A&P 1 Final

Which of the following is not true? (1) Dermatomes are areas of the body that are stimulated by motor neurons exiting specific spinal nerves. (2) The stretch reflex helps to maintain muscle tone. (3) The Achilles reflex is an example of a stretch reflex. (4) The abdominal reflex is used to diagnose problems with autonomic reflexes. (5) Spinal nerves T2-T12 do not enter into the formation of a plexus. 1, 2, and 4 2 and 5 1 and 4 1, 3, and 5 1, 3, and 4

1 and 4

Which of the following would be considered a compound? (1) C 6H 12O 6 (2) O 2 (3) Fe (4) H 2 (5) CH 4 all are compounds 1, 2, 4, and 5 1 and 5 2 and 4 3

1 and 5

Which of the following are functions of the hypothalamus? (1) control of the ANS, (2) control of the pituitary gland, (3) regulation of emotional and behavioral patterns, (4) regulation of eating and drinking, (5) control of body temperature, (6) regulation of circadian rhythms and states of consciousness. 1, 2, 4, and 6 2, 3, 5, and 6 1, 3, 5, and 6 1, 4, 5, and 6 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

Which of the following are functions of the cranial bones? (1) Protection of the brain; (2) attachment of muscles that move the head; (3) protection of the special sense organs; (4) attachment to the meninges; (5) attachment of muscles that produce facial expressions. 1, 2, and 5 1, 2, 4, and 5 2 and 5 1, 2, 3, and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Which of the following keep the articular surfaces of synovial joints in contact and affect range of motion? (1) structure or shape of the articulating bones, (2) strength and tension of the joint ligaments, (3) arrangement and tension of muscles, (4) lack of use, (5) contact of soft parts. 1, 2, 3, and 5 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 3, 4, and 5 1, 3, and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Which of the following statements are true? (1) Most sympathetic postganglionic axons are adrenergic. (2) Cholinergic receptors are classi#ed as nicotinic and muscarinic. (3) Adrenergic receptors are classi#ed as alpha and beta. (4) Muscarinic receptors are present on all e"ectors innervated by parasympathetic postganglionic axons. (5) In general, norepinephrine stimulates alpha receptors more vigorously than beta receptors; epinephrine is a potent stimulator of both alpha and beta receptors. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 2, 3, 4 and 5 1, 3, 4, and 5 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, and 4.

1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Which of hte following statements regarding ATP are TRUE? (1) ATP is the energy currency for the cell. (2) The energy supplied by teh hydrolysis of ATP is constnatly being used by cels. (3) Energy is required to produce ATP. (4) The production of ATP involves both aerobic and anaerobic phases. (5) The process of producing energy in the form of ATP is termed the law of conservation of energy. 1, 2, 3, and 4 1, 2, 3, and 5 2, 4, and 5 1, 2, and 4 3, 4, and 5

1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following are sources of ATP for muscle contraction? (1) creatine phosphate, (2) glycolysis, (3) anaerobic cellular respiration, (4) aerobic cellular respiration, (5) acetylcholine 1, 2, and 3 2, 3, and 4 2, 3, and 5 1, 2, 3, and 4 2, 3, 4, and 5

1, 2, 3, and 4

Which of the following are cholinergic neurons? (1) all sympathetic preganglionic neurons, (2) all parasympathetic preganglionic neurons, (3) all parasympathetic postganglionic neurons, (4) all sympathetic postganglionic neurons, (5) some sympathetic postganglionic neurons. 1, 2, 3, and 5 1, 2, 3, and 4 2, 3, and 5 2 and 5 1, 3, and 5.

1, 2, 3, and 5

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (1) The sensory function of the nervous system involves sensory receptors sensing certain changes int he internal and external environments. (2) Sensory neurons receive electrical signals from sensory receptors. (3) The integrative function of the nervous system involves analyzing sensory information, storing some of it, and making decisions regarding appropriate responses. (4) Interneurons are located primarily in the PNS. (5) Motor function involves the activation of effectors (muscles and glands) 1, 2, 3, and 4 2, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, and 5 1, 2, and 4 2, 3, 4, and 5

1, 2, 3, and 5

Synovial "uid functions to (1) absorb shocks at joints, (2) lubricate joints, (3) form a blood clot in a joint injury, (4) supply oxygen and nutrients to chondrocytes, (5) provide phagocytes to remove debris from joints. 1, 2, 4 and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, and 4 3 and 4 2, 4, and 5

1, 2, 4 and 5

A nurse touches the lower back of a patient, but the patient does not feel the sensation. Which of the following could explain the lack of sensation? (1) The stimulus was not in the receptive !eld. (2) The generator potential has not reached threshold. (3) There is damage to the somatosensory region of the cerebral cortex. (4) The nurse was stimulating a proprioceptor. (5) A slowly adapting receptor has been stimulated 1, 3 and 5 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, and 3 2, 3, and 4 1 only

1, 2, and 3

During REM sleep (1) neuronal activity in the pons and midbrain is high, (2) most somatic motor neurons are inhibited, (3) most dreaming occurs, (4) sleepwalking can occur, (5) there is an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. 1, 2, 4, and 5 2, 3, and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 2, 3, and 4 1, 2, and 3

1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements are true? (1) If the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect but less than the threshold of stimulation, the result is a subthreshold EPSP. (2) If the excitatory effect is greater than the inhibitory effect and reaches or surpasses the threshold level of stimulation, the result is a threshold or suprathreshold EPSP and one or more nerve impulses. (3) If the inhibitory effect is greater than the excitatory effect, the membrane hyperpolarizes, resulting in inhibition of the postsynaptic neuron and the inability of the neuron to generate a nerve impulse. (4) The greater the summation of hyperpolarizations, the more likely a nerve impulse will be initiated. 1 and 4 2 and 4 1, 3, and 4 2, 3, and 4 1, 2, and 3

1, 2, and 3

In which of the following ways does cerebrospinal fluid contribute to homeostasis? (1) mechanical protection, (2) chemical protection, (3) electrical protection, (4) circulation, (5) immunity. 1, 2, and 3 2, 3, and 4 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, and 4 2, 4, and 5

1, 2, and 4

When viewing an object close to your eyes, which of the following are required for proper image formation on the retina? (1) increased curvature of the lens, (2) contraction of the ciliary muscle, (3) divergence of the eyeballs, (4) refraction of light at the anterior and posterior surfaces of the cornea, (5) constriction of the pupil by contraction of the extrinsic eye muscles. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, and 4 1, 2, 3, and 4 2, 4, and 5 2, 3, and 4

1, 2, and 4

Which of the following statements are true? (1) The frequency of impulses and number of activated sensory neurons encodes di"erences in stimuli intensity. (2) Larger-diameter axons conduct nerve impulses faster than smaller-diameter ones. (3) Continuous conduction is faster than saltatory conduction. (4) The diameter of an axon and the presence or absence of a myelin sheath are the most important factors that determine the speed of nerve impulse propagation. (5) Action potentials are localized, but graded potentials are propagated. 1, 3, and 5 3 and 4 2, 4, and 5 2 and 4 1, 2, and 4

1, 2, and 4

Which of the following statements regarding the nucleus are TRUE? (1) Nucleoli within the nucleus are the sites of ribosome synthesis. (2) The nucleus contains the cell's hereditary units (3) The nuclear membrane is a solid, impermeable membrane (4) Protein synthesis occurs within the nucleus. (5) In nondividing cells, DNA is found in the nucleus in the form of chromatin. 1, 2, and 3 1, 2, and 4 1, 2, and 5 2, 4 and 5 2, 3, and 4

1, 2, and 5

Which of the following are TRUE concerning the elbow joint? (1) When the forearm is extended, the olecranon fossa receives teh olecranon. (2) When the forearm is "exed, the radial fossa receives, the coronoid process (3) The head of the radius articulates with the capitulum (4) The trochlea articulates with the trochlear notch. (5) The head of the ulna articulates with the ulnar notch of the radius. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 3, and 4 1, 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, and 4 2, 3, and 4

1, 3, 4, and 5

Which of the following statements are true? (1) The somatic nervous system and the ANS both include sensory and motor neurons. (2) Somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine. (3) The effect of an autonomic motor neuron is either excitation or inhibition, but that of a somatic motor neuron is always excitation. (4) Autonomic sensory neurons are mostly associated with interoceptors. (5) Autonomic motor pathways consist of two motor neurons in series. (6) Somatic motor pathways consist of two motor neurons in series. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 3, 4, and 5 2, 3, 5, and 6 1, 3, 5, and 6 2, 4, 5, and 6

1, 3, 4, and 5

Tissue changes that occur with aging can be due to (1) cross-links forming between glucose and proteins (2) a decrease in the amount of collagen !bers, (3) a decreased blood supply, (4) improper nutrition, (5) a higher celular metabolic rate. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, and 4 1 and 4 1, 3, and 4 1, 2, and 3

1, 3, and 4

Which of the following are reasons why the effects of sympathetic stimulation are longer lasting and more widespread than those of parasympathetic stimulation? (1) There is greater divergence of sympathetic postganglionic fibers. (2) There is less divergence of sympathetic postganglionic fibers. (3) Acetylcholinesterase quickly inactivates ACh, whereas norepinephrine lingers in the synaptic cleft for a longer time. (4) Norepinephrine and epinephrine secreted into the blood by the adrenal medullae intensify the actions of the sympathetic division. (5) ACh remains in the synaptic cleft until norepinephrine is produced. 1 and 3 1, 3, and 5 1, 3, and 4 2, 3, and 4 2, 3, and 5

1, 3, and 4

Which of the following are true? (1) The sites of olfactory transduction are the olfactory hairs. (2) The olfactory bulbs transmit impulses to the temporal lobe of the brain. (3) The axons of olfactory receptors pass through the olfactory foramina in the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone. (4) The olfactory nerves are bundles of axons that terminate in the olfactory tracts. (5) Within the olfactory bulbs, the first-order neurons synapse with the second-order neurons. 1, 2, and 4 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 3, and 5 1, 2, 3, and 5.

1, 3, and 5

Which of the following is true? (1) Monoamine oxidase enzymatically breaks down norepinephrine. (2) Activation of α 2 and β 2 receptors generally produces excitation in the effectors. (3) A beta blocker works by preventing activation of β receptors by epinephrine and norepinephrine. (4) An agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor and prevents the natural neurotransmitter from exerting its effect. (5) Activation of nicotinic receptors always causes excitation of the postsynaptic cell. 2 and 3 1, 2, and 3 2, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 3, and 5

1, 3, and 5

Place in order the steps involved in intramembranous ossi!cation. - The extracellular matrix hardens by deposition of calcium and mineral salts. - Bony matrices fuse to form trabeculae. - Clusters of osteoblasts for a center of ossification that secretes the organic extracellular matrix. - Spongy bone is replaced with compact bone on the bone's surface. - Periosteum develops on the bone's periphery

1. Clusters of osteoblasts for a center of ossification that secretes the organic extracellular matrix. 2. The extracellular matrix hardens by deposition of calcium and mineral salts. 3. Bony matrices fuse to form trabeculae. 4. Periosteum develops on the bone's periphery 5. Spongy bone is replaced with compact bone on the bone's surface.

Place in order the structures involved in the visual pathway. - lens - cornea - pupil - optic nerve - visual cortex - aqueous humor - bipolar cells - thalamus - vitreous body - optic chiasm - photoreceptors - ganglion cells - optic tract

1. cornea 2. aqueous humor 3. pupil 4. lens 5. vitreous body 6. photoreceptors 7. bipolar cells 8. ganglion cells 9. optic nerve 10. optic chiasm 11. optic tract 12. thalamus 13. visual cortex

Place in order the steps involved in endochondral ossiffcation. - bridging of broken ends of bones by a fibrocartilaginous callus - formation of a hematoma at the site of fracture - migration of !broblasts to the fracture site - Osteoblast production of trabeculae and bony callus formation - resorption of remaining bone fragments and remodeling of bone.

1. formation of a hematoma at the site of fracture 2. migration of !broblasts to the fracture site 3. bridging of broken ends of bones by a fibrocartilaginous callus 4. Osteoblast production of trabeculae and bony callus formation 5. resorption of remaining bone fragments and remodeling of bone.

