AAMC Sample Unscored FL GM

Charge of ADP vs ATP

-3 vs -4 Remember they are both negative and if they form ionic interactions that means they choose the +ve aminoacids

How many stereoisomers formula

. By application of the 2^n rule,

serial position effect

. This phenomenon is called the serial position effect, broken down into the primacy effect and the recency effect. The part that was new to me and that this question tested on, was why do these effects occur? The recency effect may be obvious, because the most recent words are in the short term memory/working memory and can be recalled easily. But as for the primacy effect, the theory is that, " the initial items presented are most effectively stored in long-term memory because of the greater amount of processing devoted to them. (The first list item can be rehearsed by itself; the second must be rehearsed along with the first, the third along with the first and second, and so on.)" The dip in recall of middle words signified the break between short term and long term.

Just read A neutrophil has point mutations in the genes coding for the alpha and the beta subunits of the adhesion receptor. However, this cell can still migrate through endothelium. Which of the following conclusions about the effect of this mutation can be drawn? A. The cell cannot release toxic products such as prostaglandins. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: According to the question stem, the neutrophil is still able to migrate through endothelium, implying that it can still bind the endothelium. The release of toxic products occurs after the binding of the neutrophil to the endothelium via the adhesion receptor so the cell should still be able to release its toxic products. B. The cell has only functional beta subunits. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Keep in mind that barring genes on the sex chromosomes and chromosomal abnormalities, we have two copies of each gene, one inherited from each parent. This means that it is possible for the point mutations mentioned in the question stem to be from one parent or the other or acquired somatically after birth. In either case, it's possible to produce some functional and some nonfunctional proteins, and still be able to execute the functio

A neutrophil has point mutations in the genes coding for the alpha and the beta subunits of the adhesion receptor. However, this cell can still migrate through endothelium. Which of the following conclusions about the effect of this mutation can be drawn? A. The cell cannot release toxic products such as prostaglandins. B. The cell has only functional beta subunits. C. The cell can bind to endothelium. D. The cell has a defective cell membrane. I would not think twice about any other option than C. Migrating through a medium implies "walking" along it, which requires binding.

"Information on the role of the pineal gland in thermoregulation was also determined by measuring brown adipose tissue (BAT) weight. BAT is the primary site of nonshivering thermogenesis (heat production) in rodents." Which of the following organelles would be relatively more abundant in BAT than in typical white adipose tissue? A. Mitochondria B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum C. Golgi apparatus D. Lysosomes

A. Mitochondria Jack Westin Advanced Solution: The third paragraph notes that "BAT is the primary site of nonshivering thermogenesis (heat production) in rodents." If BAT is involved in heat production, it will need a lot of mitochondria to produce the energy required for heat production. Looking good. B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum Jack Westin Advanced Solution: The rough ER is key for protein production, not so much for energy production.

Anomie

Anomie refers to a lack of attachment to social norms, which can result in a breakdown in the connection between individuals and their community. This option is the closest description to the concept of anomie.

Which primer is most suitable for PCR? A. 5-ATTACGTTAACATGAAG-3 B. 5-ATATCGTTAACAAATTG-3 C. 5-GCTATAAAGATTGCAAA-3 D. 5-GCATAGAAGCATTCCGC-3

Ans: D Best primers for PCR have a high GC content and CG bases in 5′ and 3′. Thus, the primer in D is the most suitable primer for PCR among the sequences given.

Achieved vs. Ascribed Status vs master status vs social status

Ascribed Statuses: These are statuses assigned at birth that you can't change, like being born into a royal family or based on gender, race, and ethnicity. They exist globally and are determined by factors like family background and social advantages. Achieved Statuses: These are statuses you earn through your efforts, like becoming an Olympic athlete or choosing a career. They reflect personal abilities and are voluntarily taken on. Your occupation is an example of an achieved status. • Master Status In perception, an individual's master status supersedes other identifying traits; for example, if a woman feels that her role as a mother is more important than her role as a woman, a daughter, etc., she is more likely to identify herself as a mother and to identify with other women who label themselves as such s • Status / Social Status is a person's social position in society. Each person has many statuses, ex. One individual can be a Son, student, and friend, etc.

Asparagine

Asn, N 4c

Aspartate

Asp, D 4c

By definition, electric field lines exit from ----and enter ------- charges.

By definition, electric field lines exit from positive and enter negative charges.

cytochrome c vs coenzyme Q electron carrier

Cytochrome C is a one electron carrier, Coenzyme Q (ubiquinone) is a two electron carrier

What information about an axon is required to calculate the current associated with an NCV pulse? A. Conductivity, resistivity, and length B. Potential, conductivity, and radius C. Potential, resistivity, and radius D. Potential, resistance per unit length, and length

D. Copying is disabled.

Ethnocentrism

Ethnocentrism is the tendency to look at other cultures through the lens of one's own culture. Bias and prejudice can be related to ethnocentrism, and of the options provided, ethnocentrism is most directly related to the assertion of cultural bias.

Group polarization

Group polarization refers to the phenomenon in which people who are in agreement get together with each other to discuss an issue, and their views get more extreme.

what is the general outline you've provided is accurate for the synthesis and trafficking of many proteins in eukaryotic cells, particularly those that are destined for secretion or for integration into the cell membrane. explain each steps

Here's a breakdown of the steps you've mentioned: Cytoplasm: Protein synthesis starts in the cytoplasm, where ribosomes read the mRNA and synthesize the polypeptide chain. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER): Many proteins are synthesized on ribosomes bound to the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). As the protein is being synthesized, it enters the ER lumen or is inserted into the ER membrane. Proteins that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and have specific targeting signals can also be translocated into the ER. Golgi Apparatus: From the ER, proteins move to the Golgi apparatus in vesicles. The Golgi apparatus processes, modifies, sorts, and packages proteins. It consists of distinct compartments called cisternae, and proteins move from the cis-Golgi (closest to the ER) to the trans-Golgi (farther from the ER) as they are modified. Cell Membrane or Secretion: Proteins that are intended for secretion from the cell, such as hormones or enzymes, are packaged into secretory vesicles and transported to the cell membrane. These vesicles fuse with the cell membrane, releasing their contents outside the cell. Proteins that are to be embedded in the cell membrane itself, or in organelle membranes, are also processed in the Golgi apparatus. They are sorted and targeted to their appropriate destinations within the cell membrane or organelle membranes. However, it's worth noting that not all proteins follow this pathway. Some proteins remain within the cytoplasm for their function, while others may localize to specific organelles without passing through the ER or Golgi apparatus. Additionally, the trafficking of proteins can be highly regulated and complex, involving interactions with various cellular machinery, chaperones, and signal sequences. The pathway you've outlined is a common route for secretory and membrane proteins, but the diversity of proteins and their functions means that protein trafficking and localization can be more intricate and diverse in actual cellular processes. cytoplasm->endoplasmic reticulum->Golgi apparatus->cell membrane.

Question 44 of 59 Question The individual cells making up a tissue differ from single-celled organisms such as Paramecium in that only the latter: A. reproduce by mitosis. B. have subcellular organelles. C. are capable of extended independent life. D. can metabolize nutrient molecules.

