25. Which of the following statements shows that the OEC technician understands how to suction patients properly in a field setting? a. "A rigid suction catheter is affected more by temperature than a flexible catheter and therefore flexible catheters should be chilled b. "To thoroughly suction a patient, I insert the rigid tip of the catheter past the base of the tongue and into the pharynx." c. "It is helpful to pour sterile water into a patient's mouth to liquefy vomit and make it easier to suction out." d. When there is active bleeding in the mouth, I may need to use gravity and suction concurrently."

: d Objective: 9- 5

15. You recognize that an oropharyngeal airway has been appropriately inserted when: a. It cannot be dislodged by the rescuer. b. The flange sits about ¼ inches from the patient's lips. c. Vomiting is no longer occurring. d. Air moves freely in and out of the airway.

: d Objective: 9- 6

6. You want to open your patient's mouth to check for obstruction with the cross-finger technique. Which of the following describes the best way to accomplish the cross-finger technique? a. Place your index finger and thumb between the patient's teeth and into the oropharynx. Then push the teeth apart b. Place your fingers on the lower teeth and pull downwards to open the mouth c. Cross your index finger and thumb on the boney part of the lower jaw. Then push up on the jaw to open the mouth d. Place your index finger on the upper teeth and thumb on the lower teeth. Then spread your finger and thumb apart opening the mouth.

: d Objective: 9-2

11. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands how and when to use an oropharyngeal airway? a. "It can be used for patients who respond to painful stimuli" b. "It should be sized from the tip of the nose to the angle of the jaw" c. "It protects the patient from aspirating vomit or other secretions." d. "I must watch the patient for vomiting or gagging even with the proper insertion."

: d Objective: 9-6

30. Which of the following statements shows that the speaker understands how to properly store an oxygen tank after use? a. "I'm going to leave the regulator set to 15 LPM so it will be ready when we need it." b. "I'll stand the oxygen tank on the floor beside the stretcher so everyone will know where it is." c. "I'll tighten the valve stem as much as I can so it won't come loose." d. "I'll place the oxygen tank in its protective case until we need to use it again."

: d Objective: 9-9

: 627 31. A snowboarder's fall over the toe side of the board onto an outstretched hand is known as the: a. "Drop back" b. "Twist" c. "Dog drag" d. "Mousetrap"

: d Objective 20- 2.3

: 397 table 12-2 15. Substance abuse is defined as: a. An intentional or unintentional use of a substance or poison that results in a medical emergency. b. An accidental ingestion of a toxin that interferes with normal functioning. c. The use of a substance or poison at least once a day. d. The intentional misuse of a substance that results in significant impairment.

: d Objective: 12-3

: 390 19. The most commonly abused drug in the world is: a. Marijuana b. Cocaine c. Amphetamine d. Alcohol

: d Objective: 12-4

: 398 9. It is late Friday evening and you are joining your friends at a cabin for a winter weekend trip. When you open the door you notice how nice and warm it is inside from the wood stove. Your friends though are not very welcoming. They tell you they are not feeling well and complain of being lightheaded and nauseated. Based on their symptoms, you are concerned they may be suffering from: a. Carbon dioxide poisoning b. Alcohol toxicity c. Excessive heat exposure d. Carbon monoxide poisoning

: d Objective: 12-5

: 398 12. You are helping a friend change the battery in his truck when acid from the old battery splashes in his eye. He is complaining of pain in his right eye and is having a hard time keeping it open. He has no problems with airway, breathing, or circulation. What should you do? a. Cover both his eyes and immediately drive him to the nearest Emergency Department. b. Place an ice pack on his eye and immediately transport him to the nearest Emergency Department. c. Pat the eye with a dry towel to absorb the acid. d. Immediately irrigate the eye with copious amounts of clean water.

: d Objective: 12-6

: 555 38. Which of the following statements about amputations is true? a. Keep the amputated part at body temperature when sending it to the hospital with the patient. b. A badly mangled or damaged amputated part should not be preserved or sent to the hospital because it cannot be reattached. c. Surgeons can reattach an amputated part only if it has been without a blood supply for less than one hour. d. All amputated body parts should be preserved and sent to the hospital with the patient.

: d Objective: 18-5

: 581 11. Chemical burns result from exposure to: a. Ultraviolet light b. Steam c. Hot light bulbs d. Caustic substances

: d Objective: 19-1

: 592 7. A burn extending through the epidermis and dermis layers into the subcutaneous layer would be classified as a: a. Deep partial-thickness burn (second degree burn). b. Superficial burn (first degree burn). c. Superficial partial-thickness burn (second degree burn). d. Full-thickness burn (third or fourth degree burn).

: d Objective: 19-3

: 588 17. Alternating (bidirectional) current—current that pulses 60 times per second—is more dangerous than direct current because the pulses: a. Cause external injuries b. Produce higher amperage c. Create higher voltage d. can cause the victim to remain in physical contact with the source of the current for a longer time leading to more significant damage

: d Objective: 19-5

: 590 20. When treating a patient exposed to strong acids or bases, which of the following devices offers the least protection to an OEC Technician? a. A face shield b. An impervious apron c. Goggles d. Exam gloves

: d Objective: 19-7

: 607 29. The finding that upon muscle contraction the active motion of a joint is reduced or lost suggests: a. A dislocation b. A ligament strain c. Torn cartilage d. A ruptured tendon

: d Objective: 20-1.4

: 862 7. Which one of the following groups is not included in the three main groups of mushrooms that are dangerous to humans? a. False morels b. Little brown mushrooms c. Amanitas d. Big white mushrooms

: d Objective: 27-2

: 864 4. On a camping trip with your family, your children ask if they can pick some plants for part of their wilderness dinner. Based on your OEC training, you explain to your children that they need to be careful picking wild plants and flowers, and that: a. Plants that do not cause any local reaction when they are picked are safe to eat. b. The worst that can happen from eating a bad plant is you will get sick to your stomach. c. Leaves may be poisonous but most berries found in the woods are safe to eat. d. Some plants can be very toxic, so it is best not to eat anything unless you are sure what it is.

: d Objective: 27-2

: 865 5. You are at a cookout with friends when one of the adults starts yelling excitedly that her 4 year old appears to have been nibbling on the azalea bush in the front yard. Based on your knowledge of this plant's toxicity, you would say which of the following things to the parent? a. "You have nothing to worry about. Many people grow azaleas because they know they are safe." b. "The worst that will happen is some nausea and vomiting that will teach your child not to eat azalea leaves again." c. "You need to worry only if you see your child starting to get a rash." d. "Azaleas can be toxic. Let's call poison control hotline right now."

: d Objective: 27-3

: 873 12. You will be taking a group of scouts on a weekend camping trip. You recognize that ticks are typically active at this time of year, so you want to teach the scouts about them. Which of the following statements about ticks is false? a. Campers should check their skin regularly, especially in the evening before going to bed. b. A red circle with a blanched white center is characteristic of the rash caused by a tick bite. c. The typical disease transmitted by ticks is Lyme disease. d. Tick bites are painful, so you will know when you have been bitten.

: d Objective: 27-4

: 878 16. You are creating a Power Point presentation on rattlesnakes. Which of the following statements would not be included in your bullet points? a. The bite of a rattlesnake is typically painful. b. Rattlesnake venom destroys local tissue. c. Rattlesnake venom can prevent blood from clotting. d. Rattlesnake attacks are typically unprovoked.

: d Objective: 27-4

: 880 20. Which of the following statements regarding mammals is correct? a. Mountain lions, lynx, and bobcats travel and attack humans in packs. b. Most injuries from moose and elk are caused when the animal charges a hiker. c. Grizzly bears will attack humans only when provoked. d. Wild dogs, wolves, and coyotes usually attack humans only when they are sick, protecting their young, or injured.

: d Objective: 27-4

: 888) 24. You are reviewing care for snake bites before your wilderness trip with friends. You note that appropriate treatment would include: a. Sucking the poison out of the bite wound. b. Applying ice to the bite wound to decrease pain and swelling. c. Applying a tourniquet above the bite wound to prevent spread of the venom. d. Wrapping the affected extremity snugly with an elastic bandage, proximal to distal, immobilizing the extremity and then placing it at the level of the heart.

: d Objective: 27-7

1. You are working at a mountain resort and are presented with a 50-year-old woman who states that she does not feel well. From your assessment, which of the following findings would seemingly indicate that the patient is being adversely affected by the high altitude? a. Vomiting after eating large meals b. An elevated blood glucose level with no history of diabetes c. A heart rate of 62 beats per minute d. A complaint of feeling short of breath on exertion

: d Objective: 28-5

: 911 15. Given that 50 percent of patients with HAPE also have symptoms of AMS, it is important that you ask patients if they have had which of the following groups of signs/symptoms? a. Headache, blurred vision, peripheral edema b. Harsh cough, itchy skin, nausea c. Difficulty sleeping, vomiting, ataxia d. Fatigue, nausea, difficulty sleeping

: d Objective: 28-6

: 974 8. Children exhibit great bursts of energy followed by sudden profound fatigue because: a. They lose interest in their current activity b. They have attention deficit disorder c. They need to take a nap d. They have fewer energy reserves than adults

: d Objective: 30-1

: 948, 949 3. You have been called to care for a 21-month-old girl who has been bitten by a dog. Given the patient's age, you would appropriately classify the patient as: a. An infant b. A school-age child c. A preschooler d. A toddler

: d Objective: 30-2

8. Which of the following patients should be classified as unresponsive? a. A 39-year-old female who is confused b. A 52-year-old who cannot answer your questions c. A 70-year-old female who is talking and has suffered a stroke d. A 46-year-old male who does not respond to a shoulder pinch

: d Objective: 7-4

29. Cardiac arrest in children is most commonly caused by: a. Respiratory failure b. Trauma c. Birth defects d. SIDS

a. Respiratory failure

43. Signs and symptoms can be identified using the: a. SAMPLE acronym. b. DCAP-BTLS mnemonic. c. OPQRST mnemonic. d. AVPU mnemonic.

a. SAMPLE acronym.

26. To identify all the drugs, prescriptions, herbal supplements, and over-the-counter drugs that a patient may be taking in combination, OEC Technicians should use: a. SAMPLE. b. OPQRST. c. DCAP-BTLS. d. AEIOU.

a. SAMPLE.

6. You are at an outside skiing exhibition when a spectator bleacher collapses. Several injured people are walking around with various injuries. Which of the following instructions is most appropriate for these ambulatory patients? a. "Go and wait by the ticket booth at the bottom of the slope." b. "Sit down here so I can do a quick assessment on you." c. "Put this yellow tag on your wrist and go to the ticket booth at the bottom of the slope." d. "Leave the ski area and go to the hospital. Others are hurt more seriously than you."

a. "Go and wait by the ticket booth at the bottom of the slope."

6. An elderly woman has fallen down three steps and is complaining of back pain. After you perform a primary assessment, which of the following questions should you ask to illicit the next important piece of information? a. "Did you become dizzy before you fell?" b. "Why didn't you use the ramp on the other side?" c. "Do you have a history of high blood pressure?" d. "Who is your family doctor?"

a. "Did you become dizzy before you fell?"

19. Transporting a patient using a basket litter: a. Requires four to six rescuers. b. Involves towing it behind a motorized vehicle. c. Requires one patroller at the front and one patroller on the tail rope. d. Can be achieved using a chairlift.

a. Requires four to six rescuers.

1. Which of the following statements is most appropriate concerning dealing with caregivers and children during a medical emergency? a. "I try to include caregivers in all that I do with their child so that the child and the caregivers are more comfortable." b. "It is best to separate caregivers from the child so that proper assessment and care can be given." c. "I include caregivers in the care until I get the information I need; then I remove the child and continue the assessment in the first-aid room." d. "I tell caregivers that everything will be okay so that they are calm and I am better able to help their child."

a. "I try to include caregivers in all that I do with their child so that the child and the caregivers are more comfortable."

9. Which of the following statements shows that an OEC Technician has a good understanding of assessing a patient who is having a behavioral emergency? a. "Try to assess patients from a safe distance until they start to answer your questions calmly." b. "I avoid making eye contact because patients may perceive eye contact as a threatening gesture and respond with violence." c. "Touch conveys concern for a patient, so I try to touch the patient's shoulder or arm as soon as I arrive at the scene." d. "If a patient raises his voice to you, you must raise your voice in return. Research has shown that this helps deter violence."

a. "Try to assess patients from a safe distance until they start to answer your questions calmly."

