3DX7X EOC

What is meant by the term posse comitatus and what does it enforce?

"Force of the country"; civil law when not expressly authorized by the Constitution or an act of Congress

What do you call the UNIX program that you interact with directly from your terminal or workstation

"The Shell"

What is the threshold dollar amount for minor construction projects when using O&M (operations and maintenance) funds?

$1 million

List each of the IEEE wireless standards.

(1) 802.11b. (2) 802.11a. (3) 802.11g. (4) 802.11n.

What three things do an optical communications system require to transport communications?

(1) A light source (transmitter). (2) A transmission medium (cable). (3) A sensor (receiver).

What are the three parts of the CSIR (Communications and Information Systems Installation Records)?

(1) Administrative records. (2) Drawing records. (3) Maintenance records.

List and describe the categories of twisted pair cable.

(1) CAT 1, 1 Mbps, voice only analog phone lines (not used for data communications). (2) CAT 3, 10 Mbps, Ethernet (10BaseT). (3) CAT 5, 100 Mbps, Ethernet (100BaseT). (4) CAT 5e, 1 Gbps (1000 Mbps), Ethernet (1000BaseT). (5) CAT 6 and 6a, 10 Gbps, 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GbE).

What two configurations can GTACS(Ground Theater Air Control System) be deployed in and represents the assemblage of considerable resources?

(1) CRC (control reporting system). (2) CRE (contingency response element).

Name the seven initial capabilities Name the seven initial capabilities contained within the Open the airbase force module.

(1) Command and control. (2) Force protection. (3) Logistics. (4) Airfield operations. (5) Cargo and passenger handling. (6) Force accountability. (7) Finance and contracting, reception and bed down of additional forces.

What are the two Contingency Response Force mission sets?

(1) Contingency response. (2) Mobility advisory missions.

What are the three types of change requests?

(1) Corrective action. (2) Preventive action. (3) Defect Repair

What are the four sub-discipline areas of the AFINC?

(1) Defense-in-Depth. (2) Proactive Defense. (3) Network Standardization. (4) Situational Awareness.

What are the two types of site surveys?

(1) Desktop. (2) On-site

What are the three capabilities of EW?

(1) EA (2) EP (3) ES

What are the three types of completion reports?

(1) In-Effect Report. (2) Exception Report. (3) Delayed Service Report

Name the five phases of project management.

(1) Initiate. (2) Planning. (3) Execute. (4) Close. (5) Control

What four categories of support does the DD Form 1144 document?

(1) Intra-service agreements. (2) Inter-service agreements. (3) Intra-governmental agreements. (4) Other non-Federal activity agreements.

List the advantages of fiber optic systems over conventional cable systems.

(1) Larger bandwidths. (2) Freedom from interference. (3) Low cost and lightweight.

What are the four agencies the I-NOSC relays cyber orders to?

(1) MAJCOMs (2) MCCCCs (3) ACCCs (4) Installation communications units

List the advantages of using a WLAN?

(1) Mobility (2) Ease of installation (3) Lower cost

What are the five phases in the DIACAP process?

(1) Phase I, Initiate and plan IA and C&A. (2) Phase II, Implement and validate assigned IA controls. (3) Phase III, Make certification determination and accreditation decision. (4) Phase IV, Maintain authorization to operate and conduct reviews. (5) Phase V, Decommission

What three major considerations affect supporting cyber operations?

(1) Policy. (2) Authority. (3) Law

What three priorities drive the National Strategy to Secure Cyberspace?

(1) Prevention of cyber attacks against America's critical infrastructure. (2) Reduce national vulnerability to cyber attacks. (3) Minimize damage and recover time from cyber attacks

List and describe the four most common coax cable types.

(1) RG-6, 75Ohms. (2) RG-58, 50 Ohms. (3) RG-8, 50 Ohms. (4) RG-11, 50 Ohms

Name the five key stages of the ITIL (Information Technology infrastructure library) Service life Cycle.

(1) Service Strategy. (2) Service Design. (3) Service Transition. (4) Service Operation. (5) Continual Service Improvement

What are the two most common hybrid topologies?

(1) Star-bus. (2) Star-ring.

SORTS (Status of Resources and training System) assesses unit status based on what two factors?

(1) The mission for which it was designed and organized for. (2) The mission as tasked per the OPORD(operations order)

Contract packages normally consist of what four parts?

(1) The schedule. (2) Contract clauses. (3) List of documents, Exhibits and other attachments. (4) Representations and instructions

What MPTO defines project management as "the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives?"

(Methods and Procedures Technical Order) MPTO 00-33A-1001

Name the law that governs our nation's environmental concerns and ensures we carefully consider any undertakings having the ability to harm the environment or impose risks upon others.

(National Environmental Policy Act) NEPA of 1969

List the GTACS(Ground Theater Air Control System) Battle Management elements.

(a) AOC (Air Operations Center) . (b) CRC(Control Reporting System). (c) CRE(Contingency Response Element). (d) ASOC (Air Support Operations Center). (e) TACP (Tactical Air Control Party).

List the ground elements of the Theater Air Control System (TACS).

(a) AOC Air Operations Center. (b) CRC Control Reporting System. (c) ASOC Air Support Operations Center. (d) TACP Tactical Air Control Party.

List the additional capabilities the Establish the airbase force module deploys that are excluded in preceding modules due to lack of immediate urgency.

(a) Aerial port. (b) Infrastructure. (c) Site preparation. (d) POL. (e) Vehicle operations and maintenance. (f) Billeting. (g) Finance. (h) Contracting and utilities. (i) Force protection. (j) Emergency response. (k) Personnel accountability. (l) Munitions management. (m) Communications.

List the common components all UASs (unmanned aerial system) have.

(a) UA (unmanned aircraft). (b) Payload. (c) Control element. (d) Communications. (e) Support element.

What is the well-known port numbers?

0 - 1023

What is the IPv6 loop back address?

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 or ::1

Name the four principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM operational disk management?

1) Accept no unnecessary risk 2) Make risk decisions at appropriate level 3) Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs 4) Integrate ORM into operation & planning at all levels

List the required activities for creating a new publication.

1) Draft and collaborate with publications change manager 2) Formal coordination 3) Obtain certify official endorsement 4)?Obtain approving official's endorsement 5) Submit to publications manager for final processing

At the simplest level, state the two things that an operating system does.

1) It manages hardware & software resources of the computer system, & 2) provides a stable, consistent way for applications to deal with the hardware without having to know all of the details of the software

What four items must the MTP, Master Training Plan?

1) Master Task List 2) Current CFETP & applicable AFJQS 3) Local JQS(if applicable) 4) Milestones for tasks & CDC documentation

Name four UNIX shells.

1. Bourne shell 2. Korn shell 3. C shell 4.Restricted shell

What are the four most important TCP/IP, (transmission control protocol/internet protocol) protocols that function within the network layer?

1. Internet Protocol (IP) 2. Address Resolution (ARP) 3. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) 4. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

What are the three types of unicast address?

1. Link 2. Site 3. Global

Name an operating system's six task categories.

1. Processor management 2. memory management 3. Device management 4. Storage management 5. Application management 6. User interface

List the key features of VoSIP

1. Provides an interface between IP telephony & circuit switched network 2. Provides a full range of supplemental user features available for IP telephony (e.g., call hold, call transfer & abbreviated dialing.) 3. Provides a separate IP address space for voice communications 4. Provides firewalls at each VoSIP site & access control lists on all routers to ensure that only permitted traffic flows. 5. Provides secure voice communication up to and including secret.

For personnel not in retaining status what is minimum number of months OJT are required for upgrade to the 5- and 7- skill levels?

12 months

What is the reserved IPv4 address for loop back?

127 in the network field, and any number in the host fied ex. 127.0.0.1

When is the C2(command and control) force module estimated to be able to declare IOC (initial operating capability)?

16 hours from arrival at the deployed location

How long is an IPv6 address?

16 octets long or 128 bits

The 802.11n standard operates at what frequency?

2.4 GHz and 5 GHz

What is the reserved IPv4 address for limited broadcast?

255.255.*.* ex.255.255.255.255

In the Robust the airbase force module, how many days do support forces generally arrive after the deployed location is established?

30 days

Which unit is assigned as the Engineering Installation Governance Structure Secretariat, and centrally manages and implements AF-wide cyberspace requirements and projects (not including ANG bases)?

38 CEIG (Cyberspace Engineering Installation Group).

Knowledge Operations Management

3D0X1

Cyber Systems Operations

3D0X2

Which career Cyberspace Support career field(s) require IAT Level II certifications?

3D0X2, 3D0X3, and 3D1X2

Cyber Surety

3D0X3

Computer Systems Programming

3D0X4

Client Systems

3D1X1

Cyber Transport Systems

3D1X2

RF Transmissions Systems

3D1X3

Spectrum Operations

3D1X4

Cable and Antenna Systems

3D1X7

How many bytes make up the ATM cell, header, and payload?

53 byte cell, 5 byte header, 48 byte payload.

What is the most common wireless networking standard?

802.11

Define blanket purchase agreement (BPA).

A BPA is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply

What is specifically tailored to address safety concerns of the work environment?

A JST, Job Safety Training, guide

What is a domain

A collection of computers defined by the administrator of a Windows Server network that share a common directory/database

What must occur between both ends before transfer on information in a connection- oriented environment

A connection must be established between both ends

What is a physical topology?

A description of the layout of the network media that interconnects the devices on a network.

What is the IT Infrastructure Library?

A framework that provides structure and best practice guidelines for implementing and maintaining IT service management.

Can an Air National Guardsman execute a cyber-operation?

A guardsman in Title 32 status may train for Title 10 missions but cannot execute them.

What is a subnet mask?

A mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network & host number

Define modems.

A modem (modulator-demodulator) is a device that modulates signals to encode digital information and demodulates signals to decode the transmitted information.

What is the internet?

A network of networks

What does a trouble ticket or work order that exceeds its scope become in CIPS (Cyberspace infrastructure planning System)?

A requirement

All IT systems require what?

A security vulnerability assessment.

What is a weakness in a computer system or network open to exploitation called?

A vulnerability

Which document normally initiates temporary modifications and permanent sustainment modifications for fielded systems and equipment?

AF Form 1061, Modification Proposal

Who attends the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)?

AFCFM (Co- chair), AETC/TPM (Co- chair), AETC/TM, AETC/Program Element Manager (OEM), and MFMs. Optional U&TW attendees include the AETC CDC writer & representatives from AFCDDA, AETC Occupational Analysis Division, AFPC education, training, and classification, and the AETC instructional technology unit (ITU)

Which strategic level position is typically manned by CMSgts assigned to HAF (headquarters air force) and is responsible for organizing and managing one or more enlisted career fields?

AFCFM, Air Force Career Field Manager

Who possess final authority to waive CFETP requirements?