Heyo! I think you're looking at this question from a different angle and that's why you're getting so tripped up. This question is asking you to find the one difference between cells that make up tissue (let's say the epithelial cells in your small intestine) vs a single celled organism such as paramecium. You are not required to know if a paramecium is a eukaryote, but it certainly does help. I believe POE was the correct way to answer this question, however your reasoning just needed to be developed more. Regardless of what paramecium is, you are told it's a single celled organism, so you KNOW it has to survive on its own because that's all there is to it. Therefore it has to take up nutrients (D is out), has to have sub cellular organelles to use those nutrients (B is out). So now you have just A and C. Then you have to remember that cells that make up tissue rely on numerous factors to stay alive (imagine cutting out a section of cardiac tissue and placing it into a Petri dish, the cells would die!). That's why the answer is C

Psyc tips

I usually can narrow it down to 2 answers... when it gets down to choosing the right one, I've realized that the one that more directly affects the argument or what is in the stem is usually right!

In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as: A. a 1-electron carrier. B. a 2-electron carrier. C. a 3-electron carrier. D. a 4-electron carrier.

In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as: Jack Westin Advanced Solution: For a review of the electron transport chain, head over to https://jackwestin.com/resources/mcat-content/oxidative-phosphorylation/electron-transfer-in-mitochondria A. a 1-electron carrier. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Cytochrome c moves electrons by going back and forth between Fe2+ (ferrous ion) and Fe3+ (ferric ion). The charge can only change by one at a time, meaning cytochrome c can only transfer one electron at a time. This is the correct answer. B. a 2-electron carrier. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: In order to be a 2-electron carrier, the iron ions would need to change charge by +/- 2. C. a 3-electron carrier. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Like answer B above, in order to carry 3 electrons, cytochrome c would need to produce greater changes in oxidation state. D. a 4-electron carrier. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: This is the most extreme of the answer choices. Cytochrome c only causes a +/- 1 change in oxidation state, so it is a 1-electron carrier. Solution: The correct answer is A. Cytochrome c is a heme protein that cycles between a ferrous (Fe+2) and ferric (Fe+3) state during oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, only a single electron is transferred in the process. Cytochrome c is a heme protein that cycles between a ferrous (Fe+2) and ferric (Fe+3) state during oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, only a single electron, not 2 electrons, is transferred in the process. Cytochrome c is a heme protein that cycles between a ferrous (Fe+2) and ferric (Fe+3) state during oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, only a single electron, not 3 electrons, is transferred in the process. Cytochrome c is a heme protein that cycles between a ferrous (Fe+2) and ferric (Fe+3) state during oxidative phosphorylation. Therefore, only a single electron, not 4 electrons, is transferred in the process.

institutional discrimination

Institutional discrimination - organization discriminating - including governments, banks, schools etc. Example: Brown vs. Board of Education in 1954. In this court case, overturned separate schools for whites and African-Americans. Brown said these schools aren't equal, and Africans were being mistreated.

intergenerational mobility vs intragenerational mobility

Intergenerational Mobility: Between generations Parents' to children's status Upward or downward Equal opportunities assessment Intragenerational Mobility: Within a lifetime Personal status changes Upward or downward Career shifts, job loss

Latent learning vs latent functions

Latent learning- learned behaviour is not expressed until required Unintended consequences, ex. schools expose students to social connections/new activities, and businesses connect people across society - latent functions

Leptin

Leptin is a protein hormone secreted by fat cells. When it is abundant, it causes the brain to increase metabolism and decrease hunger.

Meritocracy -

Meritocracy - concept that people achieve social position solely based on ability and achievements. Highly idealized. Birth/parental background doesn't matter.

Observational learning

Observational learning (aka social learning/vicarious learning) is learned through watching and imitating others - such as modeling actions of another. o Mirror neurons found that support this.

Organic acids, denoted by HA, are only minimally deprotonated when added to pure water. HA(aq) H+(aq) + A-(aq) When dissolved in blood, however, HA fully dissociate. What factor can be used to explain this discrepancy? A. In blood, the concentration of H+(aq) is maintained at low levels by other equilibria. B. In blood, the reaction is coupled to ATP hydrolysis to make it more favorable. C. In blood, the ionic strength of the solvent medium is much higher than pure water. D. In blood, enzymes are used to catalyze the dissociation reaction.

Organic acids, denoted by HA, are only minimally deprotonated when added to pure water. HA(aq) H+(aq) + A-(aq) When dissolved in blood, however, HA fully dissociate. What factor can be used to explain this discrepancy? A. In blood, the concentration of H+(aq) is maintained at low levels by other equilibria. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: According to Le Chatelier's principle, decreasing the concentration of a product will cause a rightward shift in the reaction in order to restore equilibrium. If the concentration of protons is maintained low in the blood, then the reaction will shift forward and promote the dissociation of the organic acid. This answer choice is looking great. B. In blood, the reaction is coupled to ATP hydrolysis to make it more favorable. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: It would be incredibly unfavorable to have to pair ATP hydrolysis with every dissociation of an organic acid; that would be a huge source of energy consumption! There has to be a better answer choice. C. In blood, the ionic strength of the solvent medium is much higher than pure water. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: While increasing the ionic strength of a solvent can increase solubility, this is only true when there is no common ion present and protons are fairly common in reactions, so this answer choice is not a good one. D. In blood, enzymes are used to catalyze the dissociation reaction. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Enzymes speed up a reaction, but they do not make the reaction more favorable. This is an important limitation to keep track of for test day. Answer choice A is then the best answer choice. Solution: The correct answer is A. The pH of blood is higher than the pKa of organic acids, allowing them to fully dissociate. There is no coupling of HA dissociation with ATP hydrolysis. Incorrect. Although it is true that the ionic strength of blood is higher than that of pure water, it is not why HA dissociates in blood. Enzymes are not involved in HA dissociation.

primacy vs recency effect

Primacy is remembered because it is the beginning and recency is remembered because it s the ending.

proactive vs retroactive interference

Proactive: old info messes up ability to learn new Retroactive: new info makes it difficult to retrieve older info

Prostaglandins

Prostaglandins (BC) o The prostaglandins (PG) are a group of physiologically active lipid compounds having diverse hormonelike effects in animals. Prostaglandins have been found in almost every tissue in humans and other animals. They are derived enzymatically from fatty acids. Every prostaglandin contains 20 carbon atoms, including a 5-carbon ring. They are a subclass of eicosanoids and of the prostanoid class of fatty acid derivatives. o They act as autocrine or paracrine factors with their target cells present in the immediate vicinity of the site of their secretion. Prostaglandins differ from endocrine hormones in that they are not produced at a specific site but in many places throughout the human body

Prostaglandins (BC)

Prostaglandins (BC) o The prostaglandins (PG) are a group of physiologically active lipid compounds having diverse hormonelike effects in animals. Prostaglandins have been found in almost every tissue in humans and other animals. They are derived enzymatically from fatty acids. Every prostaglandin contains 20 carbon atoms, including a 5-carbon ring. They are a subclass of eicosanoids and of the prostanoid class of fatty acid derivatives. o They act as autocrine or paracrine factors with their target cells present in the immediate vicinity of the site of their secretion. Prostaglandins differ from endocrine hormones in that they are not produced at a specific site but in many places throughout the human body.

second-order conditioning

Second-order conditioning involves pairing a novel neutral stimulus with the CS, which takes the place of the original unconditioned stimulus (UCS). The resulting CR, emitted in response to the new CS, will not be as strong as the original CR. eg. For example, let's say a dog has been conditioned to salivate at the sound of a bell (CS1) because the bell was previously paired with the presentation of food (UCS). In second-order conditioning, a light (CS2) might be presented right before the bell (CS1) is rung, repeatedly. Eventually, the light (CS2) might lead to the dog salivating, even though the light was never directly paired with the food (UCS). The dog has developed a conditioned response to the light due to its association with the bell, which itself is associated with the food.