32. Which of the following conditions must OEC Technicians consider when evaluating hypotensive geriatric patients with altered mental status who show no signs of external bleeding, chest injury, or abdominal trauma? a. A hip or pelvic fracture b. A tib/fib fracture c. A genetic hypotensive condition d. Dehydration

a. A hip or pelvic fracture

16. The most common cause of fetal death due to trauma to a pregnant woman's abdomen is: a. Abruptio placenta b. A crushing injury to the fetus c. Penetration of the uterus d. Premature labor

a. Abruptio placenta

5. At what point during a delivery should you consider using suction to clear the airway of the baby? a. After the baby's head has been delivered but before the torso is out of the vaginal opening and if there is obvious obstruction to spontaneous breathing b. Before the cord has been cut but after the baby has been assessed and determined to be stable and if there is obvious obstruction to spontaneous breathing c. When the baby has been delivered and has been dried and warmed d. When the baby's chest has been delivered but before the legs are free of the vaginal canal

a. After the baby's head has been delivered but before the torso is out of the vaginal opening and if there is obvious obstruction to spontaneous breathing

18. Which of the following statements regarding the use of physical restraint is true? a. An OEC technician must follow local protocols for restraining patients. b. Law enforcement personnel can restrain anyone for any reason. c. Once you decide to restrain a patient, use the maximum force possible. d. Physicians have unlimited latitude in ordering the physical restraint of a patient.

a. An OEC technician must follow local protocols for restraining patients.

16. When treating a patient exhibiting abnormal behavior, you should: a. Assume until proven otherwise that the source of the abnormal behavior is an underlying medical condition. b. restrain the patient as a precaution c. Assist the patient in taking glucose in case the patient is hyperglycemic. d. Assume that the abnormal behavior is a manifestation of an underlying psychological problem.

a. Assume until proven otherwise that the source of the abnormal behavior is an underlying medical condition.

7. It is a cold, snowy Saturday afternoon, and unfortunately the chair lift has broken and a lift evacuation is required. You know that there is an adaptive skier group somewhere on the lift. As you prioritize the lift evacuation, you recognize that: a. Athletes with mobility problems are at increased risk of cold-exposure injuries. b. Someone will need to instruct paraplegic skiers on how to detach themselves from the sit-ski so they can be lifted out for the evacuation. c. A blind skier's guide should be evacuated before the blind skier so that the guide can direct the blind skier down. d. Skiers with intellectual disabilities should be left to the end because they will take a long time to understand your directions.

a. Athletes with mobility problems are at increased risk of cold-exposure injuries.

14. A 27-year-old woman is complaining of midline lower abdominal pain that worsens with urination and is associated with blood in her urine. The most common cause of her symptoms would be: a. Bladder infection b. Dysmenorrhea c. An ovarian cyst d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

a. Bladder infection

: 976 15. The increased pliability of the ribs of children makes them more prone to: a. Bruising of the lung b. Rib fractures c. Cardiac arrest d. Over inflation of the lungs

a. Bruising of the lung

36. When seen in a child, the "tripod" and "sniffing" positions are usually signs of: a. Respiratory distress b. An infection of the brain c. Hypovolemia d. A neck or spine injury

a. Respiratory distress

6. Please select the most effective components that the OEC technician uses in medical documentation and that best represent the primary parts of the assessment and management process. a. Chief complaint, history, examination, assessment, treatment, evaluation and disposition b. Chief counsel, highest injury, achievement, trail skied, evolution and deposition c. Chances taken, history, written exam, attributes, toboggan used, evacuation and disposition d. Patient name, history, exam of incident, asking for advice, temperament, involvement and distractors

a. Chief complaint, history, examination, assessment, treatment, evaluation and disposition

5. A new patroller tells you that he injured a tendon above his patella three years ago. You recognize that this injury involves a structure that: a. Connects muscles to the patella. b. Connects the cartilage in the knee. c. Attaches the patella to the femur. d. Attaches a ligament to the knee.

a. Connects muscles to the patella.

: 933 18. For any submersion injury that is not a life-threatening water-related emergency, a complete secondary assessment is performed using: a. DCAP-BTLS b. SAMPLE c. OPQRST d. AVPU

a. DCAP-BTLS

5. Some elderly patients have osteoporosis, a condition that results in: a. Decreased bone density b. Decreased renal output c. Decreased insulin production d. Gall stone production

a. Decreased bone density

11. A hearing-impaired patient wearing a hearing aid is having a great deal of difficulty hearing your questions. Which of the following actions should you take first? a. Ensure that their hearing aid is turned on. b. Increase the pitch of your voice. c. Write your questions on paper. d. Position yourself in front of the patient and shout.

a. Ensure that their hearing aid is turned on.

31. For a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the urgent move most likely to cause further injury to the patient is the: a. Feet drag b. Blanket drag c. Shoulder drag d. Underarm-wrist drag

a. Feet drag

11. Which of the following documents may be used as a medical-legal record for patient care? a. Field Notes of the Patroller, Patient Care Report (PCR), Incident Report Forms b. Supply Report, Annual Budget, Insurance carrier c. NSP awards, Fund raising awards, Snow report d. Patrol schedule, automobile insurance certificate, List of surrounding resorts

a. Field Notes of the Patroller, Patient Care Report (PCR), Incident Report Forms

25. When approaching most helicopters, whether running or not, the safest way is to do so from the: a. Front b. Back c. Left side d. Right side

a. Front

5. A young patient is complaining of severe lower right quadrant pain with rebound tenderness. You would advise them to do which of the following? a. Go to the hospital by ambulance b. Purchase some over the counter antacids and take them c. Drink some milk to settle the stomach d. Urinate in a cup and look for blood in the urine

a. Go to the hospital by ambulance

: 145 12. Of the four lift techniques OEC Technicians use, the draw sheet method: a. Has the lowest risk of back injury to a rescuer. b. Requires the fewest rescuers to use. c. Has the lowest rate of dropped patient incidents. d. Is the safest for the patient.

a. Has the lowest risk of back injury to a rescuer.

32. The best non-urgent move for OEC Technicians to use when alone is the: a. Human crutch b. Chair carry c. Fore and aft carry d. Back carry

a. Human crutch

10. The bones of the upper extremities include the: a. Humerus and radius. b. Humerus and calcaneous. c. Phalanges and tibia. d. Radius, ulna, and tarsals.

a. Humerus and radius.

3. You are assisting a 29-year-old spinal injury paraplegic skier who lost control of his sit ski and hit a tree. Even though there are no obvious signs of injury, the patient suddenly starts to feel panicky, and you become concerned about autonomic dysreflexia. Other signs/symptoms that would support this assessment include all of the following except: a. Hypotension b. Altered mental status c. Headache d. Blurred vision

a. Hypotension

37. The vital signs of elderly patients with excessive internal or external bleeding may not provide an indication of shock: a. If these patients are taking beta-blockers or calcium-channel blockers. b. Because the hearts of elderly patients pump less due to inactivity. c. Because elderly patients have the ability to compensate for bleeding. d. If these patients are taking blood thinners.

a. If these patients are taking beta-blockers or calcium-channel blockers.

17. Shock patients who are not having difficulty breathing are placed head-first downhill because doing so: a. Increases perfusion of blood to vital organs. b. Increases the heart rate. c. Increases blood pressure. d. Decreases blood pressure.

a. Increases perfusion of blood to vital organs.

22. Following chemotherapy, a patient has a low white cell count increases his risk for which of the following? a. Infection b. Bleeding c. High blood pressure d. Seizures

a. Infection

13. Which of the following actions is best to keep a behavioral patient calm and to avoid provoking a violent outburst? a. Inform the patient of everything that is happening and use a calm voice throughout care. b. Establish that you are in control of the situation and that the patient must cooperate or you will restrain him. c. Inform the patient that he is responsible for all of his actions, and that if he hurts you, you will sue him. d. Involve as many people as possible in the situation as a "show of force."

a. Inform the patient of everything that is happening and use a calm voice throughout care.

1. Special operations is a term used to denote: a. Infrequently performed activities that require specialized training, skills, and equipment in a remote setting. b. Protocols OEC Technicians use when working with an ambulance service in an urban setting. c. A federal team that is organized to handle mass casualty situations involving mountainous terrain. d. A specialized procedure that is used for victims a of chemical terrorism event.

a. Infrequently performed activities that require specialized training, skills, and equipment in a remote setting.

14. Squeeze is a term for excessive external pressure on various parts of the body. Reverse squeeze: a. Is too much pressure from within a body compartment or organ? b. Occurs when two body organs compress each other. c. Is pressure created when holding one's breathe d. Is pressure experienced within a hyperbaric chamber

a. Is too much pressure from within a body compartment or organ

27. Which of the following statements about shaken baby syndrome is false? a. It rarely occurs in upper-class families. b. It often results in a traumatic brain injury. c. It is a form of child abuse. d. Most cases are perpetrated by someone close to the child.

a. It rarely occurs in upper-class families.

4. Which of the following pieces of equipment do many OEC Technicians use most often to move, lift, and carry a patient? a. Long spine board (LSB) b. Orthopedic stretcher c. Portable stretcher d. Basket stretcher

a. Long spine board (LSB)

28. One group of drugs prescribed for geriatric patients is beta-blockers. This type of drug: a. Manages cardiac arrhythmias. b. Increases a patient's pulse rate. c. Increases a patient's cardiac preload. d. Thins a patient's blood.

a. Manages cardiac arrhythmias.

: 198 9. The lower jaw is also called the: a. Mandible. b. Zygoma. c. Maxilla. d. Mastoid.

a. Mandible.

9. Which of the following tasks is not a task an OEC Technician should be ready to perform in assisting an EMT in the back of an ambulance? a. Medication administration a. b putting a cervical collar on a patient b. Hemorrhage control c. Splinting

a. Medication administration

3. Colic is often caused by which one of the following? a. Obstruction and distension of the colon b. Drinking too much water c. Contraction of the abdominal muscles from injury d. Passing a bloody stool

a. Obstruction and distension of the colon

20. A basket stretcher is a good method for transporting a patient: a. Out of the back country. b. On an LSB in any terrain. c. With a fractured femur. d. Who is extremely heavy?

a. Out of the back country.

16. Toxic nerve agents: a. Overstimulate the nerve endings and the central nervous system. b. Block stimulation of sensory nerve endings only. c. Decrease production of chemical transmitters. d. Block stimulation of both sensory and motor nerve endings.

a. Overstimulate the nerve endings and the central nervous system.

8. Your patient was involved in a serious motor vehicle collision. Which of the following assessment findings best helps to determine that the patient has a flail chest segment? a. Paradoxical chest wall movement b. Shortness of breath c. Pain upon inspiration d. Chest wall bruising

a. Paradoxical chest wall movement

10. When a patient arrives at the first-aid station a status of the patient is given. The name of the brief oral report is called what? a. Pass-off report b. Hand-off report c. Tag-out report d. Trade-off report

a. Pass-off report

12. On which form would you be most likely to use the SOAP or CHEATED acronyms a. Patient Care Report b. Annual Report c. Hand-off reports d. NSP application

a. Patient Care Report

24. After a landing helicopter is safely on the ground, one may approach the aircraft only when signaled by the: a. Pilot or flight crew chief. b. Landing coordinator. c. Fire Department chief. d. Senior police officer on the scene.

a. Pilot or flight crew chief.

12. When the placenta attaches over the cervix, the baby and the mother are at risk for which of the following conditions? a. Placenta Previa b. Infection c. An ectopic pregnancy d. A uterine tear

a. Placenta Previa

20. In a typical geriatric patient, a reduction in cerebral blood flow can: a. Reduce the amount of glucose and oxygen that reaches the brain. b. Increase the patient's pulse rate. c. Decrease the patient's blood pressure. d. Increase the patient's respiratory rate.

a. Reduce the amount of glucose and oxygen that reaches the brain.

26. Which of the following instructions for approaching a running rescue helicopter is most dangerous? a. Remain in an upright position and move slowly. b. Remain low. c. Remove any loose clothing. d. Remain in sight of the pilot at all times.

a. Remain in an upright position and move slowly.