AFCFM, Air Force Career Field Manager

Which document details deployment execution responsibilities and procedures for crisis action and deliberate plans, as well as executing the deployment and reception of equipment and personnel?

AFI 10-403

Which AFI provides the roles and responsibilities required to ensure all architectures are built for purpose; built to quality standards; and enable analysis that can be used to support decision making and guide transformation?

AFI 33-401

Which document provides guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community?

AFI 36- 2845, Secretary of the Air Force, Chief of Information Dominance and Chief Information Officer Special Trophies & awards

Which instruction governs the preparation of international support agreements?

AFI 51-701, Negotiating, Concluding, Recording and Maintaining International Agreements

What regulation provides in- depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card Program?

AFI 64-117

Which document would you reference to learn about the ORM program?

AFI 90-901, Operational Risk Program (ORM) Program

Which document provide formulas to calculate target manning?

AFMAN 38-208

What is the primary Air Force command for cyberspace missions?

AFSPC, Air Force Space Command

What is the focal point for planning, directing, and assessing air, space, and cyberspace operations to meet JFACC operational objectives and guidance?

AOC (Air Operations Center).

What is the ART (Aerospace Expeditionary Force unit type code reporting tool) and its purpose?

ART is a SIPRNET Web-based tool with a NIPRNET training suite that gives AEF-allocated units the ability to report timely and accurate UTC readiness and tasking status.

What data transport method grew out of the need for a worldwide standard to allow interoperability of information, regardless of the information type or "end-system"?

ATM(Asynchronous Transfer Mode)

Excerpts from one or more basic TOs that organize and simplify instructions.

Abbreviated TO

What is accomplished before a system or facility is turned over?

Acceptance Inspection.

What programs, available as a free download from Adobe's website, allows you to view PDF files?

Adobe Acrobat Reader

As a minimum who is required to review and validate technical solutions?

Affected Work Centers, CSIs (Cyberspace Systems Integrator), Project Managers, and the base CSO (Communications Systems Officer).

When must MAJCOMs verify whether or not they can support a requirement?

After the 10-day initial sourcing window has closed

What is the function of military personnel conducting CMO? (Civil- Military Operations)

Aid the reestablishment or maintenance of stability w/in a region or host nation

Which agency honors the 12 Outstanding Airmen at its annual convention in Washington D.C.?

Air Force Association (AFA)

Who are UTC Personnel Evaluations conducted on?

All 3DXXX personnel assigned to UTC- based organizations whose primary mission is to deploy

Which units are required to report status in ART (Aerospace Expeditionary Force unit type code reporting tool)?

All Air Force units including Air National Guard and Reserve components owning standard UTCs postured in UTC availability.

Who is the job survey distributed to?

All eligible career field members

What does the MILCON program cover?

All land acquisition; Acquiring & constructing facilities; Adding to, expanding, extending, converting, altering, or replacing existing facilities; planning & design; construction overhead, supervision, and inspection; equipment installed in and made apart of real property structures and improvements and real property installed equipment- RPIE

What does DCO (Defense Connect Online) portal do?

Allows for registration, authentication, & scheduling connection meetings & instant messaging sessions

In the context of TCP/IP, what is a packet also known as?

An IP datagram

What is an ATO?Authorization to Operate

An approval granted by the lead AO (authorizing official) or appointed AO to operate the system at an acceptable level of risk

What attachment to an OPLAN (operations plan) covers all communications aspects required to support an operation?

Annex K

How often are contract reviews of the PWS(Performance Work Statement) and QASP(Quality Assurance Surveillance Plan)required?

Annually

Name three factors should consider for future operating costs when planning the work center budget.

Any 3 of the following 9 will equipment need to be purchased? if so, what is the total cost? which initial spares are required and will they be locally funded? which items need to be added to bench stock and how much will they cost? are any special tools required? if so, what are the temporary duty (TDY) costs? is formal training required? if so, what are the temporary duty (TDY) costs? will extra trips to the site be necessary? what about added transportation costs? are their any out of pocket expenses (e.g. local purchase items) to support the installation? are there support costs?

What is an Anycast address?

Anycast addresses also identify set of interfaces, but the packets dliver to and accept by the closest interface

Into what two groups can you divide the OSI model?

Application (upper) layer and Data Transport (lower) layer

In addition to authorization, what is required for a MILCON (military construction) project to go from paper to breaking ground?

Appropriations

Define unfunded positions?

Approved manpower authorizations that have not been funded for fill by the Air Force

Define funded positions

Authorized manpower awarded to the unit & funded by the Air Force

Who assigns network numbers?

Authorized representatives of IANA (Internet Assigned Number Authority)

Who plans all of the work for the various BCE (base civil engineering) work centers?

BCE's (base civil engineering) planning section

Who serves as the focal point for processing data for updating CSIR(Communications and Information Systems Installation Records) drawings and for receiving new drawings?

Base IT/NSS (Information Technology/National Security System) Installation Records Manager/CSIR Manager.

When does the span of configuration control begin?

Begins once the first configuration document is approved and base lined

Due to cost and imperfections, what method should not be used as the sole form of authentication?

Biometrics.

How does OCO, offensive cyberspace operations, intend to project power?

By the application of force in and through cyberspace.

What rating applies to a unit if its personnel, equipment, and supplies on hand, equipment, and condition falls between 70 to 89%?

C-2 [SORTS(Status of Resource and Training System) C ratings]

Which CE work center is the centralized area that all CE or equivalent agency work requests pass through?

CE customer service desk

Which law requires that any contract proposals written by the government must allow for "full and open competition"?

CICA (Competition in Contracting Act) .

What system does a requesting agency use as the method for submitting requests?

CIPS (Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System)

What is the approved automated information system for planning, installing, and managing the Air Force's cyberspace infrastructure?

CIPS (Cyberspace infrastructure planning System)

What is the special type of memory used to store the BIOS settings in a PC?

CMOS memory (Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor)

Support equipment designed for manufactured commercial use?

COTS (commercial- off- the- shelf) Manual

What service uses a number of different satellite services to provide warfighters with worldwide access and GIG (global information grid) connectivity for diversity, redundancy and availability?

CSS (Commercial Satellite Service)

Which career fields require personnel to be free from fear of heights and claustrophobia?

Cable and Antenna Systems (3D1X7)

What term is used for the speed enhancement resulting from a small amount of memory placed inside the CPU or between the CPU and the computer's main memory?

Cache

What is key to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects and maximizing cyberspace superiority?

Careful planning.

Which UAS categories are typically employed through an operational squadron, and operated by qualified pilots?

Category 4 and 5 (RPAs).

The first bit (0) identifies the address class and, together with the next seven bits, identifies the network number.

Class A

What class address is 9.10.254.111?

Class A

There are about 16,384 networks, with 65, 534 hosts on each network.

Class B

what class address is 154.224.32.3?

Class B

There are about 2,097,152 networks, with 254 host on each network.

Class C

What class address is 223.1.1.254?

Class C

Reserved for multicasting addressing.

Class D

The first four bits (1111) identify the address class.

Class E

What are the two subnet masking?

Classful and classless

Which cable type is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard?

Coaxial cable

Which units are the largest users of TDC equipment?

Combat Communications units.

Who initiates a Request for Forces in the development phase of the deployment sourcing process?

Combatant commanders

What authorization is required to connect communications systems and equipment to one of the host country's communications media?

Connection Approval

Transport protocols have two classifications based on the way data transports, name two classifications

Connection oriented and connectionless oriented

What meetings are conducted by BCE to review the drawings and specifications related to a MILCON project?

Construction Design Reviews

What must you do if you suspect an existing contract is applicable for a technical solution?

Contact the base Contracting Office for clarification and support.

Who is responsible for training CORs(Contracting Officer Representative) on their duties, contract surveillance techniques, and standards of conduct within 90 days of appointment?

Contracting Office.

What must be exercised to ensure personnel follow all precautions and safety measures including the proper use of PPE(personal protective equipment)?

Control over job tasks

What is an Authorized Service Interruption?

Coordinated and planned outage for preventive maintenance inspections, configuration changes and organizations that require an AFNET component service to be available for a specified length of time

Which TDC package is established within 48 hours and supports 50-150 users in a café?

Core Services.

What information can be used as a baseline for projecting nest year's operating costs?

Cost information from supply reports

What distinct capability does PA (public affairs) bring to the mission?

Counterpropaganda

Using the Requirements process flow chart from TO 00-33D-3003, what step takes place after validating a requirement?

Create a TS&C (technical solution and costing)

Which type of plan is driven by current events in real time and normally occurs in emergencies and in the context of time-sensitive situations?

Crisis action plan.

What is a specific fact about friendly intentions, capabilities, and activities vitally needed by adversaries for them to plan and act effectively, so as to guarantee failure or unacceptable consequences for friendly mission accomplishment?

Critical information

What are some items to consider when defining requirements?

Current Infrastructure, Radio Frequencies, Training Security, Space Tools/Equipment, Electrical Power, and HVAC Man hours.

What form are intra-service and inter-service support agreements documented on?

DD Form 1144, Support Agreement

What must be used to formally transfer all real property to Base Civil Engineering?

DD Form 1354

Switches and bridges operate at this layer

Data Link

This layer divides into sub layers; Logical Link Layer and Media Access Control LLC and MAC

Data Link

What are the advantages of a ring topology?

Data transmits at greater speed, no collisions, easy to troubleshoot, no terminators.

What is the responsibility of the Data Transport layers of the OSI model?

Define how data travels the physical media, through Internetwork devices, to the destination computer, and to the application on the destination machine

What is a logical topology?

Defines the way in which devices communicate throughout the network.

Define deployment planning

Deployment planning is a continuous, iterative and highly structured process that allows for an orderly transition from peace to war and then to post-hostilities operations.

Routers compare metrics to determine optimal routes; these methods differ depending on what?

Design of the routing algorithm used.

What are the two types of modems used?

Dial-up and dedicated, also known as leased

What is the first step in Job Safety Analysis step?

Document the activity: Assemble those involved in the activity & then, using the JSA, Job Safety Analysis, worksheet, write down tasks that make up the activity, step by step

How is the initial evaluation documented?

Document the completion of the evaluation with a journal entry on the (training business area) website via the AF Portal

When are partitions established?

During system configuration

What is dynamic routing?

Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between two nodes and compiles this info in a routing table.

What is the first organizational that AFNET users contact when they experience issues with their government provided end- user equipment?

ESD, Enterprise Service Desk

What is the official Air Force system for managing TO libraries?

ETIMS, Enhanced Technical Information Management System

What are the advantages of a star topology?

Easy network expansion, cable failure won't interrupt the entire network, centralized management, easy to troubleshoot, faster network speeds, most common topology so equipment options are virtually unlimited.

What are the two methods that encryption can be applied?

