A+ 902

1-87. Which of these can be used in a Windows Firewall rule? A. Application name B. NTFS permission C. Username D. UAC setting E. Workgroup name

A. Application name The Windows Firewall can define rules based on application, port number, and many other criteria.

3-5. What process should you follow in Windows 8.1 to edit system configuration files? A. Run the editor as Administrator B. Start Windows 8.1 in Safe Mode C. Run the Windows Startup Repair utility D. Modify the files in System Information E. Make the changes in the Windows Registry Editor

A. Run the editor as Administrator During normal use, all user processes run normally without any special permissions. To perform a procedure that required elevated rights and permissions, you need to select the option to run the application as Administrator.

1-106. Which of these Windows features provides volume backups while Windows is running? A. Volume Snapshot Service B. System Restore C. File Properties D. Smart Cache

A. Volume Snapshot Service The Windows Volume Snapshot Service (VSS) provides a way to backup an entire volume while Windows is running. VSS also provides a way to backup and restore versions of individual files.

1-148. Which of these can devmgmt.msc tell you about your computer? A. The number of installed applications B. A list of hardware that may be missing a driver C. The number of uninstalled OS patches D. A list of IP routes known by your computer E. A list of devices discovered across the local network

B. A list of hardware that may be missing a driver devmgmt.msc is the Windows Device Manager, and it will tell you everything you need to know about installed device drivers, hardware that might be missing a device driver, and device drivers that are not properly loading.

3-3. Which of these would be considered an untrusted software source? A. Applications from well-known publishers B. Applications from third-party sites C. Digitally-signed applications D. Applications created internally

B. Applications from third-party sites Untrusted sources of software come from unknown publishers, links in an email, drive-by downloads, and applications from little-known third-party sites.

1-16. Which of these utilities consolidate the Task Scheduler, Event Viewer, Performance, Device Manager, and other administrative tools into a single "pane of glass?" A. System Configuration B. Computer Management C. Local Security Policy D. Windows Services

B. Computer Management Computer Management is a predefined set of administrative utilities that have been consolidated into the Microsoft Management Console framework.

3-54. Which of these would a mantrap prevent? A. Simultaneous logins from multiple locations B. More than one person through an entrance at a time C. Database injection attacks from outside of the network D. Inappropriate use of company assets

B. More than one person through an entrance at a time A mantrap is a physical entrance that limits access to an area to only one person at a time.

2-64. Which of the following would be the best way to view device driver information in Mac OS? A. Mission Control B. System Information C. System Preferences / General D. Driver Manager E. System Tools

B. System Information The System Information utility in Mac OS can provide you with detailed information about your hardware, network, and software.

3-13. Which of these security features would prevent a computer from booting an operating system without the correct password? A. Windows Login Screen B. User BIOS password C. Encrypting File System D. NTFS

B. User BIOS password The User BIOS Password requires a password before the computer will load any operating system.

1-190. Which of these would best describe DNS? A. Automatically assign IP addresses B. Transfer email from server to server C. Browse the Internet by web site name D. View the screen of a remote device E. Transfer files from one device to another

C. Browse the Internet by web site name The Domain Name System (DNS) is used to convert between names and IP addresses.

1-81. Which Windows file system provides capabilities such as quotas, file compression, encryption, and large file support? A. FAT B. FAT32 C. NTFS D. HPFS

C. NTFS The NT File System has extensive improvements over the older file systems listed above. There have actually been many different versions of NTFS, with constant improvements going into each version.

3-62. You've found a USB memory stick in the parking lot at your office. Which of these security exploits may be at work? A. Spyware B. Virus C. Social engineering D. Application vulnerability

C. Social engineering One of the most difficult security exploits to identify is the one that has very little to do with technology. Enticing someone into putting a USB memory stick into their office computer is one of the more common social engineering techniques. Once the social engineering exploit has worked, the USB key will usually load some type of malicious software onto the computer.

3-25. What happens if the failed passcode lock attempt security option is activated in Android OS? A. The device erases itself after 10 failed attempts B. The passcode will randomly change after every 10 attempts C. The device locks and requires a Google login D. An email will be sent to the device owner after 10 failed attempts

C. The device locks and requires a Google login The Android OS will counter failed consecutive passcode attempts by requiring a full login into Google.

2-70. Which of the following is the best utility to use when moving files from one volume to another in Mac OS? A. Filer B. File Manager C. Mac Explorer D. Finder E. File Wizard

D. Finder The Mac OS Finder utility is the integrated file management system in Mac OS.

1-20. Which of these would be best associated with Windows Defender? A. Control access to a TCP port number on your computer B. Automatically install operating system patches C. Encrypt a volume or entire hard drive D. Stop malware from executing on your system E. Restrict access to the system BIOS

D. Stop malware from executing on your system Windows Defender is designed to stop malware from running in your operating system, and it's included with Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows 8.

1-210. Which of these would you need to connect to a Windows Homegroup? A. The Windows administrator username and password B. The username and password of any Active Directory user C. The owner's Microsoft Live password D. The shared Homegroup password

D. The shared Homegroup password Windows Homegroup uses a single password that everyone can use to connect to the Homegroup network.

2-19. What's the best way to run an application with elevated permissions in the Linux operating system? A. Right-mouse click and select "Run as Administrator" B. Boot the system to single user mode C. Use chown to change the ownership to root D. Run in Safe Mode E. Run the program with the sudo command

E. Run the program with the sudo command The Linux sudo command allows you to execute a command as a super user, even when logged in with your normal user account.

1-112. Which of these specifications meets the minimum hardware requirements for the 64-bit version of Windows 7? A. 2 GB RAM B. 16 GB free disk space C. DirectX 8 graphics device D. 1 GHz x86 CPU

A. 2 GB RAM Windows 7 x64 requires 2 GB of RAM, 20 GB of free storage space, and a 1 GHz x64 CPU. This is slightly different than the requirements for the 32-bit version of Windows 7 which only needs 1 GB of RAM and 16 GB of free disk space.

1-267. The master boot record (MBR) is an important part of the computer's boot process. What is one of the items contained in the MBR? A. A table of the computer's primary partitions B. A list of hard drive controllers inside the computer C. A summary of operating system memory locations D. A table of BIOS capabilities

A. A table of the computer's primary partitions For the master boot record to start the computer from an active partition, it has to know the location of an active boot partition. The incorrect answers: B) A list of hard drive controllers inside the computer - Controller information isn't stored inside of the master boot record. C) A summary of operating system memory locations - This sounds like a very high-tech answer, but it has nothing to do with the master boot record. D) A table of BIOS capabilities - The BIOS doesn't contain a description of boot locations.

3-11. Which of these would prevent tailgating? A. After scanning a badge, only allow one person to enter a secure area at a time B. Computer desktops should be manually locked before leaving your desk C. Physical papers and work documents should be locked in your desk when unattended D. When connecting to the corporate network from outside the building, always use a VPN E. Require multiple factors of information when authenticating

A. After scanning a badge, only allow one person to enter a secure area at a time Tailgating is the process of using someone else's credentials to physically enter a protected area. Instead of individually badging in everyone, someone tailgating will wait for a valid user to unlock the door, and then follow them in.

1-139. Which one of these capabilities is not a characteristic of dynamic disk storage? A. Allows data to be transmitted to remote disks for off-site backup B. Allows the spanning of multiple disks to create larger volumes C. Allows data to be split across physical disks (striping) D. Allows data to be duplicated across physical disks (mirroring)

A. Allows data to be transmitted to remote disks for off-site backup Although dynamic disks are very useful, they don't have any built-in off-site backup capabilities.

5-39. You're moving the video adapter from one computer to another computer in a different building. What would be the best way to transport the video card between buildings? A. An anti-static bag and a padded box or folder B. A box with styrofoam peanuts C. An intra-office envelope D. A box packed with shredded paper E. A roll of bubble wrap

A. An anti-static bag and a padded box or folder Our electronic devices are always susceptible to electrostatic discharge, so it's especially important to protect our components when they're outside of the computer case. Using an anti-static bag can help minimize the occurrence of ESD during transportation.

2-32. Where are operating system updates managed in Mac OS? A. App Store B. System Information C. Mission Control D. System Preferences E. Spaces

A. App Store All application and operating system updates are managed through the Updates feature of the App Store utility.

1-200. Which of these would be a common result of using Windows ReadyBoost? A. Application loading and operations are faster B. Files on storage drive are redundant C. The BIOS boot sequence is faster D. Windows configurations can be rolled back to an earlier date E. Applications built for older operating systems can run in the latest OS version

A. Application loading and operations are faster Using Windows ReadyBoost with a flash drive can provide a faster cache location than a hard drive, allowing applications to load and run faster in the operating system.

3-50. Which of these would be a best practice for workstation security? A. Assign rights and permissions based on groups B. Use a minimum password length of 6 characters C. Administrator rights are only assigned to IT staff and users with specific application requirements D. Passwords can contain only alphanumeric characters E. All accounts on the workstation should be enabled

A. Assign rights and permissions based on groups It's much easier to manage and audit a security posture that assigns rights and permissions based on groups of users. Assigning rights at a user level makes the administrative functions much more granular and it becomes much easier to make a mistake when assigning rights.

3-36. Which of these of mobile device apps is commonly used when connecting to a VPN? A. Authenticator app B. Tunnel monitor C. Encryption app D. Network monitor E. Key manager

A. Authenticator app Instead of physical authenticators that would hang from your keychain, many authentication systems now use authenticator apps that can be installed on your mobile device.

3-20. What type of security technology uses a part of the body to provide access? A. Biometrics B. Two-factor authentication C. Smart card D. Token generator E. RFID

A. Biometrics Biometrics are often used to provide access through biological means, such as a fingerprint, an optical scan, or the shape of a hand.

2-65. Which of these utilities would be the best choice for dual-booting between the Mac OS and Windows operating systems? A. Boot Camp B. Hypervisor C. App Switcher D. Toggle OS E. Boot Manager

A. Boot Camp The Mac OS Boot Camp utility can be used to easily boot into Mac OS or Windows. Boot Camp is not a virtualization utility, but instead selects operating system when starting the computer.

4-44. Which of the following would be completed during the remediation phase of malware removal? A. Boot into Safe Mode B. Educate the end user C. Disconnect the computer from the network D. Disable system restore E. Odd error messages are seen on the display

A. Boot into Safe Mode During the remediation phase, you're trying to remove the malware from the computer. It's often useful to start in Safe Mode so that the operating system can load and some malware may be prevented from executing.

1-193. Your Windows 7 workstation is not booting, and some of the error messages appear to be related to a missing or corrupted Boot Configuration Data store. Which of these would be the best way to rebuild the BCD? A. Boot the computer into the recovery console and run BOOTREC /RebuildBCD B. Boot the computer into the recovery console and copy a new version of NTLDR and NTDETECT.COM C. Boot the computer into the recovery console and run BOOTREC /fixboot c: D. Boot the computer with the original installation media and reinstall Windows 7

A. Boot the computer into the recovery console and run BOOTREC /RebuildBCD The BOOTREC program can list, add, rebuild and maintain the BCD store. The incorrect answers: B) Boot the computer into the recovery console and copy a new version of NTLDR and NTDETECT.COM - If these files are missing, the recovery console can be used to help copy the files from another source. C) Boot the computer into the recovery console and run BOOTREC /fixboot c: - The BOOTREC utility can rebuild the computer's boot sector and master boot record, not the BCD store. D) Boot the computer with the original installation media and reinstall Windows 7 - Reinstalling Windows will probably resolve the problem, but BOOTREC /RebuildBCD should be your first (and easiest) option.

4-56. Which of these would be the most likely cause of a hijacked email device? A. Botnet B. Virus hoax C. Pop-up blocker D. HTTPS

A. Botnet Botnets are exceptionally good at infecting and controlling devices. Once hijacked by the botnet, devices can be made to participate in denial of service attacks, send unsolicited emails, and anything else the botnet owner would like.

4-19. You're concerned that some of your private company information from your mobile phone may have been leaked to others outside of your organization. Which of the following would be a best practice if you suspect a breach? Pick two. A. Check access to all online backups B. Verify that Internet access is available C. Run a hardware diagnostic D. Perform a factory reset of your mobile phone E. Perform a soft reset of your mobile phone

A. Check access to all online backups and D. Perform a factory reset of your mobile phone If a breach has occurred, it's important to find out where the data leak might be. You'll want to check all of your installed apps, run an anti-malware scan, check access to all of your online backups, and ultimately perform a factory reset to guarantee that no malicious software is on your device.

4-55. In which of the following would you be most likely to use an app scanner? A. Check for known bad apps B. Determine the bandwidth requirements for an app C. Search for a list of apps that similar to another D. Find a particular installed app icon E. Determine how much storage space an app is using

A. Check for known bad apps App scanners are large databases that contain a list of mobile apps and information about their security status. You can check the app scanner before installing a new app to make sure it's legitimate.

4-11. When you login to your Windows 7 system, you receive an error message that does not display any application name. The error message is a series of numbers and doesn't appear to offer any additional references. Which of these methods would best assist you with troubleshooting this error? Pick two. A. Check the Windows Event Log B. Rebuild the hard drive boot sector C. Try logging in with a different user name D. Modify the Boot Configuration Data E. Run hardware diagnostics from the BIOS

A. Check the Windows Event Log and C. Try logging in with a different user name Once the computer login prompt appears, you know that the issue isn't related to the boot partition or the partition you're booting from. If a more detailed message isn't in the Event Log, you can try a different user to see if the issue is related to all users or just a single login name.

1-233. One of your associates is troubleshooting a system, and he uses the command 'sfc.' What does this command provide? A. Checks the operating system files for corruption or modifications B. Documents the hops between two devices across the network C. Resolves an IP address from a hostname D. Locates bad sectors on the hard drive

A. Checks the operating system files for corruption or modifications The System File Checker utility will scan all of your system files to ensure that your critical OS files are uncorrupted.

3-44. Which of these would be a characteristic of a phishing attack? A. Clickable link in an email B. Intermittent server availability C. Increased bandwidth D. Sluggish operating system

A. Clickable link in an email One common way to bait the user in a phishing attack is to send them an email with a link. The link might lead to a site with malware or to an evil web site that is masquerading as a legitimate site.

2-80. You've built a cloud service that is used simultaneously by many different organizations. Which of the following would best describe this deployment model? A. Community B. Public C. Hybrid D. Shared E. Private

A. Community A community model for cloud computing allows several organizations to share the same resources in the cloud simultaneously.

1-245. You are adding another hard drive to a server, and you'd like to configure the drives as a single mirrored RAID array. Which Windows utility allows you to set the RAID configuration? A. Computer Management / Disk Management B. Computer Management / Removable Storage C. Computer Management / Device Manager D. Computer Management / System Tools

A. Computer Management / Disk Management The Computer Management framework provides direct access to many configuration options. The RAID configuration options can be found in the Disk Management settings.

5-28. You've diagnosed a problem with a co-worker's laptop, and now you have to wait for a parts delivery to continue the repair. Which of the following would be the best way to proceed? A. Contact the user with the expected arrival date for the parts B. Have the parts delivered, installed, and tested before contacting the user C. Contact the user, but don't disclose any specific dates D. Contact the user after the parts have arrived E. Add another two weeks for scheduling after the parts have arrived

A. Contact the user with the expected arrival date for the parts It's useful to always set the proper expectations when working with others. One important step is to always keep everyone informed of the latest status and the estimated timeframes for each step.

1-241. You're installing a monitor onto a Windows 7 computer, and you'd like to modify the video resolution to support the larger display. Where can you find the resolution properties? A. Control Panel / Display B. Control Panel / Device Manager C. My Computer/ Display D. Control Panel / Administrative Tools / Display

A. Control Panel / Display The display properties allow you to modify the video resolution, desktop settings, screen savers, and much more.

3-15. Which of the following would be the best way to define granular access permissions to a Windows file? A. Define NTFS permissions for the file B. Configure access rights in Windows Firewall C. Only allow external access through a VPN D. Encrypt the file E. Use a proxy to provide access to the file

A. Define NTFS permissions for the file The NTFS file system provides a very granular set of rights and permissions that can be defined for any file or directory in Windows.

2-68. Which of these would be the best way to modify the Mac OS search results? A. Define search categories in System Preferences / Spotlight B. Enable indexing in the System Utilities C. Clear the browser cache and stored data D. Update the search application signatures E. Move all personal files to an external drive

A. Define search categories in System Preferences / Spotlight The Mac OS Spotlight search provides integrated search for almost anything in the operating system, and online. You can modify the results by enabling or disabling search categories in the System Preferences.

4-12. Which of the following could improve the read and write time to a hard drive? A. Defragmentation B. SFC C. Safe Mode D. RAID 1 E. Use the NTFS file system

A. Defragmentation The defragmentation utility moves file fragments around the drive to create contiguous files. Since the files are now fully contained in a single section of the drive, the read time for the file is faster and the now open contiguous space provides for faster write times.

1-156. In which of these cases would you be most likely to use Task Manager? A. Determine the CPU usage of a specific application B. Gather long-term metrics on application response time C. Enable or disable a startup application D. Safely remove a USB flash drive E. Start an application in Administrator Mode

A. Determine the CPU usage of a specific application The Task Manager can provide real-time information about the applications and services that are running on your Windows computer.

1-143. You have been using a new USB-connected external hard drive, but you're finding that the drive letter disappears from Windows Explorer at random times. What Windows utility can provide you with the real-time status of the USB ports? A. Device Manager B. Event Viewer C. Disk Manager D. msinfo32

A. Device Manager The Device Manager can tell you exactly what's happening with all of your hardware, and it can quickly tell you if your USB ports are working properly. The event log may be able to give you additional information about a device failure, but the Device Manager is the best source of status information about any hardware.

2-43. Which of the following would be associated with a DNS server? A. Device names are converted to IP addresses B. IP addresses are automatically assigned to network devices C. Responses are provided to browser messages D. An intermediate device performs network requests in place of the requesting device E. Centralized authentication credentials are evaluated

A. Device names are converted to IP addresses One of the features of a DNS (Domain Name System) server is to convert the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) of a device into a networkable IP address.

1-226. Which of the following Windows utilities would be the best choice to setup and configure hard drives and partitions? A. Disk Management B. Check Disk C. Defragment D. Event Log

A. Disk Management The Windows Disk Management utility provides extensive configuration options for managing your storage media.

3-24. Which of the following would be associated with a certificate of destruction? A. Documentation is provided after a third-party has disposed of storage devices B. An operating system crash log is copied to a debug server C. A receipt is provided when selling used computers D. A report is provided after a network outage E. A document is provided with new storage devices to show bad sectors

A. Documentation is provided after a third-party has disposed of storage devices A certificate of destruction is provided by third-parties who provide data removal and destruction services. This certifies that the data is destroyed and provides a paper trail showing the disposition of the data.

1-126. Which of the following would best describe a Windows Workgroup? A. Each device is a standalone system with its own authentication requirements B. A single shared password allows all devices to network with each other C. All authentication credentials are stored on a centralized server D. Information can be encrypted and protected through a secure tunnel E. All printers must be on the same Workgroup

A. Each device is a standalone system with its own authentication requirements A Windows Workgroup is a method of organizing similar devices into a logical group. Creating a workgroup makes it easier to find shared files and resources, but the usernames and passwords used for these resources will be different on each device. There is no centralized authentication system when using a Windows Workgroup.

5-27. A customer stops by your desk with his computer, and he's clearly upset over the problems that he's been having with his system. As he vents his frustrations, his voice becomes louder and higher pitched. Which of these would be the best next step? A. Empathize with their problems and let the customer know that you'll help to resolve the problem. B. Ask the customer to come back when they've calmed down. C. Take the computer and tell the customer to come back later. D. Give the customer a diagnostics disk and tell them to run it overnight.

A. Empathize with their problems and let the customer know that you'll help to resolve the problem. Ongoing computer problems can be incredibly frustrating, especially when external deadlines and additional responsibilities combine to create a stressful emotional issue. These problems are often escalated because of the lack of control that the end-user has with their technology. This means that you get to manage technology, politics, and emotion, all with one single customer visit. One of the best ways to diffuse a conflict is to join the suffering. Misery loves company, and the customer's stress level should decrease when they see that you're also emotionally invested in resolving the issue. If you empathize with the customer's situation, you'll also find that you're able to build a better relationship with the end user. If you ask the customer to come back when they've calmed down, then you're simply adding fuel to the fire. Avoiding the problem isn't going to solve the customer's issue, and it's probably going to make things worse. Even if you take the computer from them, you still don't know what the problem is or where to start troubleshooting. You have to address the problems between people before you can fix the problems with technology. Pushing the troubleshooting process onto the customer with a diagnostics disk is another delay tactic that will certainly result in additional problems. The key is to address the problem directly. Avoiding the issue or the person isn't going to solve the problem for anyone.

4-9. Where would you look to get information about a Linux kernel panic? A. Error message on the screen B. The BIOS alert log C. Event Viewer D. LILO E. Kernel Builder

A. Error message on the screen A kernel panic is a non-recoverable fatal error, and it requires a reboot of the system to restore the system to operation. The panic could be caused by a hardware error, an operating system bug, or a similar issue. The error message displayed on the screen or in the error logs can provide you with more information about the error and give you some information on where to start troubleshooting.

1-117. You received a new computer as a gift, and you've installed about 30 different applications in a couple of days. Unfortunately, you now get the message "Error 44" when starting the computer, with no other references or application names. Which of these utilities would be the best choice to determine which program is giving this generic error message? A. Event Viewer B. Services C. Performance Monitor D. Disk Manager

A. Event Viewer It can be difficult to determine which program is causing this issue, especially if the message is very generic. It's also possible that the application giving the error isn't the one that's actually causing the problem. Most error messages are also logged in the Event Viewer, and there's occasionally some additional information that can assist you in finding the root cause of the issue.

2-56. Which of these would you use to synchronize your Android mobile device to the cloud? A. Google account B. iCloud C. Microsoft account D. iTunes E. Amazon Cloud Services

A. Google account An Android device uses your Google account information to configure and synchronize your Android phone to the cloud.

2-61. In virtualization software, which of these is responsible for managing guest operating system resources? A. Hypervisor B. Virtual System Administrator (VSM) C. Windows OS Manager D. Virtualization Technology (VT) E. Virtual Memory Manager

A. Hypervisor The hypervisor is responsible for managing the video, storage, input, output, and all other resources used between the physical computer and the virtual guest operating systems.

2-34. Which of the following identifies a physical mobile device? A. IMEI B. PRL C. IMSI D. PRI E. NPA-NSS

A. IMEI A unique IMEI (International Mobile Station Equipment Identity) identifier is associated with a mobile device. No two devices share the same IMEI.

1-123. When looking through some Windows documentation, you find a command line utility called "dxdiag." Which of the following features can dxdiag provide? Pick two. A. Identifies video and audio components B. Tests video and audio components C. Installs and uninstalls video and audio drivers D. Tests the speed of your CPU

A. Identifies video and audio components and B. Tests video and audio components The DirectX Diagnostic Tool can provide you with information about your system, DirectX compatible video and audio components, and diagnostic tools for input devices.

5-24. Which of the following is not an important communication skill? A. Increase efficiency through the use of acronyms B. Avoid interrupting customer conversations C. Clarify customer statements D. Avoid jargon

A. Increase efficiency through the use of acronyms Although it's useful to use TLAs (Three Letter Acronyms) between professionals, using these vague abbreviations with customers will usually bring confusion and frustration. Keep the lines of communication open with phrases and comments that everyone will understand.

1-197. Which of these features is included with Windows 7 Home Premium? A. Internet Information Services web server B. Ability to join a Windows Domain C. Full-disk encryption with BitLocker D. Remove Desktop service E. Support for 192 GB of RAM

A. Internet Information Services web server Although some of the more advanced Windows 7 features aren't part of the Home Premium version, Microsoft's IIS web server software is included and can be installed from the Windows 7 Control Panel under Programs / Windows Features.

4-45. Which of these would be an effective way to quarantine a malware-infected system? Pick two. A. Isolate all removable media B. Install updated anti-malware signatures C. Copy suspicious executables to a "sandbox" computer D. Disconnect the system from the network

A. Isolate all removable media and D. Disconnect the system from the network The quarantine process should completely separate an infected system from all other devices. Isolating and controlling any removable media and disconnecting a system from the network are common quarantine tasks.

5-8. The inside of a computer can be a dangerous place. Which one of these safety tips do not apply when working inside of a computer? A. Keep the power cord plugged into the wall to ground against static discharges B. Be gentle with the internal components to avoid knocking any cables loose C. Don't directly touch any of the sensitive components D. Avoid contact with moving parts

A. Keep the power cord plugged into the wall to ground against static discharges At first glance, this answer sounds perfectly reasonable. After all, static electricity is a bad, evil thing for computers. Of course, electrical discharge is an evil thing to YOU. A common misconception is that you need to be connected to an electrical ground to prevent static discharge. Also, today's motherboards constantly provide for instant-on; there's always a potential for electrical discharge if you come in contact with components inside of your computer system. ALWAYS UNPLUG THE COMPUTER. Cables inside of a computer weren't designed for a lot of jostling. Before putting the cover back on, it's a good idea to check all of your connectors and make sure you didn't inadvertently disconnect any components. Silicon-based components are allergic to you. You not only subject the components to static electric discharges, you also leave oil and dust in your wake. Only touch what you need to touch, and then try not to directly contact the components on the circuit boards. The fans inside of a computer spin very quickly. There's a reason that computer technicians don't wear ties.

4-67. When you start your Windows 8.1 computer, you see a message that says "Windows failed to start. A recent hardware or software change might be the cause." Which of these should be your next troubleshooting step? A. Launch Startup Repair B. Update the system BIOS C. Reinstall Windows D. Update all device drivers to the latest versions E. Start Windows normally

A. Launch Startup Repair The Windows Startup Repair process can resolve many issues during the startup process, and it may even be able to resolve issues that occur when shutting down your system. Before making any changes, it's useful to see if Windows can resolve the issue on its own.

2-83. Which of these interface types would you use when synchronizing data on an iOS device? Pick two. A. Lightning B. 802.11 C. FireWire D. eSATA E. USB Micro-B

A. Lightning and B. 802.11 iOS devices can synchronize to a local computer using wireless networking over 802.11 networks and physical cabling over the proprietary Lightning interface.

1-211. Which of these would you expect to find in Windows Device Manager? A. List of unknown hardware B. Real-time CPU statistics C. A log of boot messages D. A list of pending operating system updates

A. List of unknown hardware The Windows Device Manager provides a list of all known and unknown software, and will tell you if devices are working properly or not.

2-22. Which of the following would be the most likely reason to run the Linux ls command? A. List the contents of a directory B. Find text in a file C. Change the ownership of a file D. View the wireless network configuration E. Perform a command with elevated rights

A. List the contents of a directory ls (list) is one of the most commonly used Linux commands. You can list everything on a file system with the ls command.

3-21. Which of the following would be common filtering points for spam? A. Local email relay B. Firewall C. Switch interface D. Internet router E. Switch trunks

A. Local email relay It's common to catch unsolicited email at centralized points, such as the local mail gateway or at a cloud-based spam filtering email gateway. Most firewalls will not provide any significant spam filtering.

1-207. What kind of IP address is 127.0.0.1? A. Loopback address B. Default Gateway C. Class C D. DNS Server

A. Loopback address A loopback address is used as a TCP/IP self-referencing address. The full range for loopback addresses is 127.0.0.1 through 127.255.255.255.

1-187. What would you type at the command line to start Remote Desktop? A. MSTSC B. REMDESK C. RDP D. RDESK

A. MSTSC The Microsoft Terminal Services Client (MSTSC) is the formal name of the Remote Desktop Connection utility.

2-63. Which of these would best describe WiFi calling? A. Make calls over a wireless network using a mobile phone B. Use Skype to make traditional phone calls C. Enable VoIP protocols in your Internet router D. Connect a traditional phone to a WiFi network E. Add a VoIP phone to an existing Ethernet network

A. Make calls over a wireless network using a mobile phone WiFi calling is a feature that allows mobile phones to make phone calls over a WiFi network. This is a useful feature when outside of your calling area or where the traditional mobile wireless signals are not optimal.

1-154. Which of these would you find in Windows Task Manager? A. Memory utilization by application B. A list of disabled hardware devices C. A log of application errors D. A schedule of tasks to be executed at a predefined time

A. Memory utilization by application The Task Manager is a great source of real-time information of system performance, including CPU, memory, disk access, and much more.

2-93. Which Mac OS feature displays all running applications into a single zoomed-out view on the desktop? A. Mission Control B. Spaces C. Spotlight D. Iconify E. Finder

A. Mission Control The Mission Control feature in Mac OS can be activated with the Mission Control hotkey or by pressing the Mission Control icon in the Apple Dock. The Spaces feature is used to create multiple independent desktop views.

2-84. Which of these technologies provides a virtual machine with a shared IP address? A. NAT B. Bridging C. Load balancing D. Spanning tree E. Routing

A. NAT When configuring a shared IP address between a physical host and a virtual machine, network address translation (NAT) is used to convert the shared IP address to a private address used by the virtual machine.

1-109. What two file systems are common options when installing Windows? Pick two. A. NTFS B. FAT32 C. CDFS D. HFS+

A. NTFS and B. FAT32 The Windows operating system works best with NTFS, but FAT32 is another option during the installation process.