7. A female patient suffers from a muscular disease and cannot walk. Based on this fact, you should recognize which of the following muscle types is affected? a. Skeletal muscle b. Involuntary muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. Smooth muscle

a. Skeletal muscle

2. What is the best possible way to add or amend information to a report that has already been submitted? a. Submit the additional information as an addendum to the report then initial, date, and time the addendum b. Ask for the report back so you can add to the report then initial the changes c. Once the report is submitted you can no longer add information and should only add the information to your notes. d. Write the additional information on a copy of the form you kept for your records and resubmit the form with your initials and date.

a. Submit the additional information as an addendum to the report then initial, date, and time the addendum

14. The leaf-shaped flap that helps prevent food from entering the lower respiratory system is called: a. The epiglottis b. The trachea c. The pharynx d. A bronchiole

a. The epiglottis

4. A 28 year old healthy male presents with recent signs and symptoms of nausea and vomiting but very little abdominal pain. Which one of the following is your best course of action? a. The patient has indigestion; suggest that he follow up with his physician if the symptoms continue b. You determine that the patient is having a silent myocardial infarction and call for ALS and transport the patient immediately c. Have the patient urinate in a cup and look for blood in the urine d. Suggest the patient take some over the counter analgesics to see if they help and release back to skiing

a. The patient has indigestion; suggest that he follow up with his physician if the symptoms continue

17. Which of the following situations is an indication for the use of restraints? a. The patient is in imminent danger of harming himself. b. The patient is alert, rational, and refuses medical care. c. The patient's friend is requesting restraints d. The patient responds to the use of verbal calming skills

a. The patient is in imminent danger of harming himself.

8. A patient may elect not to receive treatment. Which two criteria must be included on a Refusal of Care (or A.M.A.) form? a. The patient understood the risks of refusal and accepts the risk or refused to listen to the risks b. The family's signature and the lawyers signature c. The patient name and their religious preference d. The patient refusal to leave the hill and injury

a. The patient understood the risks of refusal and accepts the risk or refused to listen to the risks

5. Which of the following statements about behavioral emergencies is true? a. The person acts in a way that is not tolerable to those around them. b. The person's mental status is not altered. c. The person is not a danger to themselves or others. d. The context of the situation is not relevant.

a. The person acts in a way that is not tolerable to those around them.

8. You are out with a group of friends in a local tavern. One of the patrons gets argumentative and will not calm down. By the time the police arrive, the patron has gotten combative and is breaking glass bottles. The police subdue the patron and have him restrained. As you watch all of this happening, which of the following situations would cause you to be concerned? a. The police have restrained the patron in a prone position on the floor. b. The patron is supine on the floor, with officers holding one of his hands over his head and the other at his side. c. The patron is threatening to sue the officers for physically restraining him. d. The police say they will not release the patron until he has been seen in an emergency department.

a. The police have restrained the patron in a prone position on the floor.

15. When communicating with a geriatric patient, OEC Technicians should: a. Use layman's terms. b. Use medical terms to describe their findings and treatment plan. c. Use anatomical pictures and point to the affected areas as they explain. d. Touch the patient as they explain the patient's medical issues and affected body areas.

a. Use layman's terms.

9. As an OEC technician you are more than likely considered a "mandated reporter." Below is a list of the injuries or crimes the law requires you to report except. a. Verbal aggressiveness b. Assault c. Abusive care that causes injury to an 81 year old d. A raccoon bite

a. Verbal aggressiveness

32. While following the Pediatric Triangle of assessment, you observe an infant and note that she is paradoxically irritable. This sign is often indicative that the child is: a. Very ill b. A victim of neglect c. Not seriously ill d. Hungry

a. Very ill

14. In a HazMat incident, the transition area in which decontamination occurs is known as the: a. Warm zone b. Treatment area c. Transport zone d. Cold zone

a. Warm zone

3. Your OEC class asks you to describe the term behavior. Which of the following statements would be the correct response? a. What is acceptable behavior in one community may not be acceptable in another. b. Behavior pertains to how you perform a physical activity only. c. Meditation is the absence of behavior. d. Yelling is never an acceptable behavior.

a. What is acceptable behavior in one community may not be acceptable in another.

4. The OEC technician can verbally report to others in a timely method about an incident using the acronym "SAILOR." The acronym is best represented by which one of the following? a. Who you are, gender and age of the patient, the chief complaint of the patient, your location, the equipment you need and the other resources you need b. The patient's name, gender, and complaints, your location, a toboggan, and airway c. The patient's gender and complaints, your location, oxygen, and blankets d. The patroller, the patient's gender and complaints, location of the patrol room and other patrollers.

a. Who you are, gender and age of the patient, the chief complaint of the patient, your location, the equipment you need and the other resources you need

6. The first emergency responder textbook created exclusively for ski patrollers was titled: a. Winter Emergency Care b. Outdoor Emergency Care c. Ski Safety and First Aid d. Safety on the Snow

a. Winter Emergency Care

9. You are teaching a class on adaptive athletes and are asked to discuss Asperger's syndrome. Which of the following statements is an appropriate response? a. "Asperger's syndrome is a condition manifested by a standard group of symptoms, including physical impairments." b. "Asperger's syndrome is an autism spectrum disorder in which the person may be fearful in unfamiliar environments." c. "Asperger's syndrome implies that the person has no difficulty participating in normal day-to-day activities but may have difficulty with long-range planning." d. "Individuals with Asperger's syndrome are less likely to come in contact with rescuers than are members of the general population."

b. "Asperger's syndrome is an autism spectrum disorder in which the person may be fearful in unfamiliar environments."

35. You are treating a child who has a minor head laceration that is bleeding profusely. Which of the following statements would show your partner that you understand bleeding in children? a. "This is a minor head laceration, so we don't need to worry." b. "Children have a smaller blood volume than adults, so this rate of bleeding is serious." c. "As long as the child's vital signs are stable, we don't have to worry." d. "Children have great compensating mechanisms, so bleeding from the head isn't serious."

b. "Children have a smaller blood volume than adults, so this rate of bleeding is serious."

10. You are called to the lodge to assist a 25-year-old man who reportedly is having hallucinations. When you arrive, he is sitting quietly and appears calm. Information obtained in your SAMPLE history indicates that the patient started having hallucinations yesterday. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia a few years ago and has been prescribed two different medications. Which of the following questions is most pertinent to the situation and should be asked next? a. "Do you believe that the hallucinations are real?" b. "Have you been taking your medications as prescribed?" c. "Have you been eating and drinking adequately?" d. "Has your doctor considered increasing the dose of your medication?"

b. "Have you been taking your medications as prescribed?"

6. You are assisting a 32-year-old woman whose right leg has been amputated below the knee. She is complaining of severe pain in her right thigh. You note that the knee is flexed and that there is some deformity in the middle of the femur. Your partner hands you a HARE traction splint. Which of the following statements would be your best response to your partner? a. "We will need to adapt the boot hitch in order to secure it to the end of the leg." b. "Let's use a Quick Splint instead." c. "The HARE won't work. We will need to be creative and make our own traction device." d. "We need to force the knee to straighten and then we can use a splint."

b. "Let's use a Quick Splint instead."

22. An appropriate landing zone (LZ) for safely landing a helicopter is an open area that is approximately: a. 75 feet x 100 feet b. 100 feet x 100 feet c. 100 feet x 200 feet d. 200 feet x 200 feet

b. 100 feet x 100 feet

26. Fontanelles, which are openings in the skulls of newborns that allow brain expansion, close when the child is at approximately what age a. 3-4 months of age b. 18-20 months of age c. 3 years of age d. 1 year of age

b. 18-20 months of age

19. By age 85, the brain of a typical geriatric patient can shrink by as much as 10 percent due to: a. Reduced use in learning. b. A decrease in brain cell numbers. c. Reduced fluid volume. d. Stroke activity.

b. A decrease in brain cell numbers.

22. You have been called to assist a panicked mother who is worried about her son. When you arrive, she tells you that her 4-year-old son has been quiet all morning and napping while the rest of her children were skiing. While napping he began to "shake all over" for about 30 seconds. The child is now resting quietly and has adequate respirations. His radial pulse is strong, and his skin is very hot and moist to the touch. Based on this presentation and information, you assume that the seizure occurred secondary to: a. Hypoxia b. A fever c. Hypoglycemia d. Altered mental status

b. A fever

30. Compared to younger patients, trauma in geriatric patients results in: a. Less-serious injuries due to the slower pace in older patients. b. A higher mortality rate. c. More bleeding. d. More fractures of the extremities.

b. A higher mortality rate.

: 928 12. The cause of an arterial gas embolism (AGE) is: a. A rapid descent by a diver b. A rapid ascent by a diver c. Diving below 100 feet d. Diving below 100 feet for longer than 30 minutes

b. A rapid ascent by a diver

37. You are assessing an infant who has been ill and has had a fever for the past two days. As you approach the infant you note that she has grunting respirations. Based on your OEC training you determine that grunting is: a. A soothing mechanism for a sick child. b. A symptom of severe respiratory disease. c. A symptom of significant dehydration. d. Often normal in a child with a cold.

b. A symptom of severe respiratory disease.

4. An OEC candidate asks you to explain a pneumothorax. Your response should be that it occurs when: a. The lung becomes overinflated with air and then collapses. b. Air accumulates between the inner chest wall and the outside of the lung, causing the lung to collapse. c. The trachea becomes obstructed, causing the lungs to collapse. d. Air enters the lung alveoli through a traumatic opening in the chest wall.

b. Air accumulates between the inner chest wall and the outside of the lung, causing the lung to collapse.

13. Which of the following statements concerning HAZWOPER training is false? a. Training includes the types of hazardous materials present and their risks to the rescuers and the public. b. All EMS personnel are trained in all aspects of a HazMat-related incident. c. Training generally includes classroom instruction and practical training. d. Annual refresher training is generally required.

b. All EMS personnel are trained in all aspects of a HazMat-related incident.

34. Because many elderly patients will not offer their medical history unless specifically asked to do so, OEC Technicians may have to: a. Ask yes-or-no questions. b. Ask open-ended questions. c. Search a patient's medicine cabinet and kitchen cabinets for prescription bottles. d. Look for past surgical scars during a secondary assessment.

b. Ask open-ended questions.

9. Like a direct ground lift, a ________ lift is used to raise patients who are lying on their back. a. LEAN b. BEAN c. MEAN d. SEAN

b. BEAN

6. Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in which of the following structures? a. Muscles of the arms and legs b. Blood vessels and intestines c. The central nervous system d. The heart and blood vessels

b. Blood vessels and intestines

34. Bilateral injuries, circumferential bruising, and pattern bruises are suggestive of: a. Shaken child syndrome. b. Child abuse c. Suicidal behavior d. Infant neglect

b. Child abuse

6. You are at the scene of a shooting. Your assessment reveals a 23-year-old man who has been shot twice. The first wound is to the left lower quadrant of the abdomen and is bleeding. The second wound is to the left lateral chest and makes a sucking sound every time the patient takes a breath. The initial action of an OEC Technician should be which of the following actions? a. Cover the chest wound with a gauze dressing. b. Cover the chest wound with a gloved hand. c. Place direct pressure over the abdominal wound. d. Place the patient on high-flow oxygen using a nonrebreather mask.

b. Cover the chest wound with a gloved hand.

15. The first step in placing a patient in the toboggan for transport is: a. Deciding how to get the patient and equipment off the hill. b. Deciding whether or not to put the patient's injury uphill. c. Deciding the fastest route of transport. d. Deciding who will be in the handles of the toboggan during transport.

b. Deciding whether or not to put the patient's injury uphill.

8. Extremity lifts may not be tolerated by: a. Obese and young patients. b. Elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders. c. Patients with visual impairments. d. Patients with ankle injuries.

b. Elderly patients and patients with respiratory disorders.

8. Which of the following groups of bones could be involved in a patient with a "broken leg"? a. Acetabulum, calcaneous, carpals b. Femur, tibia, fibula c. Orbit, maxillae, mandible d. Radius, ulna, humerus

b. Femur, tibia, fibula

11. Commercially produced products are favored for draw sheet lifts because they generally have: a. Waterproof qualities b. Handles c. Stitched edges with better material d. Insulating qualities

b. Handles

19. Patients with arterial gas embolism or decompression sickness should be transported by ground to a facility that: a. Has advanced respiratory specialists b. Has a hyperbaric chamber c. Is nearest to the scene d. Is a trauma center with a rehabilitation wing?

b. Has a hyperbaric chamber

10. You and your friend arrive at an accident scene where a compact car has rolled down an embankment. Based on your OEC training, you realize that before anyone enters the vehicle, it should be stabilized. Vehicle stabilization includes all of the following actions except: a. Shutting off the engine. b. Having several men hold the vehicle to prevent it from moving. c. Disconnecting the battery cables. d. Engaging the parking brake.

b. Having several men hold the vehicle to prevent it from moving.

11. In an ectopic pregnancy, the primary threat to the pregnant woman is: a. Infection b. Hemorrhage c. Severe pain d. Damage to pelvic organs

b. Hemorrhage

38. Which of the following conditions is not a possible cause of seizures in young children? a. Fever b. Hypothermia c. Diabetes d. Epilepsy

b. Hypothermia

11. When caring for patients with life-long intellectual disabilities: a. Use a stern, unemotional tone of voice because they may not pay attention to you. b. Include their caretakers in the assessment because they can help with communication. c. Provide care quickly because they will not know they are cold. d. Talk to the patient as if they were at a sixth grade level.

b. Include their caretakers in the assessment because they can help with communication.