Smooth ER

Smooth ER ▪ tubular, in contrast to rough ER, which tends to resemble flattened sacs ▪ has a number of functions that differ according to the type of cell • In liver and kidney, smooth ER contains glucose 6-phosphatase, the enzyme used in the liver, intestinal epithelial cells, and renal tubule epithelial cells to hydrolyze glucose 6-phosphate to glucose, and important step in the breakdown of glycogen to produce glucose • In muscle cells, smooth ER is known as the sarcoplasmic reticulum, and it sequesters Calcium away from actin and myosin ▪ plays a role in lipid metabolism • in liver, triglycerides are produced here • adipocytes store lipids inside of smooth ER o contribute to energy storage and body temperature regulation ▪ oxidizes foreign substances—detoxifies drugs, pesticides, toxins, and pollutant

social status

Social status refers to the level of prestige conferred to a position or role in a society. Social status would not specifically explain the use of social ties for benefit.

Which development from the passage best illustrates an organizational change in the context of child abuse diagnosis and prevention? A. The addition of a pediatric subspecialty in child abuse pediatrics B. The increase in research on child abuse since the influential 1962 article C. The passage of state laws in the 1960s that mandate child abuse reporting D. The continued debate over how to understand the problem of child abuse

Solution: The correct answer is A. A, Sociology defines an organization as a (relatively) formal group with an identifiable membership that engages in concerted action to achieve a common purpose. Pediatrics fits within this definition of an organization, particularly in terms of the development of a pediatric subspecialty of child abuse pediatrics. The new subspeciality reflects a change within the organizational structure of pediatrics. B. Rather than an organizational change, this option refers to the proliferation of knowledge and the construction of a social problem. C. Although this option identifies a change in social practice (in particular, norms being formalized into laws), it goes beyond the level of organizational change and refers to a broader shift in the law. D. This option refers to cultural continuity in public discourse, rather than a change occurring at the level of an organization.

Would the Cl- concentration of the RBCs be expected to be greater in the systemic veins or the systemic arteries? A. Veins, because the HCO3- concentration is higher in veins than in arteries. B. Veins, because there are fewer RBCs in veins than in arteries. C. Arteries, because the HCO3- concentration is higher in arteries than in veins. D. Arteries, because there are fewer RBCs in veins than in arteries.

Solution: The correct answer is A. A. Cl- concentration is most likely to be higher in the RBCs located in the veins because they carry deoxygenated blood and Cl- is exchanged with HCO3- generated by the reaction between CO2 and H2O in the RBCs. B. The levels of RBCs in the veins and the arteries are the same. C. The concentration of HCO3- is higher in the veins than in the arteries. D. The levels of RBCs in arteries and veins are the same. A. Veins, because the HCO3- concentration is higher in veins than in arteries. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: The passage says that following the release of bicarbonate ions, "The resulting ionic imbalance in the RBCs is equalized by the rapid movement of chloride (Cl-) ions into the RBCs from the plasma." This means that an increase in Cl- would follow an increase in HCO3-. The bicarbonate buffer system demonstrates that an increase in CO2 would produce an increase in HCO3-. Thus, an increase in carbon dioxide ultimately leads to an influx of chloride anions into the RBCs. Carbon dioxide concentration is greater in the systemic veins because it is a metabolic waste product and has not been expelled during gas exchange. In the systemic veins: higher CO2 concentration -> generation of more HCO3- -> influx of Cl- into RBCs. B. Veins, because there are fewer RBCs in veins than in arteries. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: There is no systematic difference in the number of RBCs in the veins versus the arteries. The circulatory system is a closed loop so the same number of RBCs that pass through the arteries must pass through the veins. C. Arteries, because the HCO3- concentration is higher in arteries than in veins. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: The concentration of carbon dioxide is greater in the systemic veins, not the systemic arteries. There will be less HCO3- in the arteries, not more. D. Arteries, because there are fewer RBCs in veins than in arteries. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: As mentioned in the explanation for B, the number of RBCs traveling through the arteries is the same as the number of RBCs traveling through the veins. Answer choice A is the correct answer.

Which piece of information from the passage is LEAST relevant for determining the possible influence of confirmation bias on child abuse diagnosis? A. Parental concealment of child abuse from physicians B. Physician attention to evidence of child abuse C. Challenges posed by interpreting child abuse symptoms D. Emotional sensitivities around child abuse as a subject

Solution: The correct answer is A. A. Confirmation bias, the tendency to favor information that confirms existing beliefs, both in the search for evidence and in the interpretation of evidence. Confirmation bias has also been found to be stronger for emotionally charged topics, such as mistreatment of children. Parental concealment is a social interaction factor, related to impression management, rather than a cognitive processing factor. B. Confirmation bias, the tendency to favor information that confirms existing beliefs, both in the search for evidence and in the interpretation of evidence. C. Confirmation bias is clearly relevant to the aspects of a case to which a physician pays attention. The diagnosis can be affected by confirmation bias in both the search for evidence of child abuse and the interpretation of evidence. D. Confirmation bias has been found to be stronger for emotionally charged topics, such as mistreatment of children.

In which phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur? A. Anaphase I B. Metaphase II C. Prophase I D. Telophase II

Solution: The correct answer is A. A. Nondisjunction defines the process when paired chromosomes or duplicated chromosomes fail to separate and segregate in two distinct daughter cells. Thus Anaphase I is correct. B. During metaphase II, chromosomes align in the midline of the dividing cell, they do not separate. C. During prophase I, chromosomes become evident and the nuclear membrane disappears. The chromosomes do not separate during prophase I. D. Telophase is the last phase of cell division. During telophase, the nuclear membrane is reformed and the two daughter cells become distinct. Telophase follows the phase of chromosome separation.

One function of the myelin sheath is to: A. insulate the axon from the surroundings. B. decrease the radius of the axon. C. produce Schwann cells. D. increase the capacitance of the axon.

Solution: The correct answer is A. A. The myelin sheath insulates the axon from the surroundings. This insulation acts to increase the rate of transmission of signals. B. The myelin sheath increases, not decreases, the radius of the axon. C. The Schwann cells form the myelin sheath, and not vice versa. D. The myelin sheath decreases, not increases, the capacitance of the axon.

" ADP-ribosylation factor I (Arf1) plays an essential role in vesicle formation and is responsible for the recruitment of cytosolic coat protein complexes (COPs) and subsequent retrograde transport from the Golgi apparatus." Proteins that are encapsulated in Arf1-COP derived vesicles are bound for the: A. endoplasmic reticulum. B. cellular membrane. C. nucleus. D. cytosol.

Solution: The correct answer is A. A. The passage indicates that Arf1 is responsible for COP vesicles retrograde transport from the Golgi. Normally before reaching the Golgi apparatus, proteins have passed first through the cytoplasm and then the endoplasmic reticulum. As Arf1 is the protein that regulates retrograde movement from the Golgi, the vesicle will move back from the Golgi apparatus to the endoplasmic reticulum. Arf1 is involved in the transport of proteins that need to be modified. The usual process to produce these proteins follows these steps: cytoplasm->endoplasmic reticulum->Golgi apparatus->cell membrane. According to the passage, Arf1 is responsible for the retrograde transport for the Golgi. Thus, the cellular membrane would represent the forward step, not the backward (retrograde) step. Arf1-COP vesicles contain proteins that need to undergo further modification. Protein modification does not occur in the nucleus. Proteins that are processed in the Golgi apparatus have first gone through the cytoplasm and then the endoplasmic reticulum. As Arf1 is responsible for the retrograde transport from the Golgi, Arf1-COP vesicles are most likely to be bound for the endoplasmic reticulum, that is the closest step to the Golgi apparatus, rather than the cytoplasm, that is two steps earlier.

just read: "Serum albumin (SA) is the most prominent protein in the plasma and contains several binding sites that can accommodate a structurally diverse set of ligands. Although diverse, the ligands tend to be mainly hydrophobic with anionic or electronegative features...." Sites I and II are most likely lined with the side chains of which amino acids? A. R and L B. E and Y C. D and E D. D and H

Solution: The correct answer is A. Because Sites I and II bind to anionic and hydrophobic ligands, the amino acid side chains should be cationic (R) to form a salt bridge and hydrophobic (L) for London forces.