- a sequence of rapidly occurring events that decreases and eventually reverses the membrane potential and then restores it to the resting state; a nerve impulse - a small deviation from the resting membrane potential that makes the membrane either more or less polarized - period of time when a second action potential can be initiated with a very strong stimulus - the minimum level of depolarization required for a nerve impulse to be generated - the recovery of the resting membrane potential - a neurotransmitter-caused depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane - a neurotransmitter-caused hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane - time during which a neuron cannot produce an action potential even with a very strong stimulus - polarization that is less negative than the resting level - results from the buildup of neurotransmitter released simultaneously by several presynaptic end bulbs - the hyperpolarization that occurs after the repolarizing phase of an action potential - polarization that is more negative than the resting level - results from the buildup of neurotransmitter from the rapid, successive release by a single presynaptic end bulb 1. graded potential 2. action potential 3. excitatory postsynaptic potential 4. inhibitory postsynaptic potential 5. absolute refractory period 6. repolarization 7. after-hyperpolarizing phase 8. spatial summation 9. threshold 10. relative refractory period 11. temporal summation 12. depolarizing graded potential 13. hyperpolarizing graded potential

1. graded potential 10. relative refractory period 9. threshold 6. repolarization 3. excitatory postsynaptic potential 4. inhibitory postsynaptic potential 5. absolute refractory period 12. depolarizing graded potential 8. spatial summation 7. after-hyperpolarizing phase 13. hyperpolarizing graded potential 11. temporal summation

- upper and lower eyelids; shade the eyes during sleep, spread lubricating secretions over the eyeballs - produces and drains tears - arch transversely above the eyeballs and help protect the eyeballs from foreign objects, perspiration, and the direct rays of the sun - move the eyeball medially, laterally, superiorly, or inferiorly - a thick fold of connective tissue that gives form and support to the eyelids - modified sebaceous glands; secretion helps keep eyelids from adhering to one another - project from the border of each eyelid; help protect the eyeballs from foreign objects, perspiration, and direct rays of the sun - a thin, protective mucous membrane that lines the inner aspect of the eyelids and passes from the eyelids onto the surface of the eyeball, where it covers the sclera 1. palpebrae 2. tarsal or Meibomian glands 3. conjunctiva 4. eyelashes 5. lacrimal apparatus 6. extrinsic eye muscles 7. eyebrows 8. tarsal plate

1. palpebrae 5. lacrimal apparatus 7. eyebrows 6. extrinsic eye muscles 8. tarsal plate 2. tarsal or Meibomian glands 4. eyelashes 3. conjunctiva

Place the following components of an autonomic re!ex arc in the correct order from beginning to end: preganglionic neuron, sensory neuron, postganglionic neuron, integrating center, receptor, effector, autonomic ganglion

1. receptor 2. sensory neuron 3. integrating center 4. preganglionic neuron 5. autonomic ganglion 6. postganglionic neuron 7. effector

To expose underlying tissues in the bottom of the foot, a foot surgeon must first cut through the skin. Place the following layers in the order that the scalpel would cut. - stratum spinosum - stratum corneum - stratum granulosum - stratum lucidum - stratum basale

1. stratum corneum 2. stratum lucidum 3. stratum granulosum 4. stratum spinosum 5. stratum basale

- a reflex resulting in the contraction of a skeletal muscle when it is stretched - receptors that monitor changes in muscle length - a balance-maintaining re#ex - operates as a feedback mechanism to control muscle tension by causing muscle relaxation when muscle force becomes too extreme - reflex arc that consists of one sensory and one motor neuron - acts as a feedback mechanism to control muscle length by causing muscle contraction - sensory impulses enter on one side of the spinal cord and motor impulses exit on the opposite side - occurs when sensory nerve impulse travels up and down the spinal cord, thereby activating several motor neurons and more than one effector - polysynaptic reflex initiated in response to a painful stimulus - receptors that monitor changes in muscle tension - maintains proper muscle tone - reflex pathway that contains sensory neurons, interneurons, and motor neurons - motor nerve impulses exit the spinal cord on the same side that sensory impulses entered the spinal cord - protects the tendon and muscle from damage due to excessive tension - a neural circuit that coordinates body movements by causing contraction of one muscle and relaxation of antagonistic muscles or relaxation of a muscle and contraction of the antagonists 1. stretch reflex 2. tendon reflex 3. flexor (withdrawal) reflex 4. crossed extensor reflex 5. intersegmental reflex arc 6. contralateral reflex arc 7. ipsilateral reflex arc 8. muscle spindles 9. tendon (Golgi tendon) organs 10. reciprocal innervation 11. monosynaptic reflex 12. polysynaptic reflex

1. stretch reflex 8. muscle spindles 4. crossed extensor reflex 2. tendon reflex 11. monosynaptic reflex 1. stretch reflex 6. contralateral reflex arc 5. intersegmental reflex arc 3. flexor (withdrawal) reflex 9. tendon (Golgi tendon) organs 1. stretch reflex 12. polysynaptic reflex 7. ipsilateral reflex arc 2. tendon reflex 10. reciprocal innervation

- Your eyes are _____ to your chin - Your skin is _____ to your heart - Your right shoulder is superior and _____ from your umbilicus (belly button). - In the anatomical position, your thumb is _____ - Your buttocks are _____ - Your right foot and right hand are _____ - Your knee is _____ between your thigh and toes - Your lungs are _____ to your spinal column - Your breastbone is _____ to your chin - Your calf is _____ to your heel. 1. superior 2. inferior 3. anterior 4. posterior 5. medial 6. lateral 7. intermediate 8. ipsilateral 9. contralateral 10. proximal 11. distal 12. superficial 13. deep

1. superior 12. superficial 6. lateral 6. lateral 4. posterior 8. ipsilateral 7. intermediate 3. anterior 2. inferior 10. proximal

- allows planning and production of speech - interprets pitch and rhythm - controls voluntary contraction of muscles - allows recognition and evaluation of visual experiences - integration and interpretation of somatic sensations; comparison of past to present sensations - receives impulses for touch, proprioception, pain, and temperature - receives impulses for taste - interpretation of sounds as speech, music, or noise - receives impulses from many sensory and association areas as well as the thalamus and brain stem; allows formation of thoughts so appropriate action can occur - translates words into thoughts - receives impulses for smell - allows interpretation of shape, color, and movement - coordinates muscle movement for complex, learned sequential motor activities - involved in scanning eye movements 1. primary visual area 2. primary auditory area 3. primary gustatory area 4. primary olfactory area 5. primary somatosensory area 6. primary motor area 7. somatosensory association area 8. visual association area 9. frontal eye field 10. Broca's area 11. auditory association area 12. premotor area 13. Wernicke's area 14. common integrative area

10. Broca's area 2. primary auditory area 6. primary motor area 8. visual association area 7. somatosensory association area 5. primary somatosensory area 3. primary gustatory area 11. auditory association area 14. common integrative area 13. Wernicke's area 4. primary olfactory area 1. primary visual area 12. premotor area 9. frontal eye field

- specialized groupings of muscle fibers interspersed among regular skeletal muscle fibers and oriented parallel to them; monitor changes in the length of a skeletal muscle - inform the CNS about changes in muscle tension - widely distributed free nerve ending receptors for pain - encapsulated receptors for touch located in the dermal papillae; found in hairless skin, eyelids, tip of the tongue, and lips - lamellated corpuscles that detect pressure - type II cutaneous mechanoreceptors; most sensitive to stretching that occurs as digits or limbs are moved - located in the stratum basale and activated by low temperatures - located in the dermis and activated by high temperatures - found within and around the articular capsules of synovial joints; respond to pressure and acceleration and deceleration of joints - type I cutaneous mechanoreceptors that function in !ne touch 1. Meissner corpuscles 2. Merkel discs 3. Ruffini corpuscles 4. pacinian corpuscles 5. cold receptors 6. warm receptors 7. nociceptors 8. tendon organs 9. joint kinesthetic receptors 10. muscle spindles

10. muscle spindles 8. tendon organs 7. nociceptors 1. Meissner corpuscles 4. pacinian corpuscles 3. Ruffini corpuscles 5. cold receptors 6. warm receptors 9. joint kinesthetic receptors 2. Merkel discs

- small spaces between lamellae that contain osteocytes - perforating canals that penetrate compact bone; carry blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, and nerve from the periosteum - areas between osteons; fragments of old osteons - cells that secrete the components required to build bone - microscopic unit of compact bone tissue - interconnected, tiny canals filled with extracellular fluid; connect lacunae to each other and to the central canal. - canals that extend longitudinally through the bone and connect blood vessels and nerves to the osteocytes. - large cells derived from monocytes and involved in bone resorption - irregular lattice of thin columns of bone foudn in spongy bone tissue - rings of hard calci!ced matrix found just beneath the periosteum and in the medullary cavity - mature cells that maintain the daily metabolism of bone - an opening in the shaft of the bone allowing an artery to pass into the bone - unspecialized stem cells derived from mesenchyme 1. osteogenic cells 2. osteocytes 3. osteons (haversian system) 4. Volkmann's canals 5. circumferential lamellae 6. osteoblasts 7. trabeculae 8. interstitial lamellae 9. canaliculi 10. osteoclasts 11. nutrient foramen 12. lacunae 13. haversian (central) canal

12. lacunae 4. Volkmann's canals 8. interstitial lamellae 6. osteoblasts 3. osteons (haversian system) 9. canaliculi 13. haversian (central) canal 10. osteoclasts 7. trabeculae 5. circumferential lamellae 2. osteocytes 11. nutrient foramen 1. osteogenic cells

- compression of median nerve resulting in pain and numbness and tingling in the fingers - tendinitis of the anterior compartment muscles of the leg; inflammation of the tibial periosteum - improperly aligned eyeballs due to lesions in either the oculomotor or abducens nerves - stretching or tearing of distal attachments of adductor muscles - rupture of a portion of the inguinal area of the abdominal wall resulting in protrusion of part of the small intestine - caused by repetitive movement of the arm over the head that results in inflammation of the supraspinatus tendon - inflammation due to chronic irritation of the plantar aponeurosis at its origin on the calcaneus; most common cause of heel pain in runners - painful inflammation of tendons, tendon sheaths, and synovial membranes of joints - paralysis of facial muscles as a result of damage to the facial nerve - common in individuals who perform quick starts and stops; tearing away of part of the tendinous origins from the ischial tuberosity - permanent shortening of a muscle due to nerve damage and scar tissue development - may occur as a result of injury to levator ani muscle - external or internal pressure constricts structures in a compartment, causing a reduction of blood supply to the structures 1. tenosynovitis 2. Bell's palsy 3. inguinal hernia 4. urinary stress incontinence 5. compartment syndrome 6. groin strain 7. pulled hamstrings 8. strabismus 9. shin splints 10. plantar fasciitis 11. impingement syndrome 12. contracture 13. carpal tunnel syndrome

13. carpal tunnel syndrome 9. shin splints 8. strabismus 6. groin strain 3. inguinal hernia 11. impingement syndrome 10. plantar fasciitis 1. tenosynovitis 2. Bell's palsy 7. pulled hamstrings 12. contracture 4. urinary stress incontinence 5. compartment syndrome

- the joining together of the anterior rami of adjacent nerves - spinal nerve branches that serve the deep muscles and skin of the posterior surface of the trunk - spinal nerve branches that serve the muscles and structures of the upper and lower limbs and the lateral and ventral trunk - area of the spinal cord from which nerves to and from the upper limbs arise - area of the spinal cord from which nerves to and from the lower limbs arise - the roots form the nerves that arise from the inferior part of the spinal cord but do not leave the vertebral column at the same level as they exit the cord - contains motor neuron axons and conducts impulses from the spinal cord to the peripheral organs and cells - avascular covering of spinal cord composed of delicate collagen fibers and some elastic fibers - contains sensory neuron axons and conducts impulses from the peripheral receptors into the spinal cord - superficial spinal cord covering of dense, irregular connective tissue - an extension of the pia mater that anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx - extending the length of the spinal cord, these pia mater thickenings fuse with the arachnoid mater and dura mater and help to protect the spinal cord from shock and sudden displacement - thin transparent connective tissue composed of interlacing bundles of collagen fibers and some elastic fibers adhering to the spinal cord's surface - space within the spinal cord filled with cerebrospinal fluid - spinal nerve branch that supplies vertebrae, vertebral ligaments, blood vessels of the spinal cord, and meninges 1. cervical enlargement 2. lumbar enlargement 3. central canal 4. denticulate ligaments 5. cauda equina 6. meningeal branch 7. pia mater 8. arachnoid mater 9. dura mater 10. posterior (dorsal) root 11. anterior (ventral) root 12. posterior (dorsal) ramus 13. anterior (ventral) ramus 14. plexus 15. filum terminale

14. plexus 12. posterior (dorsal) ramus 13. anterior (ventral) ramus 1. cervical enlargement 2. lumbar enlargement 5. cauda equina 11. anterior (ventral) root 8. arachnoid mater 10. posterior (dorsal) root 9. dura mater 15. filum terminale 4. denticulate ligaments 7. pia mater 3. central canal 6. meningeal branch

cytoskeleton centrosome ribosomes rough ER smooth ER Golgi complex lysosomes peroxisomes mitochondria cilia flagellum proteasomes vesicles 1. membrane-enclosed vesicles formed int he Golgi complex that contain strong hydrolytic and digestive enzymes. 2. network of protein !laments that extend throughout the cytoplasm, providing cellular shape, organization, and movement. 3. sites of protein synthesis 4. contain enzymes that break apart unneeded, damaged, or faulty proteins into small peptides 5. site where secretory proteins and membrane molecules are synthesized. 6. membrane-enclosed vesicles that contain enzymes that oxidize various organic substances. 7. short microtubular structures extending from the plasma membrane and involved in movement of materials along the cell's surface. 8. modifies, sorts, packages, and transports molecules synthesized int he rough ER 9. an organizing center for growth of the mitotic spindle 10. function in ATP generation 11. functions in synthesizing fatty acids and steroids, helping liver cells release glucose into the blood-stream, and detoxi!cation. 12. membrane-bound sacs that transport, transfer, or secrete proteins 13. long microtubular structure extending from the plasma membrane and involved in movement of a cell.