4-7. Your tablet computer is showing a black screen and is not responding to any input. You've pushed buttons and tapped the screen, but nothing gets a response. Which of these would be the best next troubleshooting step? A. Perform a hard reset B. Upgrade the device operating system C. Close some apps to free up memory D. Perform a password recovery E. Move closer to an access point

A. Perform a hard reset If a mobile device hangs, you may not be able to wake it from standby mode. To determine if the problem is software related, you can try performing a hard reset. If nothing happens after a hard reset, you can try connecting the device to power and checking the hardware.

3-7. What term best describes the fraudulent gathering of sensitive information through look-alike web pages? A. Phishing B. Adware C. Spam D. Trojan

A. Phishing The bad guys have gotten very good at creating web pages that look exactly like your bank web site, and unfortunately they have gotten really good at tricking people into typing in their personal information. The incorrect answers: B) Adware Adware is malicious code that sneaks onto your computer for the purpose of showing advertising. C) Spam Spam has many definitions, but it's always delivered through email and it's almost always unwanted. Fortunately, spam isn't necessarily responsible for sending private information to the bad guys. D) Trojan A Trojan is a program that pretends to be one thing but is actually something else (usually something more sinister). This often arrives as an attachment in spam and is usually has a filename that looks fun or interesting.

4-64. During Windows startup, how can you launch the Advanced Boot Options? A. Press the F8 key during startup B. Change your BIOS configuration C. Install the latest Windows Service Pack D. Login as Administrator and launch the Control Panel

A. Press the F8 key during startup If you hold down the F8 key while the operating system starts, you'll be presented with the Advanced Boot Options. These allow you to start Windows with a particular configuration, repair your computer, and much more.

3-56. You have applied some read-only NTFS permissions to an important folder containing spreadsheets, and you've applied it to all users. However, a member of the accounting department connects across the network and has share permissions that allow writing to the folder. What type of access to the spreadsheet would the accounting department user ultimately have? A. Read only B. Write only C. Read and write D. No access

A. Read only When examining different NTFS and share rights, the most restrictive right always wins when a conflict occurs.

2-29. Which of these would best describe the concept of using one large set of computing resources in one geographic location? A. Resource pooling B. High availability C. Caching D. Link aggregation E. Redundancy

A. Resource pooling One significant advantage of cloud computing is the ability to scale applications very quickly. To accomplish this, resources (CPU, storage, etc.) must be pooled together and made available for use by the applications. Since these resources require high very throughput rates, it's useful to pool all of the resources together in the same location.

2-73. You need to update the operating system and apps on your Linux machine. Which of these would be the best way to accomplish this? A. Run apt-get B. Check the App Store for updates C. Run Linux Update D. Check the Linux repository and application web pages for any updates E. Run update scripts from the original Linux installation media

A. Run apt-get Many Linux distributions use apt-get (Advanced Packaging Tool) to install and update the operating system and applications.

2-55. Which of the following protocols are used to send mail from a mobile device? A. SMTP B. POP3 C. S/MIME D. IMAP E. FTP

A. SMTP SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used to send mail from a client device to a mail server. SMTP is commonly used on mobile devices, desktops, and any other device that send email messages.

3-22. What security feature keeps mobile apps from accessing your private information? A. Sandbox B. VPN C. On-device encryption D. Anti-virus E. Mobile device manager

A. Sandbox On a mobile device, all applications run in a "sandbox," which limits the access of the application to the other portions of your mobile device. If an application needs access to resources such as your contact list, it must explicitly ask you for that permission.

2-74. Which of these data types would not commonly be synchronized between a mobile device and a standalone computer? A. Security PIN B. Contacts C. Calendar events D. eBooks E. Location data F. Social media data

A. Security PIN The data in a mobile device is often synchronized to a standalone computer. This might include email messages, contact list, calendar information, reminders, photos, and more. Screen lock credentials are not commonly synchronized.

1-107. Which of the following would be the best way to view the available space on a storage device? A. Select the drive properties from Windows Explorer B. Save a file from any Windows application C. Use the DISKPART command D. View the drive information from the system BIOS E. Perform a defragmentation on the storage drive

A. Select the drive properties from Windows Explorer Windows Explorer is the primary file manager for the Windows operating system, and viewing the properties of a storage device can provide you with information and tools for that drive.

3-90. Which of the following would be commonly associated with shoulder surfing? A. Someone watches you use your credit card number at a coffee shop B. You spoof the IP address of a router to intercept Internet communications C. The most common set of possible passwords is attempted D. A web page looks like your bank login, but it's actually an untrusted server E. Malicious software installs itself invisibly into your operating system kernel

A. Someone watches you use your credit card number at a coffee shop Shoulder surfing is a relatively low-tech form of surveillance because it's as easy as watching the screen of someone else's computer.

1-202. Which of these would be the best choice for booting your system into a minimal safe mode? A. System Configuration B. Device Manager C. Startup Manager D. Performance Monitor E. Windows Services

A. System Configuration The Windows System Configuration utility can provide many options for system startup, including a minimal safe mode, a base video boot configuration, options for the boot log, and much more.

1-254. Which of these would be the best choice for examining real-time system statistics, such as CPU utilization and memory usage? A. Task Manager B. Event Viewer C. Windows Services D. Task Scheduler

A. Task Manager The Windows Task Manager can provide you with detailed information about many system resources in realtime, either as a total or by application.

1-178. One of your customers has a set of reports that needs to be generated on the 15th of every month. Which of these Windows utilities would allow the automation of this report generation? A. Task Scheduler B. Task Panel C. Task Manager D. Task Connection

A. Task Scheduler The Windows Task Scheduler allows you to run programs automatically at a predetermined time. You can perform application updates, automated file transfers, or specialized applications that compile and generate reports.

1-111. Which of these utilities would you expect to find in the default Windows Computer Management console? A. Task scheduler B. Windows Easy Transfer C. Print Management D. Windows Firewall

A. Task scheduler The default Computer Management console consists of Task Scheduler, Event Viewer, Shared Folders, Local Users and Groups, Performance, Device Manager, Disk Management, Services, and WMI Control.

1-236. You are using Windows Vista to share a printer that is directly connected to your computer. However, other people on the network are not able to print to your printer. You can print normally to your local printer and to other printers on the network. Which of these would be the most likely issue? A. The Windows Firewall is enabled B. Your anti-virus program is enabled C. Your anti-spyware program is enabled D. Your IP addressing is incorrect

A. The Windows Firewall is enabled Windows Firewall is a great built-in personal firewall, but it can sometimes cause problems when devices on the network need to access resources on your computer.

3-30. What would you commonly expect if too many invalid login attempts are made to Windows Domain credentials? A. The account will be administratively locked B. The login device will be blocked from making any additional login attempts C. The account will be automatically deleted D. A message will be sent to the system administrator E. The device that's authenticating will automatically shut down

A. The account will be administratively locked Most operating systems will react to multiple invalid login attempts by locking the account to prevent any potential logins. The account will need to be administratively unlocked before a legitimate login can occur.

4-76. Which of the following would not indicate a problem with a website's certificate? A. The certificate may be close to the expiration date B. The certificate may be using a different domain name C. The certificate may not be properly signed D. The website host name is different than the host name on the certificate

A. The certificate may be close to the expiration date Although it's important to keep your certificates up to date, your browser won't show any problems with the certificate until you're past the expiration date.

3-87. What happens if the failed passcode lock attempt security option is activated in Apple iOS? A. The device erases itself after 10 failed attempt B. The passcode will randomly change after every 10 attempts C. The device locks and requires a Google login D. An email will be sent to the device owner after 10 failed attempts E. The device locks and an email is sent to the owner of the device

A. The device erases itself after 10 failed attempt If you have configured an iOS device with the "Erase Data" passcode lock option, all data will be deleted after 10 failed passcode attempts.

4-37. What is a hard reset on a mobile device? A. The device is completely powered down and the operating system is restarted B. All apps are removed and reinstalled C. The device is powered down and memory is preserved D. The mobile operating system is reinstalled E. The mobile device apps and data are reloaded from the cloud

A. The device is completely powered down and the operating system is restarted A hard reset is the last resort for many mobile device issues because it completely powers down and restarts the device. In iOS, you perform a hard reset by holding the power button and the home button simultaneously for 10 seconds. For Android devices, there are various combinations of power, home, and volume buttons that will provide a hard reset.

1-213. Which of these is a characteristic of a stateful firewall? A. The firewall keeps track of the state of each traffic flow and only allows traffic that matches an existing connection B. The firewall relies on static rules to determine the state of incoming traffic C. The firewall identifies potential attackers and their attack vectors D. The firewall understands and provides access based on the state of the remote device

A. The firewall keeps track of the state of each traffic flow and only allows traffic that matches an existing connection All modern firewalls use state to help provide a secure environment. Since the firewall knows which conversations are appropriate to allow through the firewall based on past traffic patterns (the "state"), out-oforder traffic from unknown systems are dropped. Most firewalls include a ruleset that helps to determine the type of traffic that should pass, but the ruleset is a different set of requirements that goes beyond state. Stateful inspection occurs regardless of any firewall rules. Intrusion prevention features are common to see on advanced network security devices. Stateful firewall inspection occurs separately from these intrusion prevention capabilities. The state of the remote device (whatever that is) is irrelevant to a stateful firewall's ability to allow and restrict network access.

4-8. While browsing the Internet, you see a pop-up message that says your computer is infected with over 100 viruses. Which of these would be the most likely cause of this message? A. The message is a hoax B. The web server is infected with a virus C. While browsing the site, your computer was infected D. Your computer was infected with over 100 viruses before visiting the website

A. The message is a hoax It's unlikely that a single website would infect your computer with over 100 viruses, and even more unlikely that it would be able to scan your system and tell you this without your knowledge. In these cases, it's most likely that this is a hoax message that's trying to trick you into downloading and installing malware.

3-94. Which of the following is NOT true when determining NTFS vs. Share permissions? A. The most permissive setting wins B. Share permissions only apply to connections over the network C. NTFS permissions apply to both local and network connections. D. Permissions are inherited from the parent object, unless the resource is moved to a different folder in the same volume

A. The most permissive setting wins When calculating permissions, the most restrictive setting always wins.

2-54. Which of these would best describe an embedded system? A. Timecard system B. Mail server C. IPS D. Web server E. Authentication server

A. Timecard system An embedded system does not commonly allow access to the operating system of the devices. Systems such as alarm systems, door security, and timecard systems are common examples of embedded systems.

4-5. In which of these situations would you be most likely to use Windows PE? A. Troubleshoot a Windows startup problem B. Install an updated video driver C. Migrate from one Windows version to another D. Defragment your hard drive

A. Troubleshoot a Windows startup problem The Windows Pre-installation Environment (PE) is a minimal Windows environment that's commonly used for troubleshooting and recovering from startup problems. Windows PE is also the environment you see when installing Windows Vista and Windows 7.

3-76. What type of security technology is commonly active when security token generators are used? A. Two-factor authentication B. Anti-malware C. Strong encryption D. Hashing

A. Two-factor authentication Two-factor authentication consists of at least two factors of something you know (a password), something you have (a token generator), and something you are (fingerprint or other biometric).

1-146. Which of the following criteria does the Windows Firewall use to allow or disallow network communication? Pick two. A. UDP port B. OS version C. Geographic location D. Application name

A. UDP port and D. Application name Since the Windows Firewall is a software-based personal firewall that runs on a workstation, it can use the application name as a filter along with the TCP or UDP port numbers in use.

2-31. Which of these physical connectors would you expect to find on a cable used to synchronize information to an Android device? Pick two. A. USB Standard Type A B. USB Micro-B C. Lightning D. 30-pin E. Thunderbolt

A. USB Standard Type A and B. USB Micro-B Android devices tend to use the common USB interfaces. The USB Standard Type A is the interface that connects to the PC, and the smaller USB Micro-B interface is the connector on the mobile device.

1-191. A customer has accidentally deleted some operating system files from the root of his hard drive, and he's brought the system to you. The system will not boot. Which of the following would be the best way to investigate the extent of the damage? A. Use the Windows Recovery Command Prompt B. Launch Safe Mode C. Use "Last Known Good Configuration" D. Use Automated System Recovery

A. Use the Windows Recovery Command Prompt The Windows Recovery Command Prompt allows you to boot the system into shell, allowing you to list files on the hard drive, rename files, start and stop services, and copy replacement operating system files from external installation media.

1-238. Which of these does Windows HomeGroup allow you to share? Pick two. A. Vacation photos B. Monthly operating system updates C. Firewall settings D. Classical music library E. User account settings

A. Vacation photos and D. Classical music library Windows HomeGroup can be configured to automatically share pictures, music, videos, documents, and printers.

1-160. In which of these cases would you be most likely to use Windows Performance Monitor? A. View a 24-hour graph of drive read and write statistics B. Identify which application is using the most CPU utilization C. Restart the print spooler D. Change the list of applications that launch during startup E. View your hard drive S.M. A.R.T. information

A. View a 24-hour graph of drive read and write statistics Windows Performance Monitor can be used to view a number of real-time performance statistics, and all of these metrics can be captured to a file for long-term analysis.

1-201. Which of these functions would commonly be performed from the Computer Management console? A. View the events that occurred on the last system boot B. Repair a volume boot record C. Add a BIOS startup password D. Configure DHCP settings E. Check the Windows operating system for corrupted files

A. View the events that occurred on the last system boot The Computer Management console includes a number of built-in plugins for Events, User accounts, Storage management, Services, and more.

1-174. You need to upgrade your Windows Vista Business workstation to Windows 7. Which of these Windows 7 editions would be valid upgrade paths? Pick two. A. Windows 7 Ultimate B. Windows 7 Business C. Windows 7 Professional D. Windows 7 Home Premium

A. Windows 7 Ultimate and C. Windows 7 Professional You can perform an in-place upgrade from Windows Vista Business to the Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise versions of Windows 7.

1-227. Your organization has upgraded one of your older Windows XP systems to Windows 8.1, but you've found that an important application no longer works properly in the new operating system. Which of the following Windows 8.1 features might help you resolve this issue? A. Windows Compatibility Mode B. Windows Version Detection C. MSCONFIG D. Task Manager

A. Windows Compatibility Mode Windows Compatibility Mode allows you to configure applications to run as if they were using an earlier operating system.

1-179. One of your clients has deleted a critical system file from the Windows boot partition, and now the operating system won't start. Which of these options provides you with the best method to replace the files? A. Windows Recovery Environment B. Safe Mode C. Automated System Recovery D. Last Known Good Configuration

A. Windows Recovery Environment The Windows Recovery Environment and command prompt starts from the installation media, so you don't have to worry about booting the system normally. After launching the console, you can copy files, change configurations, modify services, and much more.

4-13. In which of these situations would best apply to using Windows Safe Mode? Choose two. A. You want to start the computer to a command prompt without the Windows Explorer desktop B. You need to rebuild the MBR C. You want to start the computer with only the necessary drivers to get started D. You need to load the last known good configuration E. You need to update the BIOS

A. You want to start the computer to a command prompt without the Windows Explorer desktop and C. You want to start the computer with only the necessary drivers to get started Windows Safe Mode can provide you with a simplified version of the Windows operating system, and perhaps even a command line-only version of the OS. You would normally use Safe Mode to solve operating system issues.

1-223. Which of these are commonly seen when the speed and duplex is mismatched on an Ethernet link? Pick two. A. You'll have poor throughput B. Only half of the data will be received C. You won't see a link light D. File transfers will randomly be corrupted E. Some web sites will be accessible and others will not

A. You'll have poor throughput and C. You won't see a link light If a link has mismatched duplex, you'll see low throughput when you transfer information between devices. If the speed is mismatched, the link will not become active.

1-271. One of your customers would like to have their Windows 8.1 user documents backed up onto an external hard drive. Where would you find the customer's documents? A. \Users B. \Windows C. \My Documents D. \Documents and Settings

A. \Users In Windows Vista, 7, and 8/8.1, all of the user directories and files are located in the \Users directory. Next

1-255. What is the default directory for user files in Windows Vista? A. \Users B. \Documents and Settings C. \My Documents D. \User Files

A. \Users In Windows Vista, you can find all of the user files underneath the \Users directory.

1-137. What utility can correct file system integrity problems? A. chkdsk B. defrag C. format D. msconfig

A. chkdsk The chkdsk program can identify and fix issues related to file system problems and physical disk errors.

2-39. You need to configure a Linux file attribute to be read-only. Which of the following commands would be the best choice? A. chmod B. attrib C. filemod D. chown E. filemod

A. chmod The chmod (change mode) command is used to modify the mode of a file system object. These modes can be used to configure a file as read-only, write access, execute access, and more.

1-138. Which of these command lines will copy a file and overwrite any destination files with the same name, without any message or warning? A. copy /y temp.doc \temp B. copy /v temp.doc \temp C. copy temp.doc \temp /ignore D. xcopy temp.doc \temp

A. copy /y temp.doc \temp The copy command uses the /y flag to suppress the normal prompts that occur when you overwrite an existing destination file.

1-195. Which Windows command line utility provides you with an easy method of modifying the applications that load during startup? A. msconfig B. msinfo32 C. dxdiag D. regedit

A. msconfig Msconfig provides an easy to use graphical management screen for enabling or disabling the applications that start when logging into Windows.

3-38. Which of these commands is used to view Windows shared resources on the local computer? A. net share B. net use C. net resource D. net folder E. net cache

A. net share The "net share" command can be used at the command prompt to view all shared resources on the local device. You can also view this in the GUI from Computer Management / Shared Folders.

2-99. Which of these Linux commands can be used to change your password? A. passwd B. ps C. mv D. pwd E. chown

A. passwd The passwd command is used to change the password associated with a Linux account.

1-168. Which of the following would be the best way to shutdown a Windows computer after a 60-second delay? A. shutdown /s /t 60 B. halt /s /t 60 C. restart /s /t 60 D. reboot /in 60 E. power /s /t 60

A. shutdown /s /t 60 The Windows shutdown command is used to turn off or restart the computer at the command line. The /s option will turn off the computer, and the /t option is used to specify the shutdown delay in seconds. Replacing the /s option with the /r option will restart the computer instead of shutting it down completely.

2-30. Which of the following utilities are commonly used to backup information in Linux? Pick two. A. tar B. yum C. rsync D. filer E. apt-get F. ps

A. tar and C. rsync The Linux tar (tape archive) and rsync utilities are commonly used to perform data backups in the Linux operating system.

1-164. What is the minimum amount of graphics card memory required for Aero? A. 64 MB B. 128 MB C. 256 MB D. 512 MB

B. 128 MB The video requirements for Aero are relatively common with today's graphics cards. Although you'll need a 1 GHz processor and 1 GB of system RAM to use Aero, the video adapter needs 128 MB of it's own video memory.

1-102. How much graphics memory is required to install Windows Vista Business? A. 32 MB B. 128 MB C. 512 MB D. 1 GB

B. 128 MB Windows Vista's graphical features require a graphics adapter with the proper amount of memory. For Vista Home Premium, Ultimate, Business, and Enterprise, your video card needs at least 128 MB of graphics RAM.

1-10. You are planning on installing multiple bootable operating systems on a single storage drive. What is the maximum number of primary partitions on an MBR-partitioned drive? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 16

B. 4 A drive with an MBR partition style can have a maximum of 4 primary partitions.

1-232. Which of the following would meet the minimum requirements for Windows Vista? A. 16 GB free hard drive B. 512 MB of RAM C. CGA graphics adapter D. 700 MHz processor

B. 512 MB of RAM The minimum Windows Vista requirements are an 800 MHz CPU, 512 MB of RAM, 20 GB of free disk space, and a VGA graphics adapter.

3-48. Which of these would best describe a biometric access mechanism? Pick two. A. The outline of a door key B. A fingerprint C. A four digit PIN D. Voice recognition E. A physical access card F. A pseudo-random token generator

B. A fingerprint and D. Voice recognition A biometric is a way to authenticate that relies on a person's physical characteristics. In these examples, only the fingerprint and voice would be a biological mechanism.

1-251. Which of the following would best describe virtual memory? A. Memory that is only used in virtual machines B. A section of the hard drive that behaves similar to physical memory C. Memory that is not seen by the operating system D. Memory that does not contain executable programs

B. A section of the hard drive that behaves similar to physical memory Virtual memory in Windows is commonly used when physical memory is at a premium. Applications and libraries that are running but not in use can be paged out to space on the hard drive. When the application is active again, the data is moved from virtual memory on the drive into physical RAM.

4-69. Which of the following would best describe the use of an LVM snapshot? A. The memory contents of a computer can be modified between reboots B. A set of files can be restored from a previous version C. A cluster of servers can maintain the same set of files D. Multiple firewalls can be used in a high-availability configuration E. A duplicate of all traffic is sent through multiple "snapshot" network adapters

B. A set of files can be restored from a previous version A Linux LVM (Logical Volume Manager) snapshot is similar to the feature of Windows System Restore, where files or folders can be reverted to a previous version or point in time.

3-98. Which of these best describes a zero-day threat? A. A vulnerability is stopped by the IPS when new signatures are installed B. A vulnerability is exploited before a security notice is published C. An attack has been unable to infect any remote devices D. A patch for a vulnerability has been distributed on the same day as the vulnerability announcement E. An exploit has been identified for a vulnerability that was patched two weeks ago

B. A vulnerability is exploited before a security notice is published A zero-day vulnerability is one that is exploited before anyone can react to the vulnerability. We would normally install patches, configure IPS signatures, or use firewall rules to stop any known vulnerability, but a zero-day attack is one that occurs before any of those mitigation techniques have been taken.

4-39. Why would you disable System Protection prior to attempting a malware removal? A. The anti-malware scan runs faster with System Protection disabled B. Additional restore points containing malware would not be created C. Disabling System Protection allows the malware to run, allowing easy identification D. You would replace System Protection functionality with a 3rd-party product

B. Additional restore points containing malware would not be created When you make a significant change, System Protection creates a restore point. Although this would normally be a good thing, you don't want to save any restore points that might save the malware. You should also delete all previous restore points as well.

1-231. You've been asked to upgrade a user's workstation from Windows Vista to Windows 7 with a clean install. What does this mean? A. All files remain in place during the upgrade and a clean desktop is provided on the upgraded system B. All data is wiped from the drive and a new version of the operating system is installed C. All user-installed applications must be removed before the upgrade D. The existing registry must be cleaned before the upgrade

B. All data is wiped from the drive and a new version of the operating system is installed A clean installation usually involves backing up all existing data and wiping the computer storage clean before installing a fresh version of the operating system. This ensures that any old registry information or conflicting data does not follow the upgrade. This also requires that all necessary applications are installed separately after the operating system installation.

4-70. You're playing music on your mobile device, but the audio keeps stopping and you have to restart the song. Which of these would be the most likely reason for this issue? A. The music app is faulty B. Another app is conflicting with the audio player C. The device memory is faulty D. The operating system is not configured for audio output E. The device speakers are faulty

B. Another app is conflicting with the audio player If your speakers or headphones are working but the song keeps stopping, then there's probably another app that's conflicting with the audio output process. It may be necessary to keep the music player in the foreground to avoid any additional conflicts.

1-186. Which of these would be commonly associated with a Windows service? A. Media player B. Anti-virus scanner C. Downloading a file from a browser D. Multiplayer network-based game E. Word processor

B. Anti-virus scanner A Windows service is an application that runs in the background and does not require any user intervention. Common services include the print spooler, file indexing, and the system anti-virus scanner.

1-269. Which of the following features would you find exclusively in Windows 8.1 Enterprise? Pick two. A. BitLocker B. AppLocker C. BranchCache D. Windows Media Player E. Domain Membership

B. AppLocker and C. BranchCache Both AppLocker and BranchCache are features that are only found in Windows 8.1 Enterprise. Domain membership and BitLocker can be found in both Windows 8.1 Pro and 8.1 Enterprise, and Windows Media Player is included in the Enterprise, Pro, and the core editions of Windows 8.1.

2-35. What kind of device uses an 8-pin Lightning connection as a wired synchronization connection? A. Samsung Galaxy B. Apple iPhone C. Amazon Kindle reader D. Microsoft Windows Phone E. Google Nexus

B. Apple iPhone Apple uses a proprietary 8-pin USB connection to provide physical connectivity for iOS device synchronization.

4-54. Which of the following would you expect to find in the Windows Registry? A. Login credentials B. Application configurations C. BIOS settings D. Hardware inventory E. Master Boot Record

B. Application configurations The Windows Registry contains detailed system information, driver details, operating system and application configurations, and more.

3-95. How often should operating system patches be deployed? A. Once a month B. As soon as they are available C. After the release of a consolidated service pack D. Once a week E. There's no ongoing requirement to patch the operating system

B. As soon as they are available Operating system patches often include security updates, so it's important to test and deploy any updates as soon as possible.

1-155. Which of these would be a benefit of using VSS? Pick two. A. Faster storage read and write times B. Backup Windows volumes while the OS is running C. Better network response time D. More efficient memory use for multimedia applications E. Real-time access to previous document versions

B. Backup Windows volumes while the OS is running and E. Real-time access to previous document versions Volume Snapshot Service, also called Volume Shadow Copy, is used to copy and backup files while the operating system is running and the files are in use. It also provides the "Previous Versions" feature in some versions of Windows Vista and all editions of Windows 7.

2-6. Which of these network types would you expect to find on an iOS or Android mobile device? Pick two. A. Gigabit Ethernet B. Bluetooth C. irDA D. DSL E. WiFi

B. Bluetooth and E. WiFi Mobile devices focus on communication over wireless networks, including WiFi and Bluetooth technologies.

3-58. Which of these best describes a rootkit? A. Replicates itself without any human intervention B. Can be invisible to the operating system C. Tricks the user into providing private information D. Controlled from a central network source E. Encrypts drive contents and requires payment to decrypt

B. Can be invisible to the operating system Rootkits are unique in their invisibility, and it's difficult to find and remove a rootkit because of its stealth-like nature.

1-221. You often use the separate management utilities available under Administrative Tools, but you'd like to use a centralized management view rather than individual icons. Where would you find a consolidated point for most operating system administrative management functions? A. Control Panel B. Computer Management C. Start Menu D. System Tray

B. Computer Management The Microsoft Management Console is a modular workspace that allows you to modularly add or remove administrative components. The Computer Management workspace consolidates System Tools, Storage, and Services and Applications into the Microsoft Management Console.

4-16. Which of these would be most associated with a botnet infestation? A. System will not boot B. Computer sending email spam messages C. Personal data files are deleted D. Video resolution is changed

B. Computer sending email spam messages A botnet doesn't want to remove your data or leave your computer unusable, since they need your working PC to participate in distributed denial of service attacks (DDoS) and email spamming.

4-48. Which of the following would be the best way to scan your Windows computer for viruses every day? A. Remember to scan after the first login of the day B. Configure a scan task in Task Scheduler C. Set a Group Policy to scan the system D. View the logs in Event Viewer to determine the date and time of the last scan E. Replace the standard shell with PowerShell

B. Configure a scan task in Task Scheduler The Windows Task Scheduler allows you to automate nearly every aspect of your operating system, and it's very common to configure daily jobs to perform virus and malware scans.

2-79. Which of the following would be the best way to manage all login credentials from a centralized location? A. Use the NTFS file system on all volumes B. Configure an authentication server C. Require a proxy server between the users and network resources D. Use both passwords and a pseudo-random number code during login E. Use a single operating system across all devices

B. Configure an authentication server Many organizations use a centralized authentication server to simply the management and ongoing maintenance of their user credentials.

3-97. Which one of these would be the most likely to require a UAC escalation? A. Burning a DVD B. Configuring Remote Desktop C. Using the network D. Changing your password

B. Configuring Remote Desktop User Account Control (UAC) is a security feature that allows normal use of the computer but restricts any functionality that might be a security concern. It also sometimes requires a lot of clicking.

3-60. Which of the following would be the best way to protect a laptop from physical theft when outside of the office? A. Require a secondary factor of user authentication B. Connect the laptop to a cable lock C. Make sure all operating system patches are installed D. Use a VPN on all external networks E. Keep your anti-virus signatures updated

B. Connect the laptop to a cable lock Most laptops include a reinforced locking notch for securely attaching a cable lock. These locks are attached to a metal cable and can be wrapped around a table or piece of furniture.

2-90. Which of the following would be the best way to share personal documents across multiple Mac OS and iOS systems? A. Synchronize all devices to a single computer B. Connect to iCloud in all of the operating systems C. Use OneDrive to synchronize all files D. Perform periodic backups of all devices E. Use the Apple App Store to manage all applications

B. Connect to iCloud in all of the operating systems iCloud is the best way to automatically share documents, pictures, music, and more across multiple iOS and Mac OS devices.

1-196. Which of these would be the best choice for configuring the Windows indexing options? A. Windows Firewall B. Control Panel / Folder Options C. Disk Management D. Control Panel / System E. Control Panel / Internet Options

B. Control Panel / Folder Options The Folder Options can help you customize exactly what content and file types will be indexed and searchable by the operating system.

1-192. You're running a legacy application in Windows 7 that needs access to the registry, and this access causes the User Account Control Secure Desktop prompt to appear. Unfortunately, the application doesn't operate properly when the UAC messages appear. Which of these would be a method of modifying an individual user's UAC configuration? A. Control Panel / User Account Control B. Control Panel / User Accounts C. Control Panel / Administrative Tools / Computer Management D. Control Panel / Administrative Tools / User Account Control

B. Control Panel / User Accounts The User Accounts section contains a useful option to "Change User Account Control settings." With elevated rights, you can use a slider to configure UAC to "Always notify," "Never notify," or two options in-between. You can also make changes to the UAC through Group Policy.

