411 Exam 2 Questions

A client in the progressive stage of hypovolemic shock has all of the following signs, symptoms, or changes. Which signs will the nurse attribute to ongoing compensatory mechanisms? Select all that apply. A. Increasing pallor B. Increasing thirst C. Increasing confusion D. Increasing heart rate E. Increasing respiratory rate F. Decreasing systolic blood pressure G. Decreasing blood pH H. Decreasing urine output

A. Increasing pallor B. Increasing thirst D. Increasing heart rate E. Increasing respiratory rate H. Decreasing urine output

A client is taking furosemide 40 mg/day for management of early chronic kidney disease (CKD). To assess the therapeutic effect of the medication, what action of the nurse is best? a. Obtain daily weights of the client. b. Auscultate heart and breath sounds. c. Palpate the client's abdomen. d. Assess the client's diet history.

ANS: A Furosemide is a loop diuretic that helps reduce fluid overload and hypertension in patients with early stages of CKD. One kilogram of weight equals about 1 L of fluid retained in the client, so daily weights are necessary to monitor the response of the client to the medication. Heart and breath sounds would be assessed if there is fluid retention, as in heart failure. Palpation of the client's abdomen is not necessary, but the nurse would check for edema. The diet history of the client would be helpful to assess electrolyte replacement since potassium is lost with this diuretic, but this does not assess the effectiveness of the medication.

A client is in shock and the nurse prepares to administer insulin for a blood glucose reading of 208 mg/dL (11.6 mmol/L). The spouse asks why the client needs insulin as the client is not a diabetic. What response by the nurse is best? a. "High glucose is common in shock and needs to be treated." b. "Some of the medications we are giving are to raise blood sugar." c. "The IV solution has lots of glucose, which raises blood sugar." d. "The stress of this illness has made your spouse a diabetic."

ANS: A High glucose readings are common in shock, and best outcomes are the result of treating them and maintaining glucose readings in the range of 140 to 180 mg/dL (7.7 to 10 mmol/L. Medications and IV solutions may raise blood glucose levels, but this is not the most accurate answer. The stress of the illness has not "made" the client diabetic.

A client is receiving norepinephrine for shock. What assessment finding best indicates a therapeutic effect from this drug? a. Alert and oriented, answering questions b. Client denies chest pain or chest pressure c. IV site without redness or swelling d. Urine output of 30 mL/hr for 2 hours

ANS: A Normal cognitive function is a good indicator that the client is receiving the benefits of norepinephrine. The brain is very sensitive to changes in oxygenation and perfusion. Norepinephrine can cause chest pain as an adverse reaction, so the absence of chest pain is good but does not indicate therapeutic effect. The IV site is normal. The urine output is normal, but only minimally so.

A 70-kg adult client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is on a 40-g protein diet. The patient has a reduced glomerular filtration rate and is not undergoing dialysis. Which result would be of most concern to the nurse? a. Albumin level of 2.5 g/dL (3.63 mcmol/L) b. Phosphorus level of 5 mg/dL (1.62 mmol/L) c. Sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) d. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L)

ANS: A Protein restriction is necessary with CKD due to the buildup of waste products from protein breakdown. The nurse would be concerned with the low albumin level since this indicates that the protein in the diet is not enough for the client's metabolic needs. The electrolyte values are not related to the protein-restricted diet.

A client has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L (6.5 mmol/L), a serum creatinine level of 2 mg/dL (176 mcmol/L), and a urine output of 350 mL/day. What is the best action by the nurse? a. Place the client on a cardiac monitor immediately. b. Teach the client to limit high-potassium foods. c. Continue to monitor the client's intake and output. d. Ask to have the laboratory redraw the blood specimen.

ANS: A The best action by the nurse would be to check the cardiac status with a monitor. High-potassium levels can lead to dysrhythmias. The other choices are logical nursing interventions for acute kidney injury but not the best immediate action.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has an elevated serum phosphorus level. What drug would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed for this client? a. Calcium acetate b. Doxycyline c. Magnesium sulfate d. Lisinopril

ANS: A The client with CKD often has a high phosphorus level which tends to lower the calcium level in an inverse relationship, and causes osteodystrophy. To prevent this bone disease, the client needs to take a drug that can bind with phosphorus for elimination via the GI tract. When phosphorus is lowered to within normal limits, normal calcium levels may be restored.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse? a. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to the client. b. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner. c. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time. d. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

ANS: A The initial action for the nurse is to assess anxiety, coping styles, and the client's acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments may help, and referral to a mental health practitioner and the possibility of peritoneal dialysis are all viable options, assessment of the client's acceptance of the treatment would come first.