: 1114 4. In a HazMat incident, a boundary that is set up to prevent members of the public from entering the incident is called a(n): a. Incident perimeter. b. Isolation perimeter. c. Decontamination line. d. Hazard boundary line.

b. Isolation perimeter.

11. Which of the following is the best sequence for examining the abdomen of a patient complaining of lower right abdominal pain? a. RLQ, RUQ, LUQ, LLQ b. LUQ, LLQ, RUQ, RLQ c. LLQ, RLQ, RUQ, LUQ d. RUQ, RLQ, LUQ, LLQ

b. LUQ, LLQ, RUQ, RLQ

23. During helicopter landing or takeoff, most protocols only allow the _______ to be in the LZ. a. OEC Technician and the patient b. Landing coordinator c. Patrol director d. Risk manager

b. Landing coordinator

13. The structure containing the vocal cords is the: a. Pharynx b. Larynx c. Trachea d. Sternum

b. Larynx

1. You have been asked to deliver a talk about the geriatric population to the new OEC class. Which of the following points would you emphasize in your presentation? a. Assessment can be difficult because most individuals older than 70 suffer from dementia. b. Many elderly individuals have a combination of different diseases in various stages. c. Geriatric patients actually account for a small number of emergency medical calls and transports. d. Dementia is an inevitable part of aging.

b. Many elderly individuals have a combination of different diseases in various stages.

18. Search and rescue operations consist of which of the following five basic tasks? a. Information gathering, grid assignments, search, medical treatment, and evacuation b. Mobilization, intelligence gathering, containment, search, and rescue c. Notification of rescue personnel, perimeter marking, grid assignments, search & rescue, and reporting d. Incident Commander assigned, team leaders and teams assigned, grids determined, search & rescue, and reporting

b. Mobilization, intelligence gathering, containment, search, and rescue

1. Which of the following lists the anatomical structures of the upper airway? a. Nasopharynx, oropharynx, trachea, alveoli b. Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, larynx, epiglottis, c. Nose, pharynx, bronchi, alveoli d. Pharynx, larynx, alveoli, bronchioles

b. Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, larynx, epiglottis,

47. What letter of the OPQRST mnemonic reflects a medical emergency patient's report that difficulty in breathing is worse while attempting to walk? a. O b. P c. Q d. R

b. P

5. When used correctly, the power grip maximizes the force of the hands, which are placed: a. Palms down and 8 inches apart. b. Palms up and 10 inches apart. c. Palms up and 5 inches apart. d. Palms down and 18 inches apart.

b. Palms up and 10 inches apart.

8. When a patient can point to an exact location of pain over their abdomen, this is known as _________________ pain. a. Diffuse b. Parietal c. Visceral d. Referred

b. Parietal

: 959 21. You are called to assist a toddler who has just had a seizure that lasted about 60 seconds. His mom reports that the child has a history of seizures. Your assessment reveals that he is now responding to painful stimuli, is breathing normally, and has a normal radial pulse. Which of the following actions would you take? a. Apply oxygen via nonrebreather at 15 LPM. b. Place him in a recovery position and continue to assess him. c. Gently try to arouse him and make him more alert. d. Insert an oral airway.

b. Place him in a recovery position and continue to assess him.

6. When using the power grip, the hands are: a. Placed underneath the lifting device and held loosely. b. Placed underneath the lifting device and held firmly. c. Placed on the side of the lifting device and held firmly. d. Held on the side of the device at a 45-degree angle.

b. Placed underneath the lifting device and held firmly.

18. A woman who is six months pregnant and experiencing back pain should be placed on a backboard and then placed in a toboggan in which of the following positions? a. In a supine position b. Positioned on her left side c. With her head uphill also correct, change to Sitting up d. With her head downhill

b. Positioned on her left side

18. The primary function of the heart is: a. Transferring oxygen to the cells. b. Pumping blood throughout the body. c. Oxygenating blood in the lungs. d. Maintaining the volume of blood.

b. Pumping blood throughout the body.

22. You have been called to an unknown medical emergency. On scene you are presented with an 84-year-old patient who is confused and does not obey commands. Which of the following action would be most useful in determining the patient's normal mental status? a. Examine the patient's pupils. b. Question the patient's family members. c. Identify the patient's medications. d. Check the patient's vital signs.

b. Question the patient's family members.

20. The left atrium: a. Receives blood from the veins of the body. b. Receives blood from the pulmonary veins. c. Pumps blood to the lungs. d. Pumps blood to the body.

b. Receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

4. A 29-year-old woman with cerebral palsy has fallen and suffered a boot-top fracture of her right leg. When you examine her she tells you that the spasticity in that leg is much worse than usual. Treatment in this situation may best be accomplished by: a. Applying traction to the leg. b. Stabilizing the leg with a splint in a position of comfort. c. Repositioning the leg. d. Massaging the muscles in the leg.

b. Stabilizing the leg with a splint in a position of comfort.

4. Which one of the following descriptions best describes the normal anatomical position? a. Supine with the arms at the sides and the palms facing downward b. Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward c. Prone with the arms upward and the palms facing upward d. Upright and facing away from you, with the arms raised and the legs straight

b. Standing with the arms down at the sides and the palms facing forward

2. You apply and use an AED on a patient lying on his back. His pulse returns and he is breathing adequately. What position is he in? a. Right lateral recumbency b. Supine c. Left lateral recumbency d. Prone position

b. Supine

8. When caring for a patient with dyslexia, it is important to remember that: a. All individuals with dyslexia have below-normal intelligence. b. The patient may have difficulty processing new information. c. You should not expect any impairment in communication. d. Many dyslexic people have spasticity.

b. The patient may have difficulty processing new information.

27. An urgent move is required when: a. A patient is in severe pain. b. The rescuer and the patient must move to a safer location. c. A crowd of people has formed around you and the patient. d. The patient complains of being cold on a 10-degree day.

b. The rescuer and the patient must move to a safer location.

9. Which of the following statements concerning insulin pumps is false? a. They have an external on/off button. b. They are implanted in the patient's chest. c. They supply insulin via a catheter. d. They are commonly found on a patient's belt.

b. They are implanted in the patient's chest.

14. Which of the following pieces of information is most important to OEC Technicians in assessing a patient with abnormal behavior? a. What the patient's diagnosis is b. Whether or not the patient is dangerous c. Whether the patient is anxious or depressed d. What medications the patient takes

b. Whether or not the patient is dangerous

28. In many instances, an urgent move is performed: a. Only after additional help has arrived. b. Only when Medical Control orders it. c. Before any assessment has been performed. d. After the primary and secondary assessments have been completed.

c. Before any assessment has been performed.

15. You are instructing an OEC class on the handling of a HazMat incident. You are asked where OEC Technicians would be assigned if they were assisting at a HazMat scene. Which of the following statements is the appropriate response? a. "Because of your training in this class, you could be assigned to any of the hazard control zones." b. "OEC Technicians do not have the skills required to assist in a HazMat incident." c. "Because of your OEC training, you would probably be assigned to the cold zone." d. "OEC Technicians could assist inside of the isolation perimeter."

c. "Because of your OEC training, you would probably be assigned to the cold zone."

15. You and a fellow OEC Technician are discussing how to talk with someone experiencing a behavioral emergency. Which of the following statements indicates that you have a good understanding of the correct approach? a. "If the patient is hallucinating, you should go along with them so they won't get upset." b. "Don't encourage patients to talk about what is bothering them. They should only talk with a psychiatrist about that." c. "Demonstrate active listening skills by repeating or paraphrasing what the patient said." d. If a patient yells, you should yell back so he will know you are not afraid."

c. "Demonstrate active listening skills by repeating or paraphrasing what the patient said."

7. The PCR (patient care record) is a legal medical document completed by the OEC technician. Therefore, good written documentation is important. In the list below choose the answers that represent the components of a good written case report. a. Biased with your opinion b. Using only slang spoken on the street and by the skier c. Appropriate medical abbreviations and terms d. Errors are not a problem.

c. Appropriate medical abbreviations and terms

: 772 2. Which of the following statements indicates that the speaker understands chest trauma? a. "Open chest injuries are more serious than closed chest injuries because air and bacteria can enter the chest through the open wound." b. "In general, an open chest injury caused by blunt trauma is more life threatening than a closed one due to increased blood loss." c. "Internal chest injuries are more difficult to assess and manage than are the more obvious external chest injuries." d. "Closed chest injuries are caused by penetrating trauma and cause more life-threatening injuries than do open chest injuries."

c. "Internal chest injuries are more difficult to assess and manage than are the more obvious external chest injuries."

2. A group of ski patrollers have invited you to join their team on a bike ride to raise money for multiple sclerosis (MS) research. You recall learning about MS in your OEC class, but you ask your friend to remind you of some of the key features of this condition. Which of the following statements made by your friend would be most accurate? a. "MS does not affect vision b. "MS does not affect mental capacity and memory." c. "MS is a progressive disease that causes degeneration of both central and peripheral nerves." d. "Speech and mood are generally not affected by MS."

c. "MS is a progressive disease that causes degeneration of both central and peripheral nerves."

12. An OEC Technician asks you why you should not overextend the airway when performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a pediatric patient. Which of the following replies would you make? a. "The pediatric cervical spine is delicate and can be injured if the neck is hyperextended." b. "The tongue of a pediatric patient is proportionally larger and blocks the airway when the neck is hyperextended." c. "The cartilage of the trachea is very soft and can compress if the neck is extended too far." d. "The esophagus in a pediatric patient is very thick and will occlude the airway if the neck is hyperextended."

c. "The cartilage of the trachea is very soft and can compress if the neck is extended too far."

7. You overhear a group of EMTs discussing the concept of driving an ambulance with due regard for the safety of others. Which of the following statements indicates that the EMT understands the concept? a. "When responding to an emergency, I drive as fast as possible so that emergency care can be delivered as quickly as possible." b. "When taking a patient to the hospital, I drive as quickly as possible so that I can get back into service for another call." c. "When approaching an intersection, I wait for all traffic to stop before proceeding through." d. "It is acceptable to take a nonemergency patient to the hospital using lights and siren if dispatch informs me that there is another call waiting.

c. "When approaching an intersection, I wait for all traffic to stop before proceeding through."

2. An adolescent is defined as someone who is: a. 8-16 years old b. 10-16 years old c. 13-18 years old d. 9-18years old

c. 13-18 years old

1. Which of the following patients should an OEC Technician consider a potential behavioral emergency? a. A 44-year-old woman with bipolar disorder who is complaining of a fever of 99.5°F b. A 56-year-old man with schizophrenia who has continued taking his medications c. A 29-year-old man with diabetes who is combative and refusing care d. A 36-year-old man with a known history who tells you he is hearing voices

c. A 29-year-old man with diabetes who is combative and refusing care

20. A condition in which a person exhibits abnormal behavior but is able to function within the normal boundaries of reality is known as: a. A psychosis b. Schizophrenia c. A neurosis d. A behavioral emergency

c. A neurosis

2. A new OEC Technician asks you why the elderly are at higher risk for developing pneumonia than younger individuals. You inform him that the elderly are more susceptible to respiratory infections because of: a. Impaired swallowing of saliva b. Decreased alveolar gas exchange c. A reduced cough reflex d. Hardening of the major arteries

c. A reduced cough reflex

23. In geriatric patients, strokes can be caused by a blockage or by: a. A buildup of dopamine. b. A buildup of epinephrine. c. A rupture of a cerebral blood vessel. d. Trauma to the cortex.

c. A rupture of a cerebral blood vessel.

19. An infant who is short of breath is alert and has adequate respirations at a rate of 54 per minute. His skin color is pink but slightly cool to the touch. When you place a pediatric mask on his face, he becomes very upset and begins to physically struggle to remove it. In this situation you would: a. Gently restrain the infant's hands so that he cannot remove the mask. b. Secure the mask to the infant's face using tape. c. Allow the mother to hold the infant and then provide blow-by oxygen therapy. d. Omit the oxygen for now and continue to assess the infant every 5 minutes.

c. Allow the mother to hold the infant and then provide blow-by oxygen therapy.