2 9 3 5 11 8 1 6 10 7 13 4 12

Which is (are) NOT ture concerning the scapula? (1) The lateral border is also known as the axillary border. (2) The scapular notch accommodates the head of the humerus. (3) The scapula is also known as the collarbone. (4) The acromion process articulates with the clavicle; (5) The coracoid process is utilized for muscle attachment. 1, 2, and 3 3 only 2 and 3 3 and 4

2 and 3

Which autonomic plexus supplies the large intestine? (1) renal, (2) inferior mesenteric, (3) hypogastric, (4) superior mesenteric, (5) celiac. 2, 3, and 4 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 3 and 4 4 and 5 2 and 4

2 and 4

The primary vertebral curves that appear during fetal development are the (1) cervical curve, (2) thoracic curve, (3) lumbar curve, (4) coccyx curve, (5) sacral curve. 2 and 3 1 and 2 2 and 4 2 and 5 1 and 3

2 and 5

Which of the following statements are TRUE? (1) The pectoral girdle consists of the scapula, the clavicle and the sternum (2) Although the joints of the pectoral girdle are not very stable, they allow free movement in many directions. (3) The anterior component of the pectoral girdle is the scapula. (4) The pectoral girdle articulates directly with the vertebral column. (5) The posterior component of the pectoral girdle is the sternum. 1, 2, and 3 2, 3, and 5 2 only 3, 4, and 5 4 only

2 only

Which of the following statements are true concerning a synovial joint? (1) The bones at a synovial joint are covered by a mucous membrane. (2) The articular capsule surrounds a synovial joint, encloses the synovial cavity, and unites the articulating bones. (3) The !brous portion of the articular capsule permits considerable movement at a joint. (4) The tensile strength of the !brous capsule helps prevent bones from disarticulating. (5) All joints contain a fibrous capsule. 1, 2, 3, and 4 2, 3, 4, and 5 2, 3, and 4 1, 2, and 3 2, 4, and 5

2, 3, and 4

Which of the following statements are true? (1) The basic types of ion channels are gated, leakage, and electrical. (2) Ion channels allow for the development of graded potentials and action poten-tials. (3) The major stimuli that operate gated ion channels are voltage changes, ligands (chemicals), and mechanical stimulation. (4) Ligand- gated channels may open either directly due to the presence of the ligand molecule itself or indirectly through the activation of a "second messenger" by a G protein. (5) A graded potential is useful only for communication over short distances. 1, 2, and 3 2, 3, and 4 2, 3, and 5 2, 3, 4, and 5 1, 3, and 5

2, 3, and 4

Which of the following are structural classi!cations of joints? (1) amphiarthrosis, (2) cartilaginous, (3) synovial, (4) synarthrosis, (5) fibrous 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 2 and 5 1 and 4 1, 2, 4, and 5 2, 3, and 5

2, 3, and 5

Which of the following organelles function primarily in decomposition reactions? (1) ribosomes (2) proteasomes (3) lysosomes (4) centrosomes (5) peroxisomes. 2, 3, and 5 3 and 5 2, 4, and 5 1 and 4 2 and 5

2, 3, and 5

Which of the following organic compounds are classifed as lipids? (1) polysaccharides (2) triglycerides, (3) steroids, (4) enzymes, (5) eicosanoids 1, 2, and 4 2, 3, and 5 2 and 5 2, 3, 4, and 5 2 and 3

2, 3, and 5

Place the following events in a chemical synapse in the correct order: (1) release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, (2) arrival of nerve impulse at the presynaptic neuron's synaptic end bulb (or varicosity), (3) either depolarization or hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membrane, (4) inward flow of Ca2+ through activated voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the synaptic end bulb membrane, (5) exocytosis of synaptic vesicles, (6) opening of ligand-gated channels on the postsynaptic plasma membrane, (7) binding of neurotransmitters to receptors in the postsynaptic neuron's plasma membrane 2, 1, 5, 4, 7, 6, 3 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 6, 3 2, 4, 5, 1, 7, 6, 3 4, 5, 1, 7, 6, 3, 2 2, 5, 1, 4, 6, 7, 3

2, 4, 5, 1, 7, 6, 3

Neurotransmitters are removed from the synaptic cleft by (1) axonal transport, (2) diffusion away from the cleft, (3) neurosecretory cells, (4) enzymatic breakdown, (5) cellular uptake. 1, 2, 3, and 4 2, 4, and 5 2, 3, and 4 1, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

2, 4, and 5

- a large, triangular, flat bone found in the posteior part of the thorax - an S-shaped bone lying horizontally in the superior and anterior part of the thorax - articulates proximally with the scapula and distally with the radius and ulna - located on the medial aspect of the forearm - located on the lateral aspect of the forearm - the longest, heaviest, and strongest bone of the body - the larger, medial bone of the leg - the smaller, lateral bone of the leg. - heel bone - sesamoid bone that articulates with the femur and tibia. 1. calcaneus 2. scapula 3. patella 4. radius 5. femur 6. clavicle 7. ulna 8. tibia 9. humerus 10. fibula

2. scapula 6. clavicle 9. humerus 7. ulna 4. radius 5. femur 8. tibia 10. fibula 1. calcaneus 3. patella

mitosis meiosis prophase metaphase anaphase telophase cytokinesis interphase 1. cytoplasmic division 2. somatic cell division resulting in the formation of two identical cells 3. reproductive cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes by half 4. stage of cell division when replication of DNA occurs 5. stage when chromatin fibers condense and shorten to form chromosomes 6. stage when centromeres split and sister chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell 7. Stage when centromeres of chromatid pairs line up at the center of the mitotic spindle 8. stage when chromosomes uncoil and revert to chromatin

2. somatic cell division resulting in the formation of two identical cells 3. reproductive cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes by half 5. stage when chromatin fibers condense and shorten to form chromosomes 7. Stage when centromeres of chromatid pairs line up at the center of the mitotic spindle 6. stage when centromeres split and sister chromatids move to opposite poles of the cell 8. stage when chromosomes uncoil and revert to chromatin 1. cytoplasmic division 4.stage of cell division when replication of DNA occurs

- partition between external auditory canal and middle ear; eardrum - oval central portion of the bony labyrinth; contains utricle and saccule - receptor for static equilibrium; also contributes to some aspects of dynamic equilibrium; consists of hair cells and supporting cells - spiral organ; organ for hearing - ear bones: malleus, incus, stapes - the pressure equalization tube that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx - contains the spiral organ - fluid found within the membranous labyrinth; pressure waves in this fluid cause vibration of the basilar membrane - receptor organs for equilibrium; the saccule, utricle, and semicircular canals - swollen enlargement in semicircular canals; contains structures involved in dynamic equilibrium - opening between the middle ear and internal ear; is enclosed by a membrane called the secondary tympanic membrane - the flap of elastic cartilage covered by skin that captures sound waves; the pinna - fluid found inside bony labyrinth; bulging of the oval window causes pressure waves in this fluid -flopening between the middle and inner ear; receives base of stapes 1. auricle 2. tympanic membrane 3. auditory ossicles 4. vestibular apparatus 5. ampulla 6. cochlea 7. perilymph 8. oval window 9. round window 10. auditory or eustachian tube 11. vestibule 12. endolymph 13. spiral organ 14. macula

2. tympanic membrane 11. vestibule 14. macula 13. spiral organ 3. auditory ossicles 10. auditory or eustachian tube 6. cochlea 12. endolymph 4. vestibular apparatus 5. ampulla 9. round window 1. auricle 7. perilymph 8. oval window

Which of the following muscle tissues can be voluntarily controlled? (1) cardiac, (2) smooth, (3) skeletal. 1, 2, and 3 2 1 1 and 3 3

3

diffusion osmosis facilitated diffusion primary active transport secondary active transport vesicular transport phagocytosis pinocytosis exocytosis receptor-mediated endocytosis transcytosis 1. passive transport in which a solute binds to a speci!c transporter on one side of the membrane and is released on the other side. 2. movement of materials out of the cell by fusing of secretory vesicles with the plasma membrane 3. the random mixing of particles in a solution due to the kinetic energy of the particles; substances move from high to low concentrations until equilibrium is reached. 4. transport of substances either into or out of the cell by means of small, spherical membranous sac formed by budding o" from existing membranes. 5. uses energy derived from hydrolysis of ATP to change the shape of a transporter protein, which "pumps" a substance across a cellular membrane against its concentration gradient. 6. vesicular movement involving endocytosis on one side of a cell and subsequent exocytosis on the opposite side of the cell. 7. type of endocytosis that involves the nonselective uptake of tiny droplets of extracellular #uid 8. type of endocytosis in which large solid particles are taken in. 9. movement of water fom an area of higher to an area of lower water concnetration through a selectively permeable membrane. 10. process that allows a cell to take speci!c ligands fromt he ECF by forming vesicles 11. indirectly uses energy obtained fromt eh breakdown of ATP; involves symporters and antiporters.

3 9 1 5 11 4 8 7 2 10 6

Which of the following statements are true? (1) Slow pain is a result of impulse propagation along myelinated A nerve fibers. (2) Visceral pain occurs when nociceptors in the skin are stimulated. (3) Referred pain is pain felt in an area far from the stimulated organ. (4) Nociceptors exhibit very little adaptation. (5) Nociceptors are located in every body tissue. 1, 3, 4, and 5 2, 3, and 5 1 and 5 3 and 4 3, 4, and 5

3 and 4

A neuron's resting membrane potential is established and maintained by (1) a high concentration of K+ in the extracellular fluid and a high concentration of Na+ in the extracellular fluid. (2) the plasma membrane's higher permeability to Na+ because of the presence of numerous Na+ leakage channels, (3) differences in both ion concnetrations and electrical gradients (4) the fact that there are numeous large, nondiffusible anions int he cytosol, (5) sodium-potassium pumps that help to maintain the proper distribution of sodium and potassium. 1, 2, and 5 1, 2, and 3 2, 3, and 4 3, 4, and 5 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

3, 4, and 5

- largest and strongest tarsal bone - most medial bone in the distal row of carpals; has a hook-shaped projection on anterior surface - most medial, pea-shaped bone located in the proximal row of carpals - articulate with metatarsals I-III and cuboid - located in the proximal row of carpals; its name means "moon-shaped" - most lateral bone in the distal row of carpals - largest carpal bone - generally classified as proximal, middle, and distal - most lateral bone in the proximal row of carpals - articulates with the tibia and fibula - located in the proximal row of carpals; its name indicates that it is "three-cornered" - lateral bone that articulates with the calcaneus and metatarsals; IV-V - articulates with metacarpal II - boat-shaped bone that articulates with the talus 1. cuboid 2. triquetrium 3. calcaneus 4. pisiform 5. capitate 6. phalanges 7. trapezoid 8. hamate 9. lunate 10. scaphoid 11. cuneiforms 12. navicular 13. trapezium 14. talus

3. calcaneus 8. hamate 4. pisiform 11. cuneiforms 9. lunate 13. trapezium 5. capitate 6. phalanges 10. scaphoid 14. talus 2. triquetrium 1. cuboid 7. trapezoid 12. navicular