A nurse receives hand-off report from the emergency department on a new admission suspected of having septic shock. The client's qSOFA score is 3. What action by the nurse is best? a. Plan to calculate a full SOFA score on arrival. b. Contact respiratory therapy about ventilator setup. c. Arrange protective precautions to be implemented. d. Call the hospital chaplain to support the family.

ANS: A The qSOFA score is an abbreviated Sequential Organ Failure Assessment (or "quick"). A score of 3 is high and requires the nurse to assess the client further for organ impairment. The client may or may not need a ventilator, but that in not specified in the score. The client does not need protective precautions. The client's family may well need support, but the nurse would assess their needs and wishes prior to calling the chaplain.

A client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL (1944 mcmol/L) and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mL/dL (8.57 mmol/L). What question would the nurse ask first when taking this client's history? a. "Have you been taking any aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen recently?" b. "Do you have anyone in your family with renal failure?" c. "Have you had a diet that is low in protein recently?" d. "Has a relative had a kidney transplant lately?"

ANS: A There are some medications that are nephrotoxic, such as the non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs ibuprofen, aspirin, and naproxen. This would be a good question to initially ask the patient since both the serum creatinine and BUN are elevated, indicating some renal problems. A diet high in protein could be a factor in an increased BUN.

A marathon runner comes into the clinic and states "I have not urinated very much in the last few days." The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 86/58 mmHg. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Give the client a bottle of water immediately. b. Start an intravenous line for fluids. c. Teach the patient to drink 2 to 3 L of water daily. d. Perform an electrocardiogram.

ANS: A This athlete is mildly dehydrated as evidenced by the higher heart rate and lower blood pressure. The nurse can start hydrating the client with a bottle of water first, followed by teaching the patient to drink 2 to 3 L of water each day. An intravenous line may be needed later, after the patient's degree of dehydration is assessed. An electrocardiogram is not necessary at this time.

The nurse gets the hand-off report on four clients. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. Client with a blood pressure change of 128/74 to 110/88 mm Hg b. Client with oxygen saturation unchanged at 94% c. Client with a pulse change of 100 to 88 beats/min d. Client with urine output of 40 mL/hr for the last 2 hours

ANS: A This client has a falling systolic blood pressure, rising diastolic blood pressure, and narrowing pulse pressure, all of which may be indications of worsening perfusion status and possible shock. The nurse would assess this client first. The client with the unchanged oxygen saturation is stable at this point. Although the client with a change in pulse has a slower rate, it is not an indicator of shock since the pulse is still within the normal range; it may indicate that the client's pain or anxiety has been relieved, or he or she is sleeping or relaxing. A urine output of 40 mL/hr is above the normal range, which is 30 mL/hr.

The nurse is caring for five clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which clients would the nurse consider to be at risk for postrenal acute kidney injury (AKI)? Select all that apply. a. Client with prostate cancer b. Client with blood clots in the urinary tract c. Client with ureterolithiasis d. Client with severe burns e. Client with lupus

ANS: A, B, C Urine flow obstruction, such as prostate cancer, blood clots in the urinary tract, and kidney stones (ureterolithiasis), causes postrenal AKI. Severe burns would be a prerenal cause. Lupus would be an intrarenal cause for AKI.

The nurse caring frequently for older adults in the hospital is aware of risk factors that place them at a higher risk for shock. For what factors would the nurse assess? Select all that apply. a. Altered mobility/immobility b. Decreased thirst response c. Diminished immune response d. Malnutrition e. Overhydration f. Use of diuretics

ANS: A, B, C, D, F Immobility, decreased thirst response, diminished immune response, malnutrition, and use of diuretics can place the older adult at higher risk of developing shock. Overhydration is not a common risk factor for shock.

The nurse is caring for a client with suspected septic shock. What does the nurse prepare to do within 1 hour of the client being identified as possibly having sepsis? Select all that apply. a. Administer antibiotics. b. Draw serum lactate levels. c. Infuse vasopressors. d. Measure central venous pressure. e. Obtain blood cultures. f. Administer rapid bolus of IV crystalloids.

ANS: A, B, C, E, F Within the first hour of suspecting severe sepsis, the nurse would draw (or facilitate) serum lactate levels, obtain blood cultures (or other cultures), administer antibiotics (after the cultures have been obtained), begin rapid administration of 30 mL/kg crystalloid for hypotension or lactate 4 mmol/L. and administer vasopressors if hypotensive during or after fluid resuscitation to maintain a mean arterial pressure 65 mm Hg. Initiating hemodynamic monitoring would be done after these "bundle" measures have been accomplished.