17. You have been called to care for an unattended 6-year-old girl who has vomited once and is complaining of mild abdominal pain. When you are performing the physical assessment and obtaining a SAMPLE history, which of the following approaches would be considered most appropriate? a. Never involve the caregiver in the SAMPLE questions b. Standing above her and smiling while you ask questions c. Allowing her to play with your stethoscope before listening to her lungs d. Using "baby talk" when asking her questions about her pain

c. Allowing her to play with your stethoscope before listening to her lungs

19. Logistics, one of the four basic functions of an organized avalanche rescue, is primarily concerned with: a. Getting the rescuers to the scene b. Arranging for extrication of the victims c. Caring for the rescuers in the field d. Keeping a log of the search's activities

c. Caring for the rescuers in the field

29. Geriatric patients may also have a prescription for a diuretic such as HCTZ or Lasix. The role of this type of drug is to: a. Increase a patient's heart rate. b. Increase a patient's respiratory rate. c. Decrease the volume of fluid circulating in the cardiovascular system. d. Increase the preload of the atria.

c. Decrease the volume of fluid circulating in the cardiovascular system.

5. When assessing a patient, which of the following signs or symptoms is most indicative that the patient is suffering from a tension pneumothorax? a. Excessive sweating b. Severe heartburn c. Decreased breath sounds in the right lung d. Crepitus in the abdomen

c. Decreased breath sounds in the right lung

3. The son of an 88-year-old patient states that he told his mother to increase the amount of an antibiotic she was taking so she would "feel better faster." This represents a problem because the elderly have: a. Decreased respiratory function b. An increased risk for stroke c. Decreased liver and kidney function d. An increased risk for cancer

c. Decreased liver and kidney function

26. The D in DCAP-BTLS stands for: a. Dislocation b. Damage c. Deformity d. Dyspnea

c. Deformity

29. The greatest risk posed by an urgent move is: a. Not getting the patient's name and address. b. Changing the position of the patient and causing a risk-management investigation. c. Delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions. d. Incurring a lawsuit by the patient.

c. Delaying interventions for life-threatening conditions.

4. The second stage of labor ends with: a. Contractions that become regular and occur every 3-4 minutes b. Delivery of the placenta c. Delivery of the baby d. Rupture of the amniotic sac

c. Delivery of the baby

15. Hypotension can occur after 20 weeks of gestation when a pregnant woman is in a supine position. Which of the following actions by an OEC Technician will not prevent hypotension? a. Placing her in the left lateral recumbent position b. Elevating her right hip approximately 1-2 inches c. Elevating her feet 6-12 inches d. Tipping the spine board so that she is slightly tilted onto her left side

c. Elevating her feet 6-12 inches

2. Your first priority in managing a patient with a behavioral emergency is: a. Determining if the patient is a threat to himself or herself. b. Providing the patient high-concentration oxygen. c. Ensuring your own personal safety. d. Assessing and managing the patient's airway.

c. Ensuring your own personal safety.

25. A 4-year-old girl is sitting upright on her mother's lap with her chin thrust forward. She looks lethargic and is drooling. Her airway is open and she appears to be breathing adequately. Her mother says she has had a fever and is complaining of a sore throat. You are very concerned that she may be developing: a. Strep throat b. Meningitis c. Epiglottitis d. Pneumonia

c. Epiglottitis

33. You are night skiing when you are notified that a child has been involved in a collision on the intermediate trail. As you approach the scene you are thinking about your assessment and realize that the cold and low light may make assessing the child's circulation difficult. In this situation, which of the following is least likely to be effective? a. The sclera of the eyes b. The patient's lips c. Fingertip capillary refill d. The palms of the hands

c. Fingertip capillary refill

6. Which one of the following statements regarding an acute abdomen is true? a. OEC technicians need to be able to pinpoint the exact source of an acute abdomen b. Rarely is there nausea and vomiting accompanying an acute abdomen c. OEC technicians should be able to make a diagnosis that the patient is ill enough to warrant transport to a hospital d. An acute abdomen rarely results in sepsis or hypovolemic shock

c. OEC technicians should be able to make a diagnosis that the patient is ill enough to warrant transport to a hospital

5. Its 2 pm on Saturday, and you're out for a bike ride with friends. About halfway down a small hill, you see an adult and a child at the side of the road. It appears that the child may have fallen. As you approach, you ask if you can help, to which you hear a mom's thankful "yes." The child, who is about 8 years old, is sitting quietly and does not respond when you say "hi." The mother explains that her son has atypical autism. Based on this information, which of the following techniques might you use to complete your assessment? a. Ask the child open-ended questions. b. Speak to the child loudly to get his attention. c. Give the child simple, one-step directions. d. Speak only to the child.

c. Give the child simple, one-step directions.

: 758-759 22. A mother brings her 7-year-old child to the aid room and tells you that fluid is draining from the child's right ear. She tells you that the child has had a fever since this morning and was complaining of right ear pain. Based on your OEC training, you would: a. Use a 4 x 4 to pack the ear and then bandage it securely using gauze around the head. b. Put a pressure dressing over the ear to stop the drainage. c. Have the boy lie on his right side to allow the fluid to drain. d. Arrange for ALS transportation immediately.

c. Have the boy lie on his right side to allow the fluid to drain.

: 957 31. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the use of the Pediatric Triangle to quickly determine if a child is "sick or not sick." This method allows rescuers to quickly assess all of the following about the patient except his/her: a. Circulation b. Breathing c. History of illness or injury d. Appearance

c. History of illness or injury

5. The contaminated area in a hazardous incident is known as the: a. Contaminated zone. b. Decontamination zone. c. Hot zone. d. Cold zone.

c. Hot zone.

7. In abruption placenta, the greatest threat to the baby is: a. Infection b. Maternal shock c. Hypoxia d. Pain

c. Hypoxia

4. Two of the most common medical causes of abnormal behavior are: a. Exercise and hypoglycemia b. Hypotension and hyperthermia c. Hypoxia and hypoglycemia d. Carbon monoxide poisoning and acute myocardial infarction

c. Hypoxia and hypoglycemia

: 971 18. Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of a pediatric patient in a prehospital setting is true? a. You must determine the exact illness in order to provide the most appropriate treatment. b. If the primary assessment of a sick pediatric patient reveals no deficits to the ABCDs, the patient is stable and will not deteriorate. c. If a child looks sick and is not getting better with care, assuming that the child is getting worse. d. You will get early warning if the child is going into shock because a child's vital signs change early.

c. If a child looks sick and is not getting better with care, assuming that the child is getting worse.

9. Which of the following statements about the umbilical cord is true? a. It connects the placenta and the mother's uterus. b. It detoxifies blood reaching the baby before delivery. c. It transmits nourishment from the placenta to the fetus. d. It always connects to the top side of the uterus.

c. It transmits nourishment from the placenta to the fetus.

45. What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient had pancakes for breakfast two hours ago? a. M b. P c. L d. E

c. L

11. Organized under the Office of the Surgeon General, community-based volunteer medical professionals who have agreed to help in the event of a disaster are known as the: a. National Response Framework. b. Emergency Support Annexes. c. Medical Reserve Corps. d. Disaster Medical Assistance Team.

c. Medical Reserve Corps.

16. Assessment of patients with water-related emergencies is not remarkably different from assessment of patients with other emergencies. In addition to BSI, OEC Technicians may: a. Need to wear an SCBA (Scott Air-Pak). b. Need to swim in deep water to retrieve a patient. c. Need to don a personal floatation device. d. Be required to wear a cold-water rescue suit and stand on a flotation ramp.

c. Need to don a personal floatation device.

: 36 14. Which of the following is not one of the four nationally recognized prehospital emergency care provider levels? a. Emergency Medical Technician b. Advanced Emergency Medical Technician c. Outdoor Emergency Care Technician d. Emergency Medical Responder

c. Outdoor Emergency Care Technician

17. During assessment of the water-related emergency for any submersion injury, care should be taken to: a. Assess the airway but not to treat the patient b. Assess the water temperature c. Protect the patient's spine to prevent additional neurological injury d. Use AEIOU tips

c. Protect the patient's spine to prevent additional neurological injury

5. The Patient Care Report (PCR) is best organized and completed by using which of the following methods. a. SOAP and LATHER b. LIES and CHEATED c. SOAP and CHEATED d. CHEATED and DISTRACTED

c. SOAP and CHEATED

13. During transport, the patient must be properly positioned for comfort and to do no further harm. The Semi-Fowler position places the patient in a: a. Supine position with the legs raised 15 degrees. b. Sitting position with the head raised 90 degrees. c. Sitting position with the head raised 45 degrees. d. Supine position with the legs raised 45 degrees.

c. Sitting position with the head raised 45 degrees.

20. Which of the following lists correctly places the tasks of fire ground operations in order of priority? a. Size-up, confinement, control, ventilation, rescue/life safety, accountability, property conservation b. Confinement, size-up, control, property conservation, rescue/life safety, accountability, ventilation c. Size-up, accountability, rescue/life safety, confinement, control, ventilation, property conservation d. Accountability, rescue/life safety, confinement, control, size-up, property conservation, ventilation

c. Size-up, accountability, rescue/life safety, confinement, control, ventilation, property conservation

10. Which of the following strategies is best for OEC Technicians for communicating with a geriatric patient who has diminished eyesight? a. Write your questions in large print on paper. b. Increase both the pitch and the volume of your voice. c. Stand in front of the patient and talk calmly. d. Obtain needed information from family members.

c. Stand in front of the patient and talk calmly.

30. To use an urgent move called the shoulder drag, you should: a. Grab one arm at the shoulder and drag the patient to a safe position. b. Stand behind the patient and grab the patient's belt while their shoulders are against your chest. c. Stand upright behind the patient, bend over, and then grab the patient under the armpits and drag. d. Grab the patient's clothing at the shoulders, support the head, and then bend your knees and drag the patient.

c. Stand upright behind the patient, bend over, and then grab the patient under the armpits and drag.

7. Which of the following instructions is most important for combining optimal anatomic position with good body mechanics in a power lift? a. Maintain a wide stance (at least 24 inches). b. Keep your back muscles loose and your head bent forward. c. Straighten your legs to lift. d. Squat down and keep your knees outward at a 45-degree angle.

c. Straighten your legs to lift.

1. You arrive at the scene where a patient has a possible fracture of the left hip. You note that she is lying on her back and her left leg is turned outward. You would document this position as: a. Supine with lateral rotation of the left lower extremity. b. Lateral recumbent with dorsal rotation of the left leg. c. Supine with external rotation of the left lower extremity. d. Supine with pronation of the left leg.

c. Supine with external rotation of the left lower extremity.

24. Over 60 percent of abdominal pain problems in geriatric patients require: a. A trip to the emergency department. b. A prescription for a narcotic drug. c. Surgical intervention. d. Evaluation for hernia.

c. Surgical intervention.

35. When taking the pulse of an elderly patient, it is recommended that OEC Technicians: a. Divert the patient's attention with conversation. b. Repeat and document the pulse rate every 2 minutes. c. Take the radial pulse on both arms and compare the two rates. d. Use electronic devices only to obtain the pulse.

c. Take the radial pulse on both arms and compare the two rates

2. Which of the following organizations is not a disaster response agency that OEC Technicians are encouraged to join? a. The Civilian Emergency Response Team b. The Disaster Medical Assistance Team c. The Incident Command Resource System d. The Medical Reserve Corps

c. The Incident Command Resource System

1. Which of the following structures is not located within the pelvic cavity? a. The ovaries b. The uterus c. The appendix d. The fallopian tubes

c. The appendix

17. Which one of the following events causes an individual to take a breath? a. The intercostal muscles relax. b. The chest cavity decreases in size. c. The diaphragm contracts. d. Pressure in the chest increases.

c. The diaphragm contracts.

: 759 1. A patient has sustained an injury to his mediastinum. Based on the anatomy of his chest, which of the following structures may have been injured? a. The diaphragm b. The esophagus c. The lungs d. A bronchus

c. The lungs

19. Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood to the lungs? a. The left atrium b. The left ventricle c. The right ventricle d. The right atrium

c. The right ventricle

11. Blockage of which of the following respiratory prevent air flow into and out of the lungs? a. The right bronchus could be correct use clavicle b. The nasopharynx c. The trachea d. The esophagus

c. The trachea

13. Which of the following statements concerning the functions of the vagina is true? a. The vagina allows the passage of a baby during delivery and the outflow of urine from the bladder. b. The vagina permits the outflow of menstrual blood and is the site at which a sperm fertilizes an egg. c. The vagina serves as a passageway for the fetus during delivery and an outlet for blood during menstruation. d. The vagina allows the excretion of urine from the bladder and the outflow of menstrual blood.

c. The vagina serves as a passageway for the fetus during delivery and an outlet for blood during menstruation.