- lines most of the internal surface of the sclera; provides nutrients to the posterior surface of the retina - colored portion of the eyeball; regulates the amount of light entering the posterior part of the eyeball - innermost layer of the eyeball; beginning of the visual pathway; contains rods and cones - biconvex transparent structure that !ne tunes focusing of light rays for clear vision - transparent part of the eyeball that covers the iris; helps focus light - circular band of smooth muscle that alters the shape of the lens for near or far vision - site where the optic nerve exits the eyeball; the blind spot - watery fluid in the anterior cavity that helps nourish the lens and cornea; helps maintain shape of the eyeball - the hole in the center of the iris - jellylike substance in the vitreous chamber that helps prevent the eyeball from collapsing and holds the retina flush against the internal portions of the eyeball - white of the eye; gives shape to the eyeball, makes it more rigid, protects its inner parts - avascular superficial layer of the eyeball; includes cornea and sclera - small depression in the center of the macula lutea that contains only cone photoreceptors and is the area of highest visual acuity - contain blood capillaries that secrete aqueous humor; attach to suspensory ligaments of lens - middle, vascularized layer of the eyeball; includes choroid, ciliary body, and iris 1. cornea 2. sclera 3. choroid 4. ciliary processes 5. ciliary muscle 6. iris 7. pupil 8. uvea 9. retina 10. optic disc 11. fibrous tunic 12. central fovea 13. aqueous humor 14. lens 15. vitreous body

3. choroid 6. iris 9. retina 14. lens 1. cornea 5. ciliary muscle 10. optic disc 13. aqueous humor 7. pupil 15. vitreous body 2. sclera 11. fibrous tunic 12. central fovea 4. ciliary processes 8. uvea

- a broken bone in which one end of the fractured bone is driven into the other end - a condition of porous bones characterized by decreased bone mass and increased susceptibility to fractures - splintered bone, with smaller fragments lying between main fragments - a broken bone that does not break through the skin - a partial break in a bone in which one side of the bone is broken and the other side bends - a broken bone that protrudes through the skin - microscopic bone breaks resulting from inability to withstand repeated stressful impact - a degeneration of articular cartilage allowing the bony ends to touch; worsens due to friction between the bones - condition characterized by failure of new bone formed by remodeling to calcify in adults - an infection of bone 1. closed (simple) fracture 2. open (compound) fracture 3. impacted fracture 4. greenstick fracture 5. stress fracture 6. comminuted fracture 7. osteoporosis 8. osteomalacia 9. osteoarthritis 10. osteomyelitis

3. impacted fracture 7. osteoporosis 6. comminuted fracture 1. closed (simple) fracture 4. greenstick fracture 2. open (compound) fracture 5. stress fracture 9. osteoarthritis osteoarthritis 8. osteomalacia 10. osteomyelitis

- receptors located in muscles, tendons, joints, and the inner ear - receptors located in blood vessels, visceral organs, muscles, and the nervous system - receptors that detect temperature changes - receptors that detect light that strikes the retina of the eye - receptors located at or near the external surface of the body - bare dendrites associated with pain, thermal, tickle, itch, and some touch sensations - receptors that provide information about body position, muscle tension, and position and activity of joints - receptors that sense osmotic pressures of body "uids - receptors that detect chemicals in the mouth, nose, and body "uids - receptors that detect mechanical pressure or stretching - receptors that respond to stimuli resulting from physical or chemical damage to tissues - dendrites enclosed in a connective tissue capsule 1. exteroceptors 2. interoceptors 3. proprioceptors 4. mechanoreceptors 5. thermoreceptors 6. nociceptors 7. photoreceptors 8. chemoreceptors 9. free nerve endings 10. encapsulated nerve endings 11. osmoreceptors

3. proprioceptors 2. interoceptors 5. thermoreceptors 7. photoreceptors 1. exteroceptors 6. nociceptors 3. proprioceptors 11. osmoreceptors 8. chemoreceptors 4. mechanoreceptors 6. nociceptors 10. encapsulated nerve endings

Chewing your food involves (1) flexion, (2) extension, (3) hyperextension, (4) elevation, (5) depression. 1 and 2 1 and 3 4 and 5 3 and 5 1 and 4

4 and 5

Which of the following joints could be classi!ed functionally as synarthroses? (1) syndesmosis, (2) symphysis, (3) synovial, (4) gomphosis, (5) suture. 1 and 2 3 and 5 1, 2, and 3 4 and 5 5 only

4 and 5

- axillary - inguinal - cervical - cranial - oral - brachial - orbital - gluteal - buccal - coxal 1. skull 2. eye 3. cheek 4. armpit 5. arm 6. groin 7. buttock 8. neck 9. mouth 10. hip

4. armpit 6. groin 8. neck 1. skull 9. mouth 5. arm 2. eye 7. buttock 3. cheek 10. hip

- the part of the neuron that contains the nucleus and organelles - rough endoplasmic reticulum in neurons; site of protein synthesis - store neurotransmitter - the process that propagates nerve impulses toward another neuron, muscle fiber, or gland cell - the highly branched receiving or input portions of a neuron - a multilayered lipid and protein covering for axons produced by neuroglia - the outer nucleated cytoplasmic layer of the Schwann cell - first portion of the axon, closest to the axon hillock - site of communication between two neurons or between a neuron and an effector cell - form the cytoskeleton of a neuron - gaps in the myelin sheath of an axon - general term for any neuronal process - area where the axon joins the cell body - area where nerve impulses arise - the numerous fine processes at the ends of an axon and its collaterals - interstitial fluid-filled space separating two neurons 1. myelin sheath 2. neurolemma 3. nodes of Ranvier 4. cell body 5. Nissl body 6. neurofibrils 7. dendrites 8. axon 9. axon hillock 10. initial segment 11. trigger zone 12. synaptic cleft 13. nerve fiber 14. axon terminal 15. synapse 16. synaptic vesicles

4. cell body 5. Nissl body 16. synaptic vesicles 8. axon 7. dendrites 1. myelin sheath 2. neurolemma 10. initial segment 15. synapse 6. neurofibrils 3. nodes of Ranvier 13. nerve fiber 9. axon hillock 11. trigger zone 14. axon terminal 12. synaptic cleft

- a fluid-filled space that surrounds the heart - the cavity which contains the brain - a cavity formed by the ribs, muscles of the chest, sternum and part of the vertebral column - a cavity that contains the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, small intesting and most of the large intestine. - fluid-filled space that surrounds a lung - the cavity which contains the urinary bladder, part of the large intestine and the organs of the reproductive system - the cavity that contains the spinal cord 1. cranial cavity 2. vertebral cavity 3. thoracic cavity 4. pericardial cavity 5. pleural cavity 6. abdominal cavity 7. pelvic cavity

4. pericardial cavity 1. cranial cavity 3. thoracic cavity 6. abdominal cavity 5. pleural cavity 7. pelvic cavity 2. vertebral cavity

- contains a single layer of fat cells; found int he body where filtration (kidney) or diffusion (lungs) are priority processes. - found in the superficial part of skin; provides protection from heat, microbes, and chemicals - contains cube-shaped cells functioning in secretion and absorption - lines the upper respiratory tract and uterine tubes; wavelike motion of cilia propels materials through the lumen. - contains cells with microvilli and goblet cells; found in linings of the digestive, reproductive, and urinary tracts. - found int he urinary bladder; contains cells that can change shape (stretch or relax) - contains cells that are all attached to the basement membrane, although some do not reach the surface; those cells that do extend to the surface secrete mucus or contain cilia - a fairly rare type of epithelium that has a mainly protective function. 1. pseudostrati!ed ciliated columnar epithelium 2. cililated simple columnar epithelium 3. transitional epithelium 4. simple squamous epithelium 5. simple cuboidal epithelium 6. nonciliated simple columnar epithelium 7. stratified cuboidal epithelium 8. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium

4. simple squamous epithelium 8. keratinized stratified squamous epithelium 5. simple cuboidal epithelium 2. cililated simple columnar epithelium 6. nonciliated simple columnar epithelium 3. transitional epithelium 1. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium 7. stratified cuboidal epithelium

While identifying and labeling cadaver muscles, your lab partner accidentally pokes your !nger with a pin. Place the following steps in the correct order from beginning to end of your body's response. (1) Impulses travel through anterior (ventral) root of spinal nerve(s). (2) Sensory neuron relays impulse to spinal cord. (3) Motor impulses reach muscles, causing withdrawal of the a"ected limb. (4) Integrating centers interpret sensory impulses, and then generate motor impulses. (5) Sensory receptor activated by stimulus. (6) Impulse travels through posterior (dorsal) root of spinal nerve. 5, 3, 6, 4, 1, 2 5, 2, 1, 4, 6, 3 5, 2, 6, 4, 1, 3 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6 2, 1, 5, 4, 6, 3

5, 2, 6, 4, 1, 3

- nervous system - endocrine system - urinary system - cardiovascular system - muscular system - respiratory system - digestive system - skeletal system - integumentary system - lymphatic system and immunity - reproductive system 1. regulates body activities through hormones (chemicals) transported in the blood to various target organs of the body. 2. produces gametes; releases hormones from gonads 3. protects against disease; returns "uids to blood 4. protects body by forming a barrier to the outside environment; helps regulate body temperature 5. transport oxygen and nutrients to cells; protects against disease; carries wastes away from cells 6. regulates body activities through action potentials (nerve impulses); receives sensory information; interprets and respond to the information. 7. carries out the physical and chemical breakdown of food and absorption of nutrients 8. transfers oxygen and carbon dioxide between air and blood 9. supports and protects the body; provides internal framework; provides a place for muscle attachment 10. powers movement of the body and stabilizes body position 11. eliminates wastes; regulates the volume and chemical composition of blood.

6 1 11 5 10 8 7 9 4 3 2

- neurons with just one process extending from the cell body; are always sensory neurons - small phagocytic neuroglia - help maintain an appropriate chemical environment for generation of action potentials by neurons; part of the blood- brain barrier - provide myelin sheath for CNS axons - contains neuronal cell bodies, dendrites, axon terminals, unmyelinated axons and neuroglia - a cluster of cell bodies within the CNS - form CSF and assist in its circulation; form blood-c erebrospinal barrier - neurons having several dendrites and one axon; most common neuronal type - neurons with one main dendrite and one axon; found in the retina of the eye - provide myelin sheath for PNS axons - support neurons in PNS ganglia - a cluster of neuronal cell bodies located outside the brain and spinal cord - aggregation of myelinated processes from many neurons - bundles of axons and associated connective tissue and blood vessels lying outside of the CNS - extensive neuronal networks that help regulate the digestive system 1. astrocytes 2. oligodendrocytes 3. ganglia 4. ependymal cells 5. satellite cells 6. unipolar neurons 7. bipolar neurons 8. multipolar neurons 9. gray matter 10. white matter 11. enteric plexus 12. microglia 13. schwann cells 14. nucleus 15. nerve

6. unipolar neurons 12. microglia 1. astrocytes 2. oligodendrocytes 9. gray matter 14. nucleus 4. ependymal cells 8. multipolar neurons 7. bipolar neurons 13. schwann cells 5. satellite cells 3. ganglia 10. white matter 15. nerve 11. enteric plexus

An atom with a mass number of 18 that contains 10 neutrons would have an atomic number of [a].

8

- upward movement of a body part - downward movement of a body part - movement of bone toward midline - movement in which relatively flat bone surfaces move back-and-forth and side-to-side with respect to one another - movement of a body part anteriorly in the transverse plane - decrease in angle between bones - movement of an anteriorly projected body part back to the anatomical position - movement of the soles medially - movement of the soles laterally - movement of bone away from midline - action that occurs when you stand on your heels - action that occurs when you stand on your toes - movement of the forearm to turn the palm anteriorly - movement of the forearm to turn the palm posteriorly - movement of the thumb across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers of the same hand - increase in angle between bones - movement of distal end of a part of the body in a circle - bone revolves around its own longitudinal axis 1. pronation 2. plantar flexion 3. eversion 4. abduction 5. rotation 6. retraction 7. opposition 8. elevation 9. flexion 10. adduction 11. depression 12. inversion 13. gliding 14. extension 15. protraction 16. dorsiflexion 17. circumduction 18. supination

8. elevation 11. depression 10. adduction 13. gliding 15. protraction 9. flexion 6. retraction 12. inversion 3. eversion 4. abduction 16. dorsiflexion 2. plantar flexion 18. supination 1. pronation 7. opposition 14. extension 17. circumduction 5. rotation

- located in the precentral gyrus, this is the major control region of the cerebral cortex for initiation of voluntary movements - direct pathways conveying impulses from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord that result in precise, voluntary movements - contain motor neurons that control skilled movements of the hands and feet - tracts include rubrospinal, tectospinal, vestibulospinal, lateral reticulospinal, and medial reticulospinal - contain neurons that help initiate and terminate movements; can suppress unwanted movements; influence muscle tone - carry impulses for pain, temperature, tickle, itch, crude touch, and pressure - the major routes relaying proprioceptive input to the cerebellum; critical for posture, balance, and coordination of skilled movements - composed of axons of first-order neurons; include the gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus - contain motor neurons that coordinate movements of the axial skeleton - contain axons that convey impulses for precise, voluntary movements of the eyes, tongue, and neck, plus chewing, facial expression, and speech - convey sensations of fine touch, stereognosis, proprioception, weight discrimination, and vibration to the cerebral cortex. 1. posterior column 2. anterolateral (spinothalamic) pathways 3. spinocerebellar tracts 4. lateral corticospinal tracts 5. anterior corticospinal tracts 6. corticobulbar tracts 7. extrapyramidal pathways 8. pyramidal pathways 9. primary motor area 10. basal ganglia 11. posterior column-medial lemniscus pathways

9. primary motor area 8. pyramidal pathways 4. lateral corticospinal tracts 7. extrapyramidal pathways 10. basal ganglia 2. anterolateral (spinothalamic) pathways 3. spinocerebellar tracts 1. posterior column 5. anterior corticospinal tracts 6. corticobulbar tracts 11. posterior column-medial lemniscus pathways

Which of the following statements is incorrect? - The graded potentials produced by receptors that serve the senses of touch, pressure, stretching, vibration, pain, proprioception, and smell are generator potentials. - The graded potentials produced by receptors that serve the special senses of vision, hearing, equilibrium, and taste are receptor potentials. - When a generator potential is large enough to reach threshold, it generates one or more nerve impulses in its first-order sensory neuron. - A receptor potential generates nerve impulses in a second-order neuron. - The amplitude of both generator and receptor potentials varies with the intensity of the stimulus.