A client is undergoing hemodialysis. The client's blood pressure at the beginning of the procedure was 136/88 mm Hg, and now it is 110/54 mm Hg. What actions would the nurse perform to maintain blood pressure? Select all that apply. a. Adjust the rate of extracorporeal blood flow. b. Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position. c. Stop the hemodialysis treatment. d. Administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline. e. Contact the primary health care provider.

ANS: A, B, D Hypotension occurs often during hemodialysis treatments as a result of vasodilation from the warmed dialysate. Modest decreases in blood pressure, as is the case with this client, can be maintained with rate adjustment, Trendelenburg positioning, and a fluid bolus. If the blood pressure drops considerably after two boluses and cooling dialysate, the hemodialysis can be stopped and the primary health care provider contacted.

A client is unsure of the decision to undergo peritoneal dialysis (PD) and wishes to discuss the advantages of this treatment with the nurse. Which statements by the nurse are correct regarding PD? Select all that apply. a. "You will not need vascular access to perform PD." b. "There is less restriction of protein and fluids." c. "You will have no risk for infection with PD." d. "You have flexible scheduling for the exchanges." e. "It takes less time than hemodialysis treatments."

ANS: A, B, D PD is based on exchanges of waste, fluid, and electrolytes in the peritoneal cavity. There is no need for vascular access. Protein is lost in the exchange, which allows for more protein and fluid in the diet. There is flexibility in the time for exchanges, but the treatment takes a longer period of time compared to hemodialysis. There still is risk for infection with PD, especially peritonitis.

A client is in the early stages of shock and is restless. What comfort measures does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? Select all that apply. a. Bringing the client warm blankets b. Giving the client hot tea to drink c. Massaging the client's painful legs d. Reorienting the client as needed e. Sitting with the client for reassurance

ANS: A, B, D, E The AP can bring the client warm blankets, reorient the client as needed to decrease anxiety, and sit with the client for reassurance. If the nurse assesses the client is safely able to swallow, small amounts of fluids would be allowed. Massaging the legs is not recommended as this can dislodge any clots present, which may lead to pulmonary embolism.

The nurse studying shock understands that the common signs and symptoms of this condition are directly related to which problems? Select all that apply. a. Anaerobic metabolism b. Hyperglycemia c. Hypotension d. Impaired renal perfusion e. Increased systemic perfusion

ANS: A, C The common signs and symptoms of shock, no matter the cause, are directly related to the effects of anaerobic metabolism and hypotension. Hyperglycemia, impaired renal function, and increased perfusion are not the cause of common signs and symptoms of shock.

The nurse caring for hospitalized clients includes which actions on their care plans to reduce the possibility of the clients developing shock? Select all that apply. a. Assessing and identifying clients at risk b. Monitoring the daily white blood cell count c. Performing proper hand hygiene d. Removing invasive lines as soon as possible e. Using aseptic technique during procedures f. Limiting the client's visitors until more stable

ANS: A, C, D, E Assessing and identifying clients at risk for shock is probably the most critical action the nurse can take to prevent shock from occurring. Proper hand hygiene, using aseptic technique, and removing IV lines and catheters are also important actions to prevent shock. Monitoring laboratory values does not prevent shock but can indicate a change. Limiting the client's visitors is not a caring action. The nurse would ensure they perform proper hand hygiene on entering and leaving the room and that visitors are not ill themselves.

A client is hospitalized in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) and is receiving tube feedings. The nurse is teaching the client's spouse about the renal-specific formulation for the enteral solution compared to standard formulas. What components would be discussed in the teaching plan?Select all that apply. a. Lower sodium b. Higher calcium c. Lower potassium d. Higher phosphorus e. Higher calories

ANS: A, C, E Many clients with AKI are too ill to meet caloric goals and require tube feedings with renal-specific formulas that are lower in sodium, potassium, and phosphorus, and higher in calories than are standard formulas.

A nurse is caring for a postoperative 70-kg client who had major blood loss during surgery. Which findings by the nurse would prompt immediate action to prevent acute kidney injury? Select all that apply. a. Urine output of 100 mL in 4 hours b. Urine output of 500 mL in 12 hours c. Large amount of sediment in the urine d. Amber, odorless urine e. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg

ANS: A, C, E The low urine output, sediment, and blood pressure would be reported to the primary health care provider. Postoperatively, the nurse would measure intake and output, check the characteristics of the urine, and report sediment, hematuria, and urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr for 3 to 4 hours. A urine output of 100 mL is low, but a urine output of 500 mL in 12 hours would be within normal limits. Perfusion to the kidneys is compromised with low blood pressure. The amber odorless urine is normal.

A nurse is caring for a client who had coronary artery bypass grafting 2 days ago. What actions does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? Select all that apply. a. Assist the client to the chair for meals and to the commode. b. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours. c. Ensure that the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices. d. Have the client rate pain on a 0-10 scale and report to the nurse. e. Take and record a full set of vital signs per hospital protocol.