Encryption can be applied on either a link-by-link basis or an end-to-end basis.

Applications are what type of program?

End- user programs

Because a topology affects the network's capabilities, what is the impact of choosing one topology over another?

Equipment needs, equipment capabilities, network expansion, network management.

Define inactive equipment

Equipment not commissioned or installed to perform an operational mission or equipment

What are the duties of the TODO, Technical Order Distribution Office?

Establish & maintain a TO account in ETIMS establish & maintain organization TODA for organization subaccounts maintain records of TOs required and on hand in organization physical distribution media TO libraries

What is the mission of the CVA/Hunter?

F2T2EA the APT(find, fix, track, target, engage & control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas

Which document outlines the processes, procedures, and restrictions applying to all government contracts?

FAR (Federal Acquisition Regulation)

Who is responsible for ensuring CORs (Contracting Officer Representative) maintain proficiency in their functional areas?

FD/FC (Functional Director/Functional Commander)

The Operate the airbase force module includes mission support forces necessary to achieve what capability level?

FOC(full operational capability)

Which type of planning meeting identifies Civil Engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities and relocations of organizations?

Facilities Utilization Board

Who reviews and validates major construction projects, then prioritizes it among other base facility requirements?

Facilities Utilization Board

Which type of contract is not subject to any adjustable fees?

Firm Fixed Price

What is the primary purpose of STRT, Specialty Training Requirements Team?

For the AFCFM, Air Force Career Field Manager and functional leaders to determine and present training requirements to the AETC (air education training command)

UASs (unmanned aerial system) were primarily developed for what purpose?

For use in reconnaissance and intelligence gathering.

When the full bandwidth of a T1 line is not needed it can be divided in 64 Kbps increments known as what?

Fractional T-1 (FT-1).

Where does the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) obtain its accreditation?

From the ANSI, American National Standard Institute

Which type of plan is written using JOPES (Joint Operation Planning and Execution System) procedures and formats specified for a CONPLAN (concept plan) without a TPFDD (Time- phased Force and Deployment Data) ?

Functional Plan

What is the current online repository of IT standards that mandates the minimum set of standards and guidelines for the acquisition of all DOD systems that produce, use, or exchange information?

GTG-F ((Global Information Grid Technical Reference- Federation)

Used in lieu of specific equipment TOs, and are not categorized into three types: Category, System, and Equipment- series.

General TO

The USC is a compilation of which types of federal laws of the United States?

General and permanent

What Ethernet standard has supplanted Fast Ethernet in wired networks?

Gigabit Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE).

What is the temporary authorization to test a DOD IS in a specified operational information environment within the timeframe and under the conditions or constraints enumerated in the accreditation decision?

IATT( interim authorization to test)

What is the "trade name" that refers to the 40- pin interface and drive- controller architecture designed to implement the ATA standard?

IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics Controller)

What are routing protocols that manage traffic within an autonomous system called?

IGP(Interior Gateway Protocol)

What AIS Automated Information System, is used to document actions on any item with an assigned SRD, standard reporting designator)

IMDS(integrated maintenance data system

What is the purpose of support agreements?

Identify the specific support & responsibilities of the supplying & receiving activities

What is the rule of thumb to distinguish physical from logical topologies?

If you can see it and touch it, it is physical, if you cannot see it or touch it, it is logical

What is the timeframe Air Force installations have to disseminate emergency information after incident notification and verification?

Immediately, but no longer than 10 minutes after incident notification and verification.

What is an Implementing Organization?

Implements a technical solution to a base, or requiring organization, with funds from a lead command

How is an IPv6 addressed?

In 16 byte fields using a hexadecimal format

When did Bell Labs develop the UNIX operating system?

In the early 1970s

In which UNIX directory are application programs contained?

In the usr directory

What are the negative effects of inadequate research when developing publications?

Inadequate research could result in issuing more than one publication on the same subject, conflicting instructions or publishing a nonessential or incomplete publication

Which two factors should supervisors include when providing trainee feedback?

Include what the trainee is doing correctly (positive feedback) Provide areas for improvement (constructive feedback)

Which type of contract is prepared for a specific quantity of supplies or services for a fixed period?

Indefinite Delivery

What are the advantages of a bus topology?

Inexpensive to install, easy to expand, requires less cabling that other topologies, works well for small networks

Who delegates responsibilities to the base contracting office to enter into legal negotiations and commit the government to pay for products or services?

Installation Commander

Most high- volume printers can connect to a network directly using what internal device?

Integrated NIC

What standards does the ECIA develop? (Electronic Components Industry Association)

Interconnect, passive and electro- mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the ANSI- designation of EIA (Electronic Components Industry Association) standards results

What does a typical router contain?

Internal processor, an operating system, memory, input and output jacks for different types of network connectors (depending on the network type); and, usually, a management console interface.

What is the name for networks that use the same software and protocols as the pubic internet but exist as a portion of an entity's private network?

Intranets

What is the purpose of the PEC, (program element code)

It defines which pot of money will pay for a specific position

How does an OCR, (organizational change request)may differ from an ACR, ?(authorization change request)

It doesn't add, modify, or change existing authorizations; it adds or removes work centers or realigns flights or work centers within the unit

Define federated architecture.

It is a collection of information assets that accommodates the uniqueness and specific purpose of unlike architectures and allows them to remain autonomous while enabling the enterprise to benefit from their content.

What is unique about an ASOS (Air Support Operations Squadron)?

It is comprised primarily of Air Force personnel and attached to various U.S. Army units.

What name is given to a tasking when a non-standard sourcing solution is required?

Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET)

Developed for other services or government departments and authorized for use by Air Force personnel.

Joint use publication

Although inexpensive in implementing, what systems have the major vulnerability of being prone to brute force attacks?

Knowledge based

What term describes a group of computers and devices that share a common communication line and resources in a small geographic area?

LAN

How are LWC (local work card) Identification numbers developed?

LWC (local work card), LCL (local checklist) or LJG (local job guide) followed by originating organization and the TO number and designator

Routers operate at which layer of the OSI model?

Layer three (network) of the OSI Model

What are the two ways to shorten the expression of an IPv6 address?

Leading zero compression & zero compression

DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO) Establishes annual training documentation requirements and oversees the purchase card program.

Level 1

The Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC) Liaises between the Air Force organizations and the PCPMO (Purchase Card Program Management Office) and Communicates DoD and the Air Force policy to the field.

Level 2

GPC (Government wide Purchase Card) program implemented and administered at the MAJCOM/Agency level.

Level 3

Commonly referred to as the Agency?/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC), and is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring at the installation level.

Level 4

Approving Official(AO) approves/disapproves all purchases subsequent to reconciliation by the cardholder, accounts for funds, and contacts for funds, and conducts surveillance on cardholders within the AO's (approving official) account.

Level 5

The individuals cardholder (CH) makes authorized transactions, and logs and reconciles transactions.

Level 6

Who provides the UMD(unit manpower document) to the organization?

Local Mission Support Squadron's Manpower and Organizational office

Primary addressing in WLANs is achieved by using what type of address?

MAC

Who serves as the MAJCOM liaison for his/her respective AFCFM?

MAJCOM Functional Manager, MFMs

What type of network interconnects several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines?

MAN

Category 00 and are general in content and are not issued against specific military systems or end items.

MPTO,Methods and Procedural Technical Order

Which subordinate force module contains aviation and direct aviation support?

MUG(Multiple Unit Type Code Grouping)

What are the two types of exceptions that can affect a system from meeting inspection criteria?

Major and minor.

What must be in place to ensure workers have the skills to complete the job and that there is a required level of supervision to ensure the tasks are completed as documented?

Management process

In DCO, Defense Connect On-line, what are reactive defenses?

Measures taken to directly counter an adversary penetrating a network or actions taken to terminate the ongoing intrusion.

What type of memorandum defines general areas of conditional agreement between two or more parties?

Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)

Which application allows the creation of queries, forms, reports, and macros?

Microsoft Access

What passive nature attack is the first step in a replay attack?

MitM (man in the middle)attack.

What actions are included in the scope of end-to-end monitoring?

Monitoring, measuring, performance analysis, and optimizing networks and network systems.

What is a multicast address?

Multicast addresses (FF00::/8) identify a group of interfaces belonging to different nodes. Muticast packets sent to all interfaces identified by that address

What business sectors does the ANSI(American National Standard Institute) influence?

Nearly every sector of business

A router operates at this layer

Network

What CompTIA certification fulfills the DODD 8570 requirement for IAT Level I only?

Network +

What are the two main parts of an IPv4 address?

Network number and network host

How can CO affect an adversary's informational and physical IO (information operations) dimensions?

Network-centric warfare.

Can ISR (Intelligence, surveillance & reconnaissance) capabilities be used to conduct complex effects assessment to support a combatant or combatant commander?

No

Can MILDEC (Military Deception) intentionally target or mislead the news media, the U.S. public, or Congress?

No

What are the disadvantages of a bus topology?

No longer used, cable breaks causes entire network outage, limited number of devices, troubleshooting is difficult, slower access time.

How long must individuals be in their rank tier and their duty AFSC to be nominated for the Information Dominance Award?

Nominated individuals must have been in the rank tier and performed in the duty AFSC for at & for least 183 days during the award period of service

If selected as one of the 12 Outstanding Airmen, what must the nominees agree to in a signed statement of intent?

Nominees must sign a statement of intent agreeing to obtain retainability to serve 12 months on the AFA (AF Association) Enlisted Advisory Council beginning on their 12 OAY (outstanding airman of the year) induction day (Sept.) Additionally the statement of intent requires the member to agree not to apply for a commissioning program during the year of selection

Covers installation, operation, troubleshooting, repairing, removing, calibration servicing or handling of Air Force military systems and end items

O&M TO, Operation and Maintenance Technical order

What is the firmware prompt called on Sun machines?

Ok (often called the O.K. prompt)

Which plan outlines the details on how to respond to an emergency?

Operations Plan

What does the AF use as the electronic tool for managing its GPC program?

PCOLS,Purchase Card On-Line System

What was the original term used to describe MISO?

PSYOP, psychological operation

What CFETP(career field education and training plan) sections outline the required skills and progression for each assigned career field?

Part I Sections B and C

Define partitions.

Partitions are physical area of disk allocated with specific sizes to hold file systems

What immediate result is expected after an AF TCNO is issued?

Patching or AFIN or DoDIN systems to minimize or eliminate exploitation vulnerabilities

Which plan covers events like an aircraft crash recovery, snow removal, or hurricane condition?

Peacetime OPLAN (operations plan)

Define official use.

Performance of work associated with your day-to- day responsibilities or performance of only official duties on official time

What are the Cyberspace Support specialist's general responsibilities?

Performing system analysis and design programming, systems operation and maintenance resource management and security management

Name four situations that can be considered unethical but not necessarily illegal.