A receptor potential generates nerve impulses in a second-order neuron.

- column-like layer of maturing chondrocytes - layer of small, scattered chondrocytes anchoring the epiphyseal (growth) plate to the bone - layer of actively dividing chondrocytes - region of dead chondrocytes A. zone of lypertrophic cartilage B. zone of calci!ed cartilage C. zone of proliferating cartilage D. zone of resting cartilage

A. zone of lypertrophic cartilage D. zone of resting cartilage C. zone of proliferating cartilage B. zone of calcified cartilage

The synaptic end bulbs of somatic motor neurons contain synaptic vesicles filled with the neurotransmitter _________ .

Acetylcholine

Which of the following statements is false? - The blood supply to the brain is provided mainly by the internal carotid and vertebral arteries. - Neurons in the brain rely almost exclusively on aerobic respiration to produce ATP. - An interruption of blood flow to the brain for even 20 seconds may impair brain function. - Glucose supply to the brain must be continuous - Low levels of glucose in the blood to the brain may result in unconsciousness

An interruption of blood !ow to the brain for even 20 seconds may impair brain function.

- stimulates urination and defecation - prepares the body for emergency situations - fight-or-flight response - promotes digestion and absorption of food - concerned primarily with processes involving the expenditure of energy - controlled by the posterior and lateral portions of the hypothalamus - controlled by the anterior and medial portions of the hypothalamus - causes a decrease in heart rate A. increased activity of the sympathetic division of the ANS B. increased activity of the parasympathetic division of the ANS

B A A B A A B B

- decreases blood calcium levels by accelerating calcium deposition in bones and inhibiting osteoclasts - requried for collagen synthesis - during childhood, it promotes growth at epiphyseal plate; production stimulated by human growth hormone - involved in bone growth by increasing osteoblast activity; causes long bones to stop growing in length - required for protein synthesis - active form of vitamin D; raises blood calcium levels by increasing absorption of calcium from digestive tract. - raises blood calcium levels by increasing bone resorption. A. PTH (parathyroid hormone) B. CT C. calcitriol D. insulinlike growth factors (IGFs) E. sex hormones F. vitamin C G. vitamin K

B. CT F. vitamin C D. insulin like growth factors (IGFs) E. sex hormones G. vitamin K C. calcitriol A. PTH (parathyroid hormone)

- binds, supports - contains elongated cells that generate force - neuroglia - avascular - may contain fibroblasts - tightly packed cells - intercalated discs - goblet cells - contains extracellular matrix - striated - generate action potentials - cilia - ground substance - apical surface - excitable A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Muscle D. Nervous E. muscle and nervous

B. Connective C. Muscle D. Nervous A. Epithelial B. Connective A. Epithelial C. Muscle A. Epithelial B. Connective C. Muscle D. Nervous A. Epithelial B. Connective A. Epithelial E. muscle and nervous

- provides the entire nerve supply of the shoulders and upper limbs - provides the nerve supply of the skin and muscles of the head, neck, and superior part of the shoulders and chest - provides the nerve supply of the anterolateral abdominal wall, external genitals, and part of the lower limbs - supplies the buttocks, perineum, and lower limbs - formed by the anterior rami of C1-C4 with some contribution by C5 - formed by anterior rami of S4-S5 and coccygeal nerves - formed by the anterior rami of L1-L4 - formed by the anterior rami of C5-C8 and T1 - formed by the anterior rami of L4-L5 and S1-S4 - phrenic nerve arises from this plexus - median nerve arises from this plexus - sciatic nerve arises from this plexus - femoral nerve arises from this plexus - supplies a small area of skin in coccygeal region - injury to this plexus can affect breathing A. cervical plexus B. brachial plexus C. lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus E. coccygeal plexus

B. brachial plexus A. cervical plexus C. lumbar plexus D. sacral plexus A. cervical plexus E. coccygeal plexus C. lumbar plexus B. brachial plexus D. sacral plexus A. cervical plexus B. brachial plexus D. sacral plexus C. lumbar plexus E. coccygeal plexus A. cervical plexus

- has fibers joined by intercalated discs - thick and thin filaments are not arranged as orderly sarcomeres - uses satellite cells to repair damaged muscle fibers - striated - contraction begins slowly but lasts for long periods - has an extended contraction due to prolonged calcium delivery from both the sarcoplasmic reticulum and the interstitial fluid - does not exhibit autorhythmicity - uses pericytes to repair damaged muscle fibers - uses troponin as a regulatory protein - can be classified as single-unit or multiunit - can be autorhythmic - uses calmodulin as a regulatory protein A. Skeletal B. cardiac C. smooth D. skeletal and cardiac E. cardiac and smooth

B. cardiac C. smooth A. Skeletal D. skeletal and cardiac C. smooth B. cardiac A. Skeletal C. smooth D. skeletal and cardiac C. smooth E. cardiac and smooth C. smooth

- bones that have greater length than width and consist of a shaft and a variable number of extremities. - cube-shaped bones that are nearly equal in length and width - bones that develop in certain tendons where there is considerable friction, tension, and physical stress - small bones located within joints between certain cranial bones - thin bones composed of two nearly parallel plates of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone - bones with complex shapes, including the vertebrae and some facial bones - patella is an example - bones that provide considerable protection and extensive areas for muscle attachment - include femur, tibia, fibula, humerus, ulna and radius - include cranial bones, sternum, and ribs - include almost all of the carpal (wrist) and tarsal (ankle) bones A. irregular bones B. long bones C. short bones D. flat bones E. sesamoid bones F. sutural bones

B. long bones C. short bones E. sesamoid bones F. sutural bones D. flat bones A. irregular bones E. sesamoid bones D. flat bones B. long bones D. flat bones C. short bones

- also known as intramural ganglia - includes the celiac, superior mesenteric, and inferior mesenteric ganglia - also called vertebral chain or paravertebral ganglia - lie in a vertical row on either side of the vertebral column - postganglionic #bers, in general, innervate organs below the diaphragm - ganglia located at the end of an autonomic motor pathway close to or actually within the - wall of a visceral organ includes ciliary, pterygopalatine, submandibular, and otic ganglia - extend from base of the skull to the coccyx - myelinated preganglionic fibers that connect the anterior rami of spinal nerves with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk - also known as collateral ganglia - unmyelinated postganglionic axons that connect the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk to spinal nerves A. sympathetic trunk ganglia B. prevertebral ganglia C. terminal ganglia D. white rami communicantes E. gray rami communicantes

C B A A B C C A D B E

- oculomotor - trigeminal - abducens - vestibulocochlear - accessory - vagus - facial - glossopharyngeal - olfactory - trochlear - optic - hypoglossal -functions in sense of smell - functions in hearing and equilibrium - functions in chewing - function in facial expression and secretion of saliva and tears - functions in movement of tongue during speech and swallowing - functions in secretion of digestive fluids - functions in secretion of saliva, taste, regulation of blood pressure, and muscle sense - functions in swallowing and head movements A. Cranial Nerve I B. Cranial Nerve II C. Cranial Nerve III D. Cranial Nerve IV E. Cranial Nerve V F. Cranial Nerve VI G. Cranial Nerve VII H. Cranial Nerve VIII I. Cranial Nerve IX J. Cranial Nerve X K. Cranial Nerve XI L. Cranial Nerve XII

C. Cranial Nerve III E. Cranial Nerve V F. Cranial Nerve VI H. Cranial Nerve VIII K. Cranial Nerve XI J. Cranial Nerve X G. Cranial Nerve VII I. Cranial Nerve IX A. Cranial Nerve I D. Cranial Nerve IV B. Cranial Nerve II L. Cranial Nerve XII A. Cranial Nerve I H. Cranial Nerve VIII E. Cranial Nerve V G. Cranial Nerve VII L. Cranial Nerve XII J. Cranial Nerve X I. Cranial Nerve IX K. Cranial Nerve XI

- forms the forehead - form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor; contains zygomatic process and mastoid process - forms part of the anterior portion of the cranial floor, medial wall of the orbits, superior portions of nasal septum, most of the side walls of the nasal cavity; is a major supporting structure of the nasal cavity. - form the prominence of the cheek and part of the lateral wall and floor of each orbit. - the largest, strongest facial bone; is the only movable skull bone - a roughly triangular bone on the floor of the nasal cavity; one of the components of the nasal septum. - form greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity - form the posterior part and most of the base of the cranium; contains the foramen magnum - called the keystone of the cranial !oor; contains the sella turcica, optic foramen, and pterygoid processes - form the bridge of the nose - the smallest bones of the face; contain a vertical groove that houses a structure that gathers tears and passes them into the nasal cavity. - does not articulate with any other bone - unite to form the upper jawbone and articulate with every bone of the face except the lower jawbone - form the posterior part of the hard palate, part of the floor and lateral wall of the nasal cavity, and a small portion of the floors of the orbits - scroll-like bones that form a part of the lateral walls of the nasal cavity; functions int he turbulent circulation and filtration of air. A. temporal bones B. parietal bones C. frontal bones D. occipital bone E. sphenoid bone F. ethmoid bone G. nasal bones H. maxillae I. zygomatic bones J. lacrimal bones K. palatine bones L. vomer M. mandible N. inferior nasal conchae O. hyoid bone

C. frontal bones A. temporal bones F. ethmoid bone I. zygomatic bones M. mandible L. vomer B. parietal bones D. occipital bone E. sphenoid bone G. nasal bones J. lacrimal bones O. hyoid bone H. maxillae K. palatine bones N. inferior nasal conchae

- Space within the shaft of the bone that contains yellow bone marrow - triglyceride storage tissue - hemopoietic tissue - thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering the ends of bones where they form a joint - distal and proximal ends of bones - the long, cylindrical main portion of the bone; the shaft - In a growing bone, the region that contains the epiphyseal plate - the tough membrane that surround the bone surface wherever cartilage is not present - a layer of hyaline cartilage in the area between the shaft and end of a growing bone - a remnant of the active epiphyseal plate; a sign that the bone has stopped growing in length - membrane lining the medullary cavity - bundles of collagen !bers that attach periosteum to bone A. articular cartilage B. Endosteum C. medullary cavity D. diaphysis E. epiphyses F. metaphysis G. periosteum H. red bone marrow I. yellow bone marrow J. perforating (Sharpey's) fibers K. epiphyseal line L. epiphyseal (growth) plate

C. medullary cavity I. yellow bone marrow H. red bone marrow A. articular cartilage E. epiphyses D. diaphysis F. metaphysis G. periosteum L. epiphyseal (growth) plate K. epiphyseal line B. Endosteum J. perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

- the tissue from which all other connective tissues eventually arise - connective tissue with a clear, liquid matrix that flows in lymphatic vessels - connective tissue consisting of several kinds of cells, containing all three fiber types randomly arranged, and found in the subcutaneous layer of skin. - a loose connective tissue specialized for triglyceride storage. - tissue that contains reticular fibers and reticular cells and forms the stroma of certain organs such as the spleen. - tissue with irregularly arranged collagen fibers found in the dermis of the skin - tissue found int he lungs that is strong and can recoil back to its original shape after being stretched. - tissue that affords "exibility at joints and reduces joint friction. - tissue that provides strength and rigidity and is the strongest of the three types of cartilage - bundles of collagen arranged in parallel patterns; compose tendons and ligaments. - tissue that forms the internal framework of the body and works with skeletal muscle to generate movement - tissue that contains a network of elastic !bers, providing strength, elasticity, and maintenance of shape; located in the external ear. - connective tissue with formed elements suspended in a liquid matrix called plasma A. blood B. fibrocartilage C. mesenchyme D. dense regular connective tissue E. lymph F. hyaline cartilage G. dense irregular connective tissue H. areolar connective tissue I. reticular connective tissue J. bone (osseous tissue) K. elastic connective tissue L. elastic cartilage M. adipose tissue

C. mesenchyme E. lymph H. areolar connective tissue M. adipose tissue I. reticular connective tissue G. dense irregular connective tissue K. elastic connective tissue F. hyaline cartilage B. fibrocartilage D. dense regular connective tissue J. bone (osseous tissue) L. elastic cartilage A. blood

- deep region of the dermis composed primarily of dense irregular connective tissue. - superficial layer of the skin; composed of keratinized strati!ed squamous epithelium - not considered part of the skin, it contains areolar and adipose tissues and blood vessels; attaches skin to underlying tissues and organs. - superficial region of the dermis; composed of areolar connective tissue. A. subcutaneous layer (hypodermis) B. papillary region C. reticular region D. epidermis

C. reticular region D. epidermis A. subcutaneous layer (hypodermis) B. papillary region

Why does damaged cartilage heal slowly? - Damaged cartilage undergoes fibrosis, which interferes with the movement of materials needed for repair. - Cartilage does not contain fibroblasts, which are needed to produce the fibers in cartilage tissue. - Cartilage is avascular, so materials needed for repair must diffuse from surrounding tissue. - Chondrocytes cannot be replaced once they are damaged. - Chondrocytes undergo mitosis slowly, which delays healing.