ANS: A, C, E The nurse can delegate assisting the client to get up in the chair or commode (if the nurse has evaluated the client as being stable), applying TEDs or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs. The spirometer would be used every hour the day after surgery. Assessing pain using a 0-10 scale is a nursing assessment, although if the client reports pain, the AP would inform the nurse so a more detailed assessment is done.

A nurse is caring for several clients at risk for shock. Which laboratory value requires the nurse to communicate with the primary health care provider? a. Creatinine: 0.9 mg/dL (68.6 mcmol/L) b. Lactate: 5.4 mg/dL (6 mmol/L) c. Sodium: 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) d. White blood cell count: 11,000/mm3 (11 x 10^9/L)

ANS: B A lactate level of 5.4 mg/dL (6 mmol/L) is high and is indicative of possible shock. A creatinine level of 0.9 mg/dL (68.6 mcmol/L) is normal. A sodium level of 150 mEq/L (150 mmol/L) is slightly high but does not need to be communicated. A white blood cell count of 11,000/mm3 (11 x 10^9/L) is slightly high but is not as critical as the lactate level.

A client arrives in the emergency department after being in a car crash with fatalities. The client has a nearly amputated leg that is bleeding profusely. What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Apply direct pressure to the bleeding. b. Ensure the client has a patent airway. c. Obtain a pulse oximetry reading d. Start two large-bore IV catheters.

ANS: B Airway is the priority, followed by breathing (pulse oximetry) and circulation (IVs and direct pressure).

A client is being discharged home after a large myocardial infarction and subsequent coronary artery bypass grafting surgery. The client's sternal wound has not yet healed. What statement by the client most indicates a higher risk of developing sepsis after discharge? a. "All my friends and neighbors are planning a party for me." b. "I hope I can get my water turned back on when I get home." c. "I am going to have my daughter scoop the cat litter box." d. "My grandkids are so excited to have me coming home!"

ANS: B All these statements indicate a potential for leading to infection once the client gets back home. A large party might include individuals who are themselves ill and contagious. Having litter boxes in the home can expose the client to microbes that can lead to infection. Small children often have upper respiratory infections and poor hand hygiene that spread germs. However, the most worrisome statement is the lack of running water for handwashing and general hygiene and cleaning purposes.

A client is having a peritoneal dialysis treatment. The nurse notes an opaque color to the effluent. What is the priority action by the nurse? a. Warm the dialysate solution in a microwave before instillation. b. Obtain a sample of the effluent and send to the laboratory. c. Flush the tubing with normal saline to maintain patency of the catheter. d. Check the peritoneal catheter for kinking and curling.

ANS: B An opaque or cloudy effluent is the first sign of peritonitis. A sample of the effluent would need to be sent to the laboratory for culture and sensitivity in order to administer the correct antibiotic. Warming the dialysate in a microwave and flushing the tubing are not safe actions by the nurse. Checking the catheter for obstruction is a viable option but will not treat the peritonitis.

A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client would the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily. b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery. c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy. d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

ANS: B Atrial fibrillation occurs commonly in clients with cardiac disease. Other risk factors include hypertension (HTN), previous ischemic stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA) or other thromboembolic event, diabetes mellitus, heart failure, obesity, hyperthyroidism, chronic kidney disease, excessive alcohol use, and mitral valve disease. The other conditions do not place these clients at higher risk for atrial fibrillation.

A nurse is in charge of the coronary intensive care unit. Which client would the nurse see first? a. Client on a nitroglycerin infusion at 5 mcg/min, not titrated in the last 4 hours b. Client who is 1-day post coronary artery bypass graft, with blood pressure 88/64 mm Hg c. Client who is 1-day post percutaneous coronary intervention, going home this morning d. Client who is 2-day post coronary artery bypass graft, who became dizzy this morning while walking

ANS: B Hypotension after coronary artery bypass graft surgery can be dangerous because it can lead to collapse of the graft. The charge nurse would see this client first. The client who became dizzy earlier would be seen next. The client on the nitroglycerin drip is stable. The client going home can wait until the other clients are cared for.

The nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube after a coronary artery bypass graft. The drainage stops suddenly. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Increase the setting on the suction. b. Notify the primary health care provider immediately. c. Reposition the chest tube. d. Take the tubing apart to assess for clots.

ANS: B If the drainage in the chest tube decreases significantly and dramatically, the tube may be blocked by a clot. This could lead to cardiac tamponade. The nurse would notify the primary health care provider immediately. The nurse would not independently increase the suction, reposition the chest tube, or take the tubing apart.