3-80. Which of these would best describe the effect a degausser would have on a hard drive? A. Remove all encrypted files B. Delete all data and render the drive unusable C. Delete all duplicate files D. Delete all data and prepare the drive for a fresh OS install E. Delete data in unused drive sectors

B. Delete all data and render the drive unusable Degaussing a hard drive deletes both the data and the underlying code required to operate the drive. A degaussed hard drive would be completely unusable afterwards.

4-36. You've discovered that one of your computers at work has been infected with malware. Which of these options would provide the most effective removal of the spyware? A. Use a third-party malware remover B. Delete everything on the drive perform a clean install C. Restore the computer to a previously saved restore point D. Use a hammer and chisel. Use care around the memory modules

B. Delete everything on the drive perform a clean install Although many removal tools can do a good job of removing many malware types, the only way to be absolutely sure the malware is removed is to delete the entire drive and reload it from scratch or an external backup.

1-198. You are trying to use a new webcam by plugging it into your USB port, but your new webcam software doesn't find any cameras connected to your computer. Which of these Windows utilities would be the best source of information about your new webcam? A. Control Panel / System B. Device Manager C. Disk Manager D. msconfig

B. Device Manager The Windows Device Manager is a central facility for all of your devices. The Device Manager can provide information on device status, driver versions, resource usage, and other information.

2-46. You need to erase and reformat a used USB flash drive. Which of these Mac OS utilities would be the best choice for this task? A. Storage Control B. Disk Utility C. USB Tools D. System Information E. Drive Center

B. Disk Utility The Mac OS Disk Utility can be used to verify and fix file systems, erase disks, modify partition details, manage RAID arrays, restore a disk image to a volume, and more.

5-4. What is the last step when performing any system troubleshooting? A. Establish a plan of action B. Document your findings C. Verify full system functionality D. Identify the problem E. Test the theory

B. Document your findings Perhaps the most important step of any system troubleshooting process is the documentation of your findings. Having a written record of your issues and the resolution will be very valuable later!

4-62. At what point is the "Last Known Good Configuration" updated to the current configuration? A. Five minutes after boot B. During the next login C. During the next System Restore checkpoint D. During the next logoff E. After all services have loaded

B. During the next login The settings for the Last Known Good Configuration are updated after login. If you've made a significant change to the Windows operating system, you might want to wait at the login prompt until all of the services and drivers have completely loaded.

1-144. Where is user information stored in a Windows Workgroup? A. On the master Active Directory server B. Each computer maintains unique user information C. In an LDAP database D. A portion of the master Workgroup database is maintained on each computer

B. Each computer maintains unique user information Windows Workgroup authentication is completely decentralized. There's no master database, and the information isn't shared between devices. Each computer has a unique database of usernames and passwords, which means that your authentication credentials on one computer may be completely different on another computer in the same Workgroup.

5-17. Which of these should not be used with an electrical fire? A. FM-200 B. Foam C. Carbon dioxide D. Dry chemical

B. Foam You should avoid using water or foam when battling an electrical fire.

2-100. Which of the following would be considered open-source? A. Windows Mobile B. Google Android C. Apple Mac OS D. Windows 8.1 E. Apple iOS

B. Google Android Android is an open-source operating system based on Linux.

3-43. Which of these would you expect to find in a user's account profile? A. Smart card information B. Group memberships C. Password hash D. PIN code

B. Group memberships An account profile contains information about the user, and generally does not include account credentials or security identifiers.

2-50. What mobile device component detects pitch, roll, and yaw of the device? A. Capacitive touchscreen B. Gyroscope C. Accelerometer D. Stylus E. Global positioning system receiver

B. Gyroscope Gyroscopes provide a way to have multi-axis motion sensing on our mobile devices.

3-41. Which of these would be an authentication factor that is something you have? Pick two. A. Password B. Hardware Token C. User Name D. Answer to a security question E. Smart Card

B. Hardware Token and E. Smart Card A security factor of "something you have" would be a physical device such as a smart card, USB token, or an SMS message on your phone.

2-76. Which of these protocols are used when retrieving email from a commercial email provider such as Google Mail or Outlook.com? A. FTP B. IMAP C. SNMP D. MAILPOP E. SMTP

B. IMAP IMAP is a common protocol for retrieving email messages, and the IMAP protocol is supported by Google Mail, Yahoo Mail, Outlook.com, and iCloud Mail.

2-52. What mobile identifier is associated with a user on a mobile network and can be moved between phones? A. PRL B. IMSI C. PRI D. NPA E. IMEI

B. IMSI The IMSI (International Mobile Subscriber Identity) is used to associate a mobile account with a device. You can use the SIM card to move the IMSI from one device to another.

3-51. Which of these would be the best description of social engineering? A. Guessing a password based on the most common options B. Impersonating a help desk technician over the phone C. Installing malware that is invisible to the operating system D. Malware that self-replicates between computers E. Viewing another user's computer screen from a distance

B. Impersonating a help desk technician over the phone Social engineering manipulates people to circumvent security controls. One common method of social engineering is impersonating a trusted authority to gain access to information.

1-180. You're installing a new adapter card, and you have a device driver CD that was shipped with the adapter card. When you visit the adapter card web site, you find a newer driver has been released. What is the best way to proceed? A. Install the driver that shipped with the card B. Install the driver from the web site C. Install the driver from the web site, then the one that shipped with the adapter card D. Don't install any drivers manually; Windows will install the drivers automatically

B. Install the driver from the web site In almost every case, installing the latest and greatest drivers from the manufacturer's web site is the best set of drivers to install. Newer drivers have bug fixes and may include new features, so it's always most appropriate to install the latest versions.

3-79. Which of the following would be the best reason not to use WPS on your wireless router? A. The WPS process contains a cryptographic vulnerability B. It's easy to brute force the WPS PIN C. WPS is only available for Windows devices D. The WPS process is too complex for most people E. WPS only protects outgoing traffic

B. It's easy to brute force the WPS PIN The WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup) feature on many wireless routers was designed to provide an easy way for other devices to connect to a secure network. Unfortunately, it's very easy to brute force the WPS PIN to gain unauthorized access to a WPS-enabled network.

2-13. Which of the following is used in Mac OS to securely store passwords, certificates, and notes? A. Password Manager B. Keychain C. Certificate Storage D. Digital Safe E. Lockbox

B. Keychain The Mac OS Keychain is used to store encrypted versions of your most important information.

3-34. What does autorun do? A. Starts the operating system from the boot loader B. Launches a program when a removable storage devices is connected C. Automatically loads previously closed tabs when a browser is started D. Starts the cooling fan when the internal temperature reaches a threshold

B. Launches a program when a removable storage devices is connected Autorun in Windows XP and Windows Vista was found to be a significant security issue. The feature has been disabled in Windows 7 and later.

1-101. Which Windows utility can give you information about the make, model, and version of your BIOS? A. Event Viewer B. MSINFO32 C. Task Manager D. BIOSINFO

B. MSINFO32 Microsoft's System Information utility can give you a lot of information about your computer, including details about your BIOS manufacturer and version number.

2-71. Which of the following describes the process of closely tracking costs and utilization metrics? A. Cost accounting B. Measured service C. Budgeting D. SaaS E. Quality of service

B. Measured service A measured service is tracked and billed based on a granular set of criteria. For example, a cloud-based measured service might bill customers based on total usage, CPU activity, and network bandwidth.

3-92. Which of the following is required to enable full device encryption in the Windows Phone OS? A. NTFS B. Microsoft Exchange C. BitLocker D. TPM E. EFS

B. Microsoft Exchange Microsoft supports full device encryption when the Windows Phone is used with Microsoft Exchange.

3-77. Which of these would be best practices for creating complex passwords? Pick two. A. Use single words B. Mix upper and lower case C. Use special characters D. Use 7 characters or fewer E. Use something you can remember, i.e., child or pet name

B. Mix upper and lower case and C. Use special characters The best passwords are longer than 8 characters and use letters, numbers, and special characters.

2-102. What type of laptop communication interface allows you to communicate to the Internet from nearly any remote location? A. WiFi B. Mobile broadband C. Bluetooth D. Ethernet

B. Mobile broadband Mobile broadband devices integrate with a wireless provider's phone network, allowing you to connect anywhere your mobile phone works.

2-37. What would you expect to receive during a PRL update? A. A list of available 802.11 wireless networks B. Mobile device connectivity information C. Operating system security patches D. A list of available network printers E. Updated device drivers

B. Mobile device connectivity information A PRL (Preferred Roaming List) update is provided over CDMA networks to update radio bands, sub-bands, and service provider IDs. The PRL updates are usually provided over the air (OTA).

3-2. Which of these is most associated with the 802.1X standard? A. Ethernet topology B. Network Access Control C. Ethernet trunking D. Spanning Tree Protocol

B. Network Access Control 802.1X defines Network Access Control, which is a way to securely provide access to a network.

1-206. Your computer has 512 MB of RAM, 100 GB of free disk space, and a 1 GHz processor. Does your computer have the proper hardware requirements to run Windows Vista Business? A. Yes, the hardware will run Windows Vista B. No, you'll need more RAM C. No, you'll need more disk space D. No, you'll need a bigger processor

B. No, you'll need more RAM Windows Vista Business needs a minimum of 1 GB of RAM, so you'll get an error message if you try to install Windows Vista Business. All of the other hardware requirements meet or exceed the minimum requirements for Windows Vista Business.

3-78. Which of the following would not be true of a VPN concentrator? A. Includes specialized cryptographic software B. Only available as a hardware appliance C. Can often use built-in software on the end station D. Encrypts and decrypts all data traversing the concentrator

B. Only available as a hardware appliance VPN concentrators are commonly hardware appliances, but there are many software-based VPN solutions available.

2-94. Which of these would be the best choice for retrieving mail on a mobile device? Pick two. A. SMTP B. POP3 C. IMAP D. SNMP E. SMAIL

B. POP3 and C. IMAP The POP3 and IMAP protocols are used for retrieving and reading mail from a mail server. The SMTP protocol is used on a mobile device for sending (but not retrieving) emails.

1-266. Which of the following would be a common practice when using patch management? A. Patches and updates are installed immediately after release B. Patches are tested and then scheduled for deployment C. Operating system patches always take priority over application patches D. Minor patches are often skipped for efficiency E. Patches are commonly deployed during production hours

B. Patches are tested and then scheduled for deployment It's common to test, schedule, implement, and have a fallback plan when managing the deployment of patches and updates.

2-49. Which of these would be most associated with NFC? A. Receive emergency messages on your mobile device B. Pay for groceries with your phone C. Get assistance by talking to your phone D. Make phone calls over a WiFi connection E. Get turn-by-turn directions

B. Pay for groceries with your phone NFC (Near Field Communication) is commonly used to pay for goods with a mobile phone.

1-145. One of your Windows 7 computers has worked just fine for months, but it's now hanging just after the login screen. Over the last week, you've added a number of new applications, a new wireless keyboard, and a new external USB drive. Which of the following would be the best first step to recover from this problem? A. Wipe the drive and perform a clean install B. Perform a System Restore from either safe mode or from the Windows 7 installation media C. Restore the operating system and use files from a backup D. Use the Windows 7 installation media to perform an in-place installation over the existing Windows 7 installation

B. Perform a System Restore from either safe mode or from the Windows 7 installation media System Restore allows you to change your system configuration to one that existed at a previous point in time. Restore points are usually created every time a new driver or application is installed, so you probably have a previous configuration that will resolve your issue.

1-204. Which of the following would be the best way to ensure the recoverability of your data? A. Implement RAID 5 arrays in your server B. Perform scheduled backups C. Provide ongoing monitoring of S.M. A.R.T. statistics D. Enable dual-booting to different operating system versions E. Enable the Windows File History feature

B. Perform scheduled backups The best way to ensure that your data is always available is to always have a backup. Monitoring your storage devices and building RAID arrays is not a replacement for a creating a backup set of your data.

3-35. The theft of personal information is a widespread problem for network security professionals. What's the most common method for tricking a user into divulging their personal account details? A. Spam B. Phishing C. Social engineering D. Spyware E. Trojan horse

B. Phishing Although many of these methods can ultimately be used to steal private data, phishing is the most common method of obtaining this information. A phishing site often appears to look like a legitimate site, but the web pages are actually hosted by the bad guys. With this web page doppelganger in place, it's easy to fool people into freely giving their username, password, and other personal details.

2-40. What kind of server would use IPP? A. Web server B. Print server C. DHCP server D. Proxy server E. Mail server

B. Print server A print server would commonly use IPP, or the Internet Printing Protocol.

1-75. Which of these commands would you use to delete a folder from your hard drive? A. CD B. RD C. MD D. FD

B. RD The RD command stands for Remove Directory, and it can be used to quickly delete a subdirectory from the command line.

4-18. You've just installed a Linux configuration onto your Windows 8.1 computer for dual-booting, but now you find that the option to boot Windows is now missing. Which of the following would be the best troubleshooting step? A. Reinstall Windows B. Rebuild the BCD store C. Upgrade the BIOS to support multiple operating systems D. Check the cables on your storage drive E. Check the startup services from the recovery console

B. Rebuild the BCD store The BCD (Boot Configuration Data) store is used to define the location and parameters to start Windows. You can automatically rebuild the BCD, or you can edit the values yourself.

3-61. In Windows 7, which of these would delete all data from a hard drive so that the data was unrecoverable? A. DISKPART B. Regular format C. FDISK D. Quick format

B. Regular format Beginning with Windows Vista, a full or regular format in Windows will write zeros to the entire disk. This means that none of the data after a regular format would be recoverable. A quick format only overwrites the master file table, and many third-party recovery applications could potentially recover the data.

3-9. What would you commonly secure with BitLocker To Go? A. Windows system volumes B. Removable USB flash drives C. DVD-ROM volumes D. VPN connections E. Laptop storage drives

B. Removable USB flash drives BitLocker To Go is designed to provide the full-disk encryption capabilities of BitLocker to removable USB flash drives.

1-224. Which of the following would be a characteristic of a GUID partition? A. Limited to 4 GB file sizes B. Requires a UEFI BIOS C. Supports 256 primary partitions D. Can only be used on Windows Ultimate or Enterprise editions

B. Requires a UEFI BIOS A GUID partition style requires a UEFI BIOS and can have up to 128 primary partitions. Unlike an MBR partition style, the GUID partition style does not need extended partitions or logical drives.

1-270. A device driver upgrade has prevented your system from properly booting. Which of these methods would be the best recovery option? A. Start the recovery Command Prompt and run BOOTREC /FIXMBR B. Run System Restore from the Advanced Boot Options C. Run a Windows repair installation D. Change the BIOS to boot from the DVD-ROM drive E. Recover the operating system to factory defaults

B. Run System Restore from the Advanced Boot Options The System Restore utility can be launched by pressing F8 during the boot process and selecting the Advanced Boot Options. Once the utility launches, you can restore your configuration to a previous date and time.

1-215. One of your computers has been experiencing ongoing graphical problems with an application that displays very detailed electronics schematics. Which of these options would be your best next step to help resolve this issue? A. Reinstall Windows from scratch to remove any possible conflict B. Run dxdiag to check for any driver issues C. Use msconfig to disable every startup application D. Uninstall the application and install the previous version to check for differences

B. Run dxdiag to check for any driver issues When you run into a mystery, it's best to gather as much information as possible before making any changes. Even if you're really interested in making some big updates, it's best to do your testing prior to changing the fundamental configuration on a system.

4-10. Which of these would be the best way to prevent malicious software from executing in the local memory of a computer? A. Use a personal firewall B. Run real-time anti-virus software C. Connect to all Internet sites through a proxy D. Use an IPS on the corporate network E. Run all software in protected mode

B. Run real-time anti-virus software Local anti-virus and anti-malware software is designed to identify and stop malicious software from executing on a computer. Make sure you keep your anti-virus and anti-malware signatures updated!

2-4. What is commonly used by Microsoft Outlook to encrypt and digitally sign email messages? A. POP3S B. S/MIME C. SSL D. IMAPS E. PGP

B. S/MIME Microsoft Outlook uses Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions to secure email messages using encryption and digital signatures.

2-15. Which of the following would be the most likely use of the Linux tar utility? A. Copy files from one directory to another B. Scheduled data backup C. Change the name of a directory D. Modify the default startup device E. Check a storage device for logical errors

B. Scheduled data backup The tar (tape archive) utility is a data management utility in the Linux operating system. Because it's easily scripted at the command line, it's a commonly used when scheduling ongoing backups.

1-152. In Windows Vista and Windows 7, which of these events would normally activate a User Account Control prompt? A. Starting the Event Viewer B. Scheduling a Backup task C. Viewing the Task Manager D. Launching the Windows Firewall GUI

B. Scheduling a Backup task User Account Control is normally activated when a task requires additional privileges. These events are commonly configuration tasks, program installations, or the modification of existing system settings.

5-32. While working at a customer's desk, your mobile phone begins to ring. What is your most appropriate response? A. Take the call and address the caller's requests before continuing B. Send the call to voice mail and apologize for the interruption C. Take the call and ask the caller if you can return their call later D. Politely excuse yourself and step out to take the call

B. Send the call to voice mail and apologize for the interruption If you're sitting at a customer's desk with an active problem, your attention should be focused completely on the customer. People who call your mobile phone and get voice mail understand that you may not be available 24 hours a day.

2-58. Which of the following Mac OS features allows you to configure multiple independent desktops? A. Desktopper B. Spaces C. App Switcher D. Desktop Central E. Switchtop

B. Spaces The Spaces feature of Mac OS gives you a way to set up multiple desktops and easily switch from one to the other.

3-71. Which of the following categories of malware is designed to monitor your surfing habits? A. Worm B. Spyware C. DDoS D. Shoulder surfing E. Spoofing

B. Spyware Spyware is especially good at logging your keystrokes and monitoring your browsing habits, and then sending that information back to a central server that's under the control of the bad guys.

4-65. You've just updated your Windows 7 display configuration, but when you restart your system the screen is black instead of showing your desktop. Which of these options would be the best troubleshooting step? A. Replace the display adapter B. Start the system in VGA mode C. Replace the display cable D. Reinstall the display adapter driver E. Replace the monitor

B. Start the system in VGA mode If you've made a change to the display configuration and it gives you a blank screen, then starting in VGA mode would get you back to the Windows desktop and allow you to undo your changes. If you've not made any changes, then starting your system in Safe Mode or running SFC from the recovery console may help with troubleshooting. You could ultimately try reverting back to a previous restore point or restore from a knowngood backup.

4-59. One of the apps on your mobile device is not responding. Which of the following would be the best next step for troubleshooting this issue? A. Perform a hard reset B. Stop the app and restart C. Update the mobile device OS D. Reseat the SIM E. Disconnect from the wireless provider network

B. Stop the app and restart When a single app has a problem, the easiest way to troubleshoot the issue is to stop the app and restart it. On the iPhone you can double-tap the home key and slide the app up to terminate it. On the Android OS, choose Settings/Apps, select app, and select Force stop.

4-77. You're in the process of troubleshooting a startup problem that happens when the operating system launches the applications after login. Which Windows system utility can help troubleshoot system startup details, including individually enabling and disabling every startup application? A. Performance Monitor B. System Configuration C. Task Manager D. Computer Management

B. System Configuration System Configuration, known also as msconfig, is one of the most useful startup diagnostic tools in Windows. If you're trying to manage startup applications, an entire tab of the System Configuration tool is dedicated to managing this somewhat difficult process. In many cases, you'll find things in your startup list that you never knew were there!

1-239. One of your customers uses a poorly written application that often hangs and will not close properly. What Windows utility can you use to terminate the application manually? A. Device Manager B. Task Manager C. Control Panel / Services D. Disk Manager

B. Task Manager The Task Manager is an incredibly useful utility. Even if you aren't terminating bad applications, the Task Manager can provide you with extensive real-time performance statistics for every application and service running on your computer.

1-133. Which Windows utility is the best choice for monitoring real-time global memory usage? A. Performance Monitor B. Task Manager C. Device Manager D. Event Log

B. Task Manager The Windows Task Manager is a great real-time view of disk, memory, and application performance. If you're looking for the application using the most memory or the view of network utilization, then the Task Manager is the utility for you.

1-261. One of your customers has an internally written application that manages inbound file transfers from remote locations. After upgrading their computer to Windows 7, the application stops working and remote clients are complaining that their file transfers are rejected before they even start. Which of these is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The application is licensed only for Windows XP B. The Windows Firewall is blocking the application C. The hard drive is out of disk space D. The end users must also upgrade their operating systems to Windows 7

B. The Windows Firewall is blocking the application By design, the Windows Firewall is very good at interrupting an application that requires inbound connections. If you're planning to use an application that works this way, you'll also want to be sure that the application is listed as an exception in Windows Firewall.

4-23. You use two independent displays on your Windows 8.1 computer using identical monitors. However, when you move the mouse from one display to the other, you find that the cursor will stop at the top of the screen instead of moving over to the next monitor. Which of the following would be the most likely reason for this issue? A. Hardware acceleration is enabled B. The Windows monitor settings are misaligned C. The mouse is faulty D. The video drivers need to be updated E. The monitors are connected via HDMI instead of DisplayPort

B. The Windows monitor settings are misaligned The monitor settings in Windows allow you to set your monitors in almost any configuration you'd like. If the monitors are not properly aligned together in the displayed monitor settings, your mouse will not be able to move freely between the monitors. You would align the monitors by dragging them into alignment in the Windows Screen Resolution dialog box.

1-189. You have installed a new wireless mouse, but you can't seem to get the mouse to operate properly. When you access the Windows Device Manager, you find that the new mouse is listed without any unusual icon or message next to the name of the mouse. What can you infer from the Device Manager status? A. The device driver is for a different model of mouse B. The device driver is loading properly C. The device driver is missing D. The device driver has failed during the loading process

B. The device driver is loading properly The Windows Device Manager will highlight and display devices that have operational problems. If a device isn't working but Device Manager isn't identifying any issue, then the problem is probably not related to the device driver.

1-230. One of your associates is using Windows Vista Ultimate, but she is experiencing poor performance and slowdowns. She is using a laptop with a 1 GHz processor, 512 MB of RAM, and 40 GB of free disk space. Which of these would be true about this configuration? A. The processor does not meet the recommended requirements B. The memory size does not meet the recommended requirements C. The hard drive does not have enough free disk space D. Windows Vista Ultimate is not supported on laptop computers

B. The memory size does not meet the recommended requirements Microsoft recommends at least 1 GB of RAM for Windows Vista Ultimate. The other specifications meet the minimum recommended configuration for Vista Ultimate.

1-135. Which of these would you expect to find in the Windows Local Security Policy? Pick two. A. A log of failed login attempts B. The minimum password length C. The behavior of User Account Control prompts D. The hash algorithm used for NTFS file encryption E. The number of files allowed in a single subdirectory

B. The minimum password length and C. The behavior of User Account Control prompts The Local Security Policy utility allows you to customize the security posture of the Windows operating system from one centralized utility. In the Local Security Policy, you can set policies for auditing, user rights, security options, and much more.

1-132. What is the significance of a dollar sign ($) at the end of a network share? A. The share is given priority over other shares B. The share is hidden from the network browser C. The share is marked as read-only D. The share is used by the operating system for administrative purposes

B. The share is hidden from the network browser A dollar sign ($) is used at the end of a share to hide it from anyone browsing the network for shares. This doesn't provide any additional security, but it does help to manage large lists of shares. Although an administrative share may use a dollar sign on the share, the hidden shares are not limited to administrative functions.

3-32. Which of these best describes the policy of least privilege? A. A safe combination is shared among multiple people B. The shipping department is able to view orders but not modify orders C. All key owners must be present to option a lockbox D. A security audit is performed at regular intervals E. A network administrator has configuration rights to all switches and routers

B. The shipping department is able to view orders but not modify orders Least privilege describes the limits that are placed on a particular job function and they help determine exactly where those lines are drawn. You want to make sure that each job function has just enough rights and permissions to perform their job function, but you don't want to give more rights than necessary. In this example, the shipping department is able to view orders for the shipping process, but their job function does include changing or modifying any customer orders.

4-35. Your computer is suffering from slow performance, and every attempt to update the operating system fails immediately. Which of these is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The OS update servers are down B. The system is infected with malware C. The computer needs a memory upgrade D. The BIOS is outdated E. The operating system update process is already occurring

B. The system is infected with malware Malware can cause slow performance, internet connectivity issues, and it usually will disable any operating system or anti-malware updates.

5-37. Which of these would be describe an EULA? A. The source code for the application is freely available B. The terms of software use are documented C. The use of software is managed and controlled through technology D. Software will only operate for a certain amount of time E. The software will stop working after an evaluation period

B. The terms of software use are documented The EULA (End User License Agreement) is the legal agreement that defines how the software can be used.

3-14. Which of these would be the result of SSID broadcast suppression? A. All wireless data will be encrypted B. The wireless network will not appear in the list of available networks C. Non-authenticated users will not be able to connect to the wireless network D. The network will be configured as an open wireless network E. Large bandwidth wireless transfers will be restricted

B. The wireless network will not appear in the list of available networks The SSID identifies the name of the wireless network, and suppressing the SSID broadcast will effectively remove the name of the wireless network from the list on your mobile device. This isn't a security feature, however. If you know the SSID name, you can still connect.

3-8. You would like to improve the security on your network by adding an additional authentication requirement to access network resources, especially over a VPN. What's the best network security technology to address this requirement? A. BIOS passwords B. Token generators C. Software firewalls D. Require NTFS file systems

B. Token generators A pseudo-random token generator can provide an additional authentication requirement that consists of "something you have." Unless you physically have the token generator, you can't authenticate. A simple username and password just isn't good enough!

3-63. Which of these would commonly be identified by DLP? A. Known operating system vulnerabilities B. Unencrypted credit card numbers C. Unauthorized web site URLs D. Port scans E. Zero-day vulnerabilities

B. Unencrypted credit card numbers Most DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solutions can identify sensitive data traversing the network. These DLP systems can send an alarm or block network traffic if this traffic is identified.

4-15. Some malware has removed a file association on your Windows 7 computer. Now that the malware has been removed, which of these would be the best way to restore this file association? A. Change the compatibility mode for the application B. Update the Control Panel / Default Programs C. Change the file extensions D. Modify the registry settings for those file types

B. Update the Control Panel / Default Programs The Control Panel applet for Default Programs will allow you to make file association changes in your Windows 7 operating system, and it's much easier than making changes to the registry.

4-21. Which of these would be the best way to troubleshoot slow data speeds on a mobile device? A. Ping the mobile device B. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to view network traffic C. Determine the shortest route to the remote device D. Install all available app updates E. Lock the device

B. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to view network traffic When malicious software infects a mobile device, it can create unintended network sessions to other devices and servers. You can examine the overall network speed and specific network connections by using a wireless protocol analyzer.

3-73. One of your executives has asked you to remove a sensitive file from your server, and the removal must not be reversible. What is the most efficient and effective way to ensure that this file cannot be recovered? A. Format the entire volume and reload the data B. Use a secure file delete utility C. Remove all permissions from the file and delete it normally D. It is not possible; files can always be recovered from disk

B. Use a secure file delete utility There are many utilities that can securely delete individual files, including sdelete from Microsoft's Sysinternals library.

5-12. Which of these are best practices for minimizing ESD? Pick two. A. Always use a power cable that includes a ground connection B. Use an anti-static pad when working with electronic components C. Avoid using any gloves when working inside of a computer D. Store electronic components in anti-static bags E. Use non-magnetic tools designed for computer systems

B. Use an anti-static pad when working with electronic components and D. Store electronic components in anti-static bags Electrostatic discharge can damage electronic components, so it's useful to use an anti-static pad and store components in anti-static bags. The ground connection of a computer is important for preventing electrical shock, but a computer's power should not be connected when you're working inside the system. Wearing gloves doesn't prevent ESD, and the magnetic properties of tools do not have any effect on ES D.

4-50. When you click a .DOC file in Windows 7, WordPad is automatically started. You'd like to change Windows to launch Microsoft Word instead of WordPad. Which of these would be the best way to make this change? A. Modify the application association section of the registry B. Use the Default Programs applet in the Control Panel C. Configure the associations from the application preferences in Microsoft Word D. Set the file associations in the BIOS E. Reinstall Microsoft Word

B. Use the Default Programs applet in the Control Panel Windows Vista and Windows 7 provides an applet in the Control Panel that makes it easy to configure the applications associated with a file extension.

2-69. Which of the following would be the best way to update a text-based configuration file in Linux? A. Run notepad B. Use vi C. Delete the configuration file and run the installation script D. Use FTP to transfer and edit the file on another computer E. Boot Linux into single user mode

B. Use vi The vi (Visual mode) editor is a commonly used text editor in most Linux distributions.

2-41. Which of the following would be the best use of a virtual assistant? A. Update the operating system on a mobile device B. Use voice commands to set a timer C. Write a weekly status report while you check emails D. Distribute an application update to your internal servers E. Sort all incoming mail shipments

B. Use voice commands to set a timer Virtual assistants are built into many mobile devices and operating systems, and they can perform tasks using voice commands instead of typing or pressing buttons.

2-72. Which of these CPU technologies provides hardware support for virtualization in the CPU hardware? A. Hyper-threading B. VT C. Multi-core D. DMA E. L1 cache

B. VT Intel VT (Virtualization Technology) provides hardware acceleration for key functions required to provide virtualization on the desktop.

