31-60

43.) A histamine (H2)-receptor antagonist will be prescribed for a client. The nurse understands that which medications are H2-receptor antagonists? Select all that apply. 1. Nizatidine (Axid) 2. Ranitidine (Zantac) 3. Famotidine (Pepcid) 4. Cimetidine (Tagamet) 5. Esomeprazole (Nexium) 6. Lansoprazole (Prevacid)

1. Nizatidine (Axid) 2. Ranitidine (Zantac) 3. Famotidine (Pepcid) 4. Cimetidine (Tagamet) Rationale: H2-receptor antagonists suppress secretion of gastric acid, alleviate symptoms of heartburn, and assist in preventing complications of peptic ulcer disease. These medications also suppress gastric acid secretions and are used in active ulcer disease, erosive esophagitis, and pathological hypersecretory conditions. The other medications listed are proton pump inhibitors. H2-receptor antagonists medication names end with -dine. Proton pump inhibitors medication names end with -zole.

72.) Cinoxacin (Cinobac), a urinary antiseptic, is prescribed for the client. The nurse reviews the client's medical record and should contact the health care provider (HCP) regarding which documented finding to verify the prescription? Refer to chart. 1. Renal insufficiency 2. Chest x-ray: normal 3. Blood glucose, 102 mg/dL 4. Folic acid (vitamin B6) 0.5 mg, orally daily

1. Renal insufficiency Rationale: Cinoxacin should be administered with caution in clients with renal impairment. The dosage should be reduced, and failure to do so could result in accumulation of cinoxacin to toxic levels. Therefore the nurse would verify the prescription if the client had a documented history of renal insufficiency. The laboratory and diagnostic test results are normal findings. Folic acid (vitamin B6) may be prescribed for a client with renal insufficiency to prevent anemia.

64.) Nalidixic acid (NegGram) is prescribed for a client with a urinary tract infection. On review of the client's record, the nurse notes that the client is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin) daily. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate for this client? 1. Discontinuation of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) 2. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage 3. An increase in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage 4. A decrease in the usual dose of nalidixic acid (NegGram)

2. A decrease in the warfarin sodium (Coumadin) dosage Rationale: Nalidixic acid can intensify the effects of oral anticoagulants by displacing these agents from binding sites on plasma protein. When an oral anticoagulant is combined with nalidixic acid, a decrease in the anticoagulant dosage may be needed.

63.) A client with coronary artery disease complains of substernal chest pain. After checking the client's heart rate and blood pressure, a nurse administers nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. After 5 minutes, the client states, "My chest still hurts." Select the appropriate actions that the nurse should take. Select all that apply. 1. Call a code blue. 2. Contact the registered nurse. 3. Contact the client's family. 4. Assess the client's pain level. 5. Check the client's blood pressure. 6. Administer a second nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually.

2. Contact the registered nurse. 4. Assess the client's pain level. 5. Check the client's blood pressure. 6. Administer a second nitroglycerin, 0.4 mg, sublingually. Rationale: The usual guideline for administering nitroglycerin tablets for a hospitalized client with chest pain is to administer one tablet every 5 minutes PRN for chest pain, for a total dose of three tablets. The registered nurse should be notified of the client's condition, who will then notify the health care provider as appropriate. Because the client is still complaining of chest pain, the nurse would administer a second nitroglycerin tablet. The nurse would assess the client's pain level and check the client's blood pressure before administering each nitroglycerin dose. There are no data in the question that indicate the need to call a code blue. In addition, it is not necessary to contact the client's family unless the client has requested this.

41.) The client has been taking omeprazole (Prilosec) for 4 weeks. The ambulatory care nurse evaluates that the client is receiving optimal intended effect of the medication if the client reports the absence of which symptom? 1. Diarrhea 2. Heartburn 3. Flatulence 4. Constipation

2. Heartburn Rationale: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor classified as an antiulcer agent. The intended effect of the medication is relief of pain from gastric irritation, often called heartburn by clients. Omeprazole is not used to treat the conditions identified in options 1, 3, and 4.

65.) A nurse is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client receiving sulfisoxazole. Which of the following should be included in the list of instructions? 1. Restrict fluid intake. 2. Maintain a high fluid intake. 3. If the urine turns dark brown, call the health care provider (HCP) immediately. 4. Decrease the dosage when symptoms are improving to prevent an allergic response.

2. Maintain a high fluid intake. Rationale: Each dose of sulfisoxazole should be administered with a full glass of water, and the client should maintain a high fluid intake. The medication is more soluble in alkaline urine. The client should not be instructed to taper or discontinue the dose. Some forms of sulfisoxazole cause urine to turn dark brown or red. This does not indicate the need to notify the HCP.