The Arf1-activating molecule GTP is most closely related to which family of biomolecules? A. Nucleotides B. Amino acids C. Lipids D. Carbohydrate

Solution: The correct answer is A. GTP stands for guanosine tri-phosphate, which is a nucleotide.

Which amino acid is neutral, but zwitterionic at pH 7, despite possessing two nitrogen atoms in its formula? A. Gln B. Lys C. Tyr D. Arg

Solution: The correct answer is A. Glutamine (Gln) possesses two nitrogen atoms in its formula, is zwitterionic at pH 7, and is neutral because its side chain is neither acidic nor basic at pH 7.

" PfEMP1 enhances P. falciparum survival by binding infected erythrocytes to endothelium." The information in the passage suggests that which symptom or characteristic of malaria is PfEMP1-mediated? A. Blood vessel blockage B. Low red blood cell count C. Recurring fever and chills D. Sickle cell hemoglobin-mediated malaria resistance

Solution: The correct answer is A. The passage indicates that PfEMP1 mediates the attachment of erythrocytes to endothelial cells. Thus, in the presence of PfEMP1, erythrocytes are most likely to stay attached to endothelial cells and block the vessel. Based on the passage, PfEMP1 is not responsible for destruction of red blood cells that might result in low blood count. Although fever and chills are symptoms of malaria, the passage does not suggest a role for PfEMP1 in generating these symptoms. The passage does not suggest a role for PfEMP1 in resistance to malaria.

"A finding that emerged from the recall task was that the participants without memory impairments retrieved words that were related to the words on the list, but had not actually appeared." The finding in the last paragraph regarding the retrieval of related words supports: A. spreading activation. B. depth of processing. C. the serial position effect. D. the existence of visuospatial sketchpad.

Solution: The correct answer is A. This type of false memory effect is easily explained by the spread of activation from the representations of presented words to semantically related words. Depth of processing is generally used to explain superior episodic memory with increasing depth of the encoding task, but not intrusion of semantically related words in free recall or recognition performance. False memory effects cannot be explained by serial position effects, which refer to the retrieval performance with items at different presentation positions. The visuospatial sketchpad is a component of Baddeley's Working Memory model. In the working memory model, it is not used to explain recall or recognition errors of declarative memory.

"These structures reveal that binding is stabilized by interactions between C2′ and C4′ hydroxyl groups of pantothenate and a carboxylate group of PanK3, and, in the ternary complex of PanK3 with pantothenate and ADP, the binding of ADP involves predominantly ionic interactions." The amino acids Asp6, Asn9, Thr10, His11, and Arg27 are found near the ADP binding site of PanK3. Which two amino acids contribute to the stabilization of ADP binding described in the passage? A. Asn9 and Thr10 B. His11 and Arg27 C. Asp6 and Arg27 D. Asp6 and His11

Solution: The correct answer is B. As basic amino acids, both His 11 and Arg27 could be positively charged in the binding site of PanK3 and create electrostatic attractive forces with the phosphate groups of ADP.

Which statement best explains meritocracy in terms of status? Meritocracy occurs when selections are made based on: A. master status rather than achieved status. B. achieved status rather than ascribed status. C. ascribed status rather than social status. D. social status rather than achieved status.

Solution: The correct answer is B. A, Master status identifies a particular status that dominates other statuses that a person might hold. This option would have to be reversed (achieved status rather than master status) in order to be more consistent with meritocracy. B. Meritocracy refers to when appointments, selections, and responsibilities are assigned to individuals based on merit - intelligence, skills, credentials, and other similar factors. Merit is thus derived from achievements, and thus the correct answer is when achieved status is used to make selections rather than ascribed status. C. Ascribed status refers to characteristics given at birth, or early in life, and thus would not be consistent with meritocracy (based on merit or achieved status). D. Social status refers to honor or prestige but without specifying how that status was attained. Thus, social status alone is not specific enough to identify meritocracy.

" Table 2 BSA-CPFX Binding Experiments in the Presence of Metal Ions (Note: K0 is the binding constant of CPFX-BSA in the absence of a metal ion.)" Metal ions present in plasma are expected to: A. increase the amount of CPFX bound to BSA. B. decrease the amount of CPFX bound to BSA. C. decrease the amount of free CPFX found in plasma. D. have little effect on the amount of bound CPFX.

Solution: The correct answer is B. A. Based on the data in Table 2, the opposite effect was shown. Metal ions decrease, not increase, binding of CPFX to BSA. B. Based on the data in Table 2, metal ions decrease binding of CPFX to BSA by 13-36%. C. Because Table 2 data shows that CPFX has weaker binding to BSA in the presence of metal ions, there will be more free CPFX found in plasma, not less. D. As shown in Table 2, the presence of metal ions significantly decreases the affinity of CPFX for BSA. A. increase the amount of CPFX bound to BSA. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: To answer this question, we need to read the figure description carefully. The MCAT test writers are under no obligation to draw your eye to any information in particular—you are expected to critically evaluate all of the information they provide you given the content you are expected to know. That said, when they draw your eye to specific information by adding a "Note:" pay extra attention. The "note" with Table 2 is as follows: "Note: K0 is the binding constant of CPFX-BSA in the absence of a metal ion." If Ka is the binding constant with the metal ions present, and K0 is the binding constant in the absence of the metal ions, then Ka/K0 will tell us the binding with metal ions compared to without. If Ka/K0 >1, metal ions enhance binding, if it's =1 they have no effect on binding, and if it is <1, they decrease binding. We see that all of the values in the last column are Ka/K0<1 so the metal ions decrease CPFX and BSA binding, not increase it. B. decrease the amount of CPFX bound to BSA. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: As noted in the explanation above, the presence of the metal ions produces a Ka/K0 <1 and decreases the amount of CPFX bound to BSA. C. decrease the amount of free CPFX found in plasma. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: If there were a decrease in free CPFX, there would need to be an increase in bound CPFX. The decrease in binding seen in the table shows the opposite to be true. D. have little effect on the amount of bound CPFX. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: This is not true. As noted in the explanations above, there is a decrease in the amount of CPFX bound to BSA, answer choice B. reddit: Think of it this way: Ka is the ass

Question An ultrasound examination could show the motion of a fetus. In order to image this motion, the ultrasound examination devices requires what minimal information? A. The speeds of the sound and of the moving object. B. The speed of the sound, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed. C. The speeds of the sound and of the moving object, and the frequencies of the sound waves emitted and observed. D. The speeds of the sound and of the moving object, and the frequencies and wavelengths of the sound waves emitted and observed.