The nurse is caring for four clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client would the nurse assess first upon initial rounding? a. Client with a blood pressure of 158/90 mm Hg b. Client with Kussmaul respirations c. Client with skin itching from head to toe d. Client with halitosis and stomatitis

ANS: B Kussmaul respirations indicate that the client has metabolic acidosis which is a complication of CKD. The client is increasing the rate and depth of breathing to excrete carbon dioxide through the lungs to lower serum pH. Hypertension is common in most patients with CKD, and skin itching increases with calcium-phosphate imbalances and elevations of nitrogenous wastes, another common finding in CKD. Uremia from CKD causes ammonia to be formed, resulting in the common findings of halitosis and stomatitis.

A nurse is caring for a client who suffered massive blood loss after trauma. How does the nurse correlate the blood loss with the client's mean arterial pressure (MAP)? a. It causes vasoconstriction and increased MAP. b. Lower blood volume lowers MAP. c. There is no direct correlation to MAP. d. It raises cardiac output and MAP.

ANS: B Lower blood volume will decrease MAP. The other answers are not accurate.

The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of prerenal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the patient's recent history? a. Pyelonephritis b. Dehydration c. Bladder cancer d. Kidney stones

ANS: B Prerenal causes of AKI are related to a decrease in perfusion, such as in clients who have prolonged dehydration. Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic or intrarenal cause of AKI related to kidney damage. Bladder cancer and kidney stones are postrenal causes of AKI related to urine flow obstruction.

A nurse works at a community center for older adults. What self-management measure can the nurse teach the clients to prevent shock? a. Do not get dehydrated in warm weather. b. Drink fluids on a regular schedule. c. Seek attention for any lacerations. d. Take medications as prescribed.

ANS: B Preventing dehydration in older adults is important because the age-related decrease in the thirst mechanism makes them prone to dehydration. Having older adults drink fluids on a regular schedule will help keep them hydrated without the influence of thirst (or lack of thirst). Telling clients not to get dehydrated is important, but not the best answer because it doesn't give them the tools to prevent it from occurring. Older adults should seek attention for lacerations, but this is not as important an issue as staying hydrated. Taking medications as prescribed may or may not be related to hydration.

A nurse is caring for a client after surgery. The client's respiratory rate has increased from 12 to 18 breaths/min and the pulse rate increased from 86 to 98 beats/min since the client was last assessed 4 hours ago. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the client needs pain medication. b. Assess using the MEWS score. c. Document the findings in the client's chart. d. Increase the rate of the client's IV infusion.

ANS: B Signs of the earliest stage of shock are subtle and may manifest in slight increases in heart rate, respiratory rate, or blood pressure. Even though these readings are not out of the normal range, the nurse would conduct a thorough assessment of the patient, focusing on indicators of perfusion. The MEWS score (Modified Early Warning Score) was developed to identify clients at risk for deterioration. The client may need pain medication, but this is not the priority at this time. Documentation would be done thoroughly but would be done after the assessment. The nurse would not increase the rate of the IV infusion without an order.

A nurse is caring for a client after surgery who is restless and apprehensive. The assistive personnel (AP) reports the vital signs and the nurse sees that they are only slightly different from previous readings. What action does the nurse delegate next to the AP? a. Assess the client for pain or discomfort. b. Measure urine output from the catheter. c. Reposition the client to the side. d. Stay with the client and reassure him or her.

ANS: B Urine output changes are a sensitive early indicator of shock. The nurse would delegate emptying the urinary catheter and measuring output to the AP as a baseline for hourly urine output measurements. The AP cannot assess for pain. Repositioning may or may not be effective for decreasing restlessness, but does not take priority over physical assessments. Reassurance is a therapeutic nursing action, but the nurse needs to do more in this situation.

A nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client recently diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which statements made by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? Select all that apply. a. "I can continue to take antacids to relieve heartburn." b. "I need to ask for an antibiotic when scheduling a dental appointment." c. "I'll need to check my blood sugar often to prevent hypoglycemia." d. "The dose of my pain medication may have to be adjusted." e. "I should watch for bleeding when taking my anticoagulants."

ANS: B, C, D, E In discharge teaching, the nurse must emphasize that the client needs to have an antibiotic prophylactically before dental procedures to prevent infection. There may be a need for dose reduction in medications if the kidney is not excreting them properly (antacids with magnesium, antibiotics, antidiabetic drugs, insulin, opioids, and anticoagulants).

The nurse is caring for a client with a new diagnosis of chronic kidney disease. Which priority complications would the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. a. Dehydration b. Anemia c. Hypertension d. Dysrhythmias e. Heart failure

ANS: B, C, D, E The client who has CKD has fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances, especially hyperkalemia, that can cause hypertension, heart failure, and dysrhythmias. Anemia results because erythropoietin production by the kidneys is decreased.