1-130. Which of these would be the best use of Task Manager? A. Track CPU utilization across a full work week B. View the memory utilization of an application C. Determine the space utilization of a storage device D. View a list of installed applications E. View a list of operational and non-operational hardware devices

B. View the memory utilization of an application Task Manager provides a real-time view of application usage, including memory utilization, CPU usage, disk input and output, network communication, and more.

3-69. You're configuring a wireless access point, and you want to be sure your communications are secure. Which wireless configuration setting can render your network communication unreadable to others? A. SSID broadcast B. WPA2 C. MAC filtering D. Channel/Frequency

B. WPA2 WPA2, or Wi-Fi Protected Access, is an encryption type used on wireless networks. With WPA2 enabled, all of the wireless communication may be intercepted as it travels through the air, but the resulting data is encrypted and therefore unreadable.

2-101. What kind of service responds to browser requests? A. File server B. Web server C. Print server D. DNS server E. DHCP server

B. Web server A web server responds to a standard set of web browsing protocols that will commonly originate from a browser on a workstation.

1-163. Which of these Windows 7 editions can provide full disk encryption? A. Windows 7 Professional B. Windows 7 Enterprise C. Windows 7 Home Premium D. Windows 7 Starter

B. Windows 7 Enterprise BitLocker, the Windows full disk encryption feature, is available in Windows 7 Ultimate and Windows 7 Enterprise.

1-63. Which of these Windows 7 editions provide support for Active Directory domains? Pick two. A. Windows 7 Home Premium B. Windows 7 Professional C. Windows 7 AD D. Windows 7 Ultimate E. Windows 7 Starter

B. Windows 7 Professional and D. Windows 7 Ultimate You can add your computer to an Active Directory domain in Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise.

1-214. Which of these operating systems can be directly upgraded to Windows 7 Professional with an in-place upgrade? A. Windows XP Media Center B. Windows Vista Business C. Windows XP Professional D. Windows Vista Ultimate

B. Windows Vista Business To perform an in-place upgrade, the new operating system edition needs to closely match the existing operating system. For Windows 7 Professional, the most compatible in-place upgrade would be from Windows Vista Business. Unfortunately, there is no direct in-place upgrade path from Windows XP to Windows 7.

1-249. In which of these would you find Aero? Pick three. A. Windows XP Media Center B. Windows Vista Business C. Windows XP Ultimate D. Windows 7 Ultimate E. Windows XP 64-bit Professional F. Windows 7 Professional

B. Windows Vista Business and D. Windows 7 Ultimate and F. Windows 7 Professional Windows Aero is a graphical feature that was introduced in Windows Vista and was also available in Windows 7. The Windows Aero feature is not part of Windows 8.

1-162. Which of these versions of Windows Vista provide Active Directory support? Choose all that apply. A. Windows Vista Home Basic B. Windows Vista Enterprise C. Windows Vista Ultimate D. Windows Vista Business E. Windows Vista Home Premium

B. Windows Vista Enterprise and C. Windows Vista Ultimate In Windows Vista, Active Directory support is included only with the Ultimate and Enterprise editions of the operating system.

1-116. Which of these operating systems cannot be upgraded to Windows 8? A. Windows 7 Starter B. Windows Vista Ultimate C. Windows 7 Home Premium D. Windows 7 Ultimate

B. Windows Vista Ultimate You can't upgrade to Windows 8 from any Windows XP or Windows Vista edition.

1-203. Which of these Windows Vista editions support BitLocker? Pick two. A. Windows Vista Home Premium B. Windows Vista Ultimate C. Windows Vista Business D. Windows Vista Enterprise

B. Windows Vista Ultimate and D. Windows Vista Enterprise BitLocker is available in the Ultimate and Enterprise editions of both Windows Vista and Windows 7.

1-119. Which of these is most associated with a WWAN? A. WAP2 encryption B. Wireless provider C. SSID broadcasts D. VPN concentrator E. Integrated web server

B. Wireless provider A WWAN (Wireless Wide Area Network) is a wireless network that uses a mobile provider network for communication.

1-182. Which of these situations would be the best use of BitLocker? A. You need to prevent access to a spreadsheet in the public shared folder B. You have a USB flash drive that needs to be unreadable by others C. You need to copy an encrypted presentation onto a DVD-ROM with other non-encrypted files D. You need to create a series of hidden shares for a top-secret project

B. You have a USB flash drive that needs to be unreadable by others BitLocker is a method of encrypting entire volumes. All files on the volume are stored in encrypted form, and you must have the correct credentials or certificates to decrypt the data.

1-110. In which of these situations would you NOT use MSCONFIG? A. You need to troubleshoot programs that start during the boot process B. You need to configure a drive partition C. You need a central point to launch other tools, such as the registry editor. D. You need to disable certain services from starting

B. You need to configure a drive partition Although MSCONFIG can launch other applications (such as Computer Management), it cannot make any changes to your drive partitions.

1-218. In which of these cases would you be most likely to implement a Windows HomeGroup? A. You need a drive array that displays all of the drives in your home as a single group B. You need to share files with everyone in the house C. You need to connect from a remote device to a computer in your home D. You need to upgrade all of your systems at home as a single group E. You need a wireless network for everyone in your house

B. You need to share files with everyone in the house Windows HomeGroup sets up a centralize sharing mechanism between all of your devices, and it only needs a single password to connect everyone to the HomeGroup.

1-149. Where are most of the operating system files stored in Windows 7? A. \Users B. \Windows C. \System D. \OS7 E. \System32

B. \Windows Most of the files associated with the Windows operating system are located in the \Windows folder.

2-62. Which of the following would be the best command to use to duplicate a file in Linux? A. mv B. cp C. tar D. dup E. mirror

B. cp The cp (copy) command can be used to duplicate files or directories in the Linux operating system.

1-242. You're troubleshooting a computer, but you're not sure if the problem is related to the display device or the operating system. What Windows utility can perform a series of video output tests? A. regedit B. dxdiag C. msinfo32 D. msconfig

B. dxdiag The DirectX Diagnostic Tools, or dxdiag, can provide you with information about the video, audio, and many other components of your system. For video, dxdiag also includes a number of diagnostics capabilities that can show many different video output patterns.

2-3. Which of the following Linux commands would be the best choice to find a specific serial number inside of a group of files? A. find B. grep C. locate D. yum E. vi

B. grep The grep command can search through many files to find a specific piece of text.

2-82. Which of the following would be the best way to view IP address configuration information in Linux? A. ipinfo B. ifconfig C. addr D. ipconfig E. stackinfo

B. ifconfig The ifconfig command is used to view or configure a network interface and IP configuration in Linux.

2-98. How would you change the name of a file in Linux? A. ren B. mv C. chmod D. rename E. cp

B. mv The mv (move) command is used to "move" or rename a file from one name to another.

1-114. You are concerned that a virus has corrupted some of your system files. Which command line utility can check system file integrity? A. net B. sfc C. format D. fsc

B. sfc The System File Checker will look through your system files to determine if any modifications have been made to these critical system resources.

2-81. Which of these Linux commands would you use to execute a command with the credentials of a different user? A. ps B. sudo C. chmod D. dd E. apt-get

B. sudo The sudo command is used to execute a command with superuser credentials or with the credential of any other user.

2-11. Which of these commands would you be most likely to use in Linux to update your operating system and applications? A. tar B. yum C. grep D. update E. patchd

B. yum The yum command is commonly used in some Linux distributions to easily update the operating system and applications using a set of trusted data repositories.

1-235. What is the minimum requirement of RAM for Windows Vista Business? A. 256 MB B. 512 MB C. 1 GB D. 2 GB E. 24 GB

C. 1 GB Windows Vista Home Basic requires a minimum of 512 MB, and Windows Vista Home Premium, Business, Ultimate, and Enterprise requires a minimum system RAM of 1 G B.

1-212. Which of the following hardware requirements would not meet the minimum requirements for the 32-bit version of Windows 8.1? A. 1 GHz processor B. 1 GB RAM C. 15 GB of storage space D. Microsoft DirectX 9 graphics device with WDDM driver

C. 15 GB of storage space The 32-bit version of Windows 8.1 requires 16 GB of free disk space.

5-38. Which of these surge suppressor let-through ratings is the best? A. 400 volts B. 600 volts C. 330 volts D. 500 volts E. 700 volts

C. 330 volts The let-through voltage specifies the point that a surge suppressor will begin diverting a spike of power away from your equipment. The lower let-through voltage is always better.

1-208. Which of these would you be most likely to find in Windows Performance Monitor? A. BIOS version information B. The Windows Experience Index rating C. A daily report of hard drive space utilization D. A description and status of hard drive partitions

C. A daily report of hard drive space utilization The Windows Performance Monitor can provide real-time statistics, operating system metrics, and long-term reports.

5-23. Which of these would be the best cleaner to use on LCD displays? A. Isopropyl alcohol B. Compressed air C. A damp cloth D. Computer vacuum cleaner

C. A damp cloth As the name implies, an LCD contains liquid crystals and is very sensitive to harsh chemicals. For the best (and safest) cleaning, use a cloth that's dampened with water. Chemicals on an LCD screen are quite harsh. For best results, keep your alcohol and other cleaning agents away from the LCD screen. Although an air blower would remove large pieces of dust from an LCD screen, it won't work well enough to completely clean the display. A vacuum cleaner is worse than an air blower since a vacuum cleaner can't avoid some direct contact with the display. An LCD screen is very fragile, so you want to avoid using any cleaning devices that might damage the display.

3-53. Which of these would you need to deguass a hard drive? A. An industrial shredder B. The original Windows installation media C. A large magnet D. A drill E. None of these

C. A large magnet A deguassing tools is designed to demagnetize all of the information on a magnetic media, such as a hard drive, tape drive, or solid state drive. This very strong magnetic field will destroy both data on disk and any data stored in electronics or ROMs. Degaussing a hard drive will render it unusable.

1-263. Which of these would you commonly find in the Windows System Configuration utility? A. A list of applications currently loaded in memory B. Display resolution settings C. A list of services that launch automatically on startup D. Windows HomeGroup password E. A list of all network adapters

C. A list of services that launch automatically on startup The Windows System Configuration Utility, or msconfig, is a useful utility for configuring the boot process and startup services and applications.

3-27. Which of these would be the best way to avoid showing a Windows share in a list of available resources? A. Configure Windows Firewall to filter the share name B. Modify the registry on the device hosting the share C. Add a dollar sign to the end of the share name D. Enable the "Hidden" share permission E. Disable NetBIOS over IP

C. Add a dollar sign to the end of the share name Windows will hide a share name if a dollar sign has been added to the end of the name. This does not prevent access or add any additional security, but it will hide the share name from a list of available resources.

1-260. Which of these would be the most likely result of a device driver upgrade? A. New options in the BIOS B. Faster boot times C. Additional options when printing D. More frequent notification of possible hard drive problems E. New typefaces are available in the operating system

C. Additional options when printing A device driver is the connection between the user and the operating system. The features and functions of a device are dependent on the device driver, and some device driver updates can improve stability or add new features to a piece of hardware.

3-101. Which of these would be the best way to secure unused interfaces on a switch? A. Configure the interfaces with an unused VLAN B. Put empty RJ45 connectors in the unused ports C. Administratively disable all unused interfaces D. Configure the interfaces to use multifactor authentication E. Enable auto negotiation on the unused interfaces

C. Administratively disable all unused interfaces The best way to prevent anyone from connecting to an unused interface is to administratively disable the interface on the switch.

1-259. Which of these would be the best reason for adding users to a Windows Group? A. Improves file server performance for a logical group of users B. Maintains a logical reporting group for Human Resources C. Allows you to simultaneously set rights and permissions across many users D. Determines which options are available on the Windows login screen

C. Allows you to simultaneously set rights and permissions across many users The Windows Users and Group management allows you to place users into logical groupings, and those logical groups can then be applied for administration and management. This makes it easy when you need to apply a single set of permissions to the entire Accounting group instead of applying individual rights to the sixty people in accounting.

2-87. Where is the most common place to download applications to an iOS device? A. Apple Play B. Google Play C. Apple App Store D. From the developer's web site

C. Apple App Store Apple centralizes all of the application deployment to the Apple App Store on iOS devices. Android devices can install software directly from a developer, on Google Play, or through any other 3rd-party distribution site.

5-3. You've been asked to work on an urgent computer repair while the user is at lunch. When you arrive, you notice paperwork on the desk that may contain private information about your customers. Which of these would be the best next step? A. Complete the repair as quickly as possible B. Move the papers somewhere out of sight C. Ask an associate in the department for some assistance D. Leave without repairing the computer

C. Ask an associate in the department for some assistance The materials on the user's desk may seem sensitive, so someone else in the department should be able to move the documents or confirm that the information is not sensitive. This would make sure that someone else in the area was aware of the documents, and they'll also know that the documents were not seen during the repair. Since the repair was urgent, this would allow you to complete the job while maintaining the security of the information.

1-124. Which of the following Windows 7 commands can write a new boot sector to a partition from the Windows Recovery Command Prompt? A. FIXBOOT B. CHKDISK C. BOOTREC /FIXBOOT D. FIXMBR

C. BOOTREC /FIXBOOT The Windows Vista/7/8/8.1 BOOTREC /FIXBOOT command will write a new volume boot record to a partition. Previous operating systems used the FIXBOOT command.

1-177. Which of these features are not part of Windows 7 Professional? A. Windows Domain membership B. Remote Desktop Host C. BitLocker Encryption D. EFS E. Internet Connection Sharing

C. BitLocker Encryption BitLocker is the only one of these features that's not part of Windows 7 Professional. To use BitLocker, you'll need to use Windows 7 Enterprise or Windows 7 Ultimate.

1-129. Which of these would best describe the operation of Windows Firewall? A. Stop malware from running on the operating system B. Identify a known buffer overflow exploit C. Block remote users from accessing a shared folder D. Block the browser from viewing inappropriate web sites E. Scan the network for devices with open ports

C. Block remote users from accessing a shared folder Windows Firewall is used to allow or deny access to certain applications or services on a Windows operating system device.

2-20. Which of the following would you commonly block with an IPS? A. A URL category of "sports news" B. Virus infection C. Buffer overflow D. Social media posting E. Unknown malware downloads

C. Buffer overflow An IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) is designed to stop known vulnerabilities traversing the network. The vulnerabilities may be operating system exploits, buffer overflows, cross-site scripting attacks, SQL injections, and more. Virus, URLs, and applications are not commonly blocked with an IPS.

4-71. What troubleshooting tool would you commonly find in a BIOS? A. Check for corrupted operating system files B. Long-term performance metrics C. Built-in hardware diagnostics D. Operating system software updates E. A log of operating system messages

C. Built-in hardware diagnostics A BIOS will commonly have a set of tools to identify the current status of the motherboard, such as power consumption and temperature information. Many BIOS software builds will also include some hardware diagnostics for testing the motherboard components.

2-18. The screen on your mobile device is responding to your stylus, but the location you're tapping is slightly offset from the area that's actually registering. Which of the following would be the best way to correct this issue? A. Replace the display B. Use a capacitive stylus C. Calibrate the display D. Update the operating system E. Enable the GPS

C. Calibrate the display Older resistive touchscreens required periodic calibration through the software on the mobile device. The newer capacitive touchscreens do not require any ongoing calibration.

5-5. One of your customers has dropped off their laptop at your repair desk. A message taped to the laptop states: "Doesn't work." Which of these would be the best next step? A. Start the laptop and look for any issues B. Replace the power adapter and try booting the laptop C. Call the customer and ask for more information about the problem D. Use your diagnostics boot CD to run a full set of hardware tests

C. Call the customer and ask for more information about the problem If you're going into a problem without all of the information, then you're going to have a difficult time when troubleshooting. Even if you start the laptop, you won't be sure if the problems you find are really the problems the customer is experiencing. Even worse, you might not find any problems at all! Instead of guessing a power issue or hardware failure, it's always best to ask the end user what they're seeing and what would make them happy.

1-250. Which of these characteristics best describes a Microsoft Windows domain? A. Loose structure of local devices B. Resources are managed on each individual computer C. Centralized authentication D. Designed for small- to medium-sized office

C. Centralized authentication The Microsoft Windows domain is designed for large organizations that must manage hundreds or thousands of separate devices and resources. To accomplish such a large-scale infrastructure, there must be a method to centrally manage the authentication to these resources. The incorrect answers: A) Loose structure of local devices - A Microsoft Windows workgroup is a relatively simple grouping of devices, unlike a Windows domain that can consist of multiple hierarchies and trust relationships. B) Resources are managed on each individual computer - The resources on a Windows workgroup must be managed at each computer. The resources on a Windows domain can be centrally managed from any domain administrator's workstation. D) Designed for small- to medium-sized offices - A Windows workgroup is perfect for small offices. Because of the overhead required to build and manage a Windows domain, it's not usually found in smaller work environments.

2-21. Which of the following shortcut keys can be used to launch the Force Quit dialog in Mac OS? A. Control-Alt-Delete B. Command-Q C. Command-Option-Escape D. Command-Start E. Option-F-Q

C. Command-Option-Escape The Command-Option-Escape keyboard combination launches the Force Quit dialog box. This allows you select from a list of the active applications and Force Quit the application with the press of a button.

1-25. Which of these applications would be the best choice to provide device COM+ management, access to the Event Viewer, and management of Windows Services? A. Computer Management B. Data Sources C. Component Services D. System Configuration

C. Component Services The Component Services utility is designed to manage Microsoft Component Object Model (COM+) distributed applications. In a single utility, you have access to COM+ management, the Event Viewer, and the Services utility.

1-216. Which of these would be the best way to prioritize application traffic in your network adapter properties configuration? A. Configure separate NICs for each application type B. Run critical applications on IPv6 instead of IPv4 C. Configure DSCP values to match the application priorities D. Configure the important applications with a higher-priority subnet mask

C. Configure DSCP values to match the application priorities The Differentiated Services Code Points (DSCP) values are used by infrastructure devices to determine the quality of service (QoS) for the network traffic.

1-147. What does the /y option do when using COPY at the command line? A. Copies the files without any attributes B. Copies the files but does not replace any existing files C. Copies the files and overwrites existing files without prompting D. Verifies that the newly copied files have been copied without errors

C. Copies the files and overwrites existing files without prompting Normally, the copy command will not overwrite files without prompting you for confirmation. The /y option suppresses that message and assumes that you would like to automatically overwrite all files.

3-52. Which of the following attacks would most likely cause a web server to become unresponsive? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Social engineering C. DDoS D. Brute force E. Trojan horse

C. DDoS A DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack commonly uses hundreds or thousands of devices to overwhelms the resources of a website or service.

1-136. Which of these functions are not provided by Windows Disk Management? Pick two. A. Split a single partition into multiple partitions B. Add and configure a RAID array C. Defragment a hard drive D. Assign a drive letter to a storage device E. Rebuild a storage device's master boot record

C. Defragment a hard drive and E. Rebuild a storage device's master boot record The Windows Disk Management utility provides a single console for many storage-related tasks, but it does not defragment hard drives or modify the MBR or boot sectors of a drive or partition.

1-166. Which of these Windows utilities would be the best choice for determining the installed version of a video card driver? A. Task Manager B. Event Viewer C. Device Manager D. Performance Monitor

C. Device Manager If you want to know almost anything about the hardware inside of your computer, then the Device Manager is your best option. You'll be able to view installed hardware, enable or disable hardware, and view the details of device drivers.

3-66. What kind of attack breaks into a system by trying the most common passwords? A. Man-in-the-middle B. Denial of service C. Dictionary attack D. Spoofing E. Rootkit

C. Dictionary attack Instead of trying every possible combination of characters, a dictionary attack will try the most common passwords to see if it can quickly gain access to a system.

3-42. Which of these would be the best way to enable manual IP addressing on a SOHO network? A. Create a pool of IP address in the wireless router B. Configure each device to be in a different VLAN C. Disable DHCP on the wireless router D. Configure NAT on the SOHO router E. Build a separate DMZ network for all servers

C. Disable DHCP on the wireless router DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is used to automatically assign IP addresses. In a SOHO network, the DHCP server is often running on the wireless router.

4-74. You've noticed that your mobile device is connected to an unknown Bluetooth device. Which of these should be your first troubleshooting step? A. Install any available operating system updates B. Restart your device C. Disable your Bluetooth radio D. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to view network traffic E. Connect to a private Wi-Fi network

C. Disable your Bluetooth radio It's unusual to find a Bluetooth device that would have paired to your device without your knowledge. In this situation, it's always best to immediately disable any communication before examining the list of paired devices on your mobile device. It may also be a good idea to run an anti-malware scan to verify that no malicious software was installed onto your device.

1-33. What kind of Windows environment is best suited for large enterprises and organizations that need centralized management of their Windows environment? A. Workgroup B. Cluster C. Domain D. Virtual Server

C. Domain A Windows Domain provides centralized management of a Windows environment, including the management of end users devices, centralized authentication, and centralized rights and permissions to resources.

5-22. Which of these software licenses is most often associated with annual renewals? A. Personal license B. FOSS C. Enterprise license D. EULA E. Home license

C. Enterprise license It's common for a company to purchase software with an enterprise license that must be renewed annually. At home, we commonly license software perpetually, where a one-time cost is the only purchase requirement.

3-99. Which of the following would best describe a physical access list containing a list of names that is enforced by a security guard? A. Multi-factor authentication B. Mantrap C. Entry control roster D. Privacy filter E. Biometric

C. Entry control roster An entry control roster can be as simple as a clipboard with names on it, and a security guard is in charge of allowing or denying access based on this list of names.

4-22. Which of these would be the best choice for viewing the Windows security log from yesterday? A. Windows PE B. MSCONFIG C. Event Viewer D. Windows Command Prompt E. Log Viewer

C. Event Viewer Event Viewer maintains an ongoing log of application events, security notices, system information, and other details. The Event Viewer storage is large enough to capture these event details over a relatively long period of time.

4-68. During boot time, what key provides you with access to the Windows Advanced Options Menu? A. F2 B. Shift-F1 C. F8 D. Ctrl-Alt-Del E. F1

C. F8 The F8 key is used to stop the boot process and present the Advanced Options Menu. Be quick, because you have to hit the key before the operating system begins to load!

1-234. During your Windows installation you have the option to define file system types for your data. Which of these file systems would provide the most compatibility with other operating systems? A. NTFS B. CDFS C. FAT D. MBR

C. FAT The File Allocation Table file system is a well-established file system format that is understood by many different operating systems.

1-264. Which of these would best describe a file system that is natively supported in Windows 2000 and newer and supports 2 TB volume sizes and a maximum file size of 4 gigabytes? A. FAT B. NTFS C. FAT32 D. CDFS

C. FAT32 FAT32 is compatible with many operating systems, including Windows 2000 and newer. FAT32 was a huge increase over FAT because of larger hard drives, but the 4 GB file size limit has become a problem with today's larger media formats.

2-14. Which of the following would provide services over SMB or AFP? A. Proxy server B. DNS server C. File server D. IPS E. Authentication server

C. File server A file server can communicate over SMB (Server Message Block), AFP (Apple Filing Protocol), or any other standard network file system protocol.

3-102. Biometrics can be useful for security authentication. Which of these is an example of a biometric? A. Smart card B. Token generator C. Fingerprint D. Strong password

C. Fingerprint Fingerprint readers are great biometric authentication tools because they use a piece of biology that only one person (usually) has. The incorrect answers: A) Smart card - Smart cards are useful for authentication because they are something you have (the smart card) and can be used in conjunction with something you know (your username and password). Since they're not part of you, they don't qualify as a biometric. B) Token generator - Token generators are also useful items that are "something you have." Unfortunately, they also don't qualify as a biometric. D) Strong password - Although strong passwords are stored in your brain, they don't quite qualify as a biometric.

3-59. Which of these would be most likely to proxy network traffic? A. Anti-virus software B. NTFS file permissions C. Firewall D. Anti-malware software E. IPS

C. Firewall Some firewalls can filter traffic by port number, application, and proxy network traffic flows.

2-66. What feature is used in Mac OS to customize your trackpad? A. Practice Pad B. Clicker C. Gestures D. Mouse Trap E. Track Builder

C. Gestures The Gestures feature of the System Preferences can configure every click, swipe, and zoom of the built-in or external trackpad in Mac OS.

2-27. Which of these protocols would be exclusively used to retrieve mail on an Android device? A. HTTP B. SSL C. IMAP D. SNMP

C. IMAP IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is used to transfer and synchronize email between clients and a mail server.

2-8. Where are the core set of Linux device drivers located? A. In the system BIOS B. In the /etc directory C. In the Linux kernel D. On the boot sector of the system drive E. Linux doesn't use device drivers

C. In the Linux kernel Many device drivers are installed as part of the Linux kernel itself, and the drivers are updated when the kernel is updated.

3-37. Which of the following would be the best way to avoid infecting a mobile device with malware? A. Only install APK files B. Sideload all mobile device applications C. Install apps from the mobile device app store D. Only install apps that have been emailed directly to you E. Download the app from a non-curated website

C. Install apps from the mobile device app store The Apple App store, Google Play, or the Windows App Store are trusted sites that have curated and tested applications to minimize the potential for any malicious software.

1-225. Which of the following should be the first step after a fresh installation of Windows 7? A. Install all required applications B. Perform an upgrade of storage and/or RAM C. Install security patches D. Pair with any Bluetooth devices E. Perform a full system backup

C. Install security patches Before doing anything on a computer, it needs to be protected against any known security exploits. Installing all of the applicable security patches will ensure that the computer will remain secure.

5-31. What is the purpose of a chain of custody? A. It proves who owns the item in custody B. It shows that the item was operational when it was taken into custody C. It maintains the integrity of the item in custody D. It allows you to recreate the item in custody

C. It maintains the integrity of the item in custody A chain of custody documents everyone who contacts the evidence and confirms that the evidence was not modified.

4-14. Which of these would be the best option when troubleshooting slow system performance? A. Upgrade the BIOS B. Check power supply voltages C. Launch Task Manager D. Replace the RAM modules E. Install operating system patches

C. Launch Task Manager Task Manager can give you insight into applications and services that might be using high CPU utilization and/or high I/O rates.

5-34. You're working on the installation of a new application at an end-users desk, and the user has stepped away for a few minutes. The user left their mobile phone on their desk, and it has started to ring. What should you do? A. Answer the phone and take a message. B. Write down the name and number of the incoming call. C. Let the phone ring through to voicemail. When the end-user returns, let them know their phone was ringing. D. Ignore the telephone and pretend that nothing ever happened.

C. Let the phone ring through to voicemail. When the end-user returns, let them know their phone was ringing. When working at another person's workspace, you must be especially sensitive to their personal belongings. Try not to bother anything on their desk, especially telephones. There's no expectation that you become their personal assistant while at their desk, and most people will appreciate a level of decorum and privacy towards their workspace. It's also polite to inform them of anything that might have happened in their absence, especially since you're monopolizing their workspace for a short time period.

3-93. Which of these would be the best choice to prevent communication to a wireless access point? A. SSID broadcast suppression B. Static IP addressing C. MAC filtering D. Modification of the default access point username and password

C. MAC filtering The MAC address is a hardware address associated with a network adapter. By filtering specific MAC addresses on an access point, you can limit the devices that can communicate to a network device. SSID broadcast suppression limits visibility of the wireless network, but does not prevent communication. Static IP address also does not prevent communication to an access point.

1-258. In which of these cases would you most likely use MSTSC? A. Manage jobs on network printers B. Rebuild the system MBR C. Manage a remote device D. Reset Windows to factory defaults E. Select programs that run during system startup

C. Manage a remote device Microsoft Terminal Services Client is also called Remote Desktop, and it's useful for viewing the screen and controlling the mouse and keyboard of a remote device.

5-21. You have a number of old computers and laptops that are too old to repair, so you've decided to dispose of everything. What source of information can provide you with the details about the disposal process? A. Wikipedia B. Federal Communication Commission Rules and Regulations C. Material Safety Data Sheets D. Computer reseller web site

C. Material Safety Data Sheets The United States Department of Labor, Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires documentation for all hazardous materials. The MSDS provides detailed safety and disposal information for batteries, display devices, chemical solvents, toner, ink, and much more.

2-67. To which of the following would you commonly connect when tethering your computer? A. WiFi network B. VoIP network C. Mobile phone D. Ethernet network E. Bluetooth

C. Mobile phone A tethered device connects to a mobile phone and uses the mobile provider's network as an Internet connection.

1-118. Which of the following would be the best way modify the duplex setting of the Ethernet adapter in Windows 7? A. Update the Ethernet adapter device driver B. Start the computer in Safe Mode C. Modify the adapter settings in Control Panel / Network and Sharing Center D. Change the duplex setting in the BIOS E. Modify the Windows Registry

C. Modify the adapter settings in Control Panel / Network and Sharing Center The Ethernet adapter settings and other Network configuration settings can be changed through the Network and Sharing Center in the Windows Control Panel.

3-68. Which of these file permissions would apply to someone local on a computer as well as someone connecting to the computer over the network? A. Share B. Ethernet C. NTFS D. TCP/IP

C. NTFS NTFS permissions are associated with the file system of a computer and would therefore apply to anyone accessing a file, regardless of their location.

1-105. Your computer has a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and 10 GB of free disk space. Can these components support the minimum requirements for Windows Vista Ultimate? A. No, the processor doesn't meet minimum specifications B. No, the memory doesn't meet minimum specifications C. No, the free disk space doesn't meet minimum specifications D. Yes, these components meet the minimum requirements for Windows Vista

C. No, the free disk space doesn't meet minimum specifications Windows Vista Ultimate requires a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and 15 GB of free hard drive space.