Solution: The correct answer is B. A. The Doppler effect relates the frequency of the ultrasound wave as detected by a moving detector to the frequency of the wave when the source is stationary, the speed of the source, and the speed of the detector. The Doppler effect cannot be measured when only the speeds of the sound and of the moving object are known. B. The Doppler effect in ultrasound waves is used to provide fetal images. The Doppler effect relates the frequency of the ultrasound wave as detected by a moving detector to the frequency of the wave when the source is stationary, the speed of the source, and the speed of the detector. C. The Doppler effect relates the frequency of the ultrasound wave as detected by a moving detector to the frequency of the wave when the source is stationary, the speed of the source, and the speed of the detector. The speed of the moving object is superfluous for imaging purposes. D. The Doppler effect relates the frequency of the ultrasound wave as detected by a moving detector to the frequency of the wave when the source is stationary, the speed of the source, and the speed of the detector. The speed of the moving object and the wavelengths are superfluous for imaging purposes. Khan Academy Lessons

Why do kidney stones form in some individuals treated with Compound 1? A. [Ca2+] + [C2O42-] > Ksp B. [Ca2+][C2O42-] > Ksp C. [Ca2+] + [C2O42-] < Ksp D. [Ca2+][C2O42-] < Ksp

Solution: The correct answer is B. A. The expression [Ca2+] + [C2O42−] does not follow the Law of Mass Action and cannot be a valid expression for the reaction quotient Q. B. Kidney stones are effectively a precipitate of CaC2O4(s). Precipitation happens when the reaction quotient Q exceeds the equilibrium constant Ksp. The reaction quotient Q = [Ca2+][C2O42−] under the current conditions. C. The expression [Ca2+] + [C2O42−] does not follow the Law of Mass Action and cannot be a valid expression for the reaction quotient Q. Furthermore, it would be necessary for the value of this expression to exceed Ksp for precipitation to occur. D. When Q is less than Ksp, no precipitation occurs.

In Figure 2, the group of Alzheimer patients demonstrated a clear: A. primacy effect. B. recency effect. C. interference effect. D. continuity effect.

Solution: The correct answer is B. Figure 2 clearly shows that the Alzheimer's patients performed poorly in the free recall of the words presented earliest (i.e., the primacy portion of the list). The recency effect, superior free recall performance for the last few items on the list (i.e., the recency portion of the list) is clearly evident in the data for the AD patients. Figure 2 shows correct free recall performance for a single word list only. Therefore, no interference effects (from earlier or later lists) were possible. Continuity is one of the Gestalt principles of perceptual grouping. Continuity effects will not occur in a task involving the free recall of verbal material.

Helping to instill norms and values related to violence and violent behavior, media exposure is an aspect of which process? A. Assimilation B. Discrimination C. Socialization D. Stratification

Solution: The correct answer is C. A, Assimilation involves norms and values but more specifically refers to the process through which a group adopts the norms and values of a new culture (most often applied to the social context of immigration). This process is not relevant to the question, which only refers to how norms and values are instilled generally but not to how a group adopts the norms and values of a new culture. B. Discrimination refers to differential treatment based on social group membership. The question does not reference differential treatment, but instead discusses how norms and values related to violence are instilled. C. Socialization refers to the process by which individuals learn norms and values, and popular media is an agent of socialization for instilling norms and values. Thus, instilling norms and values specifically related to violence and violent behavior would reflect the process of socialization. D. Stratification identifies the objective hierarchy of social positions in a society. The question refers to instilling norms and values, which is not specified by stratification.

The individual cells making up a tissue differ from single-celled organisms such as Paramecium in that only the latter: A. reproduce by mitosis. B. have subcellular organelles. C. are capable of extended independent life. D. can metabolize nutrient molecules.

Solution: The correct answer is C. A. Both tissue cells and Paramecium reproduce by mitosis although a bit modified for the Paramecium. B. Both cells are eukaryotic and have subcellular organelles. C. Only paramecium cells can survive independently for an extended period of time. Tissue cells need to interact with neighboring cells. D. Both types of cells can metabolize nutrients.

" Born to a poor family in the rural Southeastern United States, Alice walked five miles of dirt road everyday to attend a one-room school as a child. Alice would eventually become the CEO of a large corporation, earning over a million dollars in income each year. Raised in a working-class family in an urban Midwestern city, Bill grew up with little knowledge of higher education. With similar success as Alice, Bill became the president of a major private university." Which concept is LEAST applicable to the stories of Alice and Bill? A. Meritocracy B. Intergenerational mobility C. Social reproduction D. Relative poverty

Solution: The correct answer is C. A. Given the successes identified in the stories of Alice and Bill, it is likely that meritocracy (referring to rewards given according to individual talent or effort) was involved for each of them. B. The stories of Alice and Bill each show unusual success from childhood to adulthood, and thus exhibit upward social mobility that can also be described as intergenerational mobility (change in social status across generations). C. The stories of Alice and Bill do not represent social reproduction, which refers to the perpetuation of inequalities through social institutions (like educational systems or the economy). Rather, the stories of Alice and Bill contradict social reproduction. D. The stories of Alice and Bill, in particular their childhood experiences, reflect relative poverty (lack of material resources in relation to others with more resources).

JUST READ: Based on information in the passage, which aspect of the research design poses a methodological limitation? A. The reliance upon medical records as a source of data B. The lack of interview data with patients or providers C. The percent from the sample that was excluded from the study D. The number of patients who were included in the study

Solution: The correct answer is C. A. Medical records are both a useful and appropriate source of data for research on healthcare quality. B. Interview data is not required for the purposes of the study, as it can be conducted from the medical records review. C. Conclusions based on the study are potentially weakened by the exclusion of significant numbers of cases from the sample (about 10% were excluded, as mentioned in the passage). Exclusion of cases could lead to a biased sample. d. A sample of 5,000 subjects is generally large enough for making reliable conclusions. It is not the size of the sample, but the cases that were excluded, which can pose a limitation (because exclusion of cases can result in bias in the sample).

Lung capillaries are so narrow that RBCs must pass through them in single file. This feature aids respiration by: A. increasing the production of CO2 in the RBCs. B. allowing RBCs to have direct contact with alveoli. C. giving maximum exposure of each RBC to diffusing gases. D. making Hb available for CO2 but not O2 to bind.

Solution: The correct answer is C. A. RBCs do not produce CO2, they instead transport some CO2 bound to hemoglobin. B. RBC do not enter in the alveoli, they stay in the capillaries. C. By moving one-by-one along the capillary, there is more RBC surface that is available for gas exchange. D. Most hemoglobin binds to O2, only 23% of CO2 is carried by hemoglobin. In the lungs, it is O2 that binds to hemoglobin and CO2 that is released, not the opposite.

According to Mead, the spontaneous and autonomous part of our unified self is the: A. id. B.ego. C.I. D.me.

Solution: The correct answer is C. A. The "id" is a term used by Freud, rather than Mead, and reflects unconscious instincts and other more innate aspects of personality. B. The "ego" is a term used by Freud, rather than Mead, and refers to the more conscious aspects of personality. C. According to Mead's theory of identity, the "I" is the spontaneous and autonomous part of the self, making this option the correct answer. D. According to Mead's theory of identity, the "me" is the part of the self that is formed in interaction with others and with the general social environment.

Figure look According to the passage, the pineal gland has what effect on thermogenesis in wintering natural populations of golden hamsters? A. Increased thermogenesis, because BAT mass was greater in Normal/Px than in Hot/Px hamsters B. Decreased thermogenesis, because BAT mass was greater in Hot/Sham than in Hot/Px hamsters C. No effect, because BAT mass was equivalent in Normal/Sham and Normal/Px hamsters D. No effect, because BAT mass was equivalent in Normal/Px and Hot/Px hamsters.