: 177 21. Which of the following structures brings oxygen-depleted blood to the right atrium? a. The right ventricle b. The pulmonary artery c. The vena cavae d. The aorta

c. The vena cavae

21. For many geriatric patients, food is less appealing because: a. They engage in less physical activity. b. They sleep more and eat less. c. Their sense of smell is reduced and they have fewer taste buds. d. They have less money for purchasing appealing food.

c. Their sense of smell is reduced and they have fewer taste buds.

: 936 20. A patient who appears dead due to a deep cold-water drowning should be: a. Left at the scene for the medical examiner to pick up. b. Transported to a medical facility while being given rescue breathing only. c. Transported to a medical facility while being given CPR. d. Warmed up prior to transport and then given continuing CPR.

c. Transported to a medical facility while being given CPR.

9. When a patient has generalized abdominal pain and can only describe a larger area that is painful, it is known as _____________ pain. a. Parietal b. Rebound c. Visceral d. Celiac

c. Visceral

6. Which of the following patients is exhibiting signs of psychosis? a. An 18-year-old who is so anxious about peer pressure that he is unable to go to school b. A recently divorced 35-year-old who sleeps most of the day and is losing weight c. A 72-year-old who was recently diagnosed with dementia d. A 37-year-old who is having hallucinations

d. A 37-year-old who is having hallucinations

16. When assessing a 3-year-old child with a respiratory illness, which of the following assessment findings would be least concerning to you? a. Retractions observed above the clavicles b. Paradoxical breathing c. Patient in the tripod position d. A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

d. A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute

28. You are treating a 2 year old who fell down a flight of stairs. You are concerned about a head injury and know that toddlers have a higher risk for traumatic brain injury than adults because: a. A toddler has a smaller head than an adult. b. During rapid deceleration, a toddler's head is propelled forward first, before the body. c. A toddler's balance is not fully developed. d. A toddler's fontanelles will not close until the child reaches preschool age.

d. A toddler's fontanelles will not close until the child reaches preschool age.

7. Family members tell you that three hours ago their 76-year-old mother suddenly became confused and had great difficulty speaking. However, within 15 minutes she returned to normal. Based on this description, an OEC Technician should be suspicious of: a. A stroke b. Dementia c. Alzheimer's disease d. A transient ischemic attack

d. A transient ischemic attack

2. Lower abdominal pain could indicate which of the following conditions? a. An irregular heart beat b. An auditory tract infection c. A fractured rib d. A urinary tract infection

d. A urinary tract infection

10. What is true about a patient with a cognitive disability? a. A cognitive disability can result from traumatic brain injuries. b. Cognitive disabilities limit the person's ability to process information. c. Patients with cognitive disabilities usually have problems with coordination. d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

21. A device best used to transport a patient in a tight space is known as: a. A wheeled stretcher. b. A short board. c. A Kendrick extrication device. d. An evacuation chair.

d. An evacuation chair.

: 774 3. A 39-year-old man has been stabbed once in the anterior chest. When notifying the patrol aid room by radio, you inform them that the patient has suffered what possible type of injury? a. Flail chest b. Evisceration c. lacerated spleen d. An open chest injury

d. An open chest injury

3. Which of the following statements about the role of the cervix in Imminent Childbirth is true? a. The cervix constricts during the time of delivery to prevent a premature birth. b. The placenta is normally positioned directly over the cervix. c. The cervix can be palpated to determine the frequency of the mother's contractions. d. As delivery starts, the cervix dilates giving a "Bloody show" (mucous plug).

d. As delivery starts, the cervix dilates giving a "Bloody show" (mucous plug).

33. Compared to younger individuals, geriatric patients who fall have a higher incidence of fractures to the _____ region of the spine. a. C4-C5 b. T1-T2 c. L1-L2 d. C1-C2

d. C1-C2

27. The class of medications that is most commonly prescribed to elderly patients is: a. Gastrointestinal medications. b. Respiratory medications. c. Neurological medications. d. Cardiovascular medications.

d. Cardiovascular medications.

23. When assessing a 3-year-old child for possible injuries after the mother's boyfriend said the child fell down a flight of stairs, which of the following findings would raise your suspicion that the child may be a victim of physical abuse? a. The child cries when you palpate his arm. b. Several bruises are located on the child's knees and shins. c. The child has a broken clavicle. d. Circumferential bruising on is apparent on the child's arm.

d. Circumferential bruising on is apparent on the child's arm.

30. You read in the newspaper about a 9-month-old child who died from sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). From your training, you know that this means that the infant: a. Had a congenital heart defect. b. Suffocated in his crib blankets. c. Had a history of sleep apnea. d. Died unexpectedly and of an undetermined cause.

d. Died unexpectedly and of an undetermined cause.

1. Spring is finally here, and your friend is helping you open up your summer cabin at the lake. At lunch that day, your friend tells you that his son, who is down at the lakeshore playing with your children, was recently diagnosed with autism. You are concerned about the child's autism because: a. Children with autism are known to be non-communicative, and you fear for your children. b. You are concerned about how your children will react to the child's physical deformities. c. You do not want your children to be with children with autism. d. Drowning is the leading cause of death for people with autism spectrum disorders.

d. Drowning is the leading cause of death for people with autism spectrum disorders.

15. Which of the following strategies does not limit or mitigate risk in water-based activities? a. Avoiding swimming alone b. Checking ice thickness before traversing it c. Avoiding alcohol consumption around water d. Entering swiftly moving water accompanied by a buddy

d. Entering swiftly moving water accompanied by a buddy

16. When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which one of the following occurs? a. Diastolic pressure increase b. Systolic pressure increases c. Inspiration d. Exhalation

d. Exhalation

: 928 11. When arterial gas embolism (AGE) occurs, the gas within the lungs: a. Causes an open pneumothorax b. Causes the trachea to close c. Contracts and the bronchioles start to spasm d. Expands, rupturing alveoli

d. Expands, rupturing alveoli

18. The lung capacity in a healthy 90-year-old patient is ________ that of a 30-year-old patient. a. Equal to b. Three-quarters of c. One-quarter of d. Half of

d. Half of

12. Which of the following conditions is associated with pulmonary embolism? a. Infection b. Hypertension c. Pulmonary edema d. Hypoxia

d. Hypoxia

8. Which of the following statements about traumatic injuries in the elderly is true? a. Motor-vehicle collisions are responsible for over 75 percent of deaths. b. Head injuries are easier to detect in the elderly than in younger adults. c. Hyperthermia is an early sign of trauma. d. Injuries are most commonly caused by falls.

d. Injuries are most commonly caused by falls.

38. An advance directive is a: a. Court order directing prehospital providers to administer care. b. Directive provided by medical control. c. Protocol directed by a paramedic on scene. d. Legal document that provides medical direction for life-saving efforts.

d. Legal document that provides medical direction for life-saving efforts.

10. With a BEAM lift, the patient is: a. Assisted to a standing position. b. Rolled onto a long board. c. Assisted into a chair. d. Lifted and carried a short distance.

d. Lifted and carried a short distance.

36. Correcting a life-threatening condition such as external bleeding in elderly patients can be more problematic because: a. The skin of elderly patients does not rebound as quickly as it does in younger patients. b. The veins of elderly patients have weaker walls than those in younger patients. c. Elderly patients may be on Lasix. d. Many elder patients are taking warfarin or other blood thinners

d. Many elder patients are taking warfarin or other blood thinners

15. Which one of the following lists represents a correct sequence for the passage of air into the lungs? a. Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, pharynx b. Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli c. Epiglottis, trachea, bronchi, alveoli, nasopharynx d. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

d. Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli

: 943 13. You are assessing a 2-week-old baby who is sick. Assessment reveals that he has a fever and difficulty breathing. Which of the following additional assessment findings would be most concerning to you given the age of this patient? a. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute b. A pulse of 116 beats per minute c. Continual crying d. Nasal passages that are occluded by mucus

d. Nasal passages that are occluded by mucus

3. HAZWOPER training required by the federal government for anyone who works in an environment in which uncontrolled hazardous materials may be encountered. Each letter stands for a word. Which is the correct word for a letter in HAZWOPER? a. W: water b. E: energy c. R: rescue d. O: operations

d. O: operations

16. The uphill positioning principle has exceptions. For patients with breathing difficulty the patient should be placed either seated or uphill depending on other injuries. The uphill concept allows easier breathing because: a. The ribs have greater flexibility of movement in the uphill position. b. Air flows more easily through a patient's nose compared to a head-downhill position. c. It calms patients by enabling them to see where they are going during transport. d. Of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards on the thorax.

d. Of less pressure from the abdominal contents pushing upwards on the thorax.

14. You and your partner respond to the lodge to aid an elderly woman who is not feeling well. When you perform a secondary assessment: a. You and your partner should take turns asking the patient questions. b. You and your partner should ignore the patient and ask the family for information. c. You should stand to the patient's side and raise your voice so the patient can hear you. d. Only one of you should ask the patient questions to avoid confusion.

d. Only one of you should ask the patient questions to avoid confusion.

3. Identify the two types of medical communications that are most important to inform other medical providers of a patient's condition and progress. a. Verbal and nonverbal communication b. Oral and transmitted communication c. Verbal communication and sign language d. Oral communication and written documentation

d. Oral communication and written documentation

44. What letter in a SAMPLE interview indicates that a patient has a history of seizures? a. S b. A c. M d. P

d. P

2. The function of the uterus in pregnancy is to: a. Permit the excretion of wastes from the baby to the mother. b. Protect the abdominal organs during fetal growth. c. Manufacture specific blood cells needed for fetal survival. d. Provide an environment for the ovum to develop into a fetus.

d. Provide an environment for the ovum to develop into a fetus.

12. Which of the following statements best describes the function of the respiratory system? a. Transporting oxygen throughout the body b. Providing nutrients to cells c. Releasing oxygen from the body d. Providing the body oxygen

d. Providing the body oxygen

46. As you assess a patient for a medical emergency, the patient states the pain is in their chest up to the shoulder and down the right arm. To what letter of OPQRST would this apply? a. O b. P c. Q d. R

d. R

7. You have stopped a male skier and a female skier who were racing down a closed trail. Initially, the man was calm, but suddenly he becomes angered and says that "you can't tell me what to do." When you try to talk with him, he pulls out a knife and tells you to "get away or I'll kill you." The female skier is frightened and states that her friend sometimes gets very aggressive when he drinks. You put in a call for security and additional staff, but you know it will be a few minutes before they arrive. Which of the following statements describes your best course of action in the interim? a. Immediately attempt to physically restrain the man or take away his knife. b. Approach the man slowly and calmly and ask him to hand you the knife. c. Move quickly to pull the woman a safe distance away from the man. d. Remain a safe distance from the man and let him know you are there to help.

d. Remain a safe distance from the man and let him know you are there to help.

14. The high-Fowler position, in which the patient is seated with the head at 90 degrees, is typically used for patients with: a. A fractured collar bone b. Abdominal injuries c. Eye injuries d. Severe respiratory problems

d. Severe respiratory problems

13. You are caring for a hearing-impaired athlete and realize that in order to communicate, you: a. Must know sign language or call for someone who does. b. Can usually speak loudly enough to be understood. c. Will need paper and a pen because most hearing-impaired individuals cannot speak. d. Should face the person because most hearing-impaired individuals can read lips.

d. Should face the person because most hearing-impaired individuals can read lips.

10. What is typically the most comfortable position for a responsive patient who is suffering from abdominal pain? a. Supine with feet elevated 8 inches b. Left lateral position c. Trendelenburg position d. Supine with knees slightly flexed

d. Supine with knees slightly flexed

12. Which of the following statements regarding the NFPA safety diamond is true? a. The NFPA safety diamond tells you whether the fuel in a fire is paper, liquid, gas, or wood. b. The NFPA safety diamond must be displayed on any building or vehicle that contains hazardous materials. c. The number of NFPA safety diamonds on a vehicle indicates the toxicity of the hazardous material. d. The NFPA safety diamond identifies the known safety hazards of a given material.

d. The NFPA safety diamond identifies the known safety hazards of a given material.

8. Which of the following statements regarding an ambulance parked at an incident is true? a. If a law enforcement vehicle is on the scene, the ambulance should be parked right beside it. b. When walking from the scene to the parked ambulance, you should walk on the side of the road closest to traffic so you can be more easily seen. c. Ambulance warning lights should be turned off so they will not blind oncoming drivers. d. The area around the ambulance and the accident scene is known as the ambulance operation zone.

d. The area around the ambulance and the accident scene is known as the ambulance operation zone.