Personal conflict of interest Covered relationships Misuse of position Non- public information

Most exploitation activities evolve from what?

Phishing

A hub operates at this layer

Physical

This layer defines the electrical, mechanical, procedural, and functional specifications for network communications

Physical

In most cases, which flight maintains administrative responsibilities to assist the OPR (office of primary responsibility) in the upkeep of any plans pertaining to the communications squadron?

Plans Flight

Who is the communications squadron focal point for all plans?

Plans Flight

Who is responsible for developing and maintaining an index of all support agreements in the Communications Squadron?

Plans section

What is the default port assignment for TELNET (?

Port 23

What is the default port assignment for credit card transactions on e-commerce sites?

Port 443- Secure Socket Layer

At this layer, common data compression and encryption schemes are used

Presentation

This layer provides a variety of coding and conversion functions that are applied to application layer data

Presentation

What is the transfer of control of target business activity and associated assets to a public or private sector entity called?

Privatization

The protocols at the Data Link layer define the access method for the media, the architecture, and interface with the Physical layer of the network. What standards are these protocols based on?

Project 802 standards

What is used during the control phase to organize project documentation?

Project Folder

Who assists project managers with the technical aspects of a project?

Project monitor

What is the ASOC's (Air Support Operations Center) overall mission?

Provide tactical C2(command and control) of Close Air Support (CAS) assets to support Army, joint, and/or coalition ground force commanders

What is one of the principal functions of a CSU? Channel service unit

Provides a barrier for electrical interference from either side of the unit.

What are the two type of AF web pages?

Public and private

What is the difference between the two types of Air Force Web public web pages/sites?

Public webpages/sites are intended for viewing by the general public; private webpages/sites intended for a limited audience

Name the functionally qualified person selected by the Functional Commander to evaluate and accept contract services.

QAE (Quality Assurance Evaluator)

Who is responsible for providing training to QA(quality assurance) Personnel as well as the FC/FD (Functional Director/Functional Commander)?

QAPC (Quality Assurance Program Coordinator)

What is the plan established to compare a contractor's performance to the PWS (Performance Work Statement) called?

QASP (Quality Assurance Surveillance Plan)

What is the ESR (equipment status report) system currently used for reporting IMDS related equipment status?

REMIS(reliability and maintainability information system)

What is the difference between ROM (read- only memory) and RAM( random access memory)?

ROM is a type of memory that normally can only be read, as opposed to RAM, which can be both read and written to. The data stored is ROM is always there, whether there is power or no power.

What AIS, Automated Information System, is used to track outages for computer and cyber network equipment?

Remedy

What information is required when submitting Cyber Systems requirements?

Requirement Description (Required Capability), Justification, Funding Availability, Mission Impact, Required Implementation Date. Priority.

What are some common actions during the planning phase?

Requirement review/validation, Site Survey Development/Validation of Technical Solution and Costing, Identify logistic support requirements, Development of Project Support Agreement/Project Support Plan, Development of Project Package, Project material acquisition, accountability and storage, Allied support completion, Schedule development.

Define special communication requirements

Requirements that need additional assistance from agencies outside of the normal communications squadron to develop the complete technical solution for the requirement.

What are the disadvantages of ring topology?

Requires more cable than a bus network, cable break could bring the network down, difficult to add devices to active network, uncommon so equipment is not readily available.

What are the disadvantages of a star topology?

Requires more media than a ring or bus, failure of the central device can bring down the entire network, cost of installation.

Where is the AFN broadcast center located, and what services does it provide?

Riverside, California; provides programming for military radio and television outlets overseas.

What unclassified IP data service provides internet connectivity and supports e-mail and web services?

SBU IP Data (Sensitive but Unclassified Internet Protocol Data)

Include facility, system, subsystem, installation engineering and installation manuals , general engineering and planning manuals, and standard installation practices

SIPTO,Standard Installation Practices Technical Orders

What process does OPSEC incorporate to deny adversaries critical information about friendly forces?

SM, Signature Management

What is the most common telephone device used for voice encryption?

STE Secure Terminal Equipment

Which type of modification is a permanent modification that corrects materiel or other deficiencies that could endanger the safety or health of personnel, or cause the loss of, or extensive damage to systems or equipment?

Safety Modification

What is used to develop user- level master inspection schedules?

Schedule inspection intervals

This layer establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions

Session

Which contract is made when only one viable source exists and no other supplies or services will satisfy the requirement?

Sole Source

What are the fields belonging to a TCP(transmission control protocol) segment?

Source port & Destination port Sequence number & Acknowledgement number (ACK) TCP header length Reserved Flags (Control bits) Sliding window size Checksum Urgent pointer Options Padding & Data

What does a TCP/IP client use to request a particular service?

Specific values called port numbers to request a [articular service

What will supervisors perform to check the day- to- day safety and health of an organization, work center, facility, and so forth?

Spot Inspections

Name two methods for directing data on the network.

Static or dynamic routing.

What is static routing?

Static routing is a technique in which a network administrator programs a router to use specific paths between nodes.

What type of switching is required when a moving a frame from a low-speed LAN to a high speed LAN?

Store-and-forward switching.

ISDN(Integrated Service Digital Network) channels are separated into two sub-channels, list and describe the sub-channels.

Sub-channel B 56 Kbps or 64 Kbps and are used for both voice and data. Each B channel can carry a separate telephone call. The D-channel is a 16 Kbps use to carry call control (or supervisory) information. The information on the "D" channel tells the network switches what to do with the traffic on the "B" channels.

Who provides job safety training to all newly assigned individuals?

Supervisors

Contain instructions for use in conjunction with data contained in their parent TOs and are not stand- alone publications.

Supplemental TO

What do LAN switches provide between network devices?

Switches provide collision-free, high-speed communication between network devices.

Define partial mission capable?

System or equipment functioning in such a way that can perform at least one, but not all of its assigned missions or functions; system is impaired but usable

Which type of modification changes the configuration of an item in order to satisfy short-term operational mission requirements by adding, modifying, or removing hardware and/or software components or capabilities in a manner that provides an immediate operational benefit?

T-1 Modification

What TADIL is link 11?

TADIL-A

What TADIL is link 4A?

TADIL-C

What TADIL is link 16?

TADIL-J

What is the system officially used to document training?

TBA, Training Business Area

Used for modifying military systems and end items or performing one-time inspections.

TCTO,time Compliance Technical Order

What enables easy filing and indexing of TOs and provides a means for users to identify and establish distribution requirements?

TO (technical order) sequencing

Which publication governs the use of CIPS and applies to all 3D Air Force Specialties working on communications systems/equipment unless exempted by the appropriate career field functional managers?

TO 00-33D-3003

What is the function of military personnel conducting CMO? (Civil military operations)

Targeting either independently or in conjunction with IO (information operations), an adversary's culture, organization, or individual psychology

What is the stimulant that generates increased information superiority?

Targeting, either independently or in conjunction with IO, an adversary's culture, organization, or individual psychology.

Define buffering

Temporary store of excess data bursts that remain in memory of network devices until processed

Which Air Force unit provides oversight for the Cyberspace Systems Integrator?

The 38th Engineering Squadron

What weapons system provides continuous monitoring and defense of AF unclassified and classified networks?

The ACD, Air Force Cyberspace Defense

What AF weapons system offers top-level boundary and entry point into the Air Force Information Network (AFIN)?

The AFINC (Air Force Intranet Control) weapon system

What is the most important document to have signed during the close phase?

The AFTO Form 747

Name the AF enterprise application, not available with the Legacy CSIRs that provides real-time situational awareness and analytical tools consisting of interim installation records, engineering drawings, and reference drawings.

The CVC (Cyberspace infrastructure Planning System Visualization Component)

Who must evaluate and certify all IT systems, including NSS, with external interfaces?

The DISA JITC (Joint Interoperability Test Command)

What is the DoD internal methodology used to allocate resources to capabilities?

The PPBE process; (Planning, Programming Budgeting, & Execution)

What phases does the control phase overlap?

The Plan, Execute, and Close phases

What formally documents communications and information systems requirements and approval for base support?

The Project Support Agreement.

What POC oversees TO requirements and distribution within an organization?

The TODO, Technical Order Distribution Office

What is the purpose of the UPMR, (Unit Personnel Management Roster)

The UPMR,(Unit Personnel Management Roster) is used to match personnel assigned within the unit to the position numbers listed on the UMD(Unit Manpower Document)

List the conditions that will make a shortfall valid.

The capability isn't available at the unit & the wing or tasked unit has the capability & sufficient personnel to meet requirements, but deployment of personnel and/or equipment would cause a severe mission impact on the wing or unit

What is certification?

The comprehensive evaluation and validation of an AF IS to establish the degree to which it complies with assigned IA controls based on standardized procedures.

The easiest way to break down the many protocols of the TCP/IP (transmission control protocol/internet protocol) suite is according to where they operate within the OSI (open systems interconnection) model. Each protocol in this stack operate at one of what four layers?

The data link layer, the Network Layer (aka Internet layer in the TCP/IP model, the Transport layer or the Application layer

Define deliverables.

The desired outcome, product, or service of a project.

What is a connection approval?

The formal approval for an IS to connect to the AFIN and the acceptance of risk associated with the IS connection by the Air Force Enterprise AO or delegated individual.

What is accreditation?

The formal declaration by an AO that the information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk

What are EI(engineering installation) units responsible for designing, engineering, and installing?

The full range of cyberspace equipment and components typically found at a fixed site and other specialty systems unique to expeditionary forces.

What type of configuration does the Ai Force use for most VPN traffic?

The gateway-to-gateway configuration

Define shortfall

The lack of forces equipment, personnel, material, or capability reflected as the difference between the resources; identified as a plan requirement & those apportioned to a combat CC for planning that would adversely affect the CC's ability to accomplish its mission

What is the fundamental difference between Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching?

The layer at which each forwarding decision is made.

What is capacity planning?

The long-trend analysis of network devices to identify future constraints with the results incorporated into future technical baselines.

What is the definition of a DOC (Designed Operational Capability) statement?

The mission for which a measured unit has been equipped, organized, or designed.

Who originates an ACR(authorization change request)

The requesting unit

What does the LOGDET(Logistics Detail) define?

The standard passenger and equipment movement requirements for each UTC

What must be done prior to conducting the initial evaluation on newly assigned personnel?

The supervisor must assign individual training requirements to the trainees Individual Training Plan

What does RAM (random access memory) mean?

The term "random access" refers to the method of addressing memory. With random access the CPU (central processing unit) can address any memory location directly & read the data contained at that memory location

How would you define SCADA?supervisory control data acquisition

The term SCADA refers to centralized systems, which monitor and control industrial sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas.

Who determines when the trainee is ready for task certification?