Solution: The correct answer is C. A. This condition will not allow to evaluate the role of the pineal gland in thermogenesis because the pineal gland has been removed. B. BAT mass was not statistically different in the hot/Sham and hot/Px. The * refers to normal temperature in the same treatment. C. The pineal gland has no effect on thermogenesis because there is no statistical difference in BAT mass between the Sham and Px hamsters at normal temperature. D. This condition will not allow to analyze the effects of pinealectomy because it compares two conditions where pineal glands have been removed.

Yeast cells can grow under either aerobic or anaerobic conditions. If the same concentration of glucose were used to grow two different yeast colonies, would the growth rate be faster under aerobic or anaerobic conditions? A. Anaerobic, because the final product (alcohol) would contain more energy than the final product of respiration (H2O) B. Anaerobic, because the cells would not have to produce the enzymes needed for the citric acid cycle C. Aerobic, because a much greater amount of ATP would be produced to provide energy for reproduction D. Aerobic, because the CO2 produced in fermentation would be toxic to the culture

Solution: The correct answer is C. In anaerobic conditions, the organism is only able to produce 1 molecules of ATP, thus the organism will not have much energy to use to grow in anaerobic conditions. It is true that alcohol has more energy than water, but because this energy is not free and cannot be converted in ATP, the organism cannot use it to grow. Although it is true that synthesis of enzymes for the citric acid cycle requires energy, anaerobic respiration results in the production of only 2 molecules of ATP and this value is much lower than the 30 molecules produced with aerobic respiration. Thus, an organism that uses only anaerobic respiration will grow less than an organism that uses aerobic respiration because it will have a lower level of ATP available. In aerobic conditions, the cells produce 30 molecules of ATP, whereas they only produce 2 in anaerobic conditions. The organisms can use the ATP to power their growth. Although in aerobic conditions the cells produce more ATP, it is not true that the CO2 produced is toxic to the cells. Cells have evolved to survive the levels of CO2 that are produced during fermentation.

What is the net charge of both pantothenate and phosphopantothenate in aqueous solution at pH 7? A. 0 for pantothenate and 0 for phosphopantothenate B. −1 for pantothenate and −1 for phosphopantothenate C. −1 for pantothenate and −3 for phosphopantothenate D. −3 for pantothenate and −4 for phosphopantothenate

Solution: The correct answer is C. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: The best way to go about this question is to determine the sum of the charges of each of the functional groups on pantothenate and phosphopantothenate. A. 0 for pantothenate and 0 for phosphopantothenate Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Both pantothenate and phosphopantothenate contain a carboxylic acid and no basic functional groups so they should have a net charge of at least -1. B. −1 for pantothenate and −1 for phosphopantothenate Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Phosphopantothenate will lose an additional two hydrogens from its phosphate group for a net charge of -3. C. −1 for pantothenate and −3 for phosphopantothenate Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Pantothenate loses a hydrogen from its carboxylic group and phosphopantothenate loses two hydrogens from its phosphate and one from its carboxylic acid. This is the correct pair of net charges. D. −3 for pantothenate and −4 for phosphopantothenate Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Pantothenate only loses one hydrogen from its carboxylic acid and phosphopantothenate loses 3 hydrogens total so the charges should be -1 and -3 respectively, like answer choice C. reddit: Amides have high pka values. So at pH 7, it is already protonated as shown in the passage me: I mistakenly deprotonated hydroxides at ph 7 but carboxylic acids were the only charge contributers since the amides have already gained their H.

"Immediately after the presentation of the last word, the participants were asked to recall as many words as they could from the list." Which conclusion can be drawn from Figure 2 based on the recall pattern of participants without memory impairments? A. Short term memory is the activated part of sensory memory. B. Short term memory is the activated part of long term memory. C. Short term memory and long term memory are uniform and function similarly. D. Short term memory and long term memory represent separate memory systems.

Solution: The correct answer is D. D. Serial position effects (such as the data for the control participants in Figure 2) are usually explained by (and support the independence of) LTM and STM. Thus, the primacy effect is explained in terms of the greater likelihood that items at the beginning of the list have been transferred to LTM, due to greater amounts of rehearsal. And the recency effect explained in terms of the items at the end of the list are still in STM. Reddit: I didn't know about the phenomenon's significance to short-term and long-term memory, so I learned something new too! Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Serial_position_effect Examining Figure 2, we see that most people were able to recall words that came first and last, while they had trouble in between. This phenomenon is called the serial position effect, broken down into the primacy effect and the recency effect. The part that was new to me and that this question tested on, was why do these effects occur? The recency effect may be obvious, because the most recent words are in the short term memory/working memory and can be recalled easily. But as for the primacy effect, the theory is that, " the initial items presented are most effectively stored in long-term memory because of the greater amount of processing devoted to them. (The first list item can be rehearsed by itself; the second must be rehearsed along with the first, the third along with the first and second, and so on.)" The dip in recall of middle words signified the break between short term and long term.

Based on the results of the first study, can the researchers conclude that genes play a causal role in anxiety disorders? A. Yes, because the results revealed that children whose parents had anxiety symptoms were more likely to show these symptoms themselves B. Yes, because the participants were randomly selected and the researchers controlled for parental history of anxiety C. No, because high parental criticism, which is an environmental factor, was also related to an increase in anxiety symptoms D. No because although parental history of anxiety predicts childhood anxiety, this may also be a result of social learning

Solution: The correct answer is D. A, A causal relationship cannot be concluded from correlational data. Thus, though it is suggestive, it cannot be considered strong evidence that that the parents' anxiety was genetically transmitted to their children. B. There was nothing in the passage to suggest that any of these aspects of experimental control had been incorporated into the study's design. C. A correlation cannot be regarded as strong support for a genetic explanation, because it does not provide evidence against an environmental explanation. Therefore, although parental criticism is a potential factor for the "third variable" problem, we cannot conclude that parental anxiety has been transmitted to the children. D. Assuming the children live with their parents (i.e., shared environment), the observed relationship between the parents' anxiety symptoms and those of the children can potentially be due to environmental factors, such as social learning (through children's observation of the behavior modeled by their parents), rather than genetic inheritance. reddit: Or...like the explanation says, they could have just observed that their parents were anxious all the time and that's how they learned to be anxious. Thus, it's not a genetic factor at all. My above answer is a bit speculative about other factors, but make sure you read all the answer choices when answering a question and see how they could potentially lead to the desired effect in the question stem. Essentially, the test-makers are asking, is it possible that their behavior could be due to a factor other than genetics? And based on the passage+data, yes, it could be possible via observational learning.

Some studies find that the association between discrimination and health is stronger for U.S.-born members of certain ethnic minority groups than it is for immigrant members of the same ethnic minority group. This finding suggests that the possible effect of discrimination on health is most likely related to: A. social segregation in the U.S. B. length of residence in the U.S. C. place of residence in the U.S. D. social integration in the U.S.

Solution: The correct answer is D. A. Although segregation in the U.S. could be a potential factor for some racial/ethnic groups, ethnic enclaves (a form of immigrant community separation that has been observed to be health protective for some racial/ethnic groups) would provide an important exception. Thus, option A does not provide the most likely explanation to account for the observed difference in strength of association when comparing U.S.-born and immigrant members of the same ethnic group. B. Length of residence reflects only a superficial difference between the groups and fails to identify a sociological mechanism that could explain the observation reported in the question. Length of residence does not account for differences in experiences of discrimination, nor does it suggest how different experiences could impact health. C. Geographic differences between the groups are not suggested by the question, and thus place of residence would not provide a potential explanation for the observed differences in the association between discrimination and health. The most likely sociological explanation for the observed difference in association between the two groups is the level of connection to social institutions and structures in the US (social integration describes the level of connection to the institutions and structures of a society). U.S. born members of an ethnic group would likely have greater level of social integration than immigrant members of the same group. With that social integration would also be greater exposure to incidences of discrimination, as constituted by systems of stratification in the U.S. This difference in social integration provides the best explanation for the observed association.