50.) A nurse has given a client taking ethambutol (Myambutol) information about the medication. The nurse determines that the client understands the instructions if the client states that he or she will immediately report: 1. Impaired sense of hearing 2. Problems with visual acuity 3. Gastrointestinal (GI) side effects 4. Orange-red discoloration of body secretions

2. Problems with visual acuity Rationale: Ethambutol causes optic neuritis, which decreases visual acuity and the ability to discriminate between the colors red and green. This poses a potential safety hazard when a client is driving a motor vehicle. The client is taught to report this symptom immediately. The client is also taught to take the medication with food if GI upset occurs. Impaired hearing results from antitubercular therapy with streptomycin. Orange-red discoloration of secretions occurs with rifampin (Rifadin).

40.) The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs has been taking misoprostol (Cytotec). The nurse determines that the medication is having the intended therapeutic effect if which of the following is noted? 1. Resolved diarrhea 2. Relief of epigastric pain 3. Decreased platelet count 4. Decreased white blood cell count

2. Relief of epigastric pain Rationale: The client who chronically uses nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is prone to gastric mucosal injury. Misoprostol is a gastric protectant and is given specifically to prevent this occurrence. Diarrhea can be a side effect of the medication, but is not an intended effect. Options 3 and 4 are incorrect.

48.) A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to: 1. Drink alcohol in small amounts only. 2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. 3. Increase intake of Swiss or aged cheeses. 4. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

2. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately. Rationale: INH is hepatotoxic, and therefore the client is taught to report signs and symptoms of hepatitis immediately (which include yellow skin and sclera). For the same reason, alcohol should be avoided during therapy. The client should avoid intake of Swiss cheese, fish such as tuna, and foods containing tyramine because they may cause a reaction characterized by redness and itching of the skin, flushing, sweating, tachycardia, headache, or lightheadedness. The client can avoid developing peripheral neuritis by increasing the intake of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) during the course of INH therapy for TB.

45.) A client has a prescription to take guaifenesin (Humibid) every 4 hours, as needed. The nurse determines that the client understands the most effective use of this medication if the client states that he or she will: 1. Watch for irritability as a side effect. 2. Take the tablet with a full glass of water. 3. Take an extra dose if the cough is accompanied by fever. 4. Crush the sustained-release tablet if immediate relief is needed.

2. Take the tablet with a full glass of water. Rationale: Guaifenesin is an expectorant. It should be taken with a full glass of water to decrease viscosity of secretions. Sustained-release preparations should not be broken open, crushed, or chewed. The medication may occasionally cause dizziness, headache, or drowsiness as side effects. The client should contact the health care provider if the cough lasts longer than 1 week or is accompanied by fever, rash, sore throat, or persistent headache.

57.) A nurse is monitoring a client who is taking propranolol (Inderal LA). Which data collection finding would indicate a potential serious complication associated with propranolol? 1. The development of complaints of insomnia 2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes 3. A baseline blood pressure of 150/80 mm Hg followed by a blood pressure of 138/72 mm Hg after two doses of the medication 4. A baseline resting heart rate of 88 beats/min followed by a resting heart rate of 72 beats/min after two doses of the medication

2. The development of audible expiratory wheezes Rationale: Audible expiratory wheezes may indicate a serious adverse reaction, bronchospasm. β-Blockers may induce this reaction, particularly in clients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or asthma. Normal decreases in blood pressure and heart rate are expected. Insomnia is a frequent mild side effect and should be monitored.

51.) Cycloserine (Seromycin) is added to the medication regimen for a client with tuberculosis. Which of the following would the nurse include in the client-teaching plan regarding this medication? 1. To take the medication before meals 2. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing 3. It is not necessary to call the health care provider (HCP) if a skin rash occurs. 4. It is not necessary to restrict alcohol intake with this medication.

2. To return to the clinic weekly for serum drug-level testing Rationale: Cycloserine (Seromycin) is an antitubercular medication that requires weekly serum drug level determinations to monitor for the potential of neurotoxicity. Serum drug levels lower than 30 mcg/mL reduce the incidence of neurotoxicity. The medication must be taken after meals to prevent gastrointestinal irritation. The client must be instructed to notify the HCP if a skin rash or signs of central nervous system toxicity are noted. Alcohol must be avoided because it increases the risk of seizure activity.

68.) Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication? 1. Gastric atony 2. Urinary strictures 3. Neurogenic atony 4. Gastroesophageal reflux

2. Urinary strictures Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can be harmful to clients with urinary tract obstruction or weakness of the bladder wall. The medication has the ability to contract the bladder and thereby increase pressure within the urinary tract. Elevation of pressure within the urinary tract could rupture the bladder in clients with these conditions.