16. You have just finished your shift, and while driving home still wearing your patrol jacket you come upon a car collision in which people appear to be injured. You recognize that if you approach the collision wearing your patrol jacket, members of the public may have a reasonable expectation that you will provide care. This expectation is known as: a. The absence of negligence b. Professional ethics c. Moral obligation d. The doctrine of public reliance

d. The doctrine of public reliance

3. Which one of the following anatomical statements is true? a. The hand is proximal to the elbow. b. The shoulder is distal to the hand. c. The hip is distal to the knee. d. The knee is proximal to the ankle.

d. The knee is proximal to the ankle.

13. An incident report form (IRF) is provided by the area's insurance carrier. What is the purpose of the IRF? a. To collect data concerning only the patient and the circumstances surrounding an incident b. It is designed to communicate only medical information to other parties c. To collect data regarding your opinion of the incident d. To collect data surrounding the patient and incident, gather patient care data and is used to communicate medical information to other parties.

d. To collect data surrounding the patient and incident, gather patient care data and is used to communicate medical information to other parties.

13. You have been called by the caregiver of a 91-year-old woman with dementia. The patient is complaining of a possible fracture to her upper left arm. As you talk to the caregiver and note various bruises on the patient's body, you become suspicious of elder abuse. Which of the following actions is most appropriate at this time? a. Contact the police to report your suspicion. b. Confront the caregiver regarding the bruises on the patient's body. c. Ask the patient if she is being abused. d. Treat the patient for a possible broken arm.

d. Treat the patient for a possible broken arm.

: 785 7. Which of the following phrases best describes a flail chest segment? a. Multiple rib fractures with bruising of the underlying lung b. Fractured ribs that have collapsed the underlying lung c. Multiple fractures to the rib cage caused by blunt trauma d. Two or more adjacent ribs that have been broken in two or more places.

d. Two or more adjacent ribs that have been broken in two or more places.

6. Which of the following findings should be of greatest concern when assessing a 33-year-old woman who is 8 months pregnant? a. Shortness of breath when lying flat b. Recent onset of a fever of 99.3°F c. Daily contractions that are irregular and painful d. Vaginal bleeding that is not associated with pain

d. Vaginal bleeding that is not associated with pain

: 101 27. The most widely used triage categorization system in the world is "ID-ME." This acronym represents the four specific triage categories used by NATO forces, National Disaster Life Support, public safety agencies, and search and rescue groups. The ID-ME triage categories are: a. Immediate, delayed, maximum, and exceptional. b. Immediate, delayed, minimal, and expectant. c. Immediate, detain, minimal, and expectant. d. Immediate, delayed, minimal, and exceptional.

: b Objective: 4-3

2. Metabolism: A. Always involves insulin from the pancreas. B. Involves only glucose and enzymes. C. Is the same as the digestive process. D. Is defined as the chemical processes occurring within a living cell or organism

D. Is defined as the chemical processes occurring within a living cell or organism

14. The practice of protecting yourself from exposure to body fluids based on the assumption that all patients are potentially infectious is referred to as: a. Standard precautions. b. Exposure control. c. Personal protective equipment. d. Body fluid precautions.

a. Standard precautions.

3. When the body's core temperature drops, the body: a. Starts shivering to increase heat production b. Sends a signal to the heart to speed up. c. Constricts blood vessels to increase heat loss d. Increases breathing to raise the oxygen level.

a. Starts shivering to increase heat production

6. During the "fight or flight: stress response, the release of epinephrine results in: a. The heart rate increasing b. The respiratory rate and depth decreasing c. Decreased blood flow to the muscles of the arms and legs d. Blood vessels dilating leading to decreased blood pressure

a. The heart rate increasing

3. Although the National Ski Patrol was originally a subcommittee of the National Ski Association, the NSP became an independent organization in: a. 1953 b. 1980 c. 1962 d. 1975

a. 1953

18. Which of the following statements concerning "standard of training" is true? a. Acting within the "standard of training" is fundamental to reducing an OEC Technician's legal risk. b. "Standard of training" is the same thing as "standard of care." c. "Standard of training" includes the mountain area's protocols. d. "Standard of training" includes your state's laws and procedures.

a. Acting within the "standard of training" is fundamental to reducing an OEC Technician's legal risk.

20. Upon finding an unconscious patient at the scene of a bad accident, your next step should be to: a. Assume "implied consent" and begin to examine and treat the patient. b. Delay your examination and ask other patrollers to respond as witnesses. c. Delay your examination until you can locate a spouse or a friend of the patient. d. Begin your assessment but not provide any treatment until another patroller arrives.

a. Assume "implied consent" and begin to examine and treat the patient.

9. You are triaging using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system and you find a patient who is breathing 18 times per minute and has a radial pulse. Which one of the following actions should you take next? a. Check to see if the patient can follow simple directions. b. Check the patient's blood pressure. c. Move the patient to the treatment area. d. Place a yellow tag on the patient.

a. Check to see if the patient can follow simple directions.

8. Which of the following characteristics is not a characteristic of indirect medical control? a. Communication by radio b. Use for expediting patient care c. Common use for "pre-authorizing" routine and life-saving procedures d. Provision through the use of protocols

a. Communication by radio

11. In order to maintain OEC certification, you must: a. Complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year. b. Complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every year. c. Complete a refresher course that covers the key objectives of the entire curriculum every three years. d. Demonstrate CPR and AED skills every two years.

a. Complete a refresher course that covers one-third of the curriculum every year.

12. Which of the following is not an attribute of an emergency care system? a. Equipment b. Public access c. Human resources d. Research

a. Equipment

3. At a multiple-casualty incident, you are brought a patient with a red tag tied to his wrist. You should recognize which one of the following? a. Immediate care and transport of the patient are necessary. b. Delayed care and transport of the patient are permissible. c. The patient has a minor wrist injury. d. The patient is deceased.

a. Immediate care and transport of the patient are necessary.

21. After scene safety is established in a trauma situation, what is the next important thing to determine? a. MOI b. NOI c. SAMPLE d. ABCDs

a. MOI

The failure to exercise the care that is not up to the technician's standard of training is called: a. Negligence b. Assault c. Gross negligence d. Standard of care breach

a. Negligence

9. Guidelines developed at the local level by emergency personnel familiar with an area's medical needs, available resources, system capabilities, and local standard of care are: a. Protocols b. Policies c. Advanced procedures d. Medical attributes

a. Protocols

15. The primary function of the Incident Commander is to: a. Provide overall leadership and direction. b. Assess the nature and scope of the incident. c. Obtain supplies needed to care for all patients. d. Ensure that radio communications are established.

a. Provide overall leadership and direction.

10. Non-disposable PPE (personal protective equipment) and reusable equipment should be disinfected per: a. The manufacturer's recommendations. b. The medical control protocol. c. The NSP protocol. d. The ski area associations protocol

a. The manufacturer's recommendations.

19. Which of the following is not a key characteristic of facilities utilized in an Incident Command System? a. They should be situated in public view. b. They must be able to grow in size as needed. c. They must be accessible to incident personnel. d. They must be located in a secure, safe area.

a. They should be situated in public view.

17. Many emergency care systems deploy personnel to emergencies using a tiered approach. OEC Technicians are most likely deployed in which tier? a. Tier 1 b. Tier 2 c. Tier 3 d. Tier 4

a. Tier 1

5. You are transporting a patient at a multiple-casualty incident. The patient has a yellow triage tag. This tag means: a. Treatment of the patient could be delayed for up to 4 hours. b. The patient has no injuries. c. The patient should be with the "walking wounded." d. The patient has a head injury with altered mental status.

a. Treatment of the patient could be delayed for up to 4 hours.

: 120 25. Which of the following tasks is not a responsibility of the Incident Commander? a. Triaging the injured patients b. Establishing the Incident Command Post c. Determining incident objectives and strategies d. Providing overall management of the incident

a. Triaging the injured patients

22. Cross-contamination occurs when: a. You touch multiple patients without changing your gloves. b. Patients do not wash their hands after using a restroom. c. You touch a second patient after changing your gloves. d. Patients inject themselves with a needle they have used before.

a. You touch multiple patients without changing your gloves.

23. Which of the following descriptions is the best example of expressed consent? a. A 37-year-old man who is found unresponsive b. A 52-year-old skier who comes to the aid room and asks for help c. A 19-year-old male who appears to be intoxicated and lets you examine him d. A man who asks you to help his unresponsive 29-year-old diabetic wife

b. A 52-year-old skier who comes to the aid room and asks for help

15. A communicable disease is: a. Any of a number of diseases that is deadly once contracted. b. A disease that can be spread from one person to another. c. A disease that is caused and spread by coughing only. d. A disease for which no immunization or treatment exists.

b. A disease that can be spread from one person to another.

10. In using the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system of triage, which one of the following patients should have a yellow tag applied before being moved to the treatment area? a. A male with a respiratory rate of 8, no radial pulse, and unresponsive mental status. b. A female with a respiratory rate of 22 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when instructed to do so. c. A female with gasping respirations, no radial pulse, and unresponsive mental status d. A male with a respiratory rate of 40 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when instructed to do so

b. A female with a respiratory rate of 22 and a palpable radial pulse who squeezes your fingers when instructed to do so.

5. The 10th Mountain Division was founded: a. Through a request from the U.S. president to Minnie Dole. b. After Minnie Dole convinced the U.S. Army that a winter warfare unit would be valuable. c. By members of the 87th Mountain Infantry Regiment, many of whom were skiers. d. Through the Norwegian Army, which had a cold-weather unit during World War I.

b. After Minnie Dole convinced the U.S. Army that a winter warfare unit would be valuable.

Good Samaritan laws generally: a. Protect a ski patroller from being sued in every circumstance. b. Apply to people who do not receive compensation for helping people. c. Are the same in every state. d. Provide enough protection so that you need not to know whether your mountain has insurance.

b. Apply to people who do not receive compensation for helping people.

17. To prevent self-contamination, you must remove your gloves properly and dispose of them with contaminated waste. Properly removing your gloves includes all of the following "dirty to dirty and clean to clean" principles except: a. The contaminated external glove of one hand should only touch the contaminated external glove of the other hand when removing b. As a last step, placing your contaminated gloves in your medical kit or jacket pocket c. The clean, ungloved hand should only touch the clean inside surface of the contaminated gloved hand when removing d. When finished, both gloves should be turned inside out, with the second glove serving as the container for the first glove

b. As a last step, placing your contaminated gloves in your medical kit or jacket pocket

You arrive at the scene of an accident where a 22-year-old female skier has hit a tree and has a large bleeding cut on her head. When you ask her if she needs help, she refuses care and says she just needs to sit for a while. Noticing the amount of bleeding, you calmly express your concern for her, but she continues to say she doesn't want help. You hesitate to touch her because you are concerned that if you do, she could accuse you of: a. Assault b. Battery c. Breach of duty d. Duty to act

b. Battery

7. Which of the following choices is not an example of direct medical oversight? a. Telephone communication b. Physical presence of a physician c. Written protocols d. Video conferencing

c. Written protocols

19. Which of the following actions is not a method for ensuring scene safety? a. Conducting a scene size-up b. Calling for risk management personnel c. Placing skis in an "X" uphill of the scene d. Having a bystander stand uphill of the incident site

b. Calling for risk management personnel

7. There is a fight involving approximately 20 bar patrons. Weapons were used, and there are varying degrees and types of injuries. The first person on scene has started assessing a person lying on the floor with blood covering his shirt. Quick assessment reveals him to be breathing at 24 times per minute. Which of the following actions should be done next? a. Assist ventilation with a BVM. b. Check for a radial pulse. c. Attend to the next patient. d. Place a yellow tag on his wrist.

b. Check for a radial pulse.

2. To lessen one's chances of injury while lifting and moving a patient, one should: a. Roll the patient. b. Combine good lifting and moving techniques. c. Use a long-axis drag to avoid lifting. d. Avoid manual moves and instead use mechanical devices.

b. Combine good lifting and moving techniques.

: 50 16. The seamless delivery of high-quality emergency medical care as patient transitions from initial contact with an EMT through definitive treatment best describes: a. Medical direction b. Continuity of care c. Integration of health services d. Online medical control

b. Continuity of care

12. Some vector-borne illnesses are transmitted to humans via: a. Eating partially cooked foods b. Deer ticks c. Contact with human feces d. Sneezing and coughing

b. Deer ticks

21. You are skiing down your favorite slope and notice a small group gathered around a middle-aged man sitting on the ground. You note that the boarder is holding his wrist and appears in pain. He agrees to have you examine him but then refuses any more help. You explain the possible consequences of not splinting the wrist and of the boarder trying to get down the mountain without help. This explanation of the risk of refusing care is provided in order to: a. Demonstrate that you know how to treat a wrist injury. b. Diminish your risk of being accused of abandonment. c. Reduce your risk of an accusation of battery. d. Help the patient understand why you are about to put the splint on anyway.

b. Diminish your risk of being accused of abandonment.