"study 2 was conducted to explore the role of anxiety on cognitive performance. A group of participants was required to memorize lists of target words. During the training phase, before each target word was presented to them, the participants were asked to read a sentence aloud. Half of the participants read sentences containing words that triggered self-doubt, and the other half read sentences containing words that triggered self-confidence. In the retrieval phase, the participants were asked to report as many of the target words as they could remember." The training procedure used in Study 2 primarily engages: A. implicit memory. B. procedural memory. C. sensory memory. D. working memory.

Solution: The correct answer is D. A. Implicit memory phenomena are exhibited (during retrieval) through the use of indirect memory measures. No indirect memory measure was used in the study. And no training procedure can be regarded as "engaging" implicit memory. B. Procedural memory is a type of implicit memory. Implicit memory phenomena are exhibited (during retrieval) through the use of indirect memory tests. No indirect memory measure was employed in the study. And no training procedure can be regarded as "engaging" implicit memory. C. Although participants' sensory memory was employed when they were presented with the visual stimuli, the task performed during training (i.e., repeating each sentence aloud) is a working memory task. Thus, working memory was the memory component that was primarily engaged during training. D. Repeating a sentence aloud while the target words are presented will engage the phonological loop of working memory. jw: The training procedure used in Study 2 primarily engages: Jack Westin Advanced Solution: To answer this question, we're going to focus on the second half of the passage where the author talks about Study 2. We know Study 2 was conducted to explore the role of anxiety on cognitive performance. We want to know about the actual training procedure. We're given 4 different types of memory procedures as our answer choices. Participants were required to memorize target words then read sentences and report as many of the target words as they could remember shortly thereafter. A. implicit memory. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Implicit memory involves long-term memories that are not consciously remembered, including procedural memories and emotional conditioning. In this study, the participants are consciously trying to remember information. B. procedural memory. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Procedural memories are a type of implicit memory and they include memories on how to do specific tasks. Some examples include riding a bike and emotional conditioning. These are not consciously remembered. In this study, the participants are consciously trying to remember information. C. sensory memory. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Sensory memory is the system that actively holds mu

When a striated muscle cell metabolizes glucose in the complete absence of O2, which of the following substances is NOT produced in a significant amount? A. Pyruvic acid B. Glucose-6-phosphate C. Lactic acid D. Acetyl-CoA

Solution: The correct answer is D. A. Pyruvic acid is one product of glycolysis. B. Glucose-6-phosphate is a product of glycolysis. C. Lactic acid is a product of pyruvic acid fermentation, which is a process that takes place when the levels of oxygen are low. D. If oxygen is scarce or absent, the product of glycolysis will be transformed into lactic acid instead of acetyl-CoA. Thus, the cell will produce less acetyl-CoA.

" On the emotion scale, a measure of participants' emotional state, the participants rated their emotional experience during each event on a scale ranging from -10 (intensely negative) to 10 (extremely positive). On the confidence scale, a measure of the participants' memory, the participants indicated how confident they were regarding the accuracy of each memory on a scale ranging from 0 (not at all confident) to 10 (highly confident). The researcher hypothesized that participants experiencing intensely negative emotions during an event would report higher confidence in their memory than for events during which they had experienced intensely positive emotions." Based on the hypothesis of the study, the researcher most likely expects which finding? A. A positive correlation between the participants' scores on the confidence scale and the number of events they recall from the last year B. A positive correlation between the participants' scores on the emotion scale and their scores on the confidence scale C. A negative correlation between the participants' scores on the confidence scale and the number of events they recall from the last year D. A negative correlation between the participa

Solution: The correct answer is D. A. The researcher did not measure the number of events recalled by the participants. B. The expected association was a negative (i.e., inverse) correlation, not a positive (i.e., direct) correlation, between scores on the emotion and confidence scales. The researcher hypothesized higher reported confidence in memories for events evoking intense negative emotions than for events evoking intensely positive emotions. C. The negative correlation that was hypothesized was between the emotional valence of the memories and the confidence ratings. The researcher did not measure the number of events recalled by the participants. D. The researcher hypothesized that the reported confidence in memories for events evoking intense negative emotions would be higher than for events evoking intense positive emotions. Thus, the expected association was a negative (i.e., inverse) correlation between scores on the emotion and confidence scales.

What is the concentration of Cl- ions in a 0.1 M solution of calcium chloride? A. 0.02 M B. 0.05 M C. 0.10 M D. 0.20 M

Solution: The correct answer is D. A. This response is too low by a factor of ten. It can result from thinking that calcium chloride does not dissolve in aqueous solution by dissociating into ions. B. This response is too low by a factor of four. It can result from thinking that the formula for calcium chloride is Ca2Cl. C. This response is too low by a factor of two. It can result from thinking that the formula for calcium chloride is CaCl, or from thinking that the compound dissolves by dissociating into equal amounts of cationic and anionic species. D. The formula for calcium chloride is CaCl2 and it produces twice as many Cl− ions as Ca2+ ions in solution when it dissolves.

Question 16 of 59 Question Addition of which disaccharide to a solution of Ag2O in NH3(aq) will NOT result in the deposition of shiny silver mirror on the walls of the reaction vessel?

Solution: The correct answer is D. Cellobiose has a hemiacetal group and can ring open to give an aldehyde that will reduce Ag+. Lactose has a hemiacetal group that can ring open to form an aldehyde that will reduce Ag+. Maltose has a hemiacetal group that can ring open to form an aldehyde that will reduce Ag+. Sucrose does NOT possess a hemiacetal functional group and thus cannot ring open to form an aldehyde that will reduce Ag+.

Km

Substrate concentration at 1/2 Vmax

" The Arf1 GTPase activating protein (GAP) catalyzes the conversion of Arf1-bound GTP to GDP and inorganic phosphate, thereby converting the protein to the inactive form." GAP belongs to what class of enzymes? A. Transferase B. Phosphatase C. Kinase D. Isomerase

The passage notes that GAP catalyzes the conversion of GTP to GDP and inorganic phosphate, inferring that it is a phosphatase. Phosphatases are responsible for the cleavage of phosphate bonds utilizing water to remove a molecule of inorganic phosphate.

Given: 140-keV What is the frequency of the emitted gamma photons? (Note: Use Planck's constant h = 6.6 x 10-34 Js and the elementary charge e = 1.6 x 10-19 C.) A. 2.11 × 1035 Hz B. 3.38 × 1019 Hz C. 3.01 × 10-20 Hz D. 1.45 × 10-47 Hz

The photon energy is 140 keV = 140 x 10^3 x 1.6 x 10−19 J = 2.24 x 10−14 J. The photon frequency is the ratio of 2.24 x 10−14 J and h = 6.6 x 10−34 Js, which is 3.38 x 1019 Hz.

The scientist wanted to use antibody B clinically (to treat humans), but this proposal was rejected. Which of the following is the most logical reason for the rejection? A. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it can never be used in humans. B. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, repeated usage in the same patient would elicit the production of human anti-mouse antibodies. C. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it will not recognize human antigens. D. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it can only be used in vitro.

