A&P LECTURE EXAM 2/FINAL mastering&textbookquestions

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Oogenesis produces_______________. 4 ova and 2 or 3 polar bodies. 4 secondary oocytes. 4 ova. 1 secondary oocyte and 3 ova. 1 secondary oocyte and 2 or 3 polar bodies.

1 secondary oocyte and 2 or 3 polar bodies.

Which regions of the vertebral column lack intervertebral discs?

are not found between the first and second cervical vertebrae, between sacral vertebrae in the sacrum, or between coccygeal vertebrae in the coccyx.

Describe general age-related effects on skeletal muscle tissue.

General agerelated effects on skeletal muscles include decreased skeletal muscle fiber diameters, diminished muscle elasticity, decreased tolerance for exercise, and a decreased ability to recover from muscular injuries

What two mechanisms are used to generate ATP from glucose in muscle cells?

Glycolysis and aerobic metabolism

The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the_________. zone of overlap. H band. M line. Z line. I band.

H band.

What are the main differences in gamete production between males and females?

Males produce gametes from puberty until death and release mature gametes that have completed meiosis Females produce gametes only from menarche to menopause and females release secondary oocytes held in metaphase of meiosis II.

Mary sees Jill coming toward her and immediately contracts her frontalis and procerus. She also contracts her right levator labii. Is Mary glad to see Jill? How can you tell?

Mary is not happy to see Jill. Contraction of the frontalis would wrinkle Mary's brow, contraction of the procerus would flare her nostrils, and contraction of the levator labii on the right side would raise the right side of her lip, as in sneering.

During true labor, what physiological mechanisms ensure that uterine contractions continue until delivery has been completed?

Positive feedback mechanisms between increasing levels of oxytocin and increased uterine distortion ensure that labor contractions continue until delivery has been completed.

At what site are the iliofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament, and ischiofemoral ligament located?

at the hip joint

When playing a contact sport, which injury would you expect to occur more frequently, a dislocated shoulder or a dislocated hip? Why?

Shoulder dislocations would occur more frequently than hip dislocations because the shoulder is a more mobile joint. Because the shoulder joint is not bound tightly by ligaments or other structures, it is easier to dislocate when excessive forces are applied. By contrast, the hip joint, although mobile, is less easily dislocated because it is stabilized by four heavy ligaments, and the bones fit together snugly in the joint. Additionally, the synovial capsule of the hip joint is larger than that of the shoulder, and its range of motion is decreased.

7. Why do skeletal muscle fibers appear striated when viewed through a light microscope?

Skeletal muscle fibers appear striated when viewed through a light microscope because the Z lines and thick filaments of the myofibrils within the muscle fibers are aligned.

List the components of the vertebral column.

The adult vertebral column consists of 26 bones: the vertebrae (24), the sacrum (1), and the coccyx.

Why does the vertebral column of an adult have fewer vertebrae than that of a newborn?

The adult vertebral column has fewer vertebrae than a newborn because, in an