4. Which of the following levels of training emphasizes the provision of immediate life-saving treatment and stabilization to critically ill or injured patients while waiting for additional emergency response? a. Emergency Medical Technician b. Emergency Medical Responder c. Advanced Emergency Medical Technician d. Critical care responder

b. Emergency Medical Responder

22. In the Incident Command System, the operations section is responsible for: a. Collecting, assessing, and distributing incident-related data. b. Executing the strategy of the Incident Action Plan. c. Providing financial management. d. Providing support for all functional areas.

b. Executing the strategy of the Incident Action Plan.

26. Although regulations may differ from state to state, the general laws that may protect OEC Technicians from liability while providing emergency care to a patient are known as: a. Emergency rescue protection laws b. Good Samaritan laws c. Volunteer rescue liability laws d. First rescuer liability laws

b. Good Samaritan laws

1. The structure that regulates body temperature is the: a. Brain stem b. Hypothalamus c. Medulla d. Cerebellum

b. Hypothalamus

24. What type of consent would apply for an unresponsive 28-year-old male victim of a motorcycle collision? a. Expressed consent b. Implied consent c. Informed consent d. Assumed consent

b. Implied consent

14. Of the five functional areas within the Incident Command Structure (ICS) structure, the first to be established should be: a. Operations Section. b. Incident Command. c. Planning section. d. Logistics section.

b. Incident Command.

13. Wearing clean gloves, an impervious gown, and goggles while cleaning a long-board contaminated with blood helps protect the OEC technician from which form of potential infectious disease transmission? a. Airborne b. Indirect contact with an object contaminated with pathogens c. Ingestion d. Direct contact with a human with infectious pathogens

b. Indirect contact with an object contaminated with pathogens

18. The person responsible for maintaining equipment and ensuring that facilities meet specified needs is the: a. Operations Chief. b. Logistics Chief. c. Maintenance Chief. d. Planning Chief.

b. Logistics Chief.

12. While in charge of triage at a scene involving 30 patients exposed to carbon monoxide, you find a young female who is not breathing. After you open her airway and find that breathing does not return, you should: a. Provide her 15 seconds of assisted ventilation. b. Place a black tag on her and move on to the next patient. c. Provide her 15 seconds of CPR and recheck for a radial pulse. d. Apply oxygen and check her mental status.

b. Place a black tag on her and move on to the next patient.

20. Written instructions that indicate what should be done in a given situation are best described as: a. Regulations b. Protocols c. Indirect medical oversight d. Direct medical oversight

b. Protocols

1. The course called "Outdoor Emergency Care" was created by the National Ski Patrol to: a. Create a standard of care for ski patrollers and others involved in outdoor emergency care. b. Provide a standard of training for OEC Technicians and others involved in outdoor recreation. c. Respond to a request from Minnie Dole to develop training for patrollers working at ski resorts. d. Create a worldwide standard of care for anyone providing outdoor emergency care.

b. Provide a standard of training for OEC Technicians and others involved in outdoor recreation.

1. Which of the following goals best describes a key goal of an emergency care system? a. To have trained personnel respond and provide emergency care on the scene b. To identify and modify illness and injury risks c. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and to "do no harm" d. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of emergency medical care

b. To identify and modify illness and injury risks

10. The reason it is important that OEC Technicians participate in quality improvement programs in services in which they work or volunteer is: a. To guarantee that the public receives quality emergency medical care. b. To identify problems in care delivery and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence. c. To ensure that individuals making false calls for help are prosecuted. d. To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan for them.

b. To identify problems in care delivery and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence.

23. When caring for a patient who was stabbed with a knife in the ski area's bar (a crime scene situation), it is important for the OEC technician to do all of the following to support "chain of custody" except: a. Do not remove, move or otherwise disturb anything in the environment, except as is absolutely necessary to provide critical care to patient b. Wrap the knife found on the floor next to the patient in plastic and hand it to the EMTs so They can show the length of the knife to the Emergency Department staff c. Notify law enforcement immediately d. Let law enforcement personnel handle any materials that could be used as evidence

b. Wrap the knife found on the floor next to the patient in plastic and hand it to the EMTs so They can show the length of the knife to the Emergency Department staff

4. Which one of the following triage tag indicates the lowest priority for care, "Expectant", for a patient at a multiple-casualty incident? a. A yellow tag b. A red tag c. A black tag d. A green tag

c. A black tag

25. A situation in which an OEC Technician leaves a patient before the patient's care is transferred to another qualified individual is considered: a. Negligence b. Breach of duty c. Abandonment d. Assault

c. Abandonment

2. A network of specially trained personnel, equipment, facilities, and other resources that respond to medical emergencies—regardless of cause, location, or the patient's ability to pay—best describes: a. A community wellness program b. A health care system c. An emergency care system d. A public health system

c. An emergency care system

11. Which of the following is not a role of OEC Technicians in the quality improvement process? a. Participating in training b. Being receptive to on-scene instructions given by another rescuer c. Blaming their partner for a mistake in care d. Participating in case reviews

c. Blaming their partner for a mistake in care

17. While in the aid room treating a patient with a fractured wrist, the patient tells you that he was skiing on a slope that was too difficult for him, and that he started going too fast and got out of control. You recognize that this information must be documented on the accident report because it provides evidence of: a. Gross negligence. b. Assumption of risk. c. Contributory negligence. d. Willful negligence.

c. Contributory negligence.

1. To maintain proper alignment when moving or lifting a heavy object, the weight of the object must be: a. Offset using shoulder and chest strength. b. Distributed to the lower back. c. Evenly transferred to the legs. d. Transferred to the forearms and biceps.

c. Evenly transferred to the legs.

8. The 5th Edition of Outdoor Emergency Care: a. Must be learned in its entirety before taking the OEC Technician evaluation. b. Contains the baseline knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation curriculum for EMTs in all settings. c. Exceeds the knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation for Emergency Medical Responder. d. Can only be taught in the winter so that students can practice the skills taught in the course.

c. Exceeds the knowledge and skills identified by the U.S. Department of Transportation for Emergency Medical Responder.

21. Which of the following tips is not a part of common radio etiquette? a. Speak directly into the microphone. b. Hold the transmit key in for 1-2 seconds before speaking. c. Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds. d. Do not use the patient's name.

c. Include detailed information in a single transmission that takes no longer than 60 seconds.

2. The person who first organized a volunteer "ski patrol" and then was asked to organize a national patrol was: a. Roger Langely b. Roland Palmedo c. Minnie Dole d. Warren Bowman

c. Minnie Dole

8. At the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, you are presented with a patient who is not breathing. According to the Simple Triage and Rapid Transport (START) system, which of the following actions should you take next? a. Place a red tag on the patient. b. Start assisting ventilation with a BVM. c. Open the airway. d. Place a black tag on the patient.

c. Open the airway.

11. A teen involved in a multiple-casualty incident is found lying on the ground with an obvious deformity to his left thigh. Using the START system for triage, you note that he is not breathing. Which one of the following should you do next? a. Tag the patient as black, then move on to the next patient. b. Provide the patient 30 seconds of assisted ventilation. c. Open the patient's airway, next check for a radial pulse. d. Give the patient a red tag; next move him to the treatment area.

c. Open the patient's airway, next check for a radial pulse.

13. Which of the following is most effective for reducing the incidence of injury or illness in skiing or other outdoor activities? a. Clinical care b. Public access c. Prevention d. Emergency personnel

c. Prevention

23. In the acronym "START," the letter "S" stands for: a. Selective. b. Safe. c. Simple. d. Sophisticated.

c. Simple.

26. All of the following are functional areas of the Incident Command Structure except: a. Planning Section b. Operations Section c. Transportation Section d. Finance/ Administration Section

c. Transportation Section

16. Which one of the following techniques is the single best technique that OEC Technicians can use to prevent the spread of infection? a. Disinfecting their equipment b. Wearing gloves c. Washing their hands d. Getting immunizations

c. Washing their hands

4. The creed of the National Ski Patrol is: a. "Skiing and Safety." b. "First Aid and Service." c. "Snowsports and Safety." d. "Service and Safety."

d. "Service and Safety."

24. When properly trained in the START system, an OEC Technician should be able to complete a patient assessment in less than: a. 90 seconds. b. 45 seconds. c. 60 seconds. d. 30 seconds.

d. 30 seconds.

While you are alone and caring for an injured skier in the aid room, a fellow patroller calls and tells you that your own young child was just injured in the terrain park. Concerned for your child, you leave the patient's care unfinished and run to the terrain park. Your action could be viewed as: a. A breach of ethics b. Your duty to act c. Denial of care d. Abandonment

d. Abandonment

19. Which of the following is not considered a form of patient consent? a. Informed consent b. Minor consent c. Implied consent d. Absolute consent

d. Absolute consent

5. An OEC Technician meets or exceeds the NHTSA national training requirements of: a. An Emergency Medical Technician b. An advanced Emergency Medical Technician c. A Paramedic d. An Emergency Medical Responder

d. An Emergency Medical Responder

7. Dr. Warren Bowman is considered the father of Outdoor Emergency Care because he: a. Was the first program director for the National Ski Patrol. b. Co-authored the first ski patrol manual with the American Red Cross. c. Founded the National Ski Patrol as a separate entity. d. Created the concept of "intermediate" medical care for ski patrollers.

d. Created the concept of "intermediate" medical care for ski patrollers.

16. The Incident Commander has assigned you to be the Operations Section Chief. In this role you are responsible for all of the following except: a. Reducing immediate hazards. b. Restoring the scene to normalcy. c. Participating in the planning process. d. Determining incident objectives and strategy.

d. Determining incident objectives and strategy.

20. In the Incident Command System, the section responsible for maintaining injury, death, and damage documentation as well as maintaining reimbursement records is the: a. Planning section b. Operations section c. Logistics section d. Finance/Administration section

d. Finance/Administration section

4. Conduction is the transfer of heat: a. Through a gas or liquid moving past the surface of the skin b. Through radiation. c. Through respirations. d. From a warm object to a cold object through direct contact.

d. From a warm object to a cold object through direct contact.

5. The direction of heat transfer is always: a. From a cooler object to a warmer object. b. From a non-human object to a human object c. From a human object to a non-human object d. From a warmer object to a cooler object.

d. From a warmer object to a cooler object.

1. Which one of the following statements about the Incident Command System is true? a. Each EMS agency can use its own codes and terms. b. There is a separate commander for EMS, fire, and law enforcement personnel. c. Each individual responder is accountable to two supervisors. d. ICS operates with standardized language to avoid confusion.

d. ICS operates with standardized language to avoid confusion.

22. The type of consent that is based on an appreciation and understanding of the facts, implications, and possible future consequences of an action is known as: a. Implied consent b. Educated consent c. Expressed consent d. Informed consent

d. Informed consent

9. Which of the following statements about OEC 5th Edition is false? a. It contains the most recent information about prehospital care at the time of its publication. b. It is a resource text for the NSP OEC course. c. It is to be used by instructors to teach students the basic concepts of care. d. It supersedes local medical direction and management directives.

d. It supersedes local medical direction and management directives.

17. In the Incident Command System, which of the following sections is responsible for maintaining all incident reports except for financials? a. Logistics section b. Operations section c. Records section d. Planning section

d. Planning section

3. Which of the following attributes is not one of the 14 attributes of an effective emergency care system? a. Integration of health services b. System finance c. Public access d. Public acceptance

d. Public acceptance

19. Which of the following is the umbrella under which every facet of health care is sheltered? a. Community wellness programs b. Research c. The emergency care system d. Public health

d. Public health

15. Which of the following methods is the best method for ensuring that the treatment rendered by OEC Technicians meets or exceeds customer expectations and national education standards for emergency medical personnel? a. Public education b. Prevention training c. Continuity of care d. Quality improvement

d. Quality improvement

3. When a person exhibits good body mechanics and lifts properly, the spine is: a. Slightly bent in the upper thoracic region. b. Straight at the thoracic region and bent in the lumbar region. c. Bent at no more than 15 degrees. d. Straight and in an anatomical position.

d. Straight and in an anatomical position.

10. In order to become an "on the hill" Alpine patroller, you need to do all of the following except: a. Complete the OEC course. b. Successfully complete a written exam and a practical exam. c. Demonstrate a level of skiing/boarding and toboggan handling proficiency. d. Successfully complete a three-month candidacy program at your mountain.

d. Successfully complete a three-month candidacy program at your mountain.