Cartilage is avascular, so materials needed for repair must diffuse from surrounding tissue.

- Prominent ridge or elongated projection - tubelike opening - large round protuberance at the end of a bone - Smooth, flat articular surface - sharp, slender projection - opening for passage of blood vessels, nerves or ligaments - large, rounded, rough projection - shallow depression - narrow slit between adjacent parts of bones for passage of blood vessels or nerves A. foramen B. tuberosity C. spinous process D. crest E. facet F. fissure G. fossa H. condyle I. meatus

D. crest I. meatus H. condyle E. facet C. spinous process A. foramen B. tuberosity G. fossa F. fissure

- Located in the dermis, they function in the sensations of warmth, coolness, pain, itching and tickling. - an abnormal thickening of the epidermis - pressure-sensitive cells found mostly in the subcutaneous layer. - associated with hair follicles, these secrete an oily substance that helps prevent hair from becoming brittle, prevents evapoartion of water fromt he skin's surface, and inhibits the growth of certain bacteria. - a fatty substance that covers and protects the skin of the fetus from the constant exposure to amniotic fluid. - release a lipd-rich secretion that functions as a water- repellent sealant in the stratum granulosum. - smooth muscle associated with the hair follicles; when contracted, they pull the hair shafts perpendicular to the skin's surface. - cells thought to function int he sensation of touch. - produce a pigment that contributes to skin color and absorbs ultraviolet light. - cells that arise from red bone marrow, migrate to the epidermis and participate in immune responses. - produce the protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from light, heat, microbes, and many chemicals. (answer should be keratinocytes) - cells that compose the epidermis. A. Stratified squamous epithelium. B. arrector pili C. callus D. free nerve endings E. lamellar granules F. Langerhans cells G. keratinocytes H. Merkel cells I. melanocytes J. sebaceous glands K. pacinian (lamellated) corpuscles L. vernix caseosa

D. free nerve endings C. callus K. pacinian (lamellated) corpuscles J. sebaceous glands L. vernix caseosa E. lamellar granules B. arrector pili H. Merkel cells I. melanocytes F. Langerhans cells G. keratinocytes A. Stratified squamous epithelium.

olecranon olecranon fossa trochlea greater trochanter medial malleolus acromial end capitulum acromion radial tuberosity acetabulum lateral malleolus glenoid cavity coronoid process linea aspera anterior border anterior superior iliac spine fovea capitis greater tubercle trochlear notch obturator foramen A. clavicle B. scapula C. humerus D. ulna E. radius F. femur G. tibia H. fibula I. Hip bone (coxal bone)

D. ulna C. humerus C. humerus F. femur G. tibia A. clavicle C. humerus B. scapula E. radius I. Hip bone (coxal bone) H. fibula B. scapula D. ulna F. femur B. scapula I. Hip bone (coxal bone) F. femur G. tibia D. ulna I. Hip bone (coxal bone)

- sheath of areolar connective tissue that wraps around individual skeletal muscle fibers - dense irregular connective tissue that separates a muscle into groups of individual muscle fibers - bundles of muscle fibers - the outermost connective tissue layer that encircles an entire skeletal muscle - dense irregular connective tissue that lines the body wall and limbs and holds functional muscle units together - a cord of dense regular connective tissue that attaches muscle to the periosteum of bone - elongated muscle cell - areolar and adipose connective tissue that separates muscle from skin - connective tissue elements extended as a broad, flat layer - a two-layer tube of fibrous connective tissue enclosing certain tendons (the correct answer is tendon sheath) A. aponeurosis B. deep fascia C. subcutaneous layer D. tendon E. endomysium F. perimysium G. Tendon sheath H. epimysium I. fasicles J. muscle fiber

E. endomysium F. perimysium I. fasicles H. epimysium B. deep fascia D. tendon J. muscle fiber C. subcutaneous layer A. aponeurosis G. Tendon sheath

- protrusions in the medulla formed by the large corticospinal tracts - dura mater extension that separates the two cerebral hemispheres - fingerlike extensions of arachnoid mater where CSF is reabsorbed - dura mater extension that separates the two cerebellar hemispheres - located in the hypothalamus; relay stations for re!exes related to smell - folds in the cerebral cortex - shallow grooves in the cerebral cortex - bundles of white matter that relay information between the cerebellum and other parts of the brain - a thick band of sensory and motor tracts that connect the cerebral cortex with the brain stem and spinal cord - dura mater extension that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum - thin membranous partition between the lateral ventricles A. gyri B. internal capsule C. mammillary bodies D. tentorium cerebelli E. pyramids F. falx cerebelli G. septum pellucidum H. cerebellar peduncles I. falx cerebri J. sulci K. arachnoid villi

E. pyramids I. falx cerebri K. arachnoid villi F. falx cerebelli C. mammillary bodies A. gyri J. sulci H. cerebellar peduncles B. internal capsule D. tentorium cerebelli G. septum pellucidum

- a fibrous joint that unites the bones of the skull; a synarthrosis - a fibrous joint between the tibia and fibula; an amphiarthrosis - the articulation between bone and teeth - the epiphyseal plate - joint between the two pubic bones - joint with a cavity between the bones; diarthrosis a bony joint A. synostosis B. synchondrosis C. syndesmosis D. synovial E. suture F. symphysis G. gomphosis

E. suture C. syndesmosis G. gomphosis B. synchondrosis F. symphysis D. synovial A. synostosis

- rounded or pointed surface of one bone articulates with a ring formed by another bone and a ligament; allows rotation around its own axis - articulating bone surfaces are "at or slightly curved; permit gliding movement - convex, oval projection of one bone fits into oval depression of another bone; permits movement in two axes - convex surface of one bone articulates with concave surface of another bone; permits flexion and extension - ball-shaped surface of one bone articulates with cuplike depression of another bone; permits largest degree of movement in three axes - modified condyloid joint where articulating bones resemble a rider sitting in a saddle A. hinge joint B. saddle joint C. ball-and-socket joint D. planar joint E. condyloid joint F. pivot joint

F. pivot joint D. planar joint E. condyloid joint A. hinge joint C. ball-and-socket joint B. saddle joint

A person lying face down would be in the supine position. T/F

False

A small membrane surface area will increase the rate of diffusion across the cell membrane. T/F

False

An important and abundant active mechanism that helps maintain cellular tonicity is the sodium/potassium ATPase pump. T/F

False

An individual with a dark skin color has more melanocytes than a fair-skinned person. T/F

False

At a chemical synapse between two neurons, the neuron receiving the signal is called the presynaptic neuron, and the neuron sending the signal is called the postsynaptic neuron. T/F

False

Ionic bonds are created when atoms lose, gain or share electrons in the valence shell. T/F

False

Menisci are fluid-filled sacs located outside of the joint cavity to ease friction between bones and softer tissue. T/F

False

Neurons in the PNS are always capable of repair while those in the CNS are not. T/F

False

Ribs that are not attached to the sternum are known as the true ribs. T/F

False

Shrugging your shoulders involves flexion and extension. T/F

False

Synovial fluid becomes more viscous (thicker) as movement at the joint increases T/F

False

The ability to change the curvature of the lens for near vision is convergence. T/F

False

The atlanto-occipital joints allow you to rotate the head, as in signifying "no". T/F

False

The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons, and diencephalon T/F

False

The epidural space is located between the wall of the vertebral canal and the pia mater. T/F

False

The highest level of structural organization is the system level T/F

False

The largest carpal bone is the lunate T/F?

False

Touch, pressure, and pain are all classi!ed as tactile sensations T/F

False

- supraorbital foramen - temporomandibular joint - external auditory meatus - foramen magnum - optic foramen - cribriform plate - palatine process - ramus, body and condylar process - transverse foramen, bifid spinous processes - dens - promontory - costal cartilages - xiphoid process A. temporal bone B. sphenoid bone C. cervical vertebrae D. ethmoid bone E. articulation of mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone to the mandible F. occipital bone G. frontal bone H. maxillae I. mandible J. axis K. sacrum L. sternum M. ribs

G. frontal bone E. articulation of mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of the temporal bone to the mandible A. temporal bone F. occipital bone B. sphenoid bone D. ethmoid bone H. maxillae I. mandible C. cervical vertebrae J. axis K. sacrum M. ribs L. sternum

- synapse between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber - invaginations of the sarcolemma from the surface toward the center of the muscle fiber - myoblasts that persist in mature skeletal muscle - plasma membrane of a muscle fiber - oxygen-binding protein found only in muscle fibers - Ca 2+-storing tubular system similar to smooth endoplasmic reticulum - the contracting unit of a skeletal muscle fiber - middle area in the sarcomere where thick and thin !laments are found - area in the sarcomere where only thin !laments are present but thick filaments are not - separates the sarcomeres from each other - area of only thick filaments - cytoplasm of a muscle fiber - composed of supporting proteins holding thick !laments together at the H zone A. A band B. I band C. Z disc D. H zone E. M line F. sarcomere G. neuromuscular junction H. myoglobin I. satellite cells J. transverse (T) tubules K. sarcoplasmic reticulum L. sarcolemma M. sarcoplasm

G. neuromuscular junction J. transverse (T) tubules I. satellite cells L. sarcolemma H. myoglobin K. sarcoplasmic reticulum F. sarcomere A. A band B. I band C. Z disc D. H zone M. sarcoplasm E. M line

- increases blood Ca2+ level - increases blood glucose level - decreases blood Ca2+ level - decreases blood glucose level - initiates and maintains milk secretion by the mammary glands - regulates the body's biological clock - stimulates sex hormone production; triggers ovulation - regulates metabolism and resistance to stress - helps control water and electrolyte homeostasis - suppresses release of FSH - stimulates growth of axillary and pubic hair - promotes T cell maturation - regulates oxygen use, basal metabolic rate, cellular metabolism and growth and development - stimulates protein synthesis, inhibits protein breakdown, stimulates lipolysis, and retards use of glucose for ATP production - inhibits water loss through the kidneys - stimulates egg and sperm formation - enhances uterine contractions during labor; stimulates milk ejection - increases skin pigmentation when present in excess - stimulates synthesis and release of T3 and T4 - stimulates and inhibits secretion of anterior pituitary hormones. A. insulin B. glucagon C. inhibin D. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) E. luteinizing hormone (LH) F. triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) G. calcitonin H. parathyroid hormone (PTH) I. melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) J. oxytocin K. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) L. prolactin M. human growth hormone (hgh) N. hypothalamic regulating hormones O. aldosterone P. thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) Q. androgens R. melatonin S. thymosin T. cortisol

H. parathyroid hormone (PTH) B. glucagon G. calcitonin A. insulin L. prolactin R. melatonin E. luteinizing hormone (LH) T. cortisol O. aldosterone C. inhibin Q. androgens S. thymosin F. triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4) M. human growth hormone (hgh) K. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D. follicle- stimulating hormone (FSH) J. oxytocin I. MSH P. thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) N. hypothalamic regulating hormones

Which of the following statements is true? - The right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum are completely symmetrical. - The left hemisphere controls the left side of the body. - The right hemisphere is more important for spoken and written language. - The left hemisphere is more important for musical and artistic awareness. - Hemispheric lateralization is more pronounced in males than in females.