The trainer

While congressional appropriations committees approve individual projects, what about the amounts appropriated?

They may be less than their estimated cost

What achievement(s) does the Lance P. Sijan USAF Leadership Award recognizes officers and enlisted leaders for?

This award recognizes offices & enlisted leaders who exude the highest level of leadership in the performance of their duties & off duty conduct

How many subordinate force modules comprise the Generate the mission force module?

Three

How are SCADA systems typically implemented?

Through a distributed database, commonly referred to as a tag database, which contains data elements called tags or points

How does Air Force EIM enable mission capabilities?

Through seamless integrated access to the right information anytime or anywhere

Which type of contract covers situations when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy?

Time and Material

What is the main function of a DSU?data service unit

To adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer's equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment, and vice versa.

What is the purpose of the PPBE (Planning, Programming Budgeting, & Execution) process?

To allocate resources within the DoD

What is the premise of the War Power Resolution?

To clarify & expand on constitutional authority to enter the U.S. Armed Forces into hostilities

What is the primary use for a bridge?

To decrease network congestion but also propagate a signal like a repeater.

What is the purpose of a PWS (Performance Work Statement) ?

To detail the work requirements for projects and programs having deliverables and/or services performed.

What is the objective of concept planning?

To develop rapidly expandable sound operational and support concepts

What security professional goal is a result of understanding that all risk cannot be removed?

To eliminate or mitigate as many risks as possible.

What is the goal of the Continual Service Improvement stage?

To ensure that services are aligned with changes

What is the aim of the Operational Survey?

To facilitate decision- making on Air Force personnel &training programs by providing objective information about Air Force occupations

Why is it important to remain involved in the execute phase?

To minimize or eliminate any problems that may occur.

What is the deployable CRG's (contingency response group) primary mission?

To open and/or operate airfields or airbases after seizure, or whenever needed to assess, open, and initially operate airbases in support of the Air Force component of the COCOM(combat command).

What is the main goal of the Government Purchase Card Program?

To provide AF users a simplified, streamlined, method of purchasing and paying for simple, low- dollar value items of supply and service

What is the objective of MANFOR(Manpower Force)?

To provide joint and AF planners with standardized force capabilities documenting manpower requirements for execution, operations and planning documents.

How is manpower sized?

To reflect the minimum essential level to accomplish the required workload

What is the primary purpose of a chat room?

To share information via text with a group of individuals

What is the purpose of an Air Force SORTS(Status of Resource and Training System) DOC (Designed Operational Capability) statement?

To summarize the unit's mission using the DRRS(Defense Readiness Report System) core Mission Essential Task List and provide units with a single document referencing all that determine the pool of resources and training to measure and report in SORTS (Status of Resource and Training System).

What is the role of TDC?

To support the efficient transfer of command and control, intelligence, logistics, and administrative data between fixed sites and deployed locations, multiple functional areas at each deployed location, and/or CONUS gateway locations and deployed locations.

This layer typically includes multiplexing, virtual circuit management, and error checking and recovery.

Transport

What medium is the primary carrier for voice telecommunications?

Twisted pair cable

What are the most common types of all metallic cable used in networks?

Twisted pair cable and coaxial cable

Who is the single POC for the unit commander for monitoring all contracts?

UCM (unit contract monitor)

Which connection enables data transfer speeds of 480 Mbps and can handle up to 127 peripherals at once?

USB 2.0 (universal serial bus)

What USC Title includes cyber- related topics, such as cyber security research and online shopper protection?

USC Title 15, Commerce & Trade

Chapter 5 of what USC Title spells out the situations in which one can draw special pay or reenlistment bonuses?

USC Title 37, Pay Allowances of the Uniformed Services

On delegation authority, whose cyber tasking orders does the 624 OC relay to all Air Force units?

USCYBERCOM

What is a unicast address?

Unicast addresses identify a single interface. A packet sent to a unicast address delivers to the interface identified by that address.

An ACR (authorization change request), includes which actions?

Unit activation inactivation, redesignation, or variation to a policy, guidance, procedure or standard organization structure as depicted in AFI 38-101

Which work center acts as the unit focal point when interacting with BCE (base civil engineering) to provide design support to and/or obtain BCE (base civil engineering) support?

Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.

How much data can be stored on a CD-R?

Up to 700 MB

List an advantage of contracting COTS equipment

Using COTS products allows the purchase of products to be cheaper and faster because the government does not have to fund or wait on designs

What network provides a private tunnel though the Internet?

VPN(virtual private network)

What function(s) of the unit's operational mission does the Communications Focal Point directly support?

Voice & data network systems, radio systems, video and all others communications/cyber equipment/ system while maintaining visibility of performance

What is the name of a network connected between two cities?

WAN

What is the integrated tool permitting users to create, track, and process work orders within CIPS at both the base and MAJCOM levels, while keeping work orders and infrastructure requirements as separate business objects?

WOMS (work order management system)

When do wing or equivalent commanders submit shortfalls or reclamas?

When a wing or tasked unit doesn't possess sufficient equipment or qualified personnel to support a UTC or the tasking will shut down critical elements of the home station mission

Under what circumstances is the STRT (Specialty Training Requirements Team) held in conjunction with the U&TW(utilization and training workshop)

When it's obvious that new requirements will not drive additional sources

When do work centers ensure LWCs (local work card), LJGs (local job guide), LPSs (local page supplement) , and LCLs (local checklist) are reviewed for currency?

When source references change, or at least annually

When does the validation of computer requirements process begin?

When the user identifies a mission need and requests CSO (communication information assurance officer) assistance with defining the requirement and developing a technical solution for that need.

When do requirements arise?

When there is a deficiency in an existing operational capability, a need for a new capability, or an opportunity to replace or modernize an existing system with improved technology when operationally and economically practical

Name the Microsoft Windows family of operating systems.

Windows 98, Windows NT, Windows 2000 series, Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows 7 & 8

Who has the overall responsibility for publishing local policy and guidance defining authorized personnel use of the internet?

Wing commander

Provided there is no need for extensive operational landing strip preparation, how soon after arrival of forces should the Open the airbase force module reach IOC(initial operating capability)?

Within 24 hours

Does the ATO (authorization to operate) reflect the integrated air, space, and cyberspace operations plan that supports a joint force commander's campaign?

Yes

Is fiber optic cable immune to EMI?electromagnetic interface

Yes

Can a switch connect LANs of different bandwidths? If so, give example

Yes; this is accomplished with buffering

Define ORM, Occupational Risk Management?

a decision- making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks & benefits & determine the best course of action for any given situation

Define the DISN Defense Information Systems Network

a telecommunications network that provides the exchange of information in an interoperable and global space, divided by security demands, transmission requirements & geographic needs of targeted end-usr customers. The DISN offers a selection of integrated standards based services to fulfill these connectivity needs

43. (010) What are the inclusive dates for Secretary of the Air Force/Chief Information Officer (SAF/CIO) annual awards? a. 1 October - 30 September. b. 1 January - 31 December. c. 1 April - 31 March. d. 1 July - 30 June.

a. 1 October - 30 September.

30. (008) The creation of the DOD as an executive component of the government Is authorized by United States Code (USC) Title a. 10. b. 15. c. 37. d. 50.

a. 10.

78. (021) Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes? a. 2. b. 3. c. 4. d. 5.

a. 2.

21. (208) Which of the following is not a career field assigned to engineering installation units? a. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety. b. 3D1X2, Cyber Transport Systems. c. 3D1X3, RF Transmission Systems. d. 3D1X7, Cable and Antenna Systems.

a. 3D0X3, Cyber Surety.

34. (213) Changes are requested during a project using an a. AF Form 1146. b. AF Form 1747. c. AFTO Form 46. d. AFTO Form 47.

a. AF Form 1146.

21. (006) Supervisors document and maintain completed safety training on a. AF Form 55. b. AF Form 971. c. AF Form 623A. d. AF Form 623 A and AF Form 55.

a. AF Form 55.

8. (204) Which document provides detailed information and instructions on Designated Operational Capability (DOC) statements? a. AFI 10-201. b. AFI 10-244. c. AFI 10-401. d. AFI 10-403.

a. AFI 10-201.

40. (010) Who reviews the selections after the board selects the 12 Outstanding Airmen of the Year? a. Air Force Chief of Staff. b. Secretary of the Air Force. c. Selected major command Command Chiefs. d. Chief Master Sergeant of the Air Force.

a. Air Force Chief of Staff.

3. (202) Who initiates the requirements or deployment sourcing process? a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center. b. Installation Deployment Officer (IDO). c. Unit Deployment Monitor (UDM). d. Joint Staff.

a. Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) Aerospace Expeditionary Forces (AEF) Center.

70. (226) Who is responsible for inspecting all "real property" on an installation to ensure it meets applicable standards? a. Base Civil Engineering. b. Gaining Work Center. c. Contracting Office. d. Quality Assurance.

a. Base Civil Engineering.

87. (025) What is critical to mitigating unintended or undesirable effects, on either our behalf or the adversary's, and maximizing cyberspace superiority? a. Careful planning. b. Reactive operations. c. Immediate response. d. Information Operations.

a. Careful planning.

60. (016) What class uses a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4)? a. Class A. b. Class B. c. Class C. d. Class D.

a. Class A.

61. (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes? a. Class C. b. Class D. c. Class E. d. Class F.

a. Class C.

80. (023) Which type of cable is associated with the original designs of the Ethernet standard? a. Coaxial cable. b. Fiber optic cable. c. Shielded twisted-pair (STP). d. Unshielded twisted-pair (UTP).

a. Coaxial cable.

64. (016) Instead of using binary, how are Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses expressed to be more user-friendly? a. Colon Hexadecimal Format. b. Dotted Decimal Notation. c. Hexadecimal. d. Octal.

a. Colon Hexadecimal Format.

17. (206) Which force module supported by Theater Deployable Communications (TDC) is established within 48 hours and supports 50 to150 users in a café environment? a. Command and control. b. Operate the airbase. c. Robust the airbase. d. Open the airbase.

a. Command and control.

3. (001) Which of the following functions is primarily staffed by Client Systems personnel but may have a variety of Air Force Specialty Codes (AFSCs) based upon the unit mission? a. Communications Focal Point. b. Unit Deployment Monitor. c. Enterprise Service Desk. d. Quality Assurance.

a. Communications Focal Point.

1. (001) Which Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) requires members to pass the Air Force Electronic Data Processing Test? a. Computer Systems Programming. b. Cyber Systems Operations. c. Cyber Transport Systems. d. Cyber Surety.

a. Computer Systems Programming

47. (219) In which type of plan do writers fully develop the mission, situation, and concept of operations for accomplishing assigned mission in the event of future situation, but only summarize the mobility and logistic requirements? a. Concept Plan. b. Functional Plan. c. Supporting Plan. d. Operational Plan.

a. Concept Plan.