Prior to discharge, a client who had an acute myocardial infarction and coronary artery bypass graft asks the nurse about sexual activity. What information does the nurse provide? Select all that apply. a. "You will need to wait at least 6 weeks before intercourse.' b. "Your usual sexual activity is not likely to damage your heart." c. "Start having sex when you are most rested, like in the morning." d. "When you can climb four flights of stairs, you can tolerate sex." e. "Don't eat for three hours before engaging in sexual activity." f. "Use a comfortable position that doesn't stress your incision."

ANS: B, C, F Clients have many concerns about resuming sexual activity after an acute coronary event. Generally, once the client can walk one block or climb two flights of stairs, he or she can tolerate sex. The client should start after a period of rest and at least 11/2 hours after a heavy meal or exercise. Clients should be taught to choose a position that is comfortable for both parties and does not place undue stress on their incisions or on their hearts.

A client is 1-day postoperative after a coronary artery bypass graft. What nonpharmacologic comfort measures does the nurse include when caring for this client? Select all that apply. a. Administer pain medication before ambulating. b. Assist the client into a position of comfort in bed. c. Encourage high-protein diet selections. d. Provide complementary therapies such as music. e. Remind the client to splint the incision when coughing.

ANS: B, D, E Nonpharmacologic comfort measures can include positioning, complementary therapies, and splinting the chest incision. Medications are not nonpharmacologic. Food choices are not comfort measures.

A client with MODS has been started on dobutamine. What assessment finding requires the nurse to communicate with the primary health care provider immediately? a. Blood pressure of 98/68 mm Hg b. Pedal pulses 1+/4+ bilaterally c. Report of chest heaviness d. Urine output of 32 mL/hr

ANS: C Chest heaviness or pain indicates myocardial ischemia, a possible adverse effect of dobutamine. While taking dobutamine, the oxygen requirements of the heart are increased due to increased myocardial workload, and may cause ischemia. Without knowing the client's previous blood pressure or pedal pulses, there is not enough information to determine if these are an improvement or not. A urine output of 32 mL/hr is acceptable.

A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 has been well controlled with metformin. The client is scheduled for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan with contrast. What priority would the nurse take at this time? a. Teach the client about the purpose of the MRI. b. Assess the client's blood urea nitrogen and creatinine. c. Tell the client to withhold metformin for 24 hours before the MRI. d. Ask the client if he or she is taking antibiotics.

ANS: C Contrast media can be nephrotoxic (damaging to the kidneys). Metformin can also be nephrotoxic and the client should not be exposed to two agents. Clients who have diabetes are already at risk for renal damage.

A client is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding would require immediate action by the nurse? a. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (5.5 mmol/L) b. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L (138 mmol/L) c. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg d. Pulse rate of 88 beats/min

ANS: C Hypotension can be a problem with CVVH if replacement fluid does not provide enough volume to maintain blood pressure. The nurse needs to monitor for ongoing fluid and electrolyte replacement. The sodium level is normal and the potassium level is slightly elevated, which could be normal findings for someone with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 88 beats/min is within usual limits.

The nurse is teaching a client how to increase the flow of dialysate into the peritoneal cavity during dialysis. Which statement by the client demonstrates a correct understanding of the teaching? a. "I should leave the drainage bag above the level of my abdomen." b. "I could flush the tubing with normal saline if the flow stops." c. "I should take a stool softener every morning to avoid constipation." d. "My diet should have low fiber in it to prevent any irritation."

ANS: C Inflow and outflow problems of the dialysate are best controlled by preventing constipation. A daily stool softener is the best option for the client. The drainage bag should be below the level of the abdomen. Flushing the tubing will not help with the flow. A diet high in fiber will also help with a constipation problem.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a diagnosis of multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) who will be receiving sodium nitroprusside via IV infusion. What action by the nurse causes the charge nurse to intervene? a. Assessing the IV site before giving the drug b. Obtaining a programmable ("smart") IV pump c. Removing the IV bag from the brown plastic cover d. Taking and recording a baseline set of vital signs

ANS: C Nitroprusside degrades in the presence of light, so it must be protected by leaving it in the original brown plastic bag when infusing. The other actions are correct

A client is placed on fluid restriction because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client's fluid balance is stable at this time? a. Decreased calcium levels b. Increased phosphorus levels c. No adventitious sounds in the lungs d. Increased edema in the legs

ANS: C The absence of adventitious sounds upon auscultation of the lungs indicates a lack of fluid overload and fluid balance in the client's body. Decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels are common findings with CKD. Edema would indicate a fluid imbalance.