Hemispheric lateralization is more pronounced in males than in females.

- emotional brain; involved in olfaction and memory - bridge connecting parts of the brain with each other - sensory relay area - alerts the cerebral cortex to incoming sensory signals and helps regulate muscle tone - the motor command center; regulates posture and balance - lacks a blood-brain barrier; can monitor chemical changes in the blood - site of pneumotaxic and apneustic areas - secretes melatonin - contains sensory, motor, and association areas - responsible for maintaining consciousness and awakening from sleep - controls ANS - contains reflex centers for movements of the eyes, head, and neck in response to visual and other stimuli, and reflex center for movements of the head and trunk in response to auditory stimuli - several groups of nuclei that control large autonomic movements of skeletal muscles and help regulate muscle tone required for specific body movements - produces hormones that regulate endocrine gland function - contains the vital cardiovascular center and medullary rhythmicity center A. Medulla Oblongata B. pons C. midbrain D. cerebellum E. pineal gland F. thalamus G. hypothalamus H. cerebrum I. limbic system J. reticular formation K. circumventricular organs L. reticular activating system M. basal ganglia

I. limbic system B. pons F. thalamus J. reticular formation D. cerebellum K. circumventricular organs A. Medulla Oblongata B. pons E. pineal gland H. cerebrum L. reticular activating system G. hypothalamus C. midbrain M. basal ganglia G. hypothalamus A. Medulla Oblongata

Which of the following is not true concerning muscle fiber length-tension relationships? - If sarcomeres are stretched, the tension in the fiber decreases. - If a muscle cell is stretched so that there is no overlap of the filaments, no tension is generated. - Extremely compressed sarcomeres result in less muscle tension. - Maximum tension occurs when the zone of overlap between a thick and thin filament extends from the edge of the H zone to one end of a thick filament. - If sarcomeres shorten, the tension in them increases

If sarcomeres shorten, the tension in them increases

Which of the following statements are not TRUE? - Interneurons are located primarily in the PNS. - The sensory function of the nervous system involves sensory receptors sensing certain changes int he internal and external environments. - The integrative function of the nervous system involves analyzing sensory information, storing some of it, and making decisions regarding appropriate responses. - Motor function involves the activation of effectors (muscles and glands)

Interneurons are located primarily in the PNS.

Spongy bone differs from compact bone because spongy bone - is composed of numerous osteons (haversian systems). - Is found primarily in the diaphyses of long bones, and compact bone is found primarily in the epiphyses of long bones - contains osteons all aligned int he same direction along lines of stress - does not contain osteocytes contained in lucunae - Is composed of trabeculae that are oriented along lines of stress

Is composed of trabeculae that are oriented along lines of stress

- an abundant polar covalent molecule that serves as a solvent, has a high heat capacity, creates a high surface tension, and serves as a lubricant. - a substance that dissociates into one or more hydrogen ions and one or more anions - a substance that dissociates into cations and anions, neither of which is a hydrogen ion or a hydroxyl ion - a proton acceptor - a measure of hydrogen ion concentration - a chemical compound that can convert strong acids and bases into weak ones - a catalyst for chemical reactions that is specific, efficient, and under cellular control. - a single-stranded compound that contains a five-carbon sugar, and the bases adenine, cytosine, guanine and uracil. - a compound that functions to temporarily store and then transfer energy liberated in exergonic reactions to cellular activities that require energy. - a double stranded compound that contains a five carbon sugar, the bases adenine, thymine, cytosine and guanine and the body's genetic material - a charged atom - a charged atom with an unpaired electron in its outermost shell. A. acid B. free radical C. base D. buffer E. enzyme F. pH G. ion H. salt I. RNA J. ATP K. water L. DNA

K. water A. acid H. salt C. base F. pH D. buffer E. enzyme I. RNA J. ATP L. DNA G. ion B. free radical

- hyposecretion of insulin or down- regulation of the insulin receptors - hypersecretion of hGH before closure of epiphyseal plates - hypersecretion of glucocorticoids - hyposecretion of thyroid hormone that is present at birth - hyposecretion of hGH before closure of epiphyseal plates - hypersecretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine - hypersecretion of hGH after closure of epiphyseal plates - hyposecretion of glucocorticoids and aldosterone - hyposecretion of ADH - hypersecretion of melatonin - hyposecretion of thyroid hormone in adults - hyperthyroidism, an autoimmune disease A. giantism B. acromegaly C. pituitary dwarfism D. diabetes insipidus E. myxedema F. Grave's disease G. Cushing's syndrome H. seasonal affective disorder I. Addison's disease J. pheochromocytomas K. congenital hypothyroidism L. diabetes mellitus

L. diabetes mellitus A. giantism G. Cushing's syndrome K. congenital hypothyroidism C. pituitary dwar!sm J. pheochromocytomas B. acromegaly I. Addison's disease D. diabetes insipidus H. seasonal affective disorder E. myxedema F. Grave's disease

Which of the following is NOT true? - Albinism is an inherited inability of melanocytes to produce melanin - Striae occurs when the dermis is overstretched to the point of tearing - In order to prevent excessive scarring, surgeons should cut parallel to the lines of cleavage - The papillary layer of the dermis is responsible for fingerprints - Much of the body's fat is located in the dermis of the skin

Much of the body's fat is located in the dermis of the skin

Which of the following is NOT true? - Nails are composed of tightly packed, hard, keratinized cells of the epidermis that form a clear, solid covering over the dorsal surface of the terminal end of digits - The free edge of the nail is white due to the absence of capillaries - Nails help us grasp and manipulate small objects. - Nails protect the ends of digits from trauma. - Nail color is due to a comination of melanin and carotene.

Nail color is due to a comination of melanin and carotene.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? - Olfactory receptors respond to the chemical stimulation of an odorant molecule by producing a receptor potential. - Basal stem cells continually produce new olfactory receptors. - Adaptation to odors is rapid and occurs in both olfactory receptors and the CNS. - Production of nasal mucus by olfactory glands serves to moisten the olfactory epithelium and dissolve odorants. - The orbitofrontal area is an important region for odor identification and discrimination.

Olfactory receptors respond to the chemical stimulation of an odorant molecule by producing a receptor potential.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? - Retinal is the light-absorbing portion of all visual photopigments. - The only photopigment in rods is rhodopsin, but three different cone photopigments are present in the retina. - Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C. - Color vision results from different colors of light selectively activating different cone photopigments. - Bleaching and regeneration of the photopigments account for much but not all of the sensitivity changes during light and dark adaptation.

Retinal is a derivative of vitamin C.

Matter exists in three forms: [a], [b] and [c].

Solid liquid gas

Which of the following statements is false? - Association tracts transmit nerve impulses between gyri in the same hemisphere. - Commissural tracts transmit impulses from the gyri in one cerebral hemisphere to the corresponding gyri in the other hemisphere. - Projection tracts form descending and ascending tracts that transmit impulses from the cerebrum and other parts of the brain to the spinal cord, or from the spinal cord to the brain. - The internal capsule is an example of commissural tracts - The corpus callosum is an example of commissural tracts.

The internal capsule is an example of commissural tracts

What would happen if ATP were suddenly unavailable after the sarcomere had begun to shorten? - Nothing. The contraction would proceed normally. - The myosin heads would be unable to detach from actin. - Troponin would bind with the myosin heads. - Actin and myosin filaments would separate completely and be unable to recombine. - The myosin heads would detach completely from actin and bind to the troponin-tropomyosin complex.

The myosin heads would be unable to detach from actin.

Which of the following statements is false? - A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber may synapse with 20 or more postganglionic fibers, which partly explains why sympathetic responses are widespread throughout the body. - Parasympathetic effects tend to be localized because parasympathetic neurons usually synapse in the terminal ganglia with only four or five postsynaptic neurons (all of which supply a single effector). - Some sympathetic preganglionic neurons extend to and terminate in the adrenal medullae - The parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapse with the postganglionic axons in the prevertebral ganglia. - Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons emerge from the CNS as part of a cranial nerve or anterior root of a spinal nerve.

The parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapse with the postganglionic axons in the prevertebral ganglia.

Which of the following statements is false? - The first neuron in an autonomic pathway is the preganglionic neuron - The axons of preganglionic neurons are located in spinal or cranial nerves. - The postganglionic neuron's cell body is within the CNS. - Postganglionic neurons relay impulses from autonomic ganglia to visceral effectors - All somatic motor neurons release acetylcholine

The postganglionic neuron's cell body is within the CNS.

Which of the following is true concerning serous membranes? - A serous membrane lines a body part that opens directly to the body's exterior. - The parietal portion of a serous membrane attaches to the organ. - The visceral portion of a serous membrane attaches to a body cavity wall. - The serous membrane covering the heart is known as the peritoneum - The serous membrane covering the lungs is known as the pleura

The serous membrane covering the lungs is known as the pleura

Which of the following statements is false? - First-order sensory neurons carry signals from the somatic receptors into either the brain stem or spinal cord. - Second-order neurons carry signals from the spinal cord and brain stem to the thalamus. - Third-order neurons project to the primary somatosensory area of the cortex, where conscious perception of the sensation results. - The somatic sensory pathways to the cerebellum are the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway and the anterolateral pathway. - Axons of second-order neurons decussate (cross) in the spinal cord or brain stem before ascending to the thalamus

The somatic sensory pathways to the cerebellum are the posterior column-medial lemniscus pathway and the anterolateral pathway.

Which of the following statements is incorrect? - Taste is a chemical sense. - The receptors for taste sensations are found in taste buds located on the tongue, the soft palate, the pharynx, and the epiglottis. - Gustatory hairs are the sites of taste transduction. - The threshold for bitter substances is the highest. - Complete adaptation to taste can occur in 1 to 5 minutes.

The threshold for bitter substances is the highest.

A patient is brought into the emergency room su"ering from a burn. The patient does not feel any pain at the burn site. Using a gentle pull on a hair, the examining physician can remove entire hair follicles fromt he patient's arm. This patient is su"ering from what type of burn? - Third degree - second degree - first degree - partial thickness

Third degree

A(n) [a] is a group of similar cells and their surrounding material performing speci!c functions.

Tissue

Awakening from sleep involves increased activity in the reticular activating system T/F

True

Bone resorption involves increased activity of osteoclasts. T/F

True

Connective tissue !bers that are arranged in bundles and lend strength and "exibility to a tissue are collagen !bers. T/F

True

Epithelial tissue cells have an apical surface at the top and are attached to a basement membrane at the bottom. T/F

True

Gray matter of the spinal cord contains somatic motor and sensory nuclei, autonomic motor and sensory nuclei, and functions to receive and integrate both incoming and outgoing information. T/F

True

Human blood has a normal pH between 7.35 and 7.45 and is considered slightly alkaline. T/F

True

In a positive feedback system, the response enhances or intensi!es the original stimulus. T/F

True

In order to permanently prevent growth of an unwanted hair, you must destroy the hair matrix. T/F

True

Of all of the special senses, only smell and taste sensations project both to higher cortical areas and to the limbic system. T/F

True

Organs that receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic motor impulses are said to have dual innervation. T/F?

True

The ability of muscle cells to respond to stimuli and produce electrical signals is known as excitability. T/F

True

The anterior joint formed by the two coxal (hip) bones is the pelvic symphysis T/F

True

The cells created during meiosis are genetically different from the original cell. T/F

True

The elements that compose most of the body's mass are carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen T/F

True

The formation of bone from cartilage is known as endochondral ossification. T/F

True

The growth of bone is controlled primarily by hormones. T/F

True

The sequence of events resulting in skeletal muscle contraction are (a) generation of a nerve impulse, (b) release of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, (c) generation of a muscle action potential, (d) release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, (e) calcium ion binding to the troponin-tropomyosin complex, (f) power stroke with actin and myosin binding and release. T/F

True

The vagus nerves transmit 80% of the outflow of the parasympathetic preganglionic axons. T/F?

True

You are the greatest student of anatomy and physiology and you are well-prepared for your exam on the brain. As you confidently answer the questions, your brain is exhibiting beta waves. T/F

True

The mRNA base sequence that is complementary to the DNA base sequence ATC would be [a].

UAG

Which of the following statements is false? - Upper motor neurons transmit impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscle fibers. - Lower motor neurons have their cell bodies in the brain stem and spinal cord. - Local circuit neurons receive input from somatic sensory receptors and help coordinate rhythmic activity in specific muscle groups. - The activity of upper motor neurons is influenced by both the basal ganglia and cerebellum - The cerebellum helps to monitor differences between intended movements and actual movements for coordination, posture, and balance.

Upper motor neurons transmit impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscle fibers.