5-19. Why is the use of a wrist strap or floor mat important when working with computer components? A. Modern personal computers require a constant ground point to prevent data loss B. Protects against electrocution during the maintenance process C. Normalizes the electrical potential between the technician and the components, minimizing the chances of static electricity discharge D. The use of a grounding strap is a myth. Ground straps provide no practical use

C. Normalizes the electrical potential between the technician and the components, minimizing the chances of static electricity discharge When you're working with electronics, the components are very sensitive to static electricity. By connecting yourself and your electronics to a common ground point, you lower the chance that the static electricity will move between you and the electronics and cause damage.

1-27. Which of these technologies allows an application to use a database without any specific knowledge of the database engine? A. COM+ B. Access C. ODBC D. SQL E. dBASE

C. ODBC ODBC (Open Database Connectivity) allows application developers to create and access information in a database without requiring any specific knowledge of the database service in use.

1-248. On a single MBR-partitioned hard drive, you have created three primary partitions. You have also created an extended partition that contains two logical partitions. Which of these statements would be true of the logical partitions? A. There can only be four logical partitions per physical disk B. The logical partitions cannot be partitioned with the NTFS file system C. Operating systems loaded onto logical partitions are not bootable D. One of the logical partitions can be marked as active

C. Operating systems loaded onto logical partitions are not bootable Although extended partitions can allow for more than four partitions per hard drive, the logical partitions inside of an extended partition are not bootable.

1-171. Over the last week, you've installed some new software, upgraded your video card drivers, and updated some existing applications. You are now having intermittent performance problems, and you would like to revert back to your old configuration. What is the easiest way to change your configuration back to the way it was a week ago? A. Rebuild the system from a recent backup B. Uninstall the software and drivers in reverse order C. Perform a System Restore D. Reinstall Windows from the original installation media

C. Perform a System Restore A System Restore can easily roll back your configuration to a particular date and time.

4-52. When you touch the screen of your mobile phone, the tap is registered in a different part of the screen than where you touched. Which of the following is the best way to resolve this issue? A. Replace the SIM B. Close your apps and restart C. Perform a soft reset D. Reinstall the mobile device operating system E. Use a stylus instead of your finger

C. Perform a soft reset The display on a mobile device doesn't usually have an issue with the digitizer alignment, but a soft reset can often resolve the issue. If the problem continues after a hard reset, then the problem may be with the display hardware.

1-134. You're troubleshooting an intermittent problem in Windows, and you need to capture a series of system metrics over two days. Which of these utilities would be the best choice for this? A. Statistics Monitor B. Event Log C. Performance Monitor D. Task List E. Data Sources

C. Performance Monitor Windows Performance Monitor provides a way to collect and store many Windows system metrics.

3-86. You're interested in doing some work on your laptop at the local coffee shop, but you're concerned with the security of the public wireless network. What can help protect your computer while you're using this public network? A. Two-factor authentication B. DSL router C. Personal firewall D. Peer-to-peer networking

C. Personal firewall A software-based personal firewall can help protect your computer from attacks, and it's especially useful when you're on a public network. With this software-based firewall enabled, you'll know that your computer is protected from unauthorized access while simultaneously allowing you to use the network normally. Don't leave home without it!

5-25. The inside of your computer is very dusty, and you've decided to clean the inside of the computer case. What is the first thing you should do? A. Attach an anti-static strap to the computer case B. Remove the computer case screws C. Power off the computer and disconnect the power source D. Power off the computer, but keep the power source connected to provide an electrical ground

C. Power off the computer and disconnect the power source When working around electrically powered devices, one of the most important safety considerations is to completely power down the systems and remove the connection to the power source. Although it's important to take anti-static precautions when working inside of a computer, your personal safety should be the first thing you should consider. The case screws can be removed after all power sources have been disconnected. It's not necessary to have an electrical ground to protect against static electricity damage. If you're connected to power, there's always a risk of electrocution. Always disconnect that power cord!

1-91. In which of these cases would you be most likely to use DISKPART? A. Copy file contents from one disk to another B. Check a drive for logical errors C. Prepare a storage device for formatting D. Prepare a storage device for removal

C. Prepare a storage device for formatting The DISKPART command replaces the FDISK command from previous versions of Windows, and it's used for many disk configuration functions. You will commonly use DISKPART to partition a drive.

1-256. Which of the following would be most associated with the NX bit? A. Enhanced encryption support B. Booting to multiple operating systems C. Protection against malicious software D. Virtualization support E. Enhanced graphics support

C. Protection against malicious software The NX CPU processor bit stands for No-eXecute, and it's used to prevent applications from executing in areas of memory that have been previously marked as non-executable. This feature prevents malicious software from executing in the data portion of memory.

4-29. Which of these would be the best way to register a DLL? A. REGEDIT B. Reinstall the associated application C. REGSVR32 D. Run Startup Repair E. REGDLL

C. REGSVR32 The REGSVR32 (Microsoft Register Server) utility is used to register DLLs, unregister DLLs, and update the Windows Registry.

1-246. Which of these Windows technologies use flash memory to increase the speed of the operating system? A. Disk Defragmenter B. DNS Caching C. ReadyBoost D. Prefetching

C. ReadyBoost Windows ReadyBoost is designed to cache application and OS information in faster flash memory instead of slower hard drives to increase startup time and other operations.

4-31. Which of these would be the most common use of a Windows PE? A. Reset the application associations for a .DOC file B. Copy files from an external USB storage device C. Recover from malware that corrupted the boot sector D. Migrate user documents from one version of Windows to another E. Collect long-term performance information

C. Recover from malware that corrupted the boot sector A Windows PE (Preinstallation Environment) is a minimal version of Windows that can be run completely from a DVD-ROM, USB drive, or any other storage device. It's common to use Windows PE when recovering a computer that's having a problem when starting Windows.

5-36. In which of these situations would you use an MSDS? A. Defragment your hard drive B. Create a BitLocker partition C. Replace your CRT monitor with an LCD monitor D. Upgrade your operating system

C. Replace your CRT monitor with an LCD monitor The Material Safety Data Sheet provides safety information about your computer components, including instructions for safely disposing of old components like CRT monitors.

3-64. Which of these would be the best description of a security vulnerability that modifies core system files and can be invisible to the operating system? A. Worm B. Phishing C. Rootkit D. Virus E. Botnet

C. Rootkit A rootkit is designed to embed itself as deep as possible in the operating system. Some rootkits can exist in the kernel, making them effectively invisible to the operating system itself.

1-228. Which of the following would be the best choice for repairing a master boot record in Windows Vista? A. Run FIXMBR from a command prompt with administrative rights B. Run BOOTREC /FIXBOOT from the Windows Recovery Command Prompt C. Run BOOTREC /FIXMBR from the Windows Recovery Command Prompt D. Use DISKPART to rebuild the MBR

C. Run BOOTREC /FIXMBR from the Windows Recovery Command Prompt The BOOTREC /FIXMBR command will rebuild the master boot record on the specified drive.

4-47. When you start your Windows Vista computer, your Windows desktop does not appear. Instead, you get a blank screen with this message at the top; "NTLDR is missing." Which of the following would be the best way to troubleshoot this issue? A. Update the video driver B. Run hardware diagnostics C. Run Startup Repair D. Upgrade the memory E. Replace the data cables to the storage drive

C. Run Startup Repair Although Windows Vista and later operating systems use winload.exe and the Windows Boot Manager instead of NTLDR as the boot loader, some updates can improperly replace the boot loader files with incorrect versions. Running Startup Repair from your Windows installation media can usually resolve this issue.

4-26. You've updated the Windows operating system on your Windows/Linux dual-boot computer, and the Windows update has overwritten LILO. Which of these would be the best next step? A. Re-install the Linux distribution B. Update the BCD C. Run a boot-repair LiveCD D. Modify the BIOS boot device E. Run a hardware diagnostic

C. Run a boot-repair LiveCD LILO (Linux Loader) is a popular boot loader that's included with the Linux operating system. For dual-boot systems, it's common to use LILO as the front-end to start all of the installed operating systems. If LILO has been overwritten, it's relatively easy to perform a repair with a specialized Linux LiveCD, or to perform a manual reinstall of the LILO boot loader from the command line.

4-24. Your company has an older application that is designed to run on Windows XP, but all of your computers are running Windows 7. Which of these would be the best way to run this application on your Windows 7 system? A. Run the application normally and document any exceptions B. Run the application on the Windows 7 desktop from a network share on a Windows XP computer C. Run the application in compatibility mode D. Install the application in Windows XP, and then upgrade your OS to Windows 7 E. When Windows starts, hold your hand over the Windows 7 logo and pretend it says XP

C. Run the application in compatibility mode Compatibility mode can be configured in the application properties to run the program as if it's on a different operating system.

1-158. Which of these would be the best choice for monitoring storage devices? A. RAID B. SATA C. S.M. A.R.T. D. SSD E. SAN

C. S.M. A.R.T. S.M. A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) is a built-in monitoring feature available in most hard drives and solid state drives.

1-115. Which of these configuration settings is most associated with an 802.11 wireless network? A. DHCP server address B. Tunnel peer IP address C. SSID name D. Duplex setting

C. SSID name An 802.11 wireless network needs a Service Set Identification (SSID) name to designate the name of the wireless network.

2-104. Which of the following would be commonly seen in the output of the iwconfig command? A. Default route B. Volume storage space C. SSID name D. Duplex setting E. QoS statistics

C. SSID name The iwconfig command displays and modifies wireless network configurations, including SSID information, wireless frequencies, and more.

2-78. Which of these would best describe a provider that offers on-demand applications with no requirement of local installation or hardware costs? A. IaaS B. ISP C. SaaS D. WAN E. LEC

C. SaaS Software as a Service (SaaS) is a common way to take advantage of applications without the requirement of hardware costs or on-site software installations.

5-26. Which of these would be the best way to dispose of a used UPS battery? A. Add to the weekly recycling pickup B. Return to the battery manufacturer C. Send to a local hazardous waste facility D. Add to the normal garbage service E. Store in a secure area

C. Send to a local hazardous waste facility The contents of a battery are hazardous materials and are certainly not environmentally friendly. It's important to send all used batteries to your local hazardous waste facility.

1-151. Where in Windows can you find a list of dependencies that might exist between services? A. Event Manager B. Task Manager C. Services D. Performance Monitor

C. Services The Windows Services allows you to manage each service, and you can drill-down into every service to determine what other services might depend on your service, or what your service might also depend upon. This way, you'll know exactly what might happen if you enable or disable a particular service.

1-209. Which of the following is enabled when logging into Windows 8.1 with a Microsoft account instead of a local account? A. Screen sharing is automatically enabled across multiple PCs B. Powering off one computer will also power down other logged in devices C. Settings are synchronized across multiple computers D. Windows Domain features are automatically used

C. Settings are synchronized across multiple computers If you login to Windows 8.1 with a Microsoft account, you can download apps that have been previous purchased from the Windows Store, download online app content, synchronize settings across multiple computers, and more.

3-28. Your company has just digitally imaged a year of corporate tax documents. Which of these would be the best way to dispose of the paper copies? A. Personally take the paper copies to the garbage bin B. Dispose of the paper at an off-site garbage facility C. Shred the paper documents D. Leave the documents with building security

C. Shred the paper documents Sensitive information should be rendered unreadable before they are put into any garbage facility.

3-18. Which of the following are not common methods of unlocking the screen of a mobile device? A. Fingerprint B. Passcode C. Smart card D. Face recognition E. Swipe pattern

C. Smart card Although smart cards are common authentication systems on laptop and desktop computers, it's not common to find a smart card slot on a mobile device.

3-46. During a normal workday, you receive a call at your desk asking for information about a recently submitted help desk ticket. Two things are remarkable about this particular call; you notice that the call is coming from an outside line, and you don't have any recent help desk tickets. What security exploit should you be concerned about? A. Phishing B. Spyware C. Social Engineering D. Baiting

C. Social Engineering If someone is trying to communicate directly with you to obtain restricted information, there's reason to be concerned. As modern day technological con men, social engineers are very good at getting information from you while your guard is down. The incorrect answers: A) Phishing is the gathering of sensitive information through fraudulent emails or web pages. A phishing page will look exactly like your bank's login page, but your user credentials are sent to the bad guys instead of your financial institution. B) Spyware runs on a your local computer and gathers information about your surfing habits, keystrokes, and gathers other information that the bad guys can use to exploit your computer or personal information. D) Baiting is a technique that plants a piece of media (CD-ROM, memory stick) in an area where it can be found. The media usually contains a Trojan Horse or other malicious software that can open your system for attack, install keyboard loggers, or other bad, bad things.

3-96. Which of these would best describe a code sent to your phone using SMS? A. Something you know B. Something you are C. Something you have D. Somewhere you are E. Something you do

C. Something you have One authentication factor might be to verify something that might be physically associated with a person. Our phone is a very common personal physical item that can be used as an authentication method, and one way to do this is by sending a verification code to a phone using a text message (SMS).

4-41. One of your Windows 7 systems appears to be infected with malware that is causing a Windows STOP error (BSOD) just after login. Which of these troubleshooting tasks would be the best next step? A. Replace the MBR using FDISK B. Download a bootable CD/DVD to use with the computer C. Start in Windows Safe mode and try logging in again D. Update the anti-virus signatures

C. Start in Windows Safe mode and try logging in again Many problems can be avoided by starting Windows in Safe Mode. In this particular example, the operating system was still working, but there was clearly an issue after the login process. Safe mode will restrict the services that run and may allow you to get a desktop so that you can troubleshoot further.

3-40. Which of these events would commonly involve a hash? A. Copy data to a USB memory stick B. Start your browser C. Store a password D. Install a new hardware driver

C. Store a password To protect the original password, the plaintext of the password is usually hashed. This hashed data is stored as the password and the hashing is recreated and compared with each authentication attempt. Since the hash cannot be reversed, the original password text remains private.

4-20. Your Windows 7 startup process is performing very slowly, but it's difficult to tell which application is causing the issue. Which of these utilities would be the most help to identify the problematic application? A. Event Viewer B. System Repair Disk C. System Configuration D. Defragmentation

C. System Configuration The Windows System Configuration utility, or MSCONFIG, identifies all of the services and applications that are run during the startup process, and the utility provides an easy checkbox method to enable or disable any of the apps. It may take some time to narrow down the troublemaker, but it's very easy to use.

1-122. Which of these utilities allows you to "back in time" to automatically revert your computer to a previous configuration without changing any of your documents and personal files? A. Recovery Console B. Task Scheduler C. System Restore D. Backup and Restore

C. System Restore The System Restore utility can restore your system to any of your previous restore points. If you'd like to change your configuration back to a previous setting, the System Restore utility can "rewind" things in a matter of minutes, Marty.

1-181. It's relatively easy to see the icons in the taskbar or system tray that are associated with running applications, but identifying the services running behind the scenes isn't quite as obvious. Which one of these methods could be used to view all of your computer's services? A. Event Viewer B. Local Security Policy C. Task Manager D. User Account Control

C. Task Manager The Task Manager includes a "Services" tab that shows the name, process ID, description, status, and group of the computer's services.

3-4. What does it mean when a mobile device application runs in a "sandbox?" A. The application has full access to the mobile device storage and memory B. The application will only use a specific amount of memory C. The application will only have access to specific data sources D. The application will automatically build links to other data sources as required

C. The application will only have access to specific data sources Each application is designed to operate in its own little "world" where it has limited access to anything else on the mobile device. If required, the user can allow the application to access external data sources. For example, a contact list application may request permission to view the contact list on the mobile device, and the user must interactively provide this access.

4-34. The display on your mobile device is very dim, and it's even difficult to see the screen in a dark room. Which of the following would be the most likely reason for this issue? Pick two. A. The operating system needs to be updated B. The backlight has been administratively disabled C. The brightness setting needs to be changed D. The device is powered off E. The backlight is faulty F. The device is overheating

C. The brightness setting needs to be changed and E. The backlight is faulty In a closed system like a mobile device, there are very few things that could cause a problem with the display. If the screen is dark and difficult to see, then the issue is with the brightness settings or the display itself is having a hardware problem.

4-30. You've noticed that some of your operating system files have been renamed, and other file permissions have changed from the default. Which of the following is the most likely reason for these changes? A. The monthly operating system patches have been installed B. Browser installations have modified the system files C. The computer is infected with malware D. A service pack has been installed E. The files are modified when network services are enabled

C. The computer is infected with malware The name of your OS files should never change, and the permissions associated with those files should also remain unchanged. It's very common for malware to modify key components of your operating system, and filename and permissions will often be part of this infection.

1-140. Why would a device driver be unsigned? A. The driver has not yet been associated with the hardware B. The driver is for a 64-bit operating system C. The driver has not been certified by the manufacturer D. The driver was developed for a different Windows version E. The driver supports many different hardware devices

C. The driver has not been certified by the manufacturer A signed driver is one that has been digitally "signed" by the manufacturer using a trusted certificate from Microsoft. An unsigned driver may not have been properly tested, and there's no way to determine if the driver was modified before the installation.

5-40. Why is proper ventilation important for computer equipment? A. Electronics need oxygen to operate properly B. There needs to be a foot of open area on each side of a computer C. The equipment needs to be kept at an optimal operating temperature D. The equipment cooling fans are powered with moving air

C. The equipment needs to be kept at an optimal operating temperature Electronics tends to create a lot of heat, so it's important that enough cool air is ventilated through any area with computer equipment.

4-33. You're trying to install a new device driver using an executable file from the manufacturer, but the installation process fails in the middle of the installation. Which of these is most likely the issue? A. The driver package isn't signed by Microsoft B. The driver installation program is damaged C. The installation process doesn't have the proper access to install the driver D. The hardware associated with this driver is not installed in this computer

C. The installation process doesn't have the proper access to install the driver Many driver installation files require Administrator access to install properly, especially if it's an executable application that also installs additional "helper" files in Windows directories and requires additional services to be installed.

3-89. What does an SSID represent? A. The type of 802.11 standard in use B. The manufacturer of a wireless access point C. The logical name of the wireless network D. The strength of the wireless signal

C. The logical name of the wireless network A wireless Service Set Identification is the name of the wireless network. This is the name that appears when browsing for wireless networks, so it usually is a name that is familiar to people who are looking to connect.

4-57. One of your mobile device users is trying to access their corporate email, but they receive a message that the email app can't decrypt the messages. Which of these is the most likely reason for this issue? A. The user isn't logged in B. A symmetric key must be defined C. The mobile device does not have the correct private key D. The network connection is currently unavailable E. The user's public key isn't published

C. The mobile device does not have the correct private key Our encryption systems often rely on a related public key and private key pair. Information is encrypted with the public key and decrypted with the private key. If a user's private key isn't properly installed onto a mobile device, the apps won't be able to decrypt any secure data.

3-81. You've moved a file from one folder on an NTFS volume to another folder on the same NTFS volume. What has happened to the permissions of the file after the move? A. The permissions are inherited from the new parent object B. The permissions are reset to default C. The original permissions are retained D. The permissions are inherited from other files in the new folder

C. The original permissions are retained If a file is copied from one location to another, the newly created file will inherit the permissions from the parent object. If a file is moved, however, the only thing that changes is the pointer to the file location; the moved file is essentially the same file, so none of the permissions are modified. The moved file will have the exact same permissions it had before the move.

3-10. Which of the following would be true of a password recovery process? A. The process should be automated and seamless B. Passwords can be sent to registered email addresses C. The recovery process should not be trivial D. Server passwords do not need to be regularly changed E. The recovery process should reset to a well-known password

C. The recovery process should not be trivial The password recovery process is the only thing between your network resources and an illegitimate user. The process for resetting the password and recovering the account should be a formal process with many checks and balances.

5-9. Why is it important to use a vacuum cleaner that is specifically designed for use with computer equipment? A. The vacuum includes special attachments for small crevices and spaces B. The vacuum uses less power than traditional vacuums C. The vacuum is designed to minimize the amount of static electricity discharge D. The vacuum can be powered using most desktop computer power supplies

C. The vacuum is designed to minimize the amount of static electricity discharge A large amount of moving dust can create static electricity, and using a specialized computer vacuum will minimize the buildup of static electricity and the subsequent discharge of static electricity.

3-39. What category of malicious software gains access to your system by disguising itself as something nonthreatening? Choose the best answer. A. Virus B. Worm C. Trojan horse D. Spyware E. Rootkit

C. Trojan horse Trojan horse software is especially sneaky because it pretends to be something fun or unassuming in the hopes that you'll run the program and, in turn, infect your computer.

5-15. Which of these would be the best choice to protect a computer from power outages? A. Surge suppressor B. Power inverter C. UPS D. Voltage selector E. Power converter

C. UPS An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) will provide backup power when the main power is no longer available.

4-66. You've started one of your computers after returning after a week away from the office, and you find that your PC crashes with a Windows Stop Error shortly after login. You then discover that a series of patches and OS updates were made while you were vacationing. Which of these options would be the best choice to begin the process of returning your system to a workable state? A. Restore the computer with your last monthly system image backup B. Reinstall the operating system from the original installation media C. Use System Restore and choose a prior restore point D. Restore the \Windows directory using your last Windows Backup

C. Use System Restore and choose a prior restore point Updating your computer with many different patches can complicate the troubleshooting process. Instead of working your way backwards, it's much more of an advantage to return your computer to a prior working configuration and slowly add patches until the issue is identified. System Restore automatically saves the system configuration before any major update, so you're probably only a few mouse clicks away from having a working computer again.

2-103. Which of these would be a reason for using Remote Disc on Mac OS? A. Connect to Windows shares B. Transferring files from network-connected file servers C. Use a DVD-ROM drive on a remote device D. Connect through an encrypted tunnel from a remote location E. Synchronize the contents of a drive across the network

C. Use a DVD-ROM drive on a remote device The Remote Disc feature allows you to use an optical drive that's located on a remote device.

1-240. Your Windows startup process is crashing with a Windows Stop error before you can get a login screen. You suspect that a service is crashing the system, but you obviously can't use your normal login process to disable the service. What is the next best option for ensuring the service is disabled? A. Reinstall Windows from the original installation media B. Boot into Safe Mode C. Use the Windows Recovery Command Prompt to disable the service from the command line D. Select the Last Known Good Configuration boot option

C. Use the Windows Recovery Command Prompt to disable the service from the command line The Windows Recovery Command Prompt provides a powerful set of tools that can manipulate almost any aspect of the operating system environment. The incorrect answers: A) Reinstall Windows from the original installation media - A complete reinstallation of Windows is pretty drastic, considering that you just need to have a single service disabled. B) Boot into Safe Mode - While it's true that Safe Mode only loads a fraction of the normal startup files and drivers, there's no guarantee that our problematic service won't be started. Safe Mode will not ensure with 100% that the service will be disabled. D) Select the Last Known Good Configuration boot option - In this example, our problem wasn't based on any changes or modifications. Changing the system to use the last known good configuration is an unknown variable that probably won't help our situation.

2-44. How are Android applications commonly packaged and distributed? A. Compressed and transferred using the TAR format B. Deployed using the Xcode application C. Using the Android Application Package format D. Using the Visual Studio app packager E. Through the Apple App Store

C. Using the Android Application Package format The APK (Android Application Package) format is commonly used to distribute apps for Android-based devices.

2-10. Which of these applications is compatible with Mac OS Screen Sharing? A. Microsoft Remote Desktop B. TeleCommute C. VNC D. iShare E. RDP

C. VNC Virtual Network Computing, or VNC, is compatible with the built-in Mac OS Screen Sharing feature.

3-47. What is the security threat that best describes malicious software that uses humans as the method of distribution? A. Social engineering B. Worm C. Virus D. Tailgating E. Man-in-the-middle

C. Virus A computer virus doesn't have the ability to replicate on its own, so it relies on humans to click a button or run an application to execute and spread.

3-72. Which of these would be the best encryption type to use on a wireless network? A. 802.1X B. WEP C. WPA2 D. TKIP

C. WPA2 WPA2 is the most secure encryption type to use on wireless networks.

1-120. Which of these would be the best way to migrate files and settings between an older computer running Windows XP and a new computer running Windows 7? A. File and Settings Transfer Wizard B. User State Migration Tools C. Windows Easy Transfer D. File Manager E. Windows Backup

C. Windows Easy Transfer Windows Easy Transfer can migrate files and settings between two computers that are directly connected to each other, or a migration file can be saved and then restored to the new computer at a later time.

1-194. Which of these would be associated with the chkdsk command? Pick two. A. New drives have been added to a computer and need to be checked in B. Files fragments need to be made contiguous C. You need to check every physical sector of a hard drive D. File system integrity needs to be validated

C. You need to check every physical sector of a hard drive and D. File system integrity needs to be validated The chkdsk (Check Disk) command can examine the file system for logical errors, and it can also check every drive sector for physical issues.

1-131. In which of these cases would best describe a multiboot installation of Windows? A. Your computer has multiple storage drives installed B. You need to install Windows from both a DVD-ROM drive and a USB C. Your computer will use more than one operating system D. Your Windows desktop will use two or more monitors E. Your Windows installation will support multiple CPU cores

C. Your computer will use more than one operating system A multiboot or dual-boot installation will allow you to install multiple operating systems onto your computer. During the startup process, you're prompted to select which operating system to use.

2-92. Which of these commands would be the best choice for moving between directories in Linux? A. mv B. cp C. cd D. ls E. dir

C. cd The cd (change directory) command is used in both Linux and Windows to move between file system directories.

2-38. Which of the following commands would be the best choice for backing up an entire Linux partition? A. backupd B. Backup Manager C. dd D. Disk Manager E. Partitioner

C. dd The dd command in Linux is commonly used for creating disk images of files and partitions.

1-188. You are working at the windows command prompt, and you need to know the size of a file on the hard drive. Which of these commands would provide you with this information? A. chkdsk B. format C. dir D. edit

C. dir The dir command can display a list of files and their sizes.

1-108. Which of the following would you use to verify policy settings for a computer or user? A. grouppolicy B. adpolicy C. gpresult D. gpupdate

C. gpresult The gpresult command is used to verify the Group Policy settings associated with a user or a computer.

1-247. You are organizing the files on your hard drive, and you'd like to create separate directories to organize your spreadsheets by month and year. What command line function can be used to create a directory? A. rmdir B. cd C. mkdir D. xcopy

C. mkdir The option to MaKe a DIRectory can be used to quickly create folders at the command line. The incorrect answers: A) rmdir The rmdir command will ReMove a DIRectory from the command line. B) cd The often-used cd command line option is used to Change Directories. D) xcopy Unlike the copy command, xcopy is used to copy both files and directories at the command line.

2-47. You need to delete a file from a Linux directory. Which of the following would be the best command to use? A. del B. mv C. rm D. erase E. delete

C. rm The rm (remove) command will delete files or directories from a Linux file system.

2-9. Which of these port numbers are commonly used when using IMAP over SSL? A. tcp/110 B. tcp/143 C. tcp/993 D. tcp/995 E. tcp/443

C. tcp/993 The default port for IMAPS is tcp/993. When configuring this protocol on a mobile device, you may need to specify the port number that the mail server uses for IMAPS.

2-85. Which Mac OS utility provides access to the operating system command line? A. cmd B. scripts C. terminal D. shell E. cmdlet

C. terminal The Terminal utility can be found in the Utilities folder of Mac OS.

1-125. Which of these would fit the minimum requirements for Windows Vista Business? A. 32 MB of graphics RAM B. 20 GB hard drive C. 800 MHz processor D. 1 GB memory

D. 1 GB memory Windows Vista Home Premium, Business, Ultimate, and Enterprise require a minimum of a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, a 40 GB hard drive with 15 GB free, and 128 MB of graphics RAM

1-262. Which of the following meets the minimum requirements for the 64-bit version of Windows 8.1? A. Microsoft DirectX 7 graphics device B. 1 GB RAM C. 16 GB free storage space D. 1 GHz processor

D. 1 GHz processor The 64-bit version of Windows 8.1 requires a 1 GHz processor, 2 GB of memory, 20 GB of free storage space, and a DirectX 9 graphics device.

1-217. What is the maximum amount of memory supported in Windows 7 Professional x64? A. 4 GB B. 16 GB C. 64 GB D. 192 GB

D. 192 GB The 64-bit version of Windows 7 Professional supports a whopping 192 GB of RAM. This is a significant difference over the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional, which only supports 4 GB of RAM.

1-173. What does the PAE feature of a CPU provide? A. Provides a standard set of processor instructions B. Protects against malicious software C. Streaming media features are more efficient D. 32-bit processors can use more than 4 GB of physical memory

D. 32-bit processors can use more than 4 GB of physical memory The PAE (Physical Address Extension) feature of a 32-bit CPU allows the processor to address more than 4 GB of physical RAM in a computer system.

1-199. What is the maximum file size supported in a FAT32 file system? A. 4 TB B. 2 GB C. 2 TB D. 4 GB

D. 4 GB The FAT32 file supports files up to 4 gigabytes in size. Although this sounds quite large, many of today's video and audio media applications can create and edit files that are many times that size.

1-127. Which of these is not true about 32-bit and 64-bit architectures? A. Memory can use a 64-bit bus, even when the CPU is 32-bit B. A 64-bit data bus can move twice as much as a 32-bit data bus in the same clock cycle C. Software must be optimized to take advantage of a 64-bit architecture D. 64-bit applications can run on 32-bit processors

D. 64-bit applications can run on 32-bit processors 64-bit applications are built to run only on 64-bit processors, and cannot run on a 32-bit CPU. Running 32-bit applications on 64-bit processors, however, is perfectly acceptable.