55. (015) What are the two classifications of transport protocols? a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented. b. Classful and Connectionless Oriented. c. Connectionless Oriented and Classless. d. Classful and Classless.

a. Connection Oriented and Connectionless Oriented.

28. (210) Which of these items is contained in the Project Plan? a. Cost management plan. b. Allied support plan. c. Technical plan. d. Material plan.

a. Cost management plan.

1. (201) Which deployment planning process develops predetermined responses to potential crises, determines forces required to achieve objectives, prepares deployment plans, and continually evaluates selected courses of action (COA)? a. Deliberate planning. b. Crisis action planning. c. Mobilization planning. d. Force rotational planning.

a. Deliberate planning.

89. (025) Which of the following is a true statement about Electronic Warfare (EW) and Computer Network Operations (CNO)? a. EW concerns radiated energy. b. CNO concerns radiated energy. c. EW is only used for offensive purposes. d. CNO is only used for defensive purposes.

a. EW concerns radiated energy.

88. (025) Which Electronic Warfare capability uses jamming to reduce the adversary's use of the electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)? a. Electronic attack. b. Electronic protection. c. Network Exploitation. d. Electronic warfare support.

a. Electronic attack.

33. (213) What is critical to controlling and ensuring the overall project progresses accordingly, regardless of the phase? a. Follow-up. b. Controlling. c. Organization. d. Documenting.

a. Follow-up.

85. (024) Which operations center monitors and controls Air Force network access points, boundary protection devices, and network activity to provide situational awareness, and report suspicious/malicious activity? a. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC). b. Base Defense Operations Center. C. 624th Operations Center. d. Air Operations Center.

a. Integrated Network Operations Security Center (I-NOSC).

22. (006) Which of the following is not a term for Job Safety Analysis? a. Job Safety Training (JST). b. Job Hazard Analysis (JHA). c. Task Hazard Analysis (THA). d. Activity Hazard Analysis (AHA).

a. Job Safety Training (JST).

24. (209) What Methods and Procedures Technical Order (MPTO) defines project management as the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project objectives? a. MPTO 00-33A-1001. b. MPTO 00-33A-1002. c. MPTO 00-33A-2001. d. MPTO 00-33A-2002.

a. MPTO 00-33A-1001.

51. (013) Routers operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer? a. Network. b. Physical. c. Data Link. d. Transport.

a. Network.

48. (012) Which application includes tools to help recover lost files and protect against computer failure? a. Norton Utilities. b. Acrobat Reader. c. Virus Scan. d. WinZip.

a. Norton Utilities.

13. (003) What is used as a starting point to develop the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and Specialty Training Standard (STS) during the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? a. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR). b. Quality Training Package (QTP). c. Subject Matter Experts (SME). d. Job Quality Standards (JQS).

a. Occupational Analysis Report (OAR).

95. (027) Which vulnerability preventive measure is a small piece of code that software developers create to address the flaws found in the original code of a program? a. Patches. b. Antivirus. c. Software removal. d. Vulnerability scanner.

a. Patches.

72. (019) What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media? a. Physical. b. Logical. c. Hybrid. d. Star.

a. Physical.

9. (204) Who develops logistics details (LOGDETS) to allow for 30 days of sustainment for unit type codes (UTC)? a. Pilot Units. b. Joint Planners. c. Logistics Readiness Squadron. d. Each unit is responsible for building its own LOGDET.

a. Pilot Units.

66. (017) Which common port contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) servers and proxies? a. Port 80. b. Port 110. c. Port 443. d. Port 8080.

a. Port 8080

7. (002) Which of the following is a subdivision of programmed cost data related to a weapon system or support function? a. Program Element Code (PEC). b. Special Experience Identifier (SEI). c. Authorization Change Request (ACR). d. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

a. Program Element Code (PEC).

65. (224) Who is responsible for providing training to Quality Assurance (QA) personnel and functional directors/commanders? a. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator. b. Contracting Officer Representative. c. Quality Assurance Evaluator. d. Unit Contract Monitor.

a. Quality Assurance Program Coordinator.

61. (223) Which type of contract is permissible when there is only one viable option to satisfy the requirement for supplies or services? a. Sole Source. b. Firm Fixed Price. c. Time and Material. d. Performance Based.

a. Sole Source.

58. (015) Which of these lists the fields in the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) segment? a. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data. b. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Windowing, Data. c. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Acknowledgement, Data. d. Channel Clear, Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

a. Source Port, Destination Port, Length, Checksum, Data.

92. (026) Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem gathers data on the process and sends commands to the processor? a. Supervisory System. b. Remote Terminal Unit. c. Human Machine Interface. d. Programmable Logic Controller.

a. Supervisory System.

54. (014) Who must provide encryption devices for connection to the Secret Internet Protocol (IP) Data service? a. The customer. b. Security Manager. c. National Security Agency. d. Communications Squadron.

a. The customer.

23. (007) Which of the following is information not contained in Technical Order (TO) 00-5-1? a. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures. b. Resources required to manage and use TOs. c. Infrastructure to manage and use TOs. d. Training to manage and use TOs.

a. Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures.

84. (024) What title status must National Guard Guardsmen be in to execute cyber operations? a. Title 10. b. Title 30. c. Title 50. d. Title 52.

a. Title 10.

81. (023) Which transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications? a. Twisted pair cable. b. Fiber optic cable. c. Coaxial cable. d. Twinax cable.

a. Twisted pair cable.

2. (201) Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces in time of war? a. Volume 1. b. Volume 2. c. Volume 3. d. Volume 4.

a. Volume 1.

32. (008) Who appoints Air Force Portal Content Managers and Content Publishers for public and private websites? a. Wing Commander. b. Numbered Air Force Commander. c. Communications Squadron Commander. d. Cyber Readiness Squadron Commander.

a. Wing Commander.

41. (010) Which of the following is the highest level in which quarterly awards are normally presented? a. Wing. b. Group. c. Squadron. d. major command.

a. Wing.

42. (217) Which Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS) functional area supports enhancements to current capabilities funded and accomplished at the base level generally in less than 30 days and in the form of a maintenance task order? a. Work orders. b. Trouble tickets. c. Infrastructure requirements. d. Communications and Information Systems Installation Records (CSIR).

a. Work orders.

32. (212) Exceptions that could prevent a system from meeting specified operational requirements are termed a. major. b. minor. c. major and minor. d. major and critical.

a. major.

33. (008) When a person uses his or her position for private or personal gain it is called a. misuse of position. b. a covered relationships. c. non-public information. d. personal conflict of interest.

a. misuse of position.

7. (203) The Governing guidance for Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART) reporting is AFI a. 10-201. b. 10-244. c. 10-401. d. 10-403.

b. 10-244.

63. (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) reserved address is used for loop back? a. 0.0.0.0. b. 127.0.0.1. c. 207.55.157.255. d. 255.255.255.255.

b. 127.0.0.1.

13. (205) Within how many days after open the airbase does the operate the airbase force module arrive, and when is delivery estimated to be complete? a. 2 days, 7 days. b. 2 days, 14 days. c. 7 days, 14 days. d. 14 days, 30 days.

b. 2 days, 14 days.

40. (216) Engineering support for MAJCOMs is provided by Cyberspace Systems Integrator Tier a. 1. b. 2. c. 3. d. 4.

b. 2.

59. (016) How many bits are in an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address? a. 16. b. 32. c. 64. d. 128.

b. 32.

44. (011) The maximum number of devices a FireWire bus can take is up to a. 53. b. 63. c. 73. d. 83.

b. 63.

70. (018) Which 802.11 standard has a throughput of 11 Mbps and runs at the 2.4 GHz frequency? a. 802.11a. b. 802.11b. c. 802.11g. d. 802.11n.

b. 802.11b.

12. (003) Which of the following is an optional attendee for the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? a. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)/Training Pipeline Manager (TPM). b. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer. c. Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM). d. MAJCOM Functional Manager.

b. AETC Career Development Course (CD)C writer.

41. (217) Which guidance directs the use of Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS)? a. AFI 33-115. b. AFI 33-150. c. TO 00-33D-3001. d. TO 00-33D-3004.

b. AFI 33-150.

24. (007) Recommended technical order (TO) changes are required to be submitted on a. AFTO Form 673. b. AFTO Form 22. c. AF Form 673. d. AF Form 22.

b. AFTO Form 22.

31. (212) What document marks the end of a project and validates the successful installation of a communications system? a. AFTO Form 745. b. AFTO Form 747. c. AFTO Form 749. d. AF Form 1747.

b. AFTO Form 747.

37. (009) At the installation level which office is responsible for program implementation, administration, training, and monitoring the Government Purchase Card (GPC) Program? a. Approval Official (AO). b. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC). c. DoD Purchase Card Program Management Office (PCPMO). d. Office of the Deputy Secretary of the Air Force for Acquisition Contracting (SAF/AQC).

b. Agency/Organization Program Coordinator (A/OPC).

26. (007) Who provides accreditation for the Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA)? a. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA). b. American National Standard Institute (ANSI). c. Information and Communications Technology (ICT). d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

b. American National Standard Institute (ANSI).

99. (028) Who provides the formal declaration that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards and acceptable risk? a. Wing commander. b. Authorizing Official (AO). c. Wing information security office (WIAO). d. Communications and information systems officer (CSO).

b. Authorizing Official (AO).

96. (027) Which identity management process uses a fingerprint to authenticate a user? a. Token. b. Biometrics. c. Multifactor. d. Knowledge-based.

b. Biometrics.

76. (021) What Data Link Layer network device logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks? a. Hub. b. Bridge. c. Switch. d. Router.

b. Bridge.

62. (016) What Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) class address is used for multicast addressing? a. Class C. b. Class D. c. Class E. d. Class F.

b. Class D.

56. (015) In a connection-oriented protocol, such as Transmission Control Protocol (TCP), what must happen before data is transmitted between clients? a. Authorization. b. Connection establishment. c. Establishment of a clear channel. d. End-to-end connectivity between host applications.

b. Connection establishment.

30. (211) Which of the following is a type of change request used to correct a portion of the project not meeting requirement specifications? a. Status request. b. Defect repairs. c. Preventive action. d. Corrective action.

b. Defect repairs.

53. (014) What is the combat information technology (IT) communication support agency of the DoD called? a. Defense Intelligence Agency. b. Defense Information Systems Agency. c. Defense Information Systems Network. d. Department of Defense Information Networks.

b. Defense Information Systems Agency.

15. (004) Which of the following is not a common duty of the Maintenance Data Collection (MDC) monitor? a. Review Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) reports to ensure job status is reflected properly. b. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR). c. Match reports with Open Incident Listing (OIL). d. Schedule and distribute daily maintenance actions.

b. Ensures equipment status is entered into Equipment Status Reporting (ESR).