The scientist wanted to use antibody B clinically (to treat humans), but this proposal was rejected. Which of the following is the most logical reason for the rejection? A. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it can never be used in humans. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: Never is a very strong word. Why would a mouse antibody be a bad fit for clinical use? What would cause it to not be used in humans? Hopefully there's an answer choice that's less extreme and more specific. B. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, repeated usage in the same patient would elicit the production of human anti-mouse antibodies. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: The mouse antibody will not be recognized as "self" by the immune system, it'll be recognized as "foreign." When the immune system recognizes the mouse antibody as foreign, it will mount an immune response that will lead to the production of anti-mouse antibodies. Once this happens, the mouse antibody must be discontinued or risk allergic reactions. If the mouse antibody is known to cause an immune response and allergic reaction, it will not be good for clinical use. C. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it will not recognize human antigens. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: The antigens that an antibody recognizes are not limited to the same organism that created it. For example, we produce antibodies that recognize non-human antigens all the time. D. Because the antibody was generated in the mouse, it can only be used in vitro. Jack Westin Advanced Solution: We have no reason to believe that this antibody is limited to in vitro use only. Answer choice B is the only one to provide a clear and specific reason as to why the mouse antibody would not be used clinically. Solution: The correct answer is B. Antibodies generated in other organisms can be used in humans. For instance, this is how antibodies are generated against poisons and given to humans as a first response. As the antibody was produced in another organism, several uses might trigger an immune response in the human individuals that would recognize the molecule as foreign. Often antibodies generated by an organism cross react with other organisms. Antibodies generated by other org

social reproduction

Transmission of social inequality from one generation to the next

Operationalization (operational definition)

Turning abstract ideas into measurable data. Concept: "Happiness" Feeling content and satisfied with one's life. Operational Definition: Happiness will be measured based on self-reported satisfaction scores on a scale of 1 to 10, where 1 indicates very unhappy and 10 indicates very happy. Indicators:

unconditioned vs conditioned response

Unconditioned Response (UCR): Blinking when air is blown into your eye. Conditioned Response (CR): Blinking when you hear a bell ring. Example: Unconditioned Response (UCR): If someone blows a puff of air into your eye, you naturally blink to protect your eye. This immediate blink is the unconditioned response, as it happens without you needing to learn it. Conditioned Response (CR): Now, imagine that every time you hear a specific tune, someone blows a puff of air into your eye. After a while, just hearing the tune makes you blink, even without the puff of air. This blink is the conditioned response. You've learned to blink when you hear the tune, because your brain connected the sound with the puff of air. In this example: Unconditioned Stimulus (UCS): Puff of air in the eye Unconditioned Response (UCR): Blinking due to the puff of air Conditioned Stimulus (CS): Bell ringing Conditioned Response (CR): Blinking due to hearing the bell, learned through association

Denaturation

Unfolding A process in which a protein unravels, losing its specific structure and hence function; can be caused by changes in pH or salt concentration or by high temperature. Also refers to the separation of the two strands of the DNA double helix, caused by similar factors.

Social capital

Using one's social networks for gain is one practical example of social capital (which can refer to the instrumental benefits of social ties). Thus, social capital best addresses the question's scenario of using a network tie for one's own benefit.

do acids when dissolved in water give acidic or basic solution

When acids are dissolved in water, they typically give an acidic solution. Acids are substances that release hydrogen ions (H+) when they dissolve in water. These hydrogen ions make the solution more acidic by increasing the concentration of H+ ions.

single celled organisms

Yes, all prokaryotes are single-celled organisms. Prokaryotes are characterized by their lack of a true nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. This distinguishes them from eukaryotes, which can be single-celled or multicellular and have a well-defined nucleus and various organelles enclosed in membranes. Yes, there are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. Examples of single-celled eukaryotes include protists, some types of algae, certain fungi, and various types of microscopic organisms.

social stratification

a system by which a society ranks categories of people in a hierarchy Social Stratification - Social stratification is a society's categorization of people into socioeconomic strata, based upon their occupation and income, wealth and social status, or derived power (social and political). As such, stratification is the relative social position of persons within a social group, category, geographic region, or social. In modern Western societies, social stratification typically is distinguished as three social classes: (i) the upper class, (ii) the middle class, and (iii) the lower class; in turn, each class can be subdivided into strata, e.g. the upper-stratum, the 305 middle-stratum, and the lower stratum. Moreover, a social stratum can be formed upon the bases of kinship or caste, or both Four principles are posited to underlie social stratification. o First, social stratification is socially defined as a property of a society rather than individuals in that society. o Second, social stratification is reproduced from generation to generation. o Third, social stratification is universal (found in every society) but variable (differs across time and place). o Fourth, social stratification involves not just quantitative inequality but qualitative beliefs and attitudes about social status

Meritocracy

a system in which promotion is based on individual ability or achievement Meritocracy is a system under which individuals are rewarded on the basis of individual skill, talent, or achievement.

A particular genome is composed of 23% adenine. What percentage of the genome is guanine? A. 11% B. 23% C. 27% D. 46%

c Based on base pairing, ​​ and ​​. If there is 23% of adenine, there will be 27% of guanine. A + G = 50% FYI: Chargaff's rule means that in any sample, the concentration of adenine will always equal the concentration of its pair thymine, and the concentrations of guanine and cytosine will be equal, too.

implicit memory

implicit memory involves long-term memories that are not consciously remembered, including procedural memories and emotional conditioning. In this study, the participants are consciously trying to remember information.

organization

relatively) formal group with an identifiable membership that engages in concerted action to achieve a common purpose. achieve maximum efficiency through bureaucracy - the rules, structures, and rankings that guide organizations. (DOES NOT mean something negative, lines, or red tape)

Glucose Chair conformation

trick is to count, doesnt start from 1

Glucose, galactose, fructose fisher confirmation

trick is to count, doesnt start from 1

Segregation

• Segregation is a way of separating out groups of people and giving them access to a separate set of resources within the same society ⦁ Segregation is a way of separating out groups of people and giving them access to a separate set of resources within the same society

Interference

• Sometimes interference is the problem though - 2 types: retroactive and proactive o Retroactive interference - new learning impairs old info. Refers to later information interfering with memory for earlier information. § ex. Writing new address makes it difficult to recall your old address o Proactive interference - something you learned in past impairs learning in future. Earlier information interferes with later information. § ex. New password learning - prior pw learning impairs ability to learn new one.

Melatonin

⦁ Circadian Rhythms - why you get sleepy in afternoon. They're our regular body rhythms across 24-hour period. Controlled by melatonin, produced in the pineal gland.

Theories of Emotion

⦁ James-Lange theory - (Physiologically based) experience of emotion is due to perception of physiological responses. ⦁ Physiological > Emotion ⦁ Cannon-Bard theory - disagreed with James-Lange, noticed many different emotions had same physiological responses. Believed physiological response and emotion occurred simultaneously. ⦁ Physiological = emotion ⦁ Schachter-Singer - physiological and cognitive responses simultaneously form emotion. We don't feel emotion until we're able to identify reason for situation. ⦁ Physiological + Cognitive = Emotion ⦁ Lazarus Theory - experience of emotion depends on how the situation is appraised (labelled). ⦁ Cognitive = Emotion + Physiological

World-Systems Theory

⦁ World-Systems Theory - importance of world as a unit, divides world into 3 countries: core, periphery, and semi-periphery. ⦁ Core = Western Europe and US. ⦁ Periphery = Latin America and Africa. Greatly influenced by and depend on core countries and transnational corporations. ⦁ Semi-periphery = India and Brazil, middle-ground. ⦁ Criticized on being too focused on core countries and ignoring class struggles of individual countries.