3-12. Which of these is true about high-level formatting? A. A drive cannot be used again after a high-level format B. The high-level formatting process is always done at the factory C. All data is securely deleted after a high-level format D. A high-level format can be performed by the operating system

D. A high-level format can be performed by the operating system A high-level format is almost always done by the operating system, and it's designed to initialize the drive or partition for use by the OS.

3-17. What is the fundamental characteristic that defines a computer worm? A. A worm causes massive operating system outages B. A worm intentionally modifies the contents of files C. A worm captures keystrokes D. A worm can replicate itself without any user intervention E. A worm pretends to be a legitimate application

D. A worm can replicate itself without any user intervention There are good worms and bad worms, but the thing that sets a worm apart from a virus or spyware is its unique ability to replicate without user intervention. A worm can move from machine to machine without a user clicking any buttons or actively running any programs.

3-91. Which of the following best describes the list of permissions associated with operating system objects? A. Network shares B. Usernames C. Multifactor authentication D. ACLs E. Process IDs

D. ACLs An access control list (ACL) is a way to associate permissions with an object. This is the method used to configure permissions in operating systems, network devices, file systems, and more.

2-17. Which of these would best describe the component on a mobile device that can detect motion and determine which way is "up?" A. Calibrator B. Global positioning system C. 802.11 radio D. Accelerometer E. IR sensor

D. Accelerometer An accelerometer is used to detect the orientation of the device and recognize if the device has moved. One common use of an accelerometer is to identify when the phone has been rotated so the screen can be switched between portrait and landscape.

1-153. Which Windows 7 account provides the highest level of access? A. Admin B. Root C. Power User D. Administrator E. Super User

D. Administrator The Administrator account is the highest level account in the Windows operating system.

4-79. Which of the following would be a common response on a mobile device to an excessive number of consecutive failed unlock attempts? A. The device reboots B. All apps are deleted C. All screen input is disabled D. All device content is deleted E. The secondary unlock questions are presented

D. All device content is deleted Most mobile devices are configured to automatically erase everything if too many unlock attempts fail. It usually takes at least 10 attempts before erasing the data, so it would be difficult to accidentally cause this to occur. It's always important to have a backup of your data! 5-1. You've been assigned a support ticket that very urgently requests a laptop repair, but there are already many open support tickets ahead of this request. You also don't recognize the name associated with the ticket. Which of these choices would be the best path to take? A. Place the ticket into the queue as first-come, first-served B. Contact the end-user and determine the urgency of the repair C. Triage the queue and prioritize the tickets in order of repair complexity. The easiest problems should be addressed first. D. Prioritize the support tickets by device type. Desktops have priority, followed by laptops and then mobile devices. Answer: B. Contact the end-user and determine the urgency of the repair The priority decision for support should consider the situation, and an urgent ticket without context makes it difficult to decide which repair jobs should go first. If you contact the user, you can determine how timesensitive the problem might be, and you can then prioritize or resolve the problem to the benefit of the organization.

3-75. How does a blacklist of outbound traffic work in a SOHO network? A. All traffic is blocked by default, and only specified traffic types are allowed B. All inbound traffic to a server is redirected to the internal address C. All outbound traffic uses a proxy D. All traffic is allowed, but certain traffic types are administratively blocked E. No outbound traffic is allowed

D. All traffic is allowed, but certain traffic types are administratively blocked A network blacklist is a security technique that allows all traffic except the items listed on a blacklist.

1-161. In which of these would you be most likely to use Performance Monitor? A. Defragment the hard drive B. Determine the BIOS version in use C. Remove a malware infection D. Analyze long-term system metrics E. Modify the video refresh rate

D. Analyze long-term system metrics The Windows Performance Monitor will collect statistics and system metrics from your computer, including disk statistics, network performance information, CPU utilization, and much more. The Performance Monitor also includes built-in system diagnostics and system performance reports.

3-6. Which of the following would be the best way to stop malicious code when it tries to execute in main memory? A. Host-based firewall B. DLP application C. Access control list D. Anti-virus application E. NTFS file system

D. Anti-virus application An anti-virus and anti-malware application is designed to stop malicious code from executing on your computer.

2-57. Which of the following would not be commonly seen in a UTM? A. URL filter B. Router C. CSU/DSU D. Application distribution E. Firewall F. Bandwidth shaper

D. Application distribution A UTM (Unified Threat Management) device is commonly given to all-in-one network and security devices. It's common to see a UTM with URL filtering, malware inspection, spam filtering, routing, firewall features, and more. A UTM does not manage the applications used on a desktop computer.

1-185. Which of these would be the most likely reason for using DHCP? A. Provides a method for the computer to resolve IP addresses from a domain name B. Allows the file system to be read by many different operating systems C. Runs applications as an older version of Windows D. Automates the process of assigning IP addresses to devices

D. Automates the process of assigning IP addresses to devices Using Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol means that your network administrator can avoid the tedious task of manually configuring IP addresses for all of your network devices.

3-100. What kind of attack would attempt to identify a password by attempting every possible combination of letters, numbers, and symbols? A. Dictionary attack B. Denial of service C. Rootkit D. Brute force attack E. Phishing

D. Brute force attack A brute force attack is commonly used to identify a password by attempting every possible combination until the password is discovered.

5-2. Which of these best describes the control and integrity of evidence as it moves from person to person? A. Digital signatures B. Tamper controls C. Burden of proof D. Chain of custody

D. Chain of custody The chain of custody provides a paper trail of a piece of physical or digital evidence from the point of seizure through the final disposition of the evidence.

1-157. The NTFS file system includes many advantages over FAT32, but there may be some instances where using FAT32 is preferable over NTFS. Which one of these would be a good reason to choose FAT32 over NTFS? A. Additional security features B. Support for large files C. Built-in encryption D. Compatibility between diverse operating systems

D. Compatibility between diverse operating systems NTFS is an advanced file system with many useful features, but it's not the best file system if many different operating systems need access to the data. If you're using MacOS or Linux, you may want to use FAT32 so that all of the operating system can have equal access to the disk. The incorrect answers: A) Additional security features B) Support for large files C) Built-in encryption All of these features are included with NTFS, so you can see why NTFS would be a good choice if you didn't need the compatibility between operating systems!

1-170. In which of these cases would you be most likely to use Remote Desktop? A. Transfer files from a remote device across a network link B. Configure the Windows boot manager of a remote device C. Configure the Windows boot manager of a remote device D. Control another desktop across the network E. Modify the BIOS settings of a remote computer

D. Control another desktop across the network Windows Remote Desktop allows you to view and control the desktop of a computer that's located across the network. Remote Desktop can be used to view the same desktop across both computers, allowing you to view and troubleshoot from the user's perspective.

2-26. Which of the following best describes the function of an accelerometer in a mobile device? A. Provides multi-axis motion sensing B. Provides precise navigation based on longitude, latitude, and altitude C. Determines the amount of ambient light around the device D. Detects the orientation of the device

D. Detects the orientation of the device An accelerometer is a motion sensor that can measure acceleration, even when an object is at rest. By using these measurements, a mobile device can determine which way is "up" and properly display the screen in the correct orientation.

1-21. You've just installed a new audio card into your Windows computer, but it doesn't seem to provide any output. Which Windows utility can give you information on the status of your new audio card? A. Performance Monitor B. Task Manager C. Event Manager D. Device Manager

D. Device Manager The Windows Device Manager provides an at-a-glance view of hardware status, and bad hardware will be visually flagged with an icon that designates a problem.

1-104. Which of the following would be the most effective way to prevent the use of an Ethernet adapter on a computer? A. Connect the Ethernet adapter to a loopback plug B. Disable the Ethernet adapter in the Windows Device Manager C. Uninstall the device driver for the Ethernet adapter D. Disable the Ethernet adapter in the BIOS E. Enable the Windows Firewall

D. Disable the Ethernet adapter in the BIOS The best way to guarantee that a hardware device cannot be used by any operating system is to disable the device in the system BIOS.

1-103. You'd like to disable a device so that it never works when you're using Windows 8.1. Which of these would be the easiest way to accomplish this? A. Delete the device driver from the hard drive B. Uninstall the device in Add/Remove programs C. Uninstall the driver in Device Manager D. Disable the device in Device Manager

D. Disable the device in Device Manager The Windows Device Manager can be used to manage the availability of any device, and you can easily disable the device from the Device Manager screen. Uninstalling the drivers will only remove the device for the current session, and it will automatically install itself the next time the operating system is started.

3-33. How does the Windows AutoRun feature work with USB drives in Windows 7? A. Enabled by default B. Enabled with a registry change C. Disabled with a security path D. Disabled completely

D. Disabled completely In Windows 7, the AutoRun feature was completely disabled for any device that mounts as a USB drive.

2-24. Which of the following would be the best way to repair problems with a Mac OS volume? A. Check Disk B. Drive View C. Partitioner D. Disk Utility E. Volume Manager

D. Disk Utility The Mac OS Disk Utility application can be used to manage volumes and perform First Aid checks.

1-219. What type of Windows 7 disk supports the mirroring of data? A. Basic B. Hybrid C. Advanced D. Dynamic E. Active

D. Dynamic Windows Dynamic disks can support the spanning of multiple disks, data mirroring, data striping, and other advanced disk functions.

2-106. Which of the following would be the best way to disable all radios on a mobile device? A. Move out of range of all access points B. Tether the mobile device to a computer C. Turn off all Bluetooth devices D. Enable airplane mode E. Disable LTE

D. Enable airplane mode The airplane mode feature of your mobile device will disable cellular, WiFi, Bluetooth, and any other radios in the device.

4-53. Which of the following would be the best next troubleshooting step when a mobile device cannot communicate to another device over Bluetooth? A. Move the two devices close enough to each other that they almost touch B. Disable the WiFi radio C. Connect to the Bluetooth device's website D. Enable or toggle the Bluetooth radio E. Turn on airplane mode

D. Enable or toggle the Bluetooth radio Sometimes Bluetooth needs to reset everything before normal communication can begin. It's common to start with checking to see if Bluetooth is actually turned on, or to toggle it off and back on again. You could also continue to troubleshoot by re-pairing the Bluetooth device, but sometimes it takes a hard reset of your mobile device and the Bluetooth device to get things going again.

4-32. You are responsible for managing the users at a remote site, and they have been having intermittent application issues for the last week. Unfortunately, none of the users have documented any of the application error messages. Which Windows utility could you use to gather more information about their history of application crashes? A. Process Monitor B. Device Manager C. Application Monitor D. Event Viewer

D. Event Viewer The Event Viewer can document success and failures of Windows operating system operations, as well as application activity. If there are any issues with an application, the crash information is often viewable in the Event Viewer.

1-172. You're troubleshooting a problem that appears intermittently on a user's workstation. The user has complained of error messages and slowdowns that occurred yesterday, but they didn't write down any of the messages and the slowdowns aren't happening today. Which of the following would be the best for gathering more information on this problem? A. Task Manager B. Services C. Performance Monitor D. Event Viewer

D. Event Viewer The Windows Event Viewer keeps a log of important information, and many error messages are stored in the Event Viewer for later review. If application or system problems occurred yesterday, the Event Viewer may have some information that might help you understand and resolve the problem. Since each event is logged with a date and time, it will also be useful to have the user provide you with the time of day they experienced the issue.

4-60. One of your customers has installed an update to one of their favorite applications, but the application now gives a Windows Stop Error each time it is launched and the workstation immediately reboots. Which of these Windows utilities can provide you with more details about this Blue Screen of Death? A. Device Manager B. Performance Monitor C. Stop Error Log Analyzer D. Event Viewer

D. Event Viewer The Windows Event Viewer maintains the logs from applications, security, system events, and much more. If you receive an error while using Windows, there's also a good chance that you'll find more details about the problem in the Event Log.

4-3. One of your clients is suffering through seemingly random instances of the blue Windows Stop Error. The problem appears to occur without any warning, and your client has not been able to determine what might be causing the issue. The last instance of the Stop Error occurred earlier in the week. What is the best way to start resolving this problem? A. Audit the device drivers to determine if they are all up to date B. Re-install the latest Windows Service Pack to ensure that you are using the latest patches C. Wait until the next blue-screen event and have the customer take a digital photo of the screen D. Examine the Windows Event Log for more information E. Upgrade the system BIOS to the newest available version

D. Examine the Windows Event Log for more information The Windows Error Log contains information such as application notices, error messages, and Windows Stop Error information. In many cases, you'll be able to see many days or weeks of log information.

3-55. Which of the following is true regarding explicit and inherited permissions in Windows? A. Implicit permissions take precedence over explicit permissions B. Inherited permissions are propagated from the child object to the parent object C. Implicit permissions must be administratively assigned D. Explicit permissions take precedence over inherited permissions E. If you apply a permission to a parent object, it does not apply to any child objects

D. Explicit permissions take precedence over inherited permissions In Windows, a permission that has been explicitly defined takes precedence over any permissions that may have been inherited from other objects. Child objects inherit their permissions from the parent object.

2-28. Which of the following is not commonly used for geolocation tracking? A. GPS B. WiFi network C. Mobile phone tower D. FM radio

D. FM radio GPS, WiFi network locations, and mobile phone provider networks are commonly used together to provide geolocation services on our mobile devices.

1-257. When searching for files in Windows Vista, you find that it takes at least five minutes to complete the search, and you notice that the hard drive light is flashing the entire time. The computer works fine, otherwise. What is the most likely cause of this delay? A. The computer hard drive is faulty B. File caching is disabled C. Windows Vista is running in Safe Mode D. File indexing is disabled

D. File indexing is disabled The Windows File Indexing service is responsible for constantly searching through your hard drive for filenames and file content. With this index of information, your searches will complete very quickly!

3-103. What primary method does a locator application use to help identify the location of a mobile device? A. Time of day B. Last known application used C. Temperature D. GPS E. Cloud storage information

D. GPS The GPS in a mobile device is used for many different applications, but the GPS becomes most important when trying to locate a missing mobile phone. 4-1. Which of these would be the best choice for identifying and repairing corrupted operating system files? A. REGSVR32 B. System Repair Disk C. Pre-Installation Environment D. SFC E. MSCONFIG Answer: D. SFC The SFC (System File Checker) will scan your operating system files for any issues and will repair any missing or corrupted OS files.

5-7. One of your customers has brought you a laptop that is experiencing a problem during the boot process. Which of these options would be the best path to resolve this issue? A. Have the customer explain the issue. When he provides enough information for you to understand the problem, stop him and let him know when he can return to pick up the laptop. B. Take the laptop and tell the customer to return tomorrow. C. Provide your recommendations to the customer with proper technical IT explanations. D. Have the customer explain the problem with as much detail as possible, and then repeat your understanding of the issue back to the customer for verification.

D. Have the customer explain the problem with as much detail as possible, and then repeat your understanding of the issue back to the customer for verification. The best use of your communication skills would be to avoid interrupting, avoid unnecessary jargon, and clarify the customer's statements.

2-42. Which of these cloud architectures would be most closely associated with a web hosting provider? A. SaaS B. PaaS C. Hybrid D. IaaS E. Community

D. IaaS Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is sometimes called Hardware as a Service (HaaS), and it's a model that provides hardware but not much else.

5-16. Which of the following is the first step of any troubleshooting process? A. Document the findings B. Perform a test C. Implement the plan D. Identify the problem E. Establish a theory

D. Identify the problem Before any troubleshooting can begin, you must first collect information on what specific problem is occurring. You can't guess at the list of possible issues until you fully understand the problem.

5-6. What type of surge absorption ratings should you look for on a suppressor? A. Smaller joule ratings B. Larger amp ratings C. Higher let-through ratings D. Larger joule ratings E. Smaller amp ratings

D. Larger joule ratings The absorption ratings of a surge suppressor are measured in joules. The larger joule rating can absorb a larger spike of power.

3-49. What type of business policy would provide you with only the rights necessary to perform your job? A. Split knowledge B. Dual control C. Separation of duties D. Least privilege

D. Least privilege Least privilege is a policy that sets security limits that are tightly associated with a business task or person. Generally, management gets to choose the rights based on business requirements and the security team gets to administer the rights.

1-205. Which of these utilities would be the best choice for modifying the account lockout policy on your computer? A. Windows Firewall B. Security Center C. System Configuration D. Local Security Policy

D. Local Security Policy The Local Security Policy utility allows you to manage security settings on a local Windows computer.

5-11. Which of these would be the best method of minimizing electrostatic discharge? A. Keep all work surfaces clean B. Use non-magnetic tools C. Unplug all power sources prior to working inside of the computer D. Maintain a humidity level over 60%

D. Maintain a humidity level over 60% High humidity helps to control electrostatic discharge, although keeping a room this humid and simultaneously at a comfortable temperature may be a challenge.

2-45. You're reading through a Linux script, and you see the command "mkdir." What function does this provide? A. Moves a directory of files B. Modifies a Linux directive C. Matches a set of files across directories D. Makes a directory E. Merges two directories together

D. Makes a directory The mkdir (make directory) command can be used in both Windows and Linux to create a new directory.

4-6. After visiting a number of web sites, a user is complaining of excessive pop-up messages in their Internet browser. Which of these would be the most likely cause of this issue? A. Operating system not patched B. Browser add-on issue C. Outdated drivers D. Malware infection E. Browser compatibility mode not enabled

D. Malware infection Malware can commonly be installed from bad or infected web sites. It's able to slip past your existing security controls because you're the one allowing it to run on your system. A diligent security management posture should always be in place when visiting web sites.

3-16. Which of the following file systems can support EFS? A. FAT B. FAT32 C. HPFS D. NTFS

D. NTFS The NTFS file system allows for many capabilities, and EFS (Encrypted File System) is one of those enhancements. If you're using a supported version of Windows, you can encrypt your files to prevent anyone else from seeing the contents. The encryption and decryption process is done seamlessly in the operating system.

1-222. The hard drive in a computer must be formatted with a file system type before it can be used by the operating system. Which of the following is not a file system type? A. FAT32 B. NTFS C. FAT D. NTFS32

D. NTFS32 The FAT and FAT32 file types are common across many operating systems. NTFS is the newest file system type available in Windows NT, Windows 2000, Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2008, Windows Vista, and Windows 7. The HPFS file system was seen primarily in a legacy operating system called OS/2.

1-113. You've been asked to install Windows Vista Home Basic onto a computer that has a 800 MHz processor, 512 MB of RAM, 10 gigabytes of available hard drive space, and VGA graphics. Will this computer run Windows Vista Home Basic? A. Yes, but only at the minimum specifications B. Yes, at both the minimum and the recommended specifications C. No, the computer doesn't have enough processing power D. No, the computer doesn't have enough disk space

D. No, the computer doesn't have enough disk space A minimum installation of Windows Vista requires at least 20 GB of available space for Windows Vista Home Basic, and 40 GB of available space for all other Windows Vista versions. Windows Vista Home Basic also requires a 800 MHz processor and 512 MB of RAM.

4-40. Which of these methods is guaranteed to remove malware from an infected computer? A. Scan and remove with anti-virus software B. Remove with a specialized anti-malware software package C. Use an anti-virus stand-alone application running in Windows PE D. None of the above

D. None of the above The only way to guarantee the removal of malware is to remove all data on the drive and reload the operating system, applications, and data.

2-91. What email protocol uses TCP port 995 as the default communications port? A. POP3 B. IMAPS C. SMTP D. POP3S E. IMAP

D. POP3S POP3 over SSL (POP3S) uses TCP port 995 by default. When configuring this protocol on a mobile device, you may need to specify the port number that the mail server uses for POP3S.

2-53. You'd like to build your own applications without the time and expense of writing everything from scratch. Which of the following would be a good choice for this requirement? A. IaaS B. Object-oriented development C. Hybrid cloud services D. PaaS E. SaaS

D. PaaS Platform as a Service (PaaS) is commonly used to modularly build applications without needing to build the entire application yourself. PaaS allows providers to offer a framework that allows the customers to build and customize their own applications and services.

3-67. Which of these would be the most likely reason for creating a BIOS user password? A. Disable the Windows login prompt B. Restrict the sharing of resources across the network C. Prevent the modification of any BIOS settings D. Prevent booting until the correct password is provided E. Reset the Windows login credentials

D. Prevent booting until the correct password is provided The user password in a BIOS prevents the system from starting the operating system until the correct password is provided.

2-88. Which of these would be most associated with IPP or LPD? A. Web server B. IPS C. DHCP server D. Print server E. Mail server

D. Print server It's common to use standard protocols such as SMB (Server Message Block), IPP (Internet Printing Protocol), or LPD (Line Printer Daemon) to communicate to a print server.

3-65. Which of these security prevention methods would be the most useful when traveling with your laptop? A. Mantrap B. Access control list C. Data loss prevention D. Privacy filter E. Email filtering

D. Privacy filter A privacy filter on your laptop's LCD display can prevent others from viewing your screen in a public area.

1-66. Which of the following would be the best choice for making changes to the Windows Registry? A. EDITREG B. NOTEPAD C. HIVEDIT D. REGEDIT E. CMD

D. REGEDIT The REGEDIT command launches the Windows Registry Editor.

3-84. What type of malware would encrypt all of your personal documents and require you to pay to obtain the decryption key? A. Phishing B. Trojan horse C. Man-in-the-middle D. Ransomware E. Spyware

D. Ransomware Ransomware effectively holds all of your personal documents, pictures, movies, and other files for ransom until you pay the amount requested by the bad guys.

1-176. Which of these flash memory features can increase the performance of Windows 7? A. Smart Cache B. Hyper-threading C. Multi-core D. ReadyBoost

D. ReadyBoost ReadyBoost is a technology in Windows 7 and Windows 8 that can increase the performance of data access by caching information to flash memory that would normally be written to a relatively slower hard drive.

4-2. Which of these would be the best choice for disabling a Windows service before the operating system starts? A. System Restore B. Windows Services C. Windows Repair D. Recovery Console Command Prompt E. Windows PE

D. Recovery Console Command Prompt The Windows Recovery Console and Command Prompt can provide you with many configuration and operating system options, including the modification or removal of files, enabling and disabling of devices, and the configuration of startup programs and services.

4-46. You need to modify the contents of a configuration file before your Windows 8.1 computer boots. What troubleshooting feature can provide you with this functionality? A. System Repair Disk B. Safe Mode C. SFC D. Recovery Options Command Prompt E. Registry Editor

D. Recovery Options Command Prompt The Windows Command Prompt in the Recovery Options provides a command line to the operating system disk prior to the system actually booting.

5-14. One of your customers has shown up at your desk with his broken computer, and he's visibly upset and quite vocal about the problem he's having. He's also asking for a very specific repair that doesn't appear to have any relationship to his issue. What's the best way to handle this difficult situation? A. Be sure the customer understands the mistake he's making with his proposed repair B. Tell the customer you're refusing the repair until he calms down C. Refuse to make any commitments until the computer is examined D. Repeat your understanding of the issue to the customer and provide an estimate and follow-up time

D. Repeat your understanding of the issue to the customer and provide an estimate and follow-up time Computer problems can be frustrating, but you can diffuse any conflicts by remaining calm and doing what you can to solve the issue. Avoid being defensive and contradictory, and do what you can while listening to the customer vent.

5-29. Which of the following would be a common responsibility of a first responder? A. Label and catalog as much information as possible B. Calculate hashes based on digital evidence C. Take pictures of the incident scene D. Report the issue to the proper channels

D. Report the issue to the proper channels As the first one on a scene, the first responder's primary responsibility is to evaluate the situation and contact everyone who should be involved.

4-78. Which of the following would be the best way to create a clean configuration of Windows 8.1 without losing any of your personal files? A. Backup your documents and perform a clean install B. Use a third-party disk imaging program C. Use System Restore to revert back to the original configuration D. Run a refresh procedure E. Use an LVM snapshot to restore back to the original configuration

D. Run a refresh procedure Windows 8.1 includes a new refresh feature that will return Windows to the configuration it had when it was first installed. This process will effectively remove all of your applications, but your user documents will remain intact.

3-82. Which of these permissions apply only to connections made over the network? A. NTFS B. Ethernet C. FAT32 D. Share

D. Share Share permissions are created and managed when using network shares, so the use of them would be limited to access over the network. Users that were on the same device as the share would not be subject to share-level permissions.

1-268. Which of these multi-factor authentication methods is integrated into the Windows 7 VPN client? A. Token generator B. Fingerprint reader C. Smart phone app D. Smart card

D. Smart card The Windows 7 client includes built-in support for a smart card. Many laptops now include built-in smart card interfaces, so it's convenient that the Windows 7 VPN client integrates this additional authentication factor.

4-17. Which of these utilities can be used to easily enable a Windows boot log? A. BOOTLOG B. Windows PE C. Registry Editor D. System Configuration E. Event Viewer

D. System Configuration The System Configuration utility, or msconfig, includes a checkbox in the Boot tab that allows you to enable and disable a boot log. If you're having problems during startup, you can reference the boot log at C:\Windows\ntbtlog.txt to see the results of your last boot process.

4-42. What is the first troubleshooting step you should take if your system stops responding to keyboard and mouse input? A. Reboot the computer B. Check the BIOS for any errors C. Disconnect any external storage devices D. Terminate any problematic applications E. Disconnect from the network

D. Terminate any problematic applications Although it may seem as if the entire system has stopped, it is sometimes possible to terminate any bad applications. In Windows and the Linux graphical interface, you can try pressing Ctrl-Alt-Del to activate the Task Manager. In Mac OS, the Force Quit options can be shown with Command-Option-Esc. Once the task managers are on the screen, you may be able to administratively stop the problematic application.

2-60. Which of the following would best describe emulation? A. Running a Windows virtual machine on your Linux desktop B. Using Remote Desktop to connect to a Windows computer from Mac OS C. Running a Linux Live CD on your Windows computer D. Testing an iOS application on a Mac OS desktop E. Dual-booting between Windows and Linux

D. Testing an iOS application on a Mac OS desktop An emulator is a device that is running a process that was designed for a completely different architecture. For example, it's common for mobile device developers to run Android and iOS emulators on their computer desktops to test their applications without using the physical mobile device.

2-7. Which of these would be a common reason to receive a Wireless Emergency Alert? A. A traffic accident has caused a delay on the roadways B. Your office fire alarm has activated C. One of your family members is having a medical emergency D. The President of the United States has sent an important message E. There is a power outage in your area

D. The President of the United States has sent an important message The Wireless Emergency Alert is a standard communication structure that's part of all mobile carrier networks in the United States. Alerts that involve imminent threats to the safety of life and national security are broadcast to all mobile devices using this system.

1-229. You've configured one of your workstations to act as a host for Remote Desktop Connection, but other workstations on the network cannot connect to the host. All of the settings in Remote Desktop appear to be correct. Which of these is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The Remote Desktop service is not running B. Your Windows credentials do not have permission to use Remote Desktop C. Windows is not using the correct network adapter D. The Windows Firewall is not properly configured

D. The Windows Firewall is not properly configured Windows Firewall will always stop any incoming connections to your computer unless an exception exists for Remote Desktop. If everything else looks normal, try temporarily disabling the firewall to test the connectivity.

4-73. Which of these best describes the Windows 8.1 refresh process? A. The Windows partition is deleted and refreshed back to factory defaults B. The Windows operating system is updated and all user files are deleted C. The Windows operating system and all user files are removed from the computer D. The Windows operating system files are refreshed and all user files are retained E. The Windows operating system files are upgraded to the latest versions

D. The Windows operating system files are refreshed and all user files are retained The Windows 8.1 refresh process will reset Windows, which effectively removes all applications that weren't installed from the Windows Store. All user documents will remain on the computer. You'll need to reinstall any user-installed applications.

1-159. Which of the following would best describe application pinning? A. The application will use the same memory resources each time it is launched B. The application can not be uninstalled C. The application will only run in Administrator mode D. The application will always be shown in the Windows taskbar E. The application will use a limited amount of CPU when active

D. The application will always be shown in the Windows taskbar A pinned application is one that will always be shown in the Windows taskbar, even when the application is not running. You can pin an application by right-clicking on the running application and selecting "Pin this program to taskbar."

4-49. Which of the following would most likely cause a mobile device battery to discharge faster than usual? A. The device has been idle for too long B. The power saving features are enabled C. All communication occurs over a VPN connection D. The device is outside of the wireless provider's signal range E. Too many apps are installed

D. The device is outside of the wireless provider's signal range When the wireless provider's signal reception is poor or there's no signal at all, the mobile device will constantly search for a signal. This signal polling process quickly depletes the battery, so many people will use a device's airplane mode when they are going to be outside of the coverage area.

3-83. Why are most 802.11b access points configured to use channels 1, 6, or 11, but rarely the channels inbetween? A. The other channels are government-restricted B. The other channels provide slower bandwidth C. The other channels are reserved for VoIP communication D. The other channel frequencies overlap each other

D. The other channel frequencies overlap each other The 2.4 GHz frequencies in 802.11b or 802.11g can be configured to use channels 1 through 14, but the frequency overlaps between the channels would create conflicts if multiple access points are used in close proximity. Channels 1, 6, and 11 are far enough apart from each other that a frequency conflict would never arise.

1-165. A client is having a problem printing to their locally connected laser printer. When you look at the Windows 8.1 Device Manager, you see that the printer has a down-arrow marked on the printer icon. What does this down-arrow represent? A. The printer is notifying the operating system of a hardware fault B. The printer is out of toner C. The printer driver is not loading properly D. The printer is administratively disabled

D. The printer is administratively disabled The Windows Device Manager can be used to manage any of the hardware devices connected to your computer. A device that has a down-arrow on the icon has been administratively disabled.