51. (219) Which type of planning meeting identifies civil engineering projects including new construction, renovations, or demolitions of facilities, and relocations of organizations? a. Communications and Information (C&I) Systems Planning Forum. b. Facilities Utilization Board. c. Mission Briefings. d. Informal Meeting.

b. Facilities Utilization Board.

16. (004) Who establishes the necessary controls to ensure periodic inspections are accomplished? a. Communications Focal Point. b. Flight Commander/Chief. c. Production Controller. d. Commander.

b. Flight Commander/Chief.

25. (007) Who determines if local checklists and/or work cards are required for specific equipment? a. Library Custodian. b. Flight commander/chief. c. Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO). d. Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA).

b. Flight commander/chief.

64. (224) Who is responsible for assigning competent and capable functional experts as primary and alternate Contract Officer Representatives (COR)? a. Contracting Officer Representative. b. Functional Director/Commander. c. Quality Assurance Evaluator. d. Contracting Office.

b. Functional Director/Commander.

17. (005) Which of the following is included in the Master Training Plan only if applicable to the work center? a. Master Task List. b. Job Qualification Standard. c. Current Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). d. Milestones for tasks and Career Development Course (CDC) completion.

b. Job Qualification Standard.

4. (202) Which type of Joint Expeditionary Tasking (JET) tasking is a service providing a force or capability in place of another service's core mission? a. Standard unit type code (UTC). b. Joint force/capability. c. In-lieu-of (ILO). d. Ad hoc.

b. Joint force/capability.

49. (013) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divides the Open System Interconnect (OSI) Data Link Layers into what two sublayers? a. High Level Data Link Control (HDLC) and Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC). b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC). c. Distance Vector and Link State. d. RS-232 and RS-530.

b. Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC).

9. (003) Who serves as the major command (MAJCOM) voting representative during career field Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) and Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)? a. MAJCOM director of Communications (A6). b. MAJCOM Functional Manager. c. Career Field Manager (CFM). d. SAF/CIO A6.

b. MAJCOM Functional Manager.

4. (001) What document directs the Communications Focal point key processes? a. TO 00-5-15. b. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA. c. Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory. d. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) Part II.

b. MPTO 00-33A-1001-WA.

34. (009) Which type of fund covers the cost of relocating facilities? a. Military Personnel (MILPERS). b. Military Construction (MILCON). c. Operation and Maintenance (O&M). d. Research, Development, Test and Evaluation (RDT&E).

b. Military Construction (MILCON).

91. (026) Which Intranet Control Weapon System sub-discipline conducts continuous monitoring to ensure timely delivery of critical information? a. Defense-in-Depth. b. Proactive Defense. c. Situational Awareness. d. Network Standardization.

b. Proactive Defense.

20. (207) Which of the following is categorized as a small unmanned aerial system (UAS)? a. MQ-9 Reaper. b. RQ-11B Raven. c. MQ-1B Predator. d. RQ-4B Global Hawk.

b. RQ-11B Raven.

93. (026) Which Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA) subsystem connects to sensors in the process, converting sensor signals to digital data? a. Supervisory System. b. Remote Terminal Unit. c. Human Machine Interface. d. Programmable Logic Controller

b. Remote Terminal Unit.

10. (003) Which segment of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW)/ Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT) process concentrates on training proficiency levels and training resourcing? a. Segment 1. b. Segment 2. c. Segment 3. d. Segment 4.

b. Segment 2.

57. (015) What regulates how much information passes over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement? a. Data receive message. b. Sliding Window. c. Buffer. d. Socket

b. Sliding Window.

94. (027) Which threat vector is considered more of an annoyance than an attack? a. Virus. b. Spam. c. Spyware. d. Phishing.

b. Spam.

73. (019) What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component? a. Bus. b. Star. c. Ring. d. Hybrid

b. Star.

44. (217) Where can you find a list of lead commands or system program offices (SPOs) for each major program? a. TO 00-33A-1001. b. TO 00-33D-3003. c. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS). d. Cyberspace Infrastructure Planning System (CIPS).

b. TO 00-33D-3003.

6. (002) Which of the following is the official source of manpower information for an organization and is used as a tool to manage positions? a. Program Element Code (PEC). b. Unit Manpower Document (UMD). c. Authorization Change Request (ACR). d. Unit Personnel Management Roster (UPMR).

b. Unit Manpower Document (UMD).

57. (222) Which of the following is not an exception to the "full and open competition" stipulation of the Competition in Contracting Act? a. Unusual or compelling urgency. b. Unit commander's interest. c. National security interests. d. Sole Source.

b. Unit commander's interest.

5. (002) Where is the Air Force active component manpower planning and programming centralized a. at major command functional managers. b. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF). c. at the Air Force Personnel Center. d. with career field managers.

b. at Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

75. (021) A modem is a device that a. transmits on every link attached to it. b. modulates and demodulates data signals. c. uses algorithms to determine optimal path to end destination. d. operates on the Network layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model.

b. modulates and demodulates data signals.

69. (226) The cost threshold for a minor construction project not using Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds is a. $750 thousand (K). b. $1 million (M). c. $1.5 M. d. $5 M.

c. $1.5 M.

35. (009) What is the maximum amount for minor construction projects that Operation and Maintenance (O&M) funds will cover under normal conditions? a. $100,000. b. $250,000. c. $750,000. d. $1,000,000.

c. $750,000.

65. (017) The range of well-known port numbers is a.1024 to 49151. b. 49152 to 65535. c. 0 to 1023. d. 0 to 1024.

c. 0 to 1023.

31. (008) Procedures and circumstances for Congress to order units into active Federal duty are established in United States Code (USC) Title a. 15. b. 18. c. 32. d. 37.

c. 32.

58. (222) Within how many days of the delivery date must a fully researched, completed requirement for a fixed-price and cost reimbursement contract with a monetary value of $100,000 be submitted to the Base Contracting Office? a. 10 calendar days. b. 30 calendar days. c. 35 calendar days. d. 50 calendar days.

c. 35 calendar days.

20. (006) How many steps are there in Operational Risk Management (ORM)? a. 2. b. 4. c. 6. d. 8.

c. 6.

82. (023) What is the most common wireless networking standard? a. 802.3. b. 802.9. c. 802.11. d. 802.14

c. 802.11.

68. (226) Secretary of Defense and House and Senate Armed Services Committees authorization and appropriation are required for what type of construction projects? a. Major Construction. b. Minor Construction. c. All military construction. d. None, construction projects do not require authorization and appropriation.

c. All military construction.

45. (218) As a minimum which of the following is not required to review and validate technical solutions? a. Base Communications Systems Officer. b. Affected Work Center. c. Base Civil Engineer. d. Project Managers.

c. Base Civil Engineer.

19. (207) Which is not a division of the Air and Space Operations Center? a. Strategy. b. Combat plans. c. Combat support. d. Combat operations.

c. Combat support.

29. (007) What systems allow for a commonly understood, maintainable, and defendable domain through all federal and non-federal systems? a. Air Force Network Operating Instructions (AFNOI). b. Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA). c. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS). d. Military only.

c. Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS).

50. (013) Network switches and bridges operate at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer? a. Network. b. Physical. c. Data Link. d. Transport.

c. Data Link.

12. (205) Which force module facilitates integration of open the airbase and command and control force module capabilities to enable the airfield to generate air support to accomplish its assigned mission? a. Robust the airbase. b. Operate the airbase. c. Establish the airbase. d. Generate the mission.

c. Establish the airbase.

5. (203) Which of these is not an area measured and reported by Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)? a. Training. b. Personnel. c. Facility condition. d. Equipment condition.

c. Facility condition.

6. (203) Which of the following is not a readiness category measured by Air and Space Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART)? a. Training. b. Personnel. c. Home station mission. d. Equipment condition.

c. Home station mission.

86. (025) Within the information environment what term describes the advantage, or imbalance, in one's favor? a. Information Management. b. Network-centric warfare. c. Information Superiority. d. Information Operations.

c. Information Superiority.

45. (011) What device is a series of single-pole, single-throw switches mounted to a circuit board? a. Monitor. b. Scanner. c. Keyboard. d. Graphics card.

c. Keyboard.

83. (024) What are the three major considerations that apply to Cyberspace Operations? a. Policy, Security, Authority. b. Authority, Security, Law. c. Law, Authority, Policy. d. Security, Policy, Law.

c. Law, Authority, Policy.

68. (018) What kind of network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area? a. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN). b. Virtual Private Network (VPN). c. Local Area Network (LAN). d. Wide Area Network (WAN).

c. Local Area Network (LAN).

46. (012) A workgroup is a simple grouping of how many computers? a. At least 5. b. No more than 10. c. No more than 20. d. 20 or more.

c. No more than 20.

16. (206) What is the typical pay grade of the deployed Contingency Response Group commander? a. O-4. b. O-5. c. O-6. d. O-7.

c. O-6.

49. (219) If instructions are not detailed enough to warrant a separate annex, information on base functional area support is placed in the a. Programming Plan (PPLAN). b. Program Action Directive (PAD). c. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph. d. Time Phased Force and Deployment Data (TPFDD).

c. Operations Plan (OPLAN) major paragraph.

47. (012) Which is not a type of UNIX pathname? a. Simple. b. Relative. c. Positive. d. Absolute.

c. Positive.

36. (214) What title is given to anyone assigned to assist the program manager in fulfilling program management duties? a. Project monitor. b. Project manager. c. Program action officer. d. Program action monitor.

c. Program action officer.

27. (209) What are the source documents that define a needed cyberspace infrastructure capability called? a. Processes. b. Priorities. c. Requirements. d. Technical solutions.

c. Requirements.

38. (215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you determine the underlying principles used for developing the policies, objectives, guidelines, and processes required throughout the Service Life Cycle? a. Service improvement. b. Service transition. c. Service strategy. d. Service design.

c. Service strategy.

39. (215) In what Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) stage do you create the framework to ensure the designed service is effectively and efficiently implemented in the live environment? a. Service design. b. Service strategy. c. Service transition. d. Service operation.

c. Service transition.

48. (219) When tasked by the supported combatant commander which type of plan is prepared in support of the contingency plans? a. Concept Plan. b. Functional Plan. c. Supporting Plan. d. Operational Plan.

c. Supporting Plan.

53. (220) Which modification type evaluates, demonstrates, or exercises the technical performance, operational effectiveness, and/or the operational suitability of developmental and/or test materiel (hardware, firmware and software) capabilities? a. Safety modifications. b. T-1 temporary modification. c. T-2 temporary modification. d. All temporary and permanent modifications.

c. T-2 temporary modification.

28. (007) Who should endorse the AF Form 673 as the Certifying Official? a. The authoring Office of Primary Responsibility (OPR). b. Commander/director responsible for the guidance. c. The authoring OPR's supervisor. d. Publications Manager.

c. The authoring OPR's supervisor.