The most common sweat glands that release a watery secretion are [a] sweat glands; modi!ed sweat glands in the ear are [b] glands; sweat glands located in the axillae, groin, areolae, and beards of males and that release a thick, lipid-rich secretion are [c] sweat glands.

a - eccrine b - ceruminous c - apocrine

The crystallized inorganic mineral salts in bone contribute to bone's [a], while the collagen fibers and other organic molecules provide bone with [b].

a - hardness b - tensile strength

Bone growth in length is called [a] growth, and bone growth in diameter (thickness) is called [b] growth.

a - interstitial b - appositional

The fluid located within cells is the [a], whereas the fluid located outside of the cells is [b].

a - intracellular fluid b - extracellular fluid

The sum of all of the body's chemical processes is [a]. It consists of two parts: the phase that builds up new substnaces is [b], and the phase that breaks down substances is [c].

a - metabolism b - anabolism c - catabolism

The wasting away of muscle due to lack of use is known as [a] while the replacement of skeletal muscle fibers with scar tissue is known as [b].

a - muscular atrophy b - fibrosis

[a] is the conscious or subconscious awareness of external or internal stimuli; [b] is the conscious awareness and interpretation of sensory input.

a - sensation b - perception

The regions of the vertebral column that consist of fused vertebrae are the [a] and the [b]

a -> sacrum b -> coccyx

Because of the location of the preganglionic cell bodies, the sympathetic division of the ANS is also called the [a] division; the parasympathetic division is also called the [b] division.

a -> thoracolumbar b -> craniosacral

The portion of the bony pelvis that is inferior to the pelvic brim is the [a] pelvis; the portion that is superior to the pelvic brim is the [b] pelvis

a -> true (lesser) b -> false (greater)

In muscle physiology, the latent period refers to - the period of lost excitability that occurs when two stimuli are applied immediately one after the other - the brief contraction of a motor unit - the period of elevated oxygen use after exercise - an inability of a muscle to contract forcefully after prolonged activity - a brief delay that occurs between application of a stimulus and the beginning of contraction

a brief delay that occurs between application of a stimulus and the beginning of contraction

Aging of the skin can result in - an increase in collagen and elastic fibers - a decrease in the activity of sebaceous glands - a thickening of the skin - an increased blood flow to the skin - an increase in toenail grow

a decrease in the activity of sebaceous glands

Which of the following is FALSE - a decrease in the height of the medial longitudinal arch creates a condition known as clawfoot. - The transverse arch is formed by the navicular, cuneiforms, and bases of the five metatarsals. - The longitudinal arch has medial and lateral parts; both of which originate at the calcaneus - Arches help to absorb shocks

a decrease in the height of the medial longitudinal arch creates a condition known as clawfoot.

During the course of analyzing an unknown chemical, a chemist deteremines that the chemical is composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in the proportion of 1 carbon to 2 hydrogens to 1 oxygen. The chemical is probably - an amino acid - DNA - a triglyceride - a protein - a monosaccharide

a monosaccharide

[a] equilibrium refers to the maintenance of the position of the body relative to the force of gravity; [b] equilibrium refers to the maintenance of body position in response to sudden movements such as rotation, acceleration, and deceleration.

a- static b- dynamic

Cholinergic neurons release ____ and adrenergic neurons release ____.

acetylcholine norepinephrine

A compound dissociates in water and forms a cation other than H+ and an anion other than OH-. This substance most likely is a(n) acid base enzyme buffer salt

acid

Cell death that is genetically programmed is known as [a], while cell death which is due to tissue injury is known as [b].

apoptosis necrosis

The surgical procedure in which a severely damaged joint is replaced with an artificial joint is known as _________ .

arthroplasty

A point of contact between two bones, between bone and cartilage, or between bone and teeth is called a(n) _________ .

articulation joint arthrosis

Which of the following is NOT a function of skin? - calcium production - vitamin D synthesis - protection - excretion of wastes - temperature regulation

calcium production

Which membrane protein is incorrectly matched with its function? - receptor: allows recognition of specific molecules - ion channel: allows passage of specific ions through the membrane, - carrier: allows cells to recognize each other and foreign cells. - linker: allows binding of one cell to another and provides stability and shape to a cell - enzyme: catalyzes cellular reactions

carrier: allows cells to recognize each other and foreign cells.

Several neurons in the brain sending impulses to a single motor neuron that terminates at a neuromuscular junction is an example of a _________ circuit. reverberating simple series parallel after-discharge diverging converging

converging

The cerebral hemispheres are connected internally by a broad band of white matter known as the _________ .

corpus callosum

The term used to describe the crossing over of axons from one side of the brain or spinal cord to the other side is _________ .

decussation

The monosaccharides glucose and fructose combine to form the disaccharide sucrose by a process known as - dehydration synthesis - hydrolysis - decomposition - hydrogen bonding - ionization

dehydration synthesis

An unspecialized stem cell becomes a brain cell during fetal development. This is an example of - differentiation - growth - organization - responsiveness - homeostasis

differentiation

Which of the following is not an aspect of cerebellar function? - monitoring movement intention - monitoring actual movement - comparing intent with actual performance - sending out corrective signals - directing sensory input to effectors

directing sensory input to e#ectors

Midway through a 5-mile workout, a runner begins to sweat profusely. The sweat glands producing the sweat would be considered which part of a feedback loop? - controlled condition - receptors - stimulus - effectors - control center

effectors

The connective tissue surrounding each individual axon is - endoneurium - epineurium - perineurium - fascicle - arachnoid mater

endoneurium

The substance that helps promote mitosis in epidermal skin cells is - Keratohyalin - melanin - carotene - collagen - epidermal growth factor

epidermal growth factor

The four types of tissues are [a], [b], [c], and [d].

epithelial connective muscular nervous

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the auditory pathway? - external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, oval window, cochlea and spiral organ - tympanic membrane, external auditory canal, auditory ossicles, cochlea and spiral organ, round window - auditory ossicles, tympanic membrane, cochlea and spiral organ, round window, oval window, external auditory canal - auricle, tympanic membrane, round window, cochlea and spiral organ, oval window - external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, internal auditory canal, spiral organ, oval window.

external auditory canal, tympanic membrane, auditory ossicles, oval window, cochlea and spiral organ

Which of the following are mismatched? - fungiform papillae: scattered over the entire tongue's surface, - filiform papillae: contain taste buds in early childhood, - vallate papillae: each houses 100-300 taste buds, - foliate papillae: located in trenches on the lateral margins of the tongue, - fungiform papillae: each houses about five taste buds.

filiform papillae: contain taste buds in early childhood,

Membrane-"lled spaces between cranial bones that enable the fetal skull to modigy its size and shape for passage through the birth canal are called

fontanels

List the five lobes of the cerebrum: [a], [b], [c], [d]. [e]

frontal parietal occipital temporal insula

What type of cell junction would be required for cells to communicate with one another? - adherens junction - desmosome - gap junction - tight junction - hemidesmosome

gap junction

If the lining of an organ produces and releases mucus, whicho f the following cells would likely be found int he tissue lining the organ? - goblet cells - mast cells - macrophages - osteoblasts - fibroblasts

goblet cells

An radiography technician needs to x-ray a growth on the urinary bladder. To accomplish this, the camera must be positioned on the _____ region. - left inguinal - epigastric - hypogastric - right inguinal - umbilical

hypogastric

The greater sciatic notch is located on the - ilium - ischium - femur - pubis

ilium

List the three bones that fuse to form a hip (xocal) bone: [a], [b], and [c].

ilium, pubic, ischium

Cutting the posterior root of a spinal nerve would - interfere with the circulation of cerebrospinal fluid - impair motor control of skeletal muscles - interfere with the ability of the brain to transmit motor impulses - interfere with the flow of sensory impulses.

interfere with the #ow of sensory impulses.

If the concentration of solutes int he ECF and ICF are equal, the cells is in a(n) __________________ solution. -hypertonic -hydrophobic -saturated -hypotonic -isotonic

isotonic

In which of the following bones are paranasal sinuses NOT found? - frontal bone - sphenoid bone - lacrimal bones - ethmoid bone

lacrimal bones

The _________ separates the cerebrum into right and left halves.

longitudinal fissue

A primary effect of weight-bearing exercise on bones is to - provide oxygen for bone development - increase the demineralization of bone - maintain and increase bone mass - stimulate the release of sex hormones for bone growth - utilize the stored triglycerides from the yellow bone marrow

maintain and increase bone mass

Which of the following are involved in the knee joint? - fibular notch of tibia - head of fibula - medial condyle of femur - greater trochanter of femur

medial condyle of femur

The type of exocrine gland that forms its secretory product and simply releases it from the cell by exocytosis is the - apocrine gland - merocrine gland - holocrine gland - endocrine gland - tubular gland

merocrine gland

The bones that comprise the palm are the

metacarpals

Because they contain both sensory and motor axons, spinal nerves are considered to be _________ nerves.

mixed

The building blocks of carbohydrates are the monomers [a], while the building blocks of proteins are the monomers [b].

monosaccharides amino acids

A single somatic motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it stimulates is known as a _________ .

motor unit

The most common degenerative joint disease in the elderly, often caused by wear- and-tear, is - rheumatoid arthritis - osteoarthritis - rheumatism - gouty arthritis - ankylosing spondylitis

osteoarthritis

A plane the separates the body into unequal right and left sides is a - transverse plane - frontal plane - midsagittal plane - coronal plane - parasagittal plane

parasagittal plane

Which of the following would NOT be associated with the thoracic cavity? - pericardium - mediastinum - peritoneum - pleura - lungs

peritoneum

The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica of teh sphenoid bone contains the _____

pituitary gland

The three major parts of the cell are the [a], [b] and [c].

plasma membrane cytoplasm nucleus

Which of the following is not a function of the thalamus? - relaying information from the cerebellum and basal ganglia to primary motor areas of the cerebral cortex - helping maintain consciousness - nonlocalized perception of pain, pressure, and thermal sensations - regulating body temperature - relaying sensory impulses to the cerebral cortex

regulating body temperature

Which of the following pairs are mismatched? - mandible: only movable bone in the skull - hyoid: bone that does not articulate with any other bone - sacrum: supports lower back - thoracic vertebrae: articulate with thoracic ribs posteriorly inferior - nasal conchae: classified as facial bones

sacrum: supports lower back

The five components of a reflex arc, in order from the beginning to the end, are [a], [b], [c], [d], and [e].

sensory receptor sensory neuron integrating center motor neuron effector

Epithelial tissue tends to be classified according to two criteria: [a] and [b].

shape number of layers

The subdivisions of the PNS are the [a], [b], and [c].

somatic autonomic enteric

The suture located between a parietal and temporal bone is the lambdoid sagittal coronal anterolateral squamous

squamous

Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins? - provide structural framework - bring about contraction - transport materials throughout the body - store energy - regulate many physiological processes

store energy

Which of the following tissues is avascular? - cardiac muscle - stratified squamous epithelial - compact bone - skeletal muscle - adipose

strati!ed squamous epithelial

The layer of the epidermis that contains stem cells undergoing mitotis is the - stratum corneum - stratum lucidum - stratum basale - stratum spinosum - stratum granulosum

stratum basale

The epidermal layer that is found in thick skin but not in thin skin is the __________.

stratum lucidum

The five primary taste sensations are [a], [b], [c], [d], and [e].

sweet sour salty bitter umami

The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are the [a] division and the [b] division

sympathetic parasympathetic

Which of the following is the most superior of the tarsals and articulates with the distal end of the tibia - calcaneus - cuneiform - navicular - talus

talus

[a] are special DNA sequences located at the ends of chromosomes and whose erosion contribues to cellular aging and death.

telomeres

You cannot "hear" with your eyes because: - hearing is a somatic sense and vision is a special sense - the sensory neurons for sight carry information only for the modality of vision - the impulses for hearing are transmitted to the somatosensory area of the cerebral cortex - hearing receptors are selective and vision receptors are not - hearing receptors produce a generator potential and vision receptors produce a receptor potential.

the sensory neurons for sight carry information only for the modality of vision

During muscle contraction all of the following occur except: - crossbridges are formed when the energized myosin head attaches to actin's myosin-binding site - ATP undergoes hydrolysis - the thick filaments slide inward toward the M line - calcium concentration in the cytosol increases - the Z discs are drawn toward each other.

the thick filaments slide inward toward the M line

Which of the following muscle proteins and their descriptions are mismatched? - titin: regulatory protein that holds troponin in place - myosin: contractile motor protein - tropomyosin: regulatory protein that blocks myosin-binding sites - actin: contractile anchoring protein that contains myosin-binding sites - calsequestrin: calcium-binding protein

titin: regulatory protein that holds troponin in place

Which of the following bones are not paired? - vomer - palatine - lacrimal - maxilla - nasal

vomer