1-253. When you boot your Windows workstation, one of the disks is labeled "At risk" in the Disk Management utilities. What does this mean? A. The disk has less than 1% of available space free B. The disk has a different file system than the boot disk C. A basic disk was added to a system with dynamic disks D. The volume has experienced a number of disk errors

D. The volume has experienced a number of disk errors Although an "at risk" drive will continue to operate, an increased number of errors may indicate a failing drive.

5-30. Which of these options should not be used to clean a motherboard? A. Remove large dust collections with a vacuum B. Use air to blow out smaller layers of dust C. Use a brush to dislodge dust D. Use a small screwdriver to dislodge dust from smaller components

D. Use a small screwdriver to dislodge dust from smaller components A motherboard contains many small components, and many of the components are only mounted onto the surface of the board. A slight bit of pressure can easily dislodge the components, and physically touching the components could potentially discharge static electricity and permanently damage the silicon.

1-150. Which of these tools can be used at the command line to automate the large-scale migration of user information between Windows operating system versions? A. File and Settings Transfer Wizard B. System Migration Tool C. System Configuration D. User State Migration Tool E. Windows Easy Transfer

D. User State Migration Tool The User State Migration Tools provide a suite of command line utilities to build, load, and configure Windows migrations.

1-141. There are 40 people in your company's Accounting department, and you need to provide everyone with access to a confidential department share. Which of these would be the best choice for combining all of the Accounting department employees together for this share access? A. Local Security Policy B. Windows Firewall C. User Access Control D. Users and Groups

D. Users and Groups Instead of configuring 40 separate share permissions, Users and Groups allows you to combine all of the users into a single group that then can have a single share permission.

1-183. Which Windows 7 x64 edition supports of maximum of 16 GB of RAM? A. Windows 7 Professional B. Windows 7 Starter C. Windows 7 Ultimate D. Windows 7 Home Premium

D. Windows 7 Home Premium Windows 7 Home Premium has both 32-bit and 64-bit versions, but the 64-bit version only supports a maximum of 16 GB of RAM. This is unlike Windows Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise, which can support up to 192 GB of RAM in the x64 versions.

3-45. You'd like to use your laptop at the local coffee shop, but you're concerned about the open Wi-Fi access. What Windows component can prevent others at the coffee shop from accessing your computer? A. Anti-virus software B. NTFS file system C. Windows Update D. Windows Firewall

D. Windows Firewall The built-in Windows Firewall creates a stateful firewall that allows applications to communicate out from your laptop, but prevents anyone else from sending unwanted information into your computer.

4-61. Which Windows feature prevents the system from overwriting an important DLL? A. System Protection B. Windows Backup and Restore C. Time Machine D. Windows Resource Protection E. File History

D. Windows Resource Protection Windows Resource Protection is the integrated Windows technology that protects registry entries, system folders, and essential system files.

1-128. In which of these cases would you be using an encryption technology? A. You need to make a file writable by you, but read-only for everyone else B. You need to ensure that all data is removed from a hard drive C. You want to provide for stateful network access D. You want to access your office file servers and printers while traveling

D. You want to access your office file servers and printers while traveling Virtual Private Networking (VPN) allows you to securely connect to your corporate resources using an encrypted tunnel. This method allows you to use your file servers as if you were locally connected, but all of the network communication to your computer is encrypted and secure.

1-175. In which of these situations would you be most likely to use a network proxy? A. You want to provide automatic IP addressing to your local networks B. You want to deploy applications automatically to your end users C. You want to backup data from user workstations D. You want to block known malicious web sites from your end users

D. You want to block known malicious web sites from your end users Proxy servers can provide many security functions, including the filtering of specific URL categories.

3-19. When would you use MAC filtering on your wireless network? A. You want to prevent your wireless network from appearing in a search list B. You want to require encrypted communication on your wireless network C. You want to restrict all Apple computers from joining the wireless network D. You want to prevent specific workstations from joining the wireless network

D. You want to prevent specific workstations from joining the wireless network The Media Access Control address is a physical address that's hard-coded into network adapters. Most wireless access points will provide a way to allow or restrict access based on this address. This isn't foolproof, since many network adapters also allow you to modify the MAC address value.

5-35. Which of the following would be the best example of PII? A. The manufacturer of your display device B. A list of Internet providers in your area C. The speed of your Internet connection D. Your home address E. The retail cost of your computer

D. Your home address PII (Personally Identifiable Information) is generally considered to be private information that should not be shared with others. The management of PII is an important part of your organization's privacy policy.

2-36. Which of the following would be the best choice to check for file system problems in Linux? A. chkdsk B. diskcheck C. apt-check D. fsck E. rpmchk

D. fsck The fsck (file system consistency check) utility is the best choice for checking the file system in Linux.

2-51. Which of the following would be the best way to terminate a Linux process by name? A. kill B. halt C. taskkill D. killall E. net stop

D. killall The Linux killall command allows you to terminate a process by name instead of using the process ID (PID).

2-1. Which of the following would be the best way to view the list of current Linux processes? A. Task Manager B. sudo C. tasks D. ps E. cpustats

D. ps The Linux ps (process) command provides a list of the current processes.

2-86. Which of the following commands can restart a Linux computer from the command line? A. kernel B. halt C. load D. shutdown E. start

D. shutdown You can turn off a Linux computer with the shutdown command, and using the -r flag will also restart the computer.

1-184. What is the minimum processor speed required for Windows Vista Business? A. 800 MHz B. 1 GB C. 40 GHz D. 300 MHz E. 1 GHz

E. 1 GHz Windows Vista Home Basic requires a minimum CPU speed of 800 MHz and all other Windows Vista editions require a minimum CPU speed of 1 GHz.

5-20. Which of these would be most associated with a content policy? A. A schedule of normal work hours B. An organizational chart of executives C. The sign-in procedures for the data center D. The total available RAM in your computer E. A list of web sites that are blocked by default

E. A list of web sites that are blocked by default The content policy of an organization's security policy is related to what information is allowed and not allowed on the computer and network of the organization.

2-25. Which of the following would be the easiest way to access frequently-used folders and applications in Mac OS? A. Use a third-party application manager B. Launch applications from the App Store utility C. Define separate hotkeys for all apps and folders D. Hold the Command key when starting the application E. Add applications and folders to the Dock

E. Add applications and folders to the Dock The integrated Mac OS Dock can be used to quickly access files, folders, and applications from your main desktop screen.

2-107. Which of the following would be a feature associated with proxy servers? A. URL destinations and categories can be blocked or allowed B. Web requests can be cached for faster performance C. Downloaded files can be scanned for viruses D. A username and password is required before accessing network resources E. All of the above

E. All of the above A proxy server can provide access control, caching, URL filtering, content scanning, and many other features.

5-13. Which of the following would be a best practice for personal safety around computers? A. Do not wear jewelry or lanyards when working on printers B. Use cable ties or Velcro to manage cables C. Use an air mask when working inside of a laser printer D. Use lifting equipment when working with overweight items E. All of the above

E. All of the above It's important to follow some common safety best practices when working with computer equipment.

2-77. Which of the following tasks can be performed from the Linux terminal? A. Manage files B. Run scripts C. Update the operating system D. Configure application settings E. All of the above

E. All of the above The Linux command line provides complete access to the operating system. Unlike many other operating systems, Linux can be fully managed from the command line.

4-38. Which of the following could be completed from the Terminal utility in Mac OS? A. Modify operating system configuration files B. Shutdown processes C. Change application configurations D. Modify user rights and permissions E. All of the above

E. All of the above The command line of the Terminal in Linux and Mac OS provides you with complete access to practically all operating system files and features.

5-18. Which of the following information types would be documented during an event? A. Written information B. Operating system logs C. Disk images D. Photographs of a screen E. All of the above

E. All of the above When an incident has occurred, it's important to collect and document as much information about the event as possible.

3-57. Which of the following would be true when using a company's mobile device manager? A. Screen locks and PINs would be required B. The camera can be administratively disabled C. The name and type of applications can be specifically defined D. Data can be encrypted by default E. All of these would be common when using a mobile device manager

E. All of these would be common when using a mobile device manager A mobile device manager (MDM) is commonly used to control many aspects of a mobile device, especially in a company setting. Many MDMs will control all or part of a mobile device so that the company's applications and data will remain secure.

4-28. Which of these would be the most likely reason to see an Apple "pinwheel?" A. An application is shutting down B. Total internet bandwidth is below 10 megabits per second C. The operating system is notifying you of a pending update D. The primary storage drive is at 90% capacity E. An application is waiting to access a system resource

E. An application is waiting to access a system resource The Apple spinning wait cursor is a colorful spinning ball that is similar to the Windows hourglass cursor. When the wait cursor appears, an application is waiting to access memory, storage, or some other resource.

2-97. Which of the following would best describe rapid elasticity? A. Desktop computers are usable very quickly after power on B. Laptop CPUs can run at faster speeds when required C. A motherboard can be configured with additional storage options D. A link between network switches can trunk multiple VLANs E. Application resources can scale up and down very quickly

E. Application resources can scale up and down very quickly In cloud computing, rapid elasticity describes the ability to quickly scale up and scale down as resources are needed. This scalability happens very quickly and usually happens without the end user realizing that anything has changed.

4-58. Which of these best describes a browser that shows a different page than the one that was requested? A. Proxy B. Browser extension C. VPN D. Routing loop E. Browser redirection

E. Browser redirection A browser redirection occurs when malware controls the operation of your browser. The best way to correct a browser redirection is to restore your system from a known-good backup.

1-265. In which of these cases would you use the MMC? A. Rebuild the boot sector B. Repair an operating system installation C. Recover a deleted file D. Upgrade the CPU E. Build your own management framework

E. Build your own management framework The Microsoft Management Console (MMC) can be used to build a customized management console for managing your computer systems.

1-244. Which of the following would best describe the process of sharing a local printer? A. Add the printer to the Windows Desktop B. Connect the printer and confirm the Test Print is working properly C. Configure the Windows registry to allow shared printers D. Add the printer to the "Shared Devices" section of the BIOS E. Click the "Share this printer" from the printer properties in the Sharing tab

E. Click the "Share this printer" from the printer properties in the Sharing tab All of the printer sharing settings can be found in the printer properties under the "Sharing" tab.

1-142. In Windows 8.1, where would you find information about the Windows version in use? A. Control Panel / Administrative Tools / System Manager B. Program Files / Windows Setup C. Control Panel / Startup Options D. Program Files / System Information E. Control Panel / System

E. Control Panel / System The System Control Panel applet provides information about the computer, including processor, installed memory, and the edition and system type of Windows in use.

2-2. Which of these would be the best use of the Linux command "dd"? A. Compress and decompress a list of files B. Force a file system check C. Administratively halt a running process D. Share a remote screen E. Create a drive image

E. Create a drive image The dd command can copy and convert files, and it's often used to copy the contents of a partition to an image file.

3-26. Which of these would be a characteristic of the Windows SSO process? A. Access times to stored data is increased B. Wireless network encryption is integrated C. File permissions can be defined for all Windows users D. All network communication is encrypted by default E. Credentials are only required during the initial login process

E. Credentials are only required during the initial login process SSO (Single Sign-On) is a process where you provide login credentials one time and access to other allowed resources are provided without any additional authentication.

2-23. Which of the following would commonly be used to automatically assign IP addresses to your network devices? A. IP server B. Authentication server C. IPS D. Proxy server E. DHCP server

E. DHCP server A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server is used to assign IP addresses to network devices using a centralized pool of available addresses.

1-237. Which of these Windows utilities would be the best choice for rolling back a device driver to a previous version? A. Windows Backup and Restore B. System Information C. Component Services D. Task Manager E. Device Manager

E. Device Manager The Device Manager configuration settings for a piece of hardware provides status information, version details, and a button to revert to a previous version of the device driver.

3-23. Which of the following would be the best way to allow a system account to operate properly, but prevent any logins across the network? A. Change the ownership of the user documents B. Only allow access during certain hours of the day C. Disable the network connection on the device D. Change the password for the system account E. Disable interactive logins on the account

E. Disable interactive logins on the account It's important to disable any unused accounts, but some accounts must remain active for certain system processes to work properly. In these cases, the best practice is to keep the account active but disable any interactive logins for the account.

2-59. Which of the following utilities can you use in Mac OS to perform First Aid on a drive partition? A. Time Machine B. Disk Management C. System Information D. Check Disk E. Disk Utility

E. Disk Utility The Disk Utility in Mac OS can be used to manage drive partitions, get information, and perform first aid to storage drives.

5-33. Which of these would best describe the primary purpose of an electrical ground? A. Increase the total power available to a computer B. Minimize the number of power outages C. Provides a way to run multiple devices from the same power outlet D. Provide electrical backup E. Divert electrical faults away from people

E. Divert electrical faults away from people An electrical ground is a path for electricity to take in the case of a stray voltages. The electrical ground is the best path to the Earth, so any inadvertent power would take the path through the electrical ground instead of our bodies.

2-95. Which of these would be the best way to communicate securely between your mobile phone and your corporate office? A. Tether the phone to your computer B. Connect to a WiFi network that uses WPA2 C. Use the phone with an external modem D. Disable the WiFi radio E. Enable the VPN on the phone

E. Enable the VPN on the phone Most phones can be configured to use a VPN tunnel to ensure encrypted communication between the phone and another device.

1-167. In which of these cases would you be most likely to use a PXE? A. Adding a storage device to an existing Windows server B. Updating Windows 7 video drivers C. Connecting to a Windows Media Center server D. Replacing a motherboard E. Installing Windows from a network server

E. Installing Windows from a network server The Windows Preboot Execution Environment is a bootable version of Windows that is commonly used to start a very basic version of a Windows environment. This is the Windows environment that's used during the Windows setup, and it's also useful if you need to boot a workstation just enough to have it grab installation files from a central server.

1-252. Which of these would require a user on a stand-alone computer to change their password every 30 days? A. Windows Security Center B. Component Services C. Windows Firewall D. BIOS Security E. Local Security Policy

E. Local Security Policy The Windows Local Security Policy allows you set security configurations for stand-alone non-Domain managed devices.

3-29. Which of these would best describe a device that was not an SOE? A. Upgradable B. Disabled C. Embedded D. Secure E. Non-compliant

E. Non-compliant A system configured as an SOE (Standard Operating Environment) has been tested and approved for use on the organization's network. If a system does not meet the SOE requirements, then it is a non-compliant system.

2-12. Which of the following Anti-virus applications is included with Mac OS? A. Security Control B. Anti-Virus Manager C. Innoculator D. Virus Firewall E. None of the above

E. None of the above Mac OS does not include an anti-virus or anti-malware application as part of the operating system distribution.

3-88. Which of the following would commonly be experienced by the end users during a man-in-the-middle attack? A. The mouse moves around the screen without any user interaction B. Usernames and passwords would be displayed on the screen C. Information is typed into fields without touching the keyboard D. A file copy would begin without any user intervention E. None of the above

E. None of the above Man-in-the-middle attacks are especially disconcerting because there's commonly no feedback that anything different is happening with the network traffic flow. Although a malicious attacker could inject information into the traffic flow, it's commonly done without any obvious feedback to the end users.

1-243. What cloud-based document storage solution is integrated with Windows 8.1? A. Microsoft Drive B. Dropbox C. CloudStore D. Cloud Backup E. OneDrive

E. OneDrive Microsoft OneDrive is integrated with Windows 8.1, and can store documents, configurations, pictures, and other personal files. This synchronization feature has effectively replaced the migration features found in Windows Easy Transfer.

2-75. How are PRI updates usually distributed? A. During operating system updates B. Through the mobile device app store C. At an authorized service center D. On the manufacturer's web page E. Over the air

E. Over the air PRI (Product Release Instruction) updates include radio settings such as ID numbers, network codes, and country codes. These updates are usually distributed seamlessly through the existing mobile device network.

4-43. You suspect that your mobile device may be infected with malware and tracking your physical location. Which of the following would guarantee the removal of any unauthorized tracking software? A. Install any pending operating system updates B. Disable the GPS radio C. Update all mobile device apps D. Disconnect from any untrusted Wi-Fi networks E. Perform a factory reset of your mobile phone

E. Perform a factory reset of your mobile phone The only way to guarantee the removal of any unauthorized software is to backup your personal data and perform a factory reset of the mobile device.

2-33. Which of the following would best describe a cloud deployment model that was hosted entirely in your own data center? A. Core cloud B. Collapsed cloud C. Hybrid cloud D. Internal cloud E. Private cloud

E. Private cloud A private cloud allows an organization to take advantage of cloud computing without the use of any external resources or services.

4-27. What Windows utility would be the best choice to provide you with a long-term analysis of application stability and problem history? A. Event log B. Performance Monitor C. System Configuration D. Computer Management E. Reliability Monitor

E. Reliability Monitor The Windows Reliability Monitor can provide information about application failures, Windows problems, warnings, informational messages, and more.

1-121. Which of these would be the best choice for permanently disabling a background service from starting when Windows launches? A. Add / Remove Programs B. Remove the service from the Startup folder C. Safe Mode D. Modify the startup options in the Windows Registry E. Services utility

E. Services utility The Windows Services utility provides a single console for managing the operation of all background services.

2-105. Which of these would be the most likely reason for using the pwd command in Linux? A. Change your password B. Remove a file C. Change the ownership of a directory D. View the current running processes E. Show the current directory name

E. Show the current directory name The pwd (Print Working Directory) command is used to display the name of the current directory.

3-85. Which of the following commonly contain a digital certificate? A. DVD-ROM B. PIN C. Strong password D. MBR E. Smart card

E. Smart card A smart card often contains a digital certificate to create a unique card that cannot be duplicated elsewhere. It's common to use smart cards as authentication factors to use with passwords, PINs, fingerprints, and more.

2-96. Which of these is true of virtual machines? A. The hypervisor's memory requirements are similar to a standard workstation B. You must route between different virtual machines C. Virtualization renders anti-virus and anti-malware unnecessary D. Virtualization features are limited to Windows operating systems E. Some CPUs include virtualization capabilities in hardware

E. Some CPUs include virtualization capabilities in hardware Intel CPUs with VT (Virtualization Technology) and AMD CPUs with AMD-V are designed with specialized virtualization features in the CPU. Some virtualization software requires these features to work, while some other virtualization software packages will operate less efficiently without these features.

3-74. If you modify your MAC address to appear as if you are a legitimate device on the network, what security threat would you be using? A. Social engineering B. Phishing C. Brute force D. Tailgating E. Spoofing

E. Spoofing Spoofing is a threat that changes one device to make it appear as if it is a different device. Changing MAC addresses and IP addresses are common ways to spoof a legitimate device.

1-78. Which of these utilities would be the best choice for configuring Windows boot options? A. Boot Manager B. Device Manager C. Services D. Local Security Policy E. System Configuration

E. System Configuration The System Configuration utility has a dedicated Boot tab to configure Safe Boot options, logging, video configurations, timeout delays, and much more.

4-51. Which of these would be the best choice to provide system recovery options in Windows 7 without booting the operating system? A. BIOS diagnostics B. Microsoft Register Server C. Windows Recovery Disk D. System Configuration E. System Repair Disk

E. System Repair Disk The Windows System Repair Disk boots the computer and provides the standard list of system recovery options. From the System Repair Disk, you can run Startup Repair, System Restore, System Image Recovery, Windows Memory Diagnostic, or launch the Command Prompt.

1-23. Which of these would be the best choice for running a daily backup program? A. SFC B. Component Services C. Task Manager D. Device Manager E. Task Scheduler

E. Task Scheduler The Windows Task Scheduler can be used to schedule the execution of any program or process.

3-70. Which of the following best describes remote backup on a mobile device? A. The backups occur when the device is physically connected to a computer B. The backups are stored in decrypted form for easy access C. The backups only contain mail, contacts, and calendar events D. The backups must restore to the same physical device E. The backups occur constantly to the cloud backup servers

E. The backups occur constantly to the cloud backup servers Remote devices that backup to the cloud perform backups constantly and keep an updated backup online at all times. If a device is lost, a replacement can be restored automatically from the remote backup.

4-72. You've left your mobile phone on the dashboard of your car, and now the display will not respond and the system will not restart. Which of these is the most likely reason for this issue? A. The display is faulty B. An app has hung the device C. The phone is out of memory D. The phone is outside the signal area E. The phone has powered itself off

E. The phone has powered itself off If a mobile device overheats, it will automatically turn itself off in an attempt to avoid any permanent damage. Once the system cools down, it should start normally.

3-31. Which of these would be the best reason for regularly changing a login password? A. The login process becomes more difficult when a history of passwords has been saved B. Secondary passwords are a separate factor of authentication C. The security of a password will age out over time D. Changing the password will refresh the firewall timers E. The scope of a potential attack would be reduced

E. The scope of a potential attack would be reduced If someone has discovered your password, you can limit the amount of time they can use those account credentials by changing the password to something different.

4-63. Your mobile phone is not able to broadcast to your television. Which of the following might be causing this issue? A. The television is not connected to a wired Ethernet network B. The television uses a different resolution than your mobile phone C. You need to connect an HDMI cable between the television and your mobile phone D. You must enable Bluetooth on your mobile phone E. The television is on a different IP network

E. The television is on a different IP network The video and audio broadcasting feature of most mobile devices will only work if both the mobile device and the display are on the same IP subnet. Most implementations will use 802.11 wireless networks, since Bluetooth does not have the bandwidth required for high-definition video.

2-16. What is the maximum amount of data that is retained in Mac OS Time Machine? A. The past hour B. The past 24 hours C. The past week D. The past month E. Until the Time Machine volume is full

E. Until the Time Machine volume is full Time Machine will backup data until it fills up the Time Machine volume. The oldest backup information will be removed as newer data is written.

4-4. Which of these would be the most common symptom of a malware infection? A. The wireless network list will not display all available networks B. Windows prompts for a username and password when starting C. An application originally written for an older version of Windows will occasionally stop working D. The auto-complete in your email application is no longer working E. Unusual icons and applications appear on the computer

E. Unusual icons and applications appear on the computer It's common for malware to install its own applications to help build a beachhead on your computer.

4-25. Which of the following would not commonly be a best practice for troubleshooting slow Windows system performance? A. Check Task Manager for application utilization statistics B. Run Windows Update to get the latest patches C. Check the available storage space D. Run an anti-virus and anti-malware scan E. Update the system BIOS

E. Update the system BIOS There are many reasons for Windows to have performance issues, but there's not much that a BIOS update can do to fix that issue.

4-75. Which of the following would be the safest way to use your mobile device on a public Wi-Fi hotspot? A. Require an unlock code B. Only use the email app C. Use a different login credential on each service D. Only connect to visible wireless network names E. Use a VPN connection

E. Use a VPN connection On an untrusted wireless network, it's useful to use a VPN (virtual private network) connection to ensure that all network traffic to your mobile device is encrypted.

2-89. Which of the following Linux commands allows you to modify the group ownership of a file? A. groups B. modifygrp C. grouping D. grpown E. chown

E. chown The chown (change ownership) command in Linux is used to modify the user and group ownership for a file or directory.

2-5. Which of the following would be the best choice for synchronizing an Apple iPhone to a Windows desktop? A. Windows Phone app B. Terminal C. App Store D. iPhone Sync E. iTunes

E. iTunes Apple's iTunes application is used to synchronize an iPhone to a Mac OS or Windows computer.

1-84. Which of the following would not meet the minimum requirements for the 32-bit version of Windows 8.1? A. 15 GB of drive space B. 1 GHz processor C. 1 GB of RAM D. DirectX 9 graphics device

A. 15 GB of drive space The 32-bit version of Windows 8.1 requires a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of memory, 16 GB of free storage space, and a DirectX 9 graphics device.

1-85. What is the maximum amount of RAM supported by the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional? A. 4 GB B. 8 GB C. 16 GB D. 192 GB

A. 4 GB The 32-bit version of Windows 7 Professional supports up to 4 GB of memory, and the 64-bit version supports up to 192 GB of RAM.

1-67. Your company's security team has announced the rollout of a new VPN for each laptop in the organization. What will this VPN provide? A. A secure network channel back to the corporate office when traveling outside the building B. Additional encryption mechanisms for data stored on the hard drive C. New security options for USB and other external storage devices D. An additional dongle that provides random numbers to use during the login process

A. A secure network channel back to the corporate office when traveling outside the building A Virtual Private Network provides an encrypted tunnel of information between two points. This allows you to send private information over public networks without the worry of someone examining the data.

1-70. Which of these Windows 7 functions contain a consolidated view of alerts, an overview of OS features, and a color coded status display? A. Action Center B. Event Viewer C. Security Center D. Device Manager

A. Action Center In Windows 7 and 8/8.1, all of the scattered alerts and information features have been consolidated into the Control Panel's Action Center.

1-45. Which of the following will launch the Windows command line? A. CMD B. PROMPT C. CMD64 D. COMMAND32

A. CMD The CMD command launches the Windows Command Prompt.

1-69. Which of these utilities would be the best choice for managing COM+ apps? A. Component Services B. Computer Management C. Command Prompt D. Computer Registry

A. Component Services The Windows Component Services utility is designed to help you support the distributed Component Object Model applications. In the Component Services utility, you'll find Component Service configurations, integrated Event Viewer, and access to Windows Services management.

1-43. Which of the following would be the best way to remove a feature of the Windows operating system? A. Control Panel / Programs and Features B. The Windows setup utility C. Windows Safe Mode D. Control Panel / System E. Control Panel / Administrator Tools / Uninstall

A. Control Panel / Programs and Features The Programs and Features applet in the Control Panel can be used to install or remove 3rd-party applications, and it can also be used to add or remove specific Windows features.

1-2. In Windows 7, where would you make a change to a user's certificate information? A. Control Panel / User Accounts B. Administrative Tools / Global Security Policy C. Administrative Tools / Device Manager D. Control Panel / Certificate Manager

A. Control Panel / User Accounts The User Accounts Control Panel applet allows you to configure user-specific information such as the account name, type, password, picture, and certificate.

1-92. Which of these are most associated with CHKDSK? Pick two. A. Corrects file system errors B. Provides S.M. A.R.T. error reports C. Rebuilds the boot sector D. Checks every disk sector for physical errors

A. Corrects file system errors and D. Checks every disk sector for physical errors The CHKDSK command can be configured to identify and repair any file system errors, and can optionally scan every sector on a drive for physical issues.

1-51. What is the fundamental purpose of a network proxy? A. Creates a functional separation between users and the Internet B. Increases bandwidth capacity of network communication C. Routes network traffic between subnets D. Encrypts traffic between users and a remote location

A. Creates a functional separation between users and the Internet A proxy is designed to limit direct access between users and Internet sites by terminating the user's network connections on the proxy. The proxy then completes the request and sends the results to the end user. Since the proxy is always in the middle of the connection, there's no possible way for users and Internet sites to directly communicate with each other.

1-32. Which of these can be used to launch the Windows Task Manager? Pick two. A. Ctrl-Shift-Esc B. Right-click the task bar and choose "Task Manager" C. Ctrl-Alt-Esc D. Start menu / Control Panel / Task Manager

A. Ctrl-Shift-Esc and B. Right-click the task bar and choose "Task Manager" The Task Manager is one of the most useful real-time utilities that you'll use. You can also type Ctrl-Alt-Del and select Task Manager to launch the utility.

1-37. You've recently purchased a used hard drive for your desktop computer. After installing the drive, you notice that the drive has not been erased and it already has an existing partition. Which of these Windows utilities can be used to examine the details of the disk and its partitions? A. Disk Management B. CHKDSK C. Device Manager D. Event Viewer

A. Disk Management There are a number of command line utilities that can help gather information about a hard drive, but the best option from these answers is the graphical Windows Disk Management utility. The incorrect answers: B) CHKDSK - The CHKDSK program is used to examine a drive for logical and physical errors. C) Device Manager - The device manager can confirm the installation of the hard drive and display some hardware information, but it doesn't show any detailed partition information. D) Event Viewer - The event viewer would have messages if the disk wasn't working properly, but it doesn't display the disk details.

1-42. Which of these tasks would be the best choice for the Windows Disk Management utility? A. Extend the size of a partition B. Eject a removable storage device C. Defragment a hard drive D. Rebuild a disk's master boot record

A. Extend the size of a partition The Windows Disk Management utility can perform many administrative disk functions, such as mounting drives, changing drive letters, modifying partition sizes, and much more.

1-89. Which of these features would you find in Windows Firewall with Advanced Security? A. Inbound and outbound port-based filtering B. Malware filtering C. Web-site filtering by URL D. Virus filtering

A. Inbound and outbound port-based filtering The Windows firewall can filtering traffic by application, direction, port number, and many other criteria.

1-5. Which of the following features are included with all editions of Windows 8.1? A. Integrated anti-virus and anti-malware B. Support for BitLocker C. Group Policy support D. Support for joining Windows Domains E. Integrated EFS file encryption

A. Integrated anti-virus and anti-malware Windows Defender is Microsoft's integrated anti-virus and anti-malware application, and it's included free with all editions of Windows 8.1.

1-80. Which of these methods would be the best way to determine if you can upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7? A. Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor B. Refer to the computer manufacturer's web site C. Run Windows 7 Setup and follow the prompts D. Use MSCONFIG to inventory the computer

A. Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor will inventory the hardware and software running on your computer and will determine if any issues may occur if there's an upgrade to Windows 7.