A nurse reviews the laboratory values of a client who returned from kidney transplantation 12 hours ago: Sodium 136 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) Potassium 5 mEq/L (5 mmol/L) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 44 mg/dL (15.7 mmol/L) Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL (221 mcmol/L) What initial intervention would the nurse anticipate? a. Start hemodialysis immediately. b. Discuss the need for peritoneal dialysis. c. Increase the dose of immunosuppression. d. Return the client to surgery for exploration.

ANS: C The client may need a higher dose of immunosuppressive medication as evidenced by the elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels. This increased dose may reverse the possible acute rejection of the transplanted kidney. The client does not need hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, or further surgery at this point.

The nurse is teaching assistive personnel (AP) about fluid restriction for a client who has acute kidney injury (AKI). The client's 24-hour urinary output is 120 mL. How much fluid would the client be allowed to have over the next 24 hours? a. 380 mL b. 500 mL c. 620 mL d. 750 mL

ANS: C The general principle for fluid restriction for clients is that they may have a daily fluid intake of 500 mL plus the amount of their urinary output. In this case, 120 mL urinary output plus 500 mL equals 620 mL fluid allowance.

A nurse prepares a client for coronary artery bypass graft surgery. The client states, "I am afraid I might die." What is the nurse's best response? a. "This is a routine surgery and the risk of death is very low." b. "Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to surgery?" c. "Tell me more about your concerns about the surgery." d. "What support systems do you have to assist you?"

ANS: C The nurse would discuss the client's feelings and concerns related to the surgery. The nurse would not provide false hope or simply call the chaplain. The nurse would address support systems after addressing the client's current issue.

The charge nurse is orienting a new nurse about care for an assigned client with an arteriovenous (AV) fistula for hemodialysis in her left arm. Which action by the float nurse would be considered unsafe? a. Palpating the access site for a bruit or thrill b. Using the right arm for a blood pressure reading c. Administering intravenous fluids through the AV fistula d. Checking distal pulses in the left arm

ANS: C The nurse would not use the arm with the AV fistula for intravenous infusion, blood pressure readings, or venipuncture. Compression and infection can result in the loss of the AV fistula. The AV fistula would be monitored by auscultating or palpating the access site. Checking the distal pulse would be an appropriate assessment.

A nurse caring for a client notes the following assessments: white blood cell count 3800/mm3 (3.8 x 10^9/L), blood glucose level 198 mg/dL (11 mmol/L), and temperature 96.2° F (35.6°C). What action by the nurse takes priority? a. Document the findings in the client's chart. b. Give the client warmed blankets for comfort. c. Notify the primary health care provider immediately. d. Prepare to administer insulin per sliding scale.

ANS: C This client has several indicators of sepsis with systemic inflammatory response. The nurse would notify the primary health care provider immediately. Documentation needs to be thorough but does not take priority. The client may appreciate warm blankets, but comfort measures do not take priority. The client may need insulin if blood glucose is being regulated tightly.

A client is admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a urine output of 2000 mL/day. What is the major concern of the nurse regarding this patient's care? a. Edema and pain b. Cardiac and respiratory status c. Electrolyte and fluid imbalance d. Mental health status

ANS: C This client may have an inflammatory cause of AKI with proteins entering the glomerulus and holding the fluid in the filtrate, causing polyuria. Electrolyte loss and fluid balance are essential. Edema and pain are not usually a problem with fluid loss. There could be changes in the client's cardiac, respiratory, and mental health status if the electrolyte imbalance is not treated.

The nurse is teaching a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) about the sodium restriction needed in the diet to prevent edema and hypertension. Which statement by the client indicates that more teaching is needed? a. "I will probably lose weight by cutting out potato chips." b. "I will cut out bacon with my eggs every morning." c. "My cooking style will change by not adding salt." d. "I am thrilled that I can continue to eat fast food."

ANS: D Fast-food restaurants usually serve food that is high in sodium. This statement indicates that more teaching needs to occur. The other statements show a correct understanding of the teaching.

A client is in the preoperative holding area prior to an emergency coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). The client is yelling at family members and tells the doctor to "just get this over with" when asked to sign the consent form. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask the family members to wait in the waiting area. b. Inform the client that this behavior is unacceptable. c. Stay out of the room to decrease the client's stress levels. d. Tell the client that anxiety is common and that you can help.

ANS: D Preoperative fear and anxiety are common prior to cardiac surgery, especially in emergent situations. The client is exhibiting anxiety, and the nurse would reassure the client that fear is common and offer to help. The other actions will not reduce the client's anxiety.