55.) A client who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) daily has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L and is complaining of anorexia. A health care provider prescribes a digoxin level to rule out digoxin toxicity. A nurse checks the results, knowing that which of the following is the therapeutic serum level (range) for digoxin? 1. 3 to 5 ng/mL 2. 0.5 to 2 ng/mL 3. 1.2 to 2.8 ng/mL 4. 3.5 to 5.5 ng/mL

2.) 0.5 to 2 ng/mL Rationale: Therapeutic levels for digoxin range from 0.5 to 2 ng/mL. Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

42.) A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen? 1. "My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria." 2. "These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer." 3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." 4. "These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach."

3. "The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production." Rationale: Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial drugs and a proton pump inhibitor. Clarithromycin and amoxicillin are antibacterials. Esomeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production.

69.) A nurse who is administering bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is monitoring for acute toxicity associated with the medication. The nurse checks the client for which sign of toxicity? 1. Dry skin 2. Dry mouth 3. Bradycardia 4. Signs of dehydration

3. Bradycardia Rationale: Toxicity (overdose) produces manifestations of excessive muscarinic stimulation such as salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. Treatment includes supportive measures and the administration of atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously.

49.) A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication: 1. Should always be taken with food or antacids 2. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten 3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces 4. May be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

3. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces Rationale: Rifampin should be taken exactly as directed as part of TB therapy. Doses should not be doubled or skipped. The client should not stop therapy until directed to do so by a health care provider. The medication should be administered on an empty stomach unless it causes gastrointestinal upset, and then it may be taken with food. Antacids, if prescribed, should be taken at least 1 hour before the medication. Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions and will permanently stain soft contact lenses.

71.) After kidney transplantation, cyclosporine (Sand immune) is prescribed for a client. Which laboratory result would indicate an adverse effect from the use of this medication? 1. Decreased creatinine level 2. Decreased hemoglobin level 3. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level 4. Decreased white blood cell count

3. Elevated blood urea nitrogen level Rationale: Nephrotoxicity can occur from the use of cyclosporine (Sandimmune). Nephrotoxicity is evaluated by monitoring for elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. Cyclosporine is an immunosuppressant but does not depress the bone marrow.

60.) A nurse is planning to administer hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) to a client. The nurse understands that which of the following are concerns related to the administration of this medication? 1. Hypouricemia, hyperkalemia 2. Increased risk of osteoporosis 3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy 4. Hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia, penicillin allergy

3. Hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, sulfa allergy Rationale: Thiazide diuretics such as hydrochlorothiazide are sulfa-based medications, and a client with a sulfa allergy is at risk for an allergic reaction. Also, clients are at risk for hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, hypercalcemia, hyperlipidemia, and hyperuricemia.

59.) A client is diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction and is receiving tissue plasminogen activator, alteplase (Activase, tPA). Which action is a priority nursing intervention? 1. Monitor for renal failure. 2. Monitor psychosocial status. 3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. 4. Have heparin sodium available.

3. Monitor for signs of bleeding. Rationale: Tissue plasminogen activator is a thrombolytic. Hemorrhage is a complication of any type of thrombolytic medication. The client is monitored for bleeding. Monitoring for renal failure and monitoring the client's psychosocial status are important but are not the most critical interventions. Heparin is given after thrombolytic therapy, but the question is not asking about follow-up medications.

46.) A postoperative client has received a dose of naloxone hydrochloride for respiratory depression shortly after transfer to the nursing unit from the postanesthesia care unit. After administration of the medication, the nurse checks the client for: 1. Pupillary changes 2. Scattered lung wheezes 3. Sudden increase in pain 4. Sudden episodes of diarrhea

3. Sudden increase in pain Rationale: Naloxone hydrochloride is an antidote to opioids and may also be given to the postoperative client to treat respiratory depression. When given to the postoperative client for respiratory depression, it may also reverse the effects of analgesics. Therefore, the nurse must check the client for a sudden increase in the level of pain experienced. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not associated with this medication.

58.) Isosorbide mononitrate (Imdur) is prescribed for a client with angina pectoris. The client tells the nurse that the medication is causing a chronic headache. The nurse appropriately suggests that the client: 1. Cut the dose in half. 2. Discontinue the medication. 3. Take the medication with food. 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP).

3. Take the medication with food. Rationale: Isosorbide mononitrate is an antianginal medication. Headache is a frequent side effect of isosorbide mononitrate and usually disappears during continued therapy. If a headache occurs during therapy, the client should be instructed to take the medication with food or meals. It is not necessary to contact the HCP unless the headaches persist with therapy. It is not appropriate to instruct the client to discontinue therapy or adjust the dosages.

54.) A nurse reinforces discharge instructions to a postoperative client who is taking warfarin sodium (Coumadin). Which statement, if made by the client, reflects the need for further teaching? 1. "I will take my pills every day at the same time." 2. "I will be certain to avoid alcohol consumption." 3. "I have already called my family to pick up a Medic-Alert bracelet." 4. "I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated."