1-46. Which Windows feature can create a backup that contains different versions of the same file? A. System Protection B. Task Manager C. Windows Defender D. System Restore E. User Account Control

A. System Protection Windows System Protection is the feature that not only can revert your system to a previous system configuration, but it can also maintain different versions of your files. You can enable System Protection in Control Panel / System / System Protection tab.

1-95. You have just installed a new application on your Windows 7 computer and you've rebooted to complete the setup process. Unfortunately, your system hangs immediately after login at a black screen. The only way to gain control of the system is to power cycle the computer. Which of these tools would provide the easiest way to return your computer to its previous configuration? A. System Restore B. Windows Backup C. Add/Remove Programs D. Windows Setup

A. System Restore System Restore can really get you out of a jam, especially when the unexpected happens. If an application has gone south, you can "rewind" your system to a previous configuration with System Restore. Your original system files will replace any that have changed, and configuration settings will be returned to their earlier state.

1-65. You've just updated a device driver, but you've run into a problem with the new version of the driver. Which Windows feature would be the best choice for reverting to the previous configuration? A. System Restore B. Volume Shadow Copy C. Windows Backup D. Compatibility Mode E. Windows Easy Transfer

A. System Restore The System Restore feature will create restore points when drivers are updated, applications are installed, or any other major system change occurs. System Restore will also make occasional restore points even if nothing major has occurred. If you need to quickly go back in time to a previous configuration, then System Restore is your best choice.

1-99. You're currently running Windows Vista Home Premium, and you'd like to run Windows 7 Ultimate. Assuming your hardware is sufficient to run Windows 7 Ultimate, what's the best way of moving from Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate? A. Upgrade directly from Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate B. Backup all of your documents and load Windows 7 Ultimate as a clean install C. Install Windows 7 Ultimate onto a new partition and dual-boot D. Install Windows 7 Ultimate on a new computer and migrate your settings from the Windows Vista Home Premium computer

A. Upgrade directly from Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Ultimate Fortunately, Windows 7 allows you to leave the existing Windows Vista operating system in place and upgrade directly to most editions.

1-6. You need to upgrade a large number of computers on your corporate network to Windows 8.1. What Microsoft utility can assist you with a large-scale automated upgrade? A. User State Migration Tools B. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard C. Windows Easy Transfer D. Windows Backup and Restore

A. User State Migration Tools The User State Migration Tools of ScanState.exe and LoadState.exe can assist in the creation and migration of user files and settings when upgrading an operating system. These tools are designed to be used in automated environments where many systems must be upgraded automatically.

1-59. Which of these would be a valid upgrade path from Windows 7 Home Premium? Pick two. A. Windows 7 Professional B. Windows 7 Home Basic C. Windows 7 Starter D. Windows 7 Enterprise E. Windows 7 Ultimate

A. Windows 7 Professional and E. Windows 7 Ultimate You can upgrade Windows 7 to a higher-level edition, excluding Enterprise editions of Windows 7. If you are upgrading Windows 7 Home Premium, the only two valid higher-level editions would be Windows 7 Professional and Windows 7 Ultimate.

1-31. Which of these Windows Vista versions allow an incoming connection using Remote Desktop Connection? Pick two. A. Windows Vista Ultimate B. Windows Vista Home Premium C. Windows Vista Business D. Windows Vista Home Basic

A. Windows Vista Ultimate and C. Windows Vista Business There are many differences between Windows Vista versions, but only the higher-end Business and Ultimate versions include incoming connections through Remote Desktop Connection.

1-26. Which of these operating systems can be upgraded in-place to Windows Vista Business? A. Windows XP Home B. Windows XP Professional x64 C. Windows 2000 D. Windows XP Media Center

A. Windows XP Home Windows XP Home and the 32-bit version of Windows XP Professional can both be upgraded to Windows Vista Business.

1-39. You'd like to check your hard drive for problems. Which chkdsk option will examine every sector of the disk and attempt to correct any bad sectors? A. chkdsk /r B. chkdsk /e C. chkdsk /f D. chkdsk /s

A. chkdsk /r The /r option on the chkdsk command will both identify and repair logical errors and scan the drive in an attempt to recover data from bad sectors.

1-64. Which of these would be an example of an APIPA address? A. 192.168.10.10 B. 169.254.192.168 C. 172.20.169.254 D. 10.77.2.22 E. 127.0.0.1

B. 169.254.192.168 An APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address is assigned by the operating system when a static IP address isn't assigned and a DHCP server does not respond.

1-22. What is the minimum memory requirement for the 64-bit version of Windows 8.1 Pro? A. 1 GB B. 2 GB C. 4 GB D. 8 GB E. 16 GB

B. 2 GB All 64-bit editions of Windows 8/8.1 require a minimum of 2 GB of RAM.

1-62. Which of these is necessary to create a Windows Homegroup? A. All devices must have DVD-ROM drives B. All devices must have the network set to "Home" C. The network router must support Windows Homework settings D. All devices must disable the Windows Firewall

B. All devices must have the network set to "Home" The Windows Homegroup will only work when Windows is set to the "Home" network.

1-60. Which of the following would best describe PowerShell? A. Manage the power usage of the computer and monitor B. Automate system administration function C. Monitor the power consumption of your computer D. View your home or business power usage E. Display memory and CPU utilization on the Windows desktop

B. Automate system administration function PowerShell is an advanced version of the Windows command line that can automate and control almost anything in the operating system. PowerShell is included with Windows 8.1 and can be downloaded and installed into previous Windows operating system versions.

1-52. You're planning an in-place upgrade from your existing Windows Vista Business system to Windows 7 Ultimate. Which one of these methods can be used to perform this upgrade? A. Boot from the Windows 7 Ultimate installation media and choose "Install" B. Boot Windows Vista Business and start the Windows 7 upgrade from the Windows 7 installation media C. Backup the hard drive, boot from the Windows 7 installation media, install Windows 7, and restore your files D. You cannot perform an in-place upgrade from Windows Vista Business to Windows 7 Ultimate

B. Boot Windows Vista Business and start the Windows 7 upgrade from the Windows 7 installation media One of the simplest ways to begin the upgrade from Windows Vista Business to Windows 7 Ultimate is to boot your Windows Vista Business computer normally, log in, and start the Windows 7 Ultimate upgrade from the Windows 7 installation media. Windows 7 will see that Windows Vista is currently running and prompt you for upgrade options.

1-3. Which of these would be a common function from the Computer Management console? A. Restore the master boot record B. Change a local user's password C. Modify the BIOS device boot sequence D. Add a Windows Firewall rule E. Update the Windows operating system file

B. Change a local user's password The Computer Management console includes many administrative tools, such as Task Scheduler, Event Viewer, Device Manager, and Local Users and Groups.

1-93. Which of these Windows utilities would be the best choice to check for physical disk problems? A. Disk Information B. Check Disk C. Disk Defragmenter D. Disk Tools E. Disk Test

B. Check Disk Check Disk, or chkdsk, can be used to identify both logical file system problems and physical disk issues.

1-14. Which of the following commands could be used to improve the read and write performance of a hard drive volume? A. DISKCACHE B. DEFRAG C. SSD D. DISKSPEED E. WINDISK

B. DEFRAG The DEFRAG command is used to move fragments of files around until they are contiguous. Once these files are more arranged on the drive, the read and write process can be more efficient.

1-9. Your computer has just restarted after a Windows Stop Error, but you didn't see the details of the error. What Windows utility can provide you with the details of this most recent crash? A. Task Manager B. Event Viewer C. Services D. Performance Monitor

B. Event Viewer The Event Viewer keeps detailed information on system and application problems, and the specifics of the BSOD will be within the most recent events.

1-29. Which of the following features is unique to NTFS when compared to FAT or FAT32? A. Native support in Windows 2000 and newer B. File system level encryption C. 2 terabyte volume sizes D. Maximum file size of 4 gigabytes

B. File system level encryption Although many of these options are available in NTFS, the only one of these that's unavailable in FAT or FAT32 is the file-system level encryption.

1-76. In which of these situations would you make use of UAC? A. Prevent write access to a network share B. Limit applications from making changes to network settings C. Force periodic updates to a Windows Domain password D. Convert IP addressing from a public address to private addresses

B. Limit applications from making changes to network settings User Account Control was designed to limit the access that software would have to your computer features and configurations. With UAC, software applications would need additional authentication or access to make significant changes to your P C.

1-36. What Windows technology is the primary focus of the Windows Data Sources utility? A. Active Directory B. ODBC C. COM+ D. DLL

B. ODBC Windows Open Database Connectivity is a common framework for interfacing applications with data in databases. The Windows Data Sources utility provides a central facility for managing database drivers and connectivity.

1-98. In which of these scenarios would you most likely use DSCP? A. Automatically assign IP addresses B. Prioritize network traffic C. Resolve an IP address from a fully qualified domain name D. Prevent loops on a switched network E. Dynamically route around network problems

B. Prioritize network traffic DSCP (Differentiated Services Code Points) are used to assign quality of service (QoS) values to application traffic. In Windows, these are defined in Group Policy or in Local Computer Policy. Once the values are defined, it's up to the network infrastructure to enforce the QoS settings.

1-18. Which of these commands would remove a directory called \FILES ? A. ED \FILES B. RD \FILES C. FORMAT \FILES D. MD \FILES E. ?\FILES

B. RD \FILES The Remove Directory (RD) command is used to erase an empty directory from the directory structure.

1-38. Which of the following would be the best way to keep your operating system up to date? A. Image the operating system on a set schedule B. Run Windows Update in automatic mode C. Perform nightly automated backups D. Install the periodic Windows Service Packs E. Update anti-virus signatures each day

B. Run Windows Update in automatic mode The Windows Update process can be configured to automatically update the operating system, download and wait for your manual update process, or it can be disabled completely as needed.

1-17. Which of the following would be the best way to control applications that run exclusively in the background? A. REGEDIT B. SERVICES.MSC C. MSTSC D. DXDIAG E. MSINFO32

B. SERVICES.MSC The Windows Services utility can be launched with the SERVICES.MSC command. From the Windows Services utility, you can control all of the Windows background services.

1-15. What are the minimum IP configuration settings required to communicate on a local network? Pick two. A. DNS server B. Subnet mask C. DHCP server D. IP address E. Default gateway

B. Subnet mask and D. IP address For local IP communication, the only two required parameters are the IP address and the subnet mask. If you need to communicate outside of your subnet, you'll also need a default gateway. If you're using the fullyqualified domain name and not an IP address, then you'll also need to configure the IP addresses for your DNS servers.

1-12. You've recently installed a new large LCD monitor on your computer, but you've found that Windows won't increase the display resolution. When you look at Device Manager, you see that the display is listed as "Generic VG A." What of these is the most likely cause of this issue? A. The monitor is not identifying itself properly to the Windows OS B. The LCD monitor driver is not loaded C. The computer's video adapter is not compatible with the LCD display D. The LCD display only supports generic VGA resolutions

B. The LCD monitor driver is not loaded When new devices are added to the Windows operating system, the OS automatically installs the necessary drivers. In some cases, however, the driver must be manually installed. The operating system won't know the hardware details about the monitor until the driver is loaded, so to give you a little bit of functionality a generic driver is installed.

1-24. You are trying to ping a Windows 7 system on your local subnet. Although the destination device can browse web sites, it won't respond to any of your ping requests. Which of these could most likely cause this lack of response? A. Windows 7 does not support ping B. The Windows Firewall is enabled C. Your network manager has disabled ping on your switches D. The ping protocol does not work to devices on the same subnet

B. The Windows Firewall is enabled The Windows Firewall limits inbound access to the operating system, including pings.

1-49. What is a side-by-side migration? A. The migration occurs on the same computer, with each system using half of the display B. The migration is done in real-time with computers that are sitting next to each other C. Data is exported, the system is rebuilt with the new system, and the original data is imported D. The application data is exported to one system, and the user data is exported to a different system

B. The migration is done in real-time with computers that are sitting next to each other A side-by-side migration is often performed when you're moving from one physical computer to the other and you have access to both systems at the same time.

1-56. You need to migrate from one computer running Windows Vista to another computer running Windows 8. Which of these would be the easiest way to complete this migration? A. Use Windows XP mode on your Windows 7 computer B. Use Windows Easy Transfer to perform a side-by-side migration C. Run your application in Windows 7 using Windows Vista compatibility mode D. Configure Windows 7 with ReadyBoost

B. Use Windows Easy Transfer to perform a side-by-side migration Windows Easy Transfer will move your profile and person settings from one operating system version to another. The utility supports both side-by-side migrations and wipe-and-load migrations. Although user files and settings are migrated, you'll still have to reinstall your applications on the new operating system.

1-86. Which of these would be the easiest way to see all of the printers in your office that are not ready to print? A. Query the Active Directory database B. Use a custom filter in Print Management C. Access the management tools from the printer manufacturer D. Query all printers using SNMP

B. Use a custom filter in Print Management The Print Management utility can use custom filters to view all printers, printers not ready, printers with jobs, and much more. Active Directory may contain a list of all of the printers, but it does not generally maintain the printer status in the database. You probably own many different printer brands, so using the manufacturer's utilities would be cumbersome. Although a third-party SNMP query tool might help, it's unlikely that all printers support SNMP or support the required SNMP MIB (management information base) variables that would allow you to display print status.

1-54. Which of these network types would be the best choice for mobile Internet connectivity? A. WiFi B. WWAN C. VPN D. Ethernet E. Dialup

B. WWAN A Wireless Wide Area Network, or WWAN, provides Internet connectivity using mobile network providers. Since our mobile phone networks can be used across large geographies, they provide Internet connectivity from nearly anywhere a mobile phone would operate.

1-11. Which of these operating systems can be upgraded directly to Windows 7 Professional with an in-place upgrade? A. Windows XP Professional B. Windows Vista Business C. Windows Vista Enterprise D. Windows XP Professional (x64)

B. Windows Vista Business Windows Vista Business is the only OS edition in this list that can be upgraded to Windows 7 with an in-place upgrade, leaving all of the configurations and applications intact after the install is complete. No Windows XP versions can be directly upgraded to Windows 7.

1-50. Which of these would you be most likely to edit with NOTEPAD? A. Windows 7 Boot Configuration Data B. Windows log file C. Partition configuration file D. Master boot record E. Ethernet MAC address configuration

B. Windows log file Log files are commonly stored in text format and can be edited with any text editor like NOTEPA D.

1-79. You suspect your Windows XP hard drive is having problems, so you'd like to check the drive for bad sectors. How can you start this test from the command line? A. chkdsk /f B. chkdsk /r C. chkdsk /d D. chkdsk /z

B. chkdsk /r The Check Disk command can check for bad sectors, but you have to use the /r option to include the sectorlevel test. The /f option will check for logical file errors, and /f is also included when you run chkdsk with the /r option.

1-57. Which of these commands will copy your file and verify that the copied file matches the original? A. copy /a original.txt copy.txt B. copy /v original.txt copy.txt C. copy /y original.txt copy.txt D. copy /d original.txt copy.txt

B. copy /v original.txt copy.txt The /v command line option on the copy command will verify that any new files are written properly to the destination.

1-100. You need to copy a file from the Windows installation media, but the contents of the install DVD contain Microsoft's compressed files. What command line utility allows you to decompress the files that are stored on the installation media? A. uncompress.exe B. expand.exe C. unzip.exe D. extract.exe

B. expand.exe Microsoft's expand utility can be used to uncompress individual files or entire cabinet (.CAB) files.

1-58. Which of the following file systems would be commonly seen in the Linux operating system? A. NTFS B. ext4 C. FAT32 D. CDFS E. exFAT

B. ext4 Linux operating systems commonly use file systems such as ext3 or ext4.

1-30. Which of these programs would be the best choice for mirroring all of the files in a directory tree? A. copy B. robocopy C. sfc D. xcopy

B. robocopy Robocopy (robust copy) is a very functional file copy utility for Windows.

1-73. You need to copy a large library of digital photos from one computer to another. Which of the following command line tools would be the best choice to simultaneously copy both files and directories? A. copy B. robocopy C. fcopy D. ncopy

B. robocopy The robocopy (robust copy) command is quite versatile, and can be used to bulk copy and verify data after the copy is complete.

1-7. What is the minimum amount of memory required to install the 32-bit version of Windows 7? A. 512 MB B. 768 MB C. 1 GB D. 2 GB

C. 1 GB To install the 32-bit version of Windows 7, you'll need a 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, and at least 16 GB of free disk space.

1-68. You need to install the 64-bit version of Windows 7 onto a video editing workstation. What is the minimum memory required to install Windows 7 x64? A. 512 MB B. 1 GB C. 2 GB D. 4 GB

C. 2 GB Windows 7 x64 requires a minimum of 2 GB of RAM for installation, but you'll probably need more than that for a video editing workstation!

1-48. In which of these would you find the Windows Memory Diagnostics Tool in Windows 7? A. Control Panel / Services B. Maintenance C. Control Panel / Administrative Tools D. All Programs / Accessories E. Control Panel / System

C. Control Panel / Administrative Tools You can start the Windows Memory Diagnostics from the Control Panel under Administrative Tools, or from the Advanced Boot Options during startup.

1-41. What kind of Windows disk would allow you to create a single large volume by combining separate physical drives? A. Basic Disk B. Advanced Disk C. Dynamic Disk D. Enhanced Disk

C. Dynamic Disk A Windows Dynamic Disks supports spanning multiple drives to create a large volume, disk striping, redundant mirroring, and other enhanced features.

1-74. Which of these Windows accounts should normally be disabled? A. Administrator B. Power User C. Guest D. Domain Administrator E. IEUser

C. Guest The Guest account can be useful for general purpose or kiosk computers, but most systems should be configured with a disabled Guest account.

1-35. Which of these would require a stand-alone Windows user to select a different password each time it is changed? A. Windows Scheduler B. Windows Firewall C. Local Security Policy D. Task Manager E. Windows System Configuration

C. Local Security Policy The Windows Local Security Policy utility is used to manage settings and configurations of Windows devices. Local Security Policy includes policies for passwords, user rights assignments, security options, and more.

1-72. Which of the following would you not expect to find in the Windows 8.1 Charm bar? A. Search B. Share C. Logout D. Devices E. Settings F. Start

C. Logout The logout option is not included in the Windows 8.1 Charm bar.

1-34. In which of these situations would you be most likely to use DISKPART? A. Check for logical and physical errors on a storage device B. Recover a deleted file from flash drive C. Manage the partitions of a storage device D. Perform a secure wipe of all drive contents

C. Manage the partitions of a storage device The DISKPART is the command line tool that has replaced the FDISK command found in previous Windows versions.

1-40. Which of these would be a common use of Wake on LAN? A. Clear the screen saver so the desktop is accessible B. Prevent the hard drive from spinning down C. Patch the operating system during non-work hours D. Move the computer to a high-speed VLAN

C. Patch the operating system during non-work hours Wake on LAN is used to "wake" a system out of a suspended session to provide remote administration. With WoL, network administrators can push out updates and patches while the rest of the organization is out of the office. When an update is not required, the computer systems remain in a suspended mode, saving power and ongoing wear to the computer.

1-94. What USMT application gathers user data and settings to use for a migration? A. LoadState.exe B. Windows Easy Transfer C. ScanState.exe D. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard

C. ScanState.exe The User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a set of command line utilities that facilitate large-scale migration of user profiles between operating systems. ScanState.exe is used to gather the user profile information, and LoadState.exe is used to load the user profile onto the new system.

1-44. You are converting some video from one format to another, and you want to participate in a videoconference at the same time. Unfortunately, the video conversion is causing the videoconference feed to stutter. What Windows utility can you use to lower the priority of the conversion process? A. Device Manager B. Event Viewer C. Task Manager D. Services

C. Task Manager Task Manager provides many useful performance metrics, and it can also be an invaluable tool for managing the priorities of your applications and services.

1-88. One of the selections on the shutdown selection on a Windows 8.1 laptop is "hibernate." Which of the following best describes the hibernate option? A. CPU execution is halted but power continues to be provided to both CPU and memory B. All active processes are stopped and only RAM is powered C. The contents of memory are saved to disk and all power is halted D. The operating system shuts down, clears itself from memory, and the laptop powers off E. The system shuts down normally, and when it restarts it loads the applications that were previously running

C. The contents of memory are saved to disk and all power is halted The hibernate process is a standard within the Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI), where all of the contents of memory are written to disk and all power on the system is disabled. This is both an efficient power-saving feature and useful for quickly resuming from where you left off.

1-90. In which of these cases would you be most likely to use the Windows Computer Management console? A. Determine the upgradability of devices on your corporate network B. Upgrade the BIOS of a computer C. Troubleshoot a computer using the Device Manager and Event Viewer D. Replace a faulty video adapter E. Configure DHCP and DNS settings

C. Troubleshoot a computer using the Device Manager and Event Viewer The Windows Computer Management console provides easy access to many utilities, including Task Scheduler, Event Viewer, Shared Folders, Local Users and Groups, Performance, Device Manager, and others.

1-61. You'd like to upgrade your computer from Windows 7 to Windows 8.1. Which of the following utilities can test your computer for its upgrade compatibility to this new operating system version? A. Windows Upgrade Wizard B. Upgrade Evaluation Tool C. Upgrade Assistant D. System Upgrade Recommendation E. Windows Upgrader

C. Upgrade Assistant The Windows Upgrade Assistant utility can be used to check for upgrade compatibility when moving to Windows 8 or 8.1. In Windows 7, this utility was called the Upgrade Advisor.

1-13. Your organization uses an important application that written in-house. Unfortunately, this application conflicts with portions of the UAC process. Which of the following is the easiest way to disable portions of the UAC but still keep other aspects of UAC operating normally? A. Make a change to the system registry B. Modify the access permission of each user C. Use the Local Security Policy console to change the UAC configuration D. Modify the application to work better with Windows UAC

C. Use the Local Security Policy console to change the UAC configuration The Local Security Policy console allows you to make very granular changes to the UAC configuration, allowing almost any conflicting application to work with the maximum amount of UAC control still in place.

1-82. Your organization has decided to upgrade fifty of their workstations from Windows XP to Windows 7, and you'd like to find an automated way to seamlessly move all user files and settings from one operating system to another. Which of these methods would meet this requirement? A. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard B. Windows Easy Transfer C. User State Migration Tool D. Upgrade Advisor

C. User State Migration Tool The User State Migration Tool allows you to automate the migration of user files and settings between systems with a series of command-line parameters. Although the Windows XP Files and Settings Transfer Wizard and the Windows Vista Windows Easy Transfer can also accomplish these migration tasks, their graphical front-end doesn't scale when a large number of computers are involved.

1-83. Which Windows 8.1 version is a valid upgrade path from the Enterprise edition of Windows 8? A. Windows 8 Core B. Windows 8 Pro C. Windows 8 Enterprise D. All of these E. None of these

C. Windows 8 Enterprise The only upgrade path for Windows 8 Enterprise is to Windows 8.1 Enterprise. You cannot upgrade from Windows 8 Enterprise to the core edition of Windows 8.1 or Windows 8.1 Pro.

1-47. Which of these would be the best way to upgrade a 32-bit Windows 7 Professional system to a 64-bit version of Windows 7 Professional? A. Windows Anytime Upgrade B. In-place upgrade using the x64 installation media C. Windows Easy Transfer D. Windows Upgrade Advisor from the x64 installation media E. In-place upgrade using the x86 installation media

C. Windows Easy Transfer You cannot perform an in-place upgrade when moving from an x86 version of Windows 7 to an x64 version. If you want to keep your documents and some settings, you'll need to perform a migration. You can alternatively perform a clean install and move any personal documents to the new system.

1-4. When working with Windows Disk Management, you see that one of your disks is identified as "resynching." What is the most likely reason for this status type? A. A drive in a RAID 1 array has failed B. A replacement drive was added to a RAID 5 array C. A drive in a RAID 5 array has failed D. A replacement drive was added to a RAID 1 array

D. A replacement drive was added to a RAID 1 array The Windows resynching process occurs when a bad drive is replaced in a RAID 1 array. As the information from the array is copied to the new drive, the status will show as "resynching."

1-77. What character is used to separate folder names at the command prompt? A. Forward slash (/) B. Colon (:) C. Semi-colon (;) D. Backslash (\) E. Tilde (~)

D. Backslash (\) The backslash character is used to separate the names of folders and files at the command line.

1-19. Which of these features are NOT exclusive to dynamic disk storage? A. Spanning of multiple disks to create a single large volume B. Splitting of files across multiple physical disks (striping) C. Duplicating of files across multiple physical disks (mirroring) D. Creation of both primary and extended partitions

D. Creation of both primary and extended partitions The creation of primary and extended partitions can be accomplished on both basic disks and dynamic disks. The incorrect answers: A) Spanning of multiple disks to create a single large volume - In basic disk configurations, each separate physical hard drive would be referenced as a separate volume. With dynamic disks, multiple physical disks can be configured to appear as a single large volume. B) Splitting of files across multiple physical disks (striping) - The only way to enable RAID striping across disks is to configure the disks as dynamic disk storage subsystems. C) Duplicating of files across multiple physical disks (mirroring) - Another RAID technique is to duplicate data across multiple physical disks for redundancy and fault-tolerance. This type of storage is only available on dynamic disks.

1-53. Which technology would be applicable if you were monitoring S.M. A.R.T. statistics? A. Printer B. Network interface C. CPU D. Hard drive

D. Hard drive Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology (S.M. A.R.T.) is an embedded set of metrics that can provide health and availability statistics from hard drives and other storage devices.

1-71. Which of these would best describe a network location set to Public? A. You can see all of the devices on the networ B. Your computer is managed by the Active Directory domain C. All of the devices on the network can see you D. Network discovery is turned off E. You can join an available HomeGroup

D. Network discovery is turned off When Windows 7 is set to a Public network location, discovery is disable and other devices are not able to see you on the network.

1-55. Which of these utilities will allow you to manage all of the printers on your network from one central console? A. Print Spooler B. Event Viewer C. Device Manager D. Print Management

D. Print Management The Windows Print Management utility can manage all of your printers and add and manage printer drivers for your entire network from one single console.

1-1. Which of these tasks would be the best fit for Performance Monitor? A. Determine which applications launch during the Windows startup process B. Run a comprehensive memory diagnostic C. View the details of a BSOD that occurred yesterday afternoon D. Run a report on memory utilization

D. Run a report on memory utilization Performance Monitor includes many resource monitors, including some comprehensive built-in reporting.

1-96. You are troubleshooting a printing issue on a client's Windows XP computer, and have found that the Windows Spooler is stopping unexpectedly. Which of these would be the best choice for restarting the Windows Spooler? A. Print Manager B. Task Manager C. Computer Management D. Services

D. Services The Windows Services utility allows you to manage the details of every Windows service, including the spooler. You can also configure the spooler to restart automatically after a crash, or to stop completely after a failure.

1-97. You've been asked to backup a large video file that is just over 5 gigabytes of disk space. You have a new empty 500 gigabyte external USB hard drive to store the backup file. However, when you try to copy the file to the empty USB drive, you get an error message that there's not enough disk space to complete the file transfer. What's the most likely cause of this error? A. USB connections can't support large file transfers B. The new USB drive is faulty C. The video file is corrupted D. The USB drive is formatted with a FAT32 file system

D. The USB drive is formatted with a FAT32 file system The maximum individual file size supported on a FAT32 file system is 4 gigabytes, so copying a file larger than 4 GB will result in an error. The incorrect answers: A) USB connections can't support large file transfers The USB interface does not have any type of limitations over the size or amount of files that can be transferred over it. B) The new USB drive is faulty A bad hard drive will usually give an error very different than an out of disk space message. C) The video file is corrupted The contents of the video file won't prevent it from being transferred to an external USB disk drive.

1-28. You would like to allow your organization to use USB flash drives, but you are concerned that the private information on the drives might be easily lost or misplaced. Which of these would ensure that the USB drives would always be secure? A. Use EFS to encrypt the drives B. Only allow USB drive access from secure computers C. Format the drives with the NTFS file system D. Use BitLocker to encrypt the drives

D. Use BitLocker to encrypt the drives BitLocker is a Windows technology that is designed for the security of entire drives, regardless of the contents. Unlike EFS which only encrypts certain files, BitLocker can be configured to automatically encrypt the entire drive.

1-8. On your Windows Vista computer, you notice that your hard drive access light is constantly blinking, even when your computer is idle. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this constant drive access? A. The hard drive is constantly retrying a bad sector on the hard drive B. The computer is configured to constantly check the hard drive performance C. The hard drive throughput can't keep up with the data requests D. Windows Vista is indexing the files on your hard drive

D. Windows Vista is indexing the files on your hard drive The Windows indexing process can speed searches, but it often requires the scanning of files in user folders and other parts of the hard drive. While this indexing is occurring, the increased access to the hard drive can be quite noticeable.

1-169. Which of these specifications meets the minimum hardware requirements for installing Windows 7 Professional x86? A. 1 GHz processor B. 15 GB of free disk space C. 512 MB of RAM D. DirectX 8 graphics device

A. 1 GHz processor The minimum hardware requirements for Windows 7 Professional x86 is 1 GHz processor, 1 GB of RAM, 16 GB of free disk space, and a DirectX 9 graphics device with WDDM 1.0 or higher.

5-10. Which of the following uses technology to manage the use of software? A. DRM B. EULA C. URL D. FOSS E. PII

A. DRM DRM (Digital Rights Management) uses technology to allow or disallow access to digital media.

2-48. Which of these best describes the extension of an Apple Disk Image file? A. .img B. .tar C. .zip D. .dmg E. .iso

D. .dmg An Apple Disk Image file is labeled with a .dmg file extension, and will mount in the operating system as a normal file system.