59. (223) Which type of contract acquires supplies or services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates? a. Sole Source. b. Firm Fixed Price. c. Time and Material. d. Performance Based.

c. Time and Material.

60. (223) Which type of contract should only be used when it is impossible to accurately estimate the extent or duration of the work or anticipate costs with any reasonable degree of accuracy? a. Sole Source. b. Firm Fixed Price. c. Time and Material. d. Performance Based.

c. Time and Material.

54. (220) Which of the following is not a step required in the modification proposal process? a. Request for action and organization validation. b. Using command and lead command validation. c. Work center manager certification and approval. d. Program manager review and approval of technical requirements and solution.

c. Work center manager certification and approval.

29. (211) The desired outcome, product, or service of a project is referred to as a. the status. b. a milestone. c. a deliverable. d. the final result.

c. a deliverable.

100. (028) The technical solution for a communications and information system requirement summarizes a. only full costs. b. recommended course of action only. c. full cost and recommended course of action. d. full cost, recommended course of action, and security requirements

c. full cost and recommended course of action.

67. (018) The design of communications network is known as a. an internet suite. b. the physical layer. c. network architecture. d. network implementation.

c. network architecture.

25. (209) The five phases of Project Management are initiate, a. funding, execute, close, and control. b. plan, execute, monitor, and control. c. plan, execute, close, and control. d. plan, control, close, and support.

c. plan, execute, close, and control.

11. (205) The key capabilities for establishing control in the Command and Control module are a. force protection and logistics. b. intelligence and force protection. c. secure communications and intelligence. d. secure communications and force accountability.

c. secure communications and intelligence.

37. (215) The five key stages of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) service life cycle are service strategy, a. service design, service transition, service plan, and continual service improvement. b. service plan, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. c. service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement. d. service design, service disposition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

c. service design, service transition, service operation, and continual service improvement.

18. (005) Special Personnel Evaluations (SPEs) are required on a sampling of Air Reserve Component (ARC) personnel within how many days of new equipment/system acceptance? a. 30. b. 60. c. 90. d. 120.

d. 120.

74. (020) Over a single pair cable, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is capable of transmission rates of a. 256 Kbps. b. 256 Mbps. c. 144 Mbps. d. 144 Kbps.

d. 144 Kbps.

18. (206) In the operate the air base module, what is the maximum distance an extended site can be located from the base Network Control Center Deployed (NCC-D)? a. 2 kilometers (km). b. 4 km. c. 8 km. d. 16 km.

d. 16 km.

23. (208) All armed forces broadcasting affiliates merged under the American Forces Network (AFN) in a. 1942. b. 1954. c. 1988. d. 1998.

d. 1998.

56. (221) As a minimum, a support agreement must be reviewed how soon after its effective date? a. 6 months. b. 1 year. c. 2 years. d. 3 years.

d. 3 years.

42. (010) Guidance for awards specific to the Cyber community are found in Air Force instruction a. 36-2604. b. 36-2803. c. 36-2805. d. 36-2845.

d. 36-2845.

36. (009) In-depth information for administering the Government Purchase Card program at all responsible levels is found in Air Force Instruction (AFI) a. 10-401. b. 33-360. c. 38-101. d. 64-117.

d. 64-117.

71. (018) Which 802.11 standard is designed to operate at both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz? a. 802.11a. b. 802.11b. c. 802.11g. d. 802.11n.

d. 802.11n.

22. (208) Which Engineering Installation (EI) unit has the only flight assigned that supports a 72 hour rapid response force during crisis providing specialized engineering support in telecommunications and electromagnetic spectrum field analysis? a. 38 Engineering Squadron (ES). b. 38 Contracting Squadron (CONS). c. 38 Operations Support Squadron (OSS). d. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

d. 85 Engineering Installation Squadron (EIS).

39. (009) Detailed instructions for submitting a reclama or shortfall request are found in a. Air Force Instruction (AFI) 10-201. b. Joint Publication 1-02. c. Joint Publication 1-03. d. AFI 10-401.

d. AFI 10-401.

26. (209) What does the project manager provide in the Initiate Phase? a. Funding. b. Technical solution. c. Requirements management plan. d. Answers, guidance, and education.

d. Answers, guidance, and education.

62. (223) Which of the following is a simplified method of filling anticipated repetitive needs for supplies or services by establishing "charge accounts" with qualified sources of supply? a. Sole Source. b. Time and Material. c. Indefinite Delivery. d. Blanket Purchase Agreement.

d. Blanket Purchase Agreement.

98. (027) What system monitoring concept uses long trend analysis of network devices and is performed in order to identify future constraints with results incorporated into future technical baselines? a. Intrusion Detection and Prevention Systems. b. End-to-End Performance Monitoring. c. Vulnerability scanners. d. Capacity Planning.

d. Capacity Planning.

2. (001) Which of the following is not a mandatory requirement for the advancement to the 7-skill level? a. Minimum rank of SSgt. b. 6 months on-the-job training (OJT) for retrainees. c. Completion of Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) specific requirements. d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

d. Completion of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) Supplemental training courses.

63. (224) Who is responsible for establishing and maintaining the installation's contract Quality Assurance Program? a. Contracting Officer Representative. b. Functional Director/Commander. c. Quality Assurance Evaluator. d. Contracting Office.

d. Contracting Office.

55. (221) Support agreements are documented on a. AF Form 1067. b. DD Form 1067. c. AF Form 1144. d. DD Form 1144.

d. DD Form 1144.

67. (225) What must base Civil Engineering (CE) prepare and forward to MAJCOM for review and approval if major or minor construction is required? a. AF Form 332. b. AF Form 1146. c. DD Form 1144. d. DD Form 1391.

d. DD Form 1391.

8. (003) Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM)? a. Construct career paths. b. Manage skill-level training requirements. c. Establish requirements for entry into the career field. d. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

d. Distribute personnel throughout their respective major command (MAJCOM).

27. (007) Who develops standards for Interconnect, Passive and Electro-mechanical (IP&E) electronic components under the American National Standard Institute (ANSI) designation of Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) standards? a. Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA). b. American National Standard Institute (ANSI). c. Information and Communications Technology (ICT). d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

d. Electronic Components Industry Association (ECIA).

79. (022) What type of encryption is applied to each end of a communications line in a distributed network, and ensures all information flowing is unintelligible to an unauthorized intruder? a. Line encryption. b. Link encryption. c. Device encryption. d. End-to-end encryption.

d. End-to-end encryption.

10. (205) Which is not an initial capability of the open the airbase force module? a. Force protection. b. Airfield operations. c. Force accountability. d. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

d. Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD).

11. (003) Which of the following is not an action of the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)? a. Draft and sign minutes. b. Finalize part 1 of the career field education and training plan (CFETP). c. Finalize Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD) specialty description. d. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

d. Finalize Specialty Training Standards (STS)/Course Training Standards (CTS) for all courses.

38. (009) Which of the following is not a responsibility of Government Purchase Card (GPC) cardholders? a. Making authorized transactions. b. Reconciling transactions. c. Logging transactions. d. Funds accountability.

d. Funds accountability.

19. (006) Which statement is not a goal of Operational Risk Management (ORM)? a. Enhance mission effectiveness at all levels, while preserving assets and safeguarding health and welfare. b. Integrate ORM into mission processes, ensuring decisions are based upon assessments of risk integral to the activity and mission. c. Create an Air Force in which every leader, Airman and employee is trained and motivated to manage risk in all their on- and off-duty activities. d. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost

d. Identify opportunities to decrease Air Force warfighting effectiveness on the battlefield and in the operational aerospace environment, helping to ensure decisive victory in any future conflict at the least possible cost.

35. (214) Who implements a technical solution for a base? a. Project monitor. b. Project manager. c. Communication squadron. d. Implementing organization.

d. Implementing organization.

90. (026) Which Cyberspace Defense Weapon System sub-discipline determines the extent of intrusions, develops courses of action required to mitigate threats, and determines and executes response actions? a. Computer Forensics. b. Incident Prevention. c. Incident Detection. d. Incident Response.

d. Incident Response.

14. (004) What Automated Information System (AIS) is used to document actions on any item with an assigned Standard Reporting Designator (SRD)? a. Remedy. b. Situational Report (SITREP). c. Telephone Management System (TMS). d. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

d. Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).

15. (206) The Contingency Response Wing headquarters is located at a. Scott AFB, IL. b. Travis AFB, CA. c. Peterson AFB, CO. d. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

d. Joint Base McGuire-Dix-Lakehurst, NJ.

97. (027) Which identity management process uses a password to authenticate a user? a. Token. b. Biometrics. c. Multifactor. d. Knowledge-based.

d. Knowledge-based.

50. (219) What area of the Annex K is used to detail wartime procedures for maintaining the communications systems under contract during peacetime? a. Special Measures. b. Administration. c. Assumptions. d. Logistics.

d. Logistics.

69. (018) What kind of network interconnects users with computer resources in a geographic area or region like a city? a. Local Area Network (LAN). b. Wide Area Network (WAN). c. Virtual Private Network (VPN). d. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

d. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN).

46. (218) Which of the following is not a cause for requirements to be considered special? a. Requires services from outside agencies. b. Mobility (deployment) equipment. c. Requires additional manpower. d. Requires additional funding.

d. Requires additional funding.

14. (205) Which force module contains support forces that would generally not arrive until 30 days after the deployed location is established? a. Generate the mission. b. Establish the airbase. c. Operate the airbase. d. Robust the airbase.

d. Robust the airbase.

43. (217) Which of the following funding options does the local communications squadron implement using base level support and resources? a. Organic. b. Contract. c. Inorganic. d. Self-Help.

d. Self-Help.

52. (013) Virtual circuits are established, maintained, and terminated at what Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer? a. Network. b. Physical. c. Data Link. d. Transport.

d. Transport.

66. (225) Who acts as the unit focal point to provide design support to and/or obtain base Civil Engineering (CE) support? a. Facility Manager. b. Quality Assurance Evaluator. c. Functional Director/Commander. d. Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.

d. Unit plans, planning, and agreements section.

52. (220) The AF Form 1067 is used for defining, validating, and approving requirements for a. safety modifications. b. T-1 temporary modifications. c. T-2 temporary modifications. d. all temporary and permanent modifications.

d. all temporary and permanent modifications.

77. (021) Two basic routing activities are determining optimal routing paths and a. modulation of datagrams through an internetwork. b. Layer-1 error determination and correction through an internetwork . c. Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel determination through an internetwork . d. transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .

d. transporting information groups (packets) through an internetwork .

What is the Air Force's authoritative source for enterprise standard IT products, computer configurations, platform and service profiles, technical solutions, and standard configurations of software and hardware?

i-TRM (Infostructure Technical Reference Model)

What are some benefits to subneting?

subnets ease administration, improve network performance , and security