4. "I will take Ecotrin (enteric-coated aspirin) for my headaches because it is coated." Rationale: Ecotrin is an aspirin-containing product and should be avoided. Alcohol consumption should be avoided by a client taking warfarin sodium. Taking prescribed medication at the same time each day increases client compliance. The Medic-Alert bracelet provides health care personnel emergency information.

61.) A home health care nurse is visiting a client with elevated triglyceride levels and a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL. The client is taking cholestyramine (Questran). Which of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates the need for further education? 1. "Constipation and bloating might be a problem." 2. "I'll continue to watch my diet and reduce my fats." 3. "Walking a mile each day will help the whole process." 4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store."

4. "I'll continue my nicotinic acid from the health food store." Rationale: Nicotinic acid, even an over-the-counter form, should be avoided because it may lead to liver abnormalities. All lipid-lowering medications also can cause liver abnormalities, so a combination of nicotinic acid and cholestyramine resin is to be avoided. Constipation and bloating are the two most common side effects. Walking and the reduction of fats in the diet are therapeutic measures to reduce cholesterol and triglyceride levels.

62.) A client is on nicotinic acid (niacin) for hyperlipidemia and the nurse provides instructions to the client about the medication. Which statement by the client would indicate an understanding of the instructions? 1. "It is not necessary to avoid the use of alcohol." 2. "The medication should be taken with meals to decrease flushing." 3. "Clay-colored stools are a common side effect and should not be of concern." 4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing."

4. "Ibuprofen (Motrin) taken 30 minutes before the nicotinic acid should decrease the flushing." Rationale: Flushing is a side effect of this medication. Aspirin or a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug can be taken 30 minutes before taking the medication to decrease flushing. Alcohol consumption needs to be avoided because it will enhance this side effect. The medication should be taken with meals, this will decrease gastrointestinal upset. Taking the medication with meals has no effect on the flushing. Clay-colored stools are a sign of hepatic dysfunction and should be immediately reported to the health care provider (HCP).

56.) Heparin sodium is prescribed for the client. The nurse expects that the health care provider will prescribe which of the following to monitor for a therapeutic effect of the medication? 1. Hematocrit level 2. Hemoglobin level 3. Prothrombin time (PT) 4. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)

4. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) Rationale: The PT will assess for the therapeutic effect of warfarin sodium (Coumadin) and the aPTT will assess the therapeutic effect of heparin sodium. Heparin sodium doses are determined based on these laboratory results. The hemoglobin and hematocrit values assess red blood cell concentrations.

70.) Oxybutynin chloride (Ditropan XL) is prescribed for a client with neurogenic bladder. Which sign would indicate a possible toxic effect related to this medication? 1. Pallor 2. Drowsiness 3. Bradycardia 4. Restlessness

4. Restlessness Rationale: Toxicity (overdosage) of this medication produces central nervous system excitation, such as nervousness, restlessness, hallucinations, and irritability. Other signs of toxicity include hypotension or hypertension, confusion, tachycardia, flushed or red face, and signs of respiratory depression. Drowsiness is a frequent side effect of the medication but does not indicate overdosage.

66.) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) is prescribed for a client. A nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom if it developed during the course of this medication therapy? 1. Nausea 2. Diarrhea 3. Headache 4. Sore throat

4. Sore throat Rationale: Clients taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ) should be informed about early signs of blood disorders that can occur from this medication. These include sore throat, fever, and pallor, and the client should be instructed to notify the health care provider if these symptoms occur. The other options do not require health care provider notification.

44.) A client is receiving acetylcysteine (Mucomyst), 20% solution diluted in 0.9% normal saline by nebulizer. The nurse should have which item available for possible use after giving this medication? 1. Ambu bag 2. Intubation tray 3. Nasogastric tube 4. Suction equipment

4. Suction equipment Rationale: Acetylcysteine can be given orally or by nasogastric tube to treat acetaminophen overdose, or it may be given by inhalation for use as a mucolytic. The nurse administering this medication as a mucolytic should have suction equipment available in case the client cannot manage to clear the increased volume of liquefied secretions.

67.) Phenazopyridine hydrochloride (Pyridium) is prescribed for a client for symptomatic relief of pain resulting from a lower urinary tract infection. The nurse reinforces to the client: 1. To take the medication at bedtime 2. To take the medication before meals 3. To discontinue the medication if a headache occurs 4. That a reddish orange discoloration of the urine may occur

4. That a reddish orange discoloration of the urine may occur Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client that a reddish-orange discoloration of urine may occur. The nurse also should instruct the client that this discoloration can stain fabric. The medication should be taken after meals to reduce the possibility of gastrointestinal upset. A headache is an occasional side effect of the medication and does not warrant discontinuation of the medication.