A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a blood pressure of 76/55 mm Hg. The primary health care provider prescribed 1000 mL of normal saline to be infused over 1 hour to maintain perfusion. The client starts to develop shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Calculate the mean arterial pressure (MAP). b. Ask for insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. c. Take the client's pulse. d. Decrease the rate of the IV infusion.

ANS: D The nurse would assess that the client could be developing fluid overload and respiratory distress and slow down the normal saline infusion. The calculation of the MAP also reflects perfusion. The insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter would evaluate the client's hemodynamic status, but this would not be the initial or priority action by the nurse. Vital signs are also important after adjusting the intravenous infusion.

The nurse administers epoetin alfa to a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which laboratory test value would the nurse monitor to determine this drug's effectiveness? a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Renin d. Hemoglobin

ANS: D The purpose of giving epoetin alfa to a client with CKD is to manage anemia by stimulating the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells. Therefore, monitoring the client's hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red blood cell count would indicate if the drug was effective.

A nurse on the general medical-surgical unit is caring for a client in shock and assesses the following: Respiratory rate: 10 breaths/min Pulse: 136 beats/min Blood pressure: 92/78 mm Hg Level of consciousness: responds to voice Temperature: 101.5° F (38.5° C) Urine output for the last 2 hours: 40 mL/hr. What action by the nurse is best? a. Transfer the client to the Intensive Care Unit. b. Continue monitoring every 30 minutes. c. Notify the unit charge nurse immediately. d. Call the Rapid Response Team.

ANS: D This client has a MEWS score of 7 (RR: 0, P: 3, SBP: 1, LOC: 1, Temperature: 1, UO: 1). Scores above 5 are associated with a high risk of death and ICU admission. The most important action for the nurse is to notify the Rapid Response Team so that timely interventions can be initiated. The client most likely will be transferred to the ICU, but an order is required. Monitoring the client every 30 minutes is appropriate, but the nurse needs to obtain care for the client. The charge nurse is a valuable resource, but the best action is to notify the Rapid Response Team.

The nurse is preparing a client with stage 3 CKD for discharge. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? A. "I will be sure to attend my follow-up appointment with my nephrologist." B. "I will increase my protein intake so my body can heal." C. "I will weigh myself daily and call the doctor if my weight increases by 2 lb or more." D. "I will take my blood pressure each day and keep a daily log."

B. "I will increase my protein intake so my body can heal."

The nurse is teaching a client's family regarding the diagnosis of septic shock. Which teaching will the nurse include? Select all that apply. A. "The blood cultures will tell us for sure if your loved one has septic shock." B. "The client's change in behavior and lethargy may be associated with septic shock." C. "Antibiotics, as prescribed, will be started within the hour to treat the sepsis." D. "An insulin drip has been started to keep the client's glucose as low as possible." E. "Septic shock is easily treated with multiple antibiotics."

B. "The client's change in behavior and lethargy may be associated with septic shock." C. "Antibiotics, as prescribed, will be started within the hour to treat the sepsis."

The nurse is caring for a 74-year-old client scheduled for a cardiac catheterization with contrast dye. What nursing action is appropriate? Select all that apply. A. Assess creatinine clearance using a 24-hour urine collection test. B. Assess for coexisting conditions of diabetes, heart failure, and kidney disease. C. Collaborate with the provider about whether IV fluids should be infused before the test. D. Notify the provider regarding changes in serum creatinine from 0.2 to 0.4 mg/dL in 24 hours. E. Alert the provider to a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2.

B. Assess for coexisting conditions of diabetes, heart failure, and kidney disease. C. Collaborate with the provider about whether IV fluids should be infused before the test. E. Alert the provider to a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) below 60 mL/min/1.73 m2.

A 62-year-old client was admitted 2 days ago with traumatic injuries and hypovolemic shock. Which lab result is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider immediately? A. Serum sodium 132 mEq/L (mmol/L) B. Serum potassium 6.9 mEq/L (mmol/L) C. Blood urea nitrogen 24 mg/dL (mmol/L) D. Hematocrit 32% (0.32 volume fraction); hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL (92 g/L)

B. Serum potassium 6.9 mEq/L (mmol/L)

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory profile of a client with hypovolemic shock. What laboratory value will the nurse anticipate? A. pH: 7.51 B. PaO2: 106 mm Hg C. PaCO2: 49 mm Hg D. Lactate: 0.4 mmol/L

C. PaCO2: 49 mm Hg

The nurse is caring for a client with hypovolemic shock who is bleeding from a traumatic injury to the upper chest wall. What is the priority nursing action? A. Insert a large-bore IV catheter B. Administer supplemental oxygen C. Elevate the client's feet, keeping the head flat D. Apply direct pressure to the area of overt bleeding

D. Apply direct pressure to the area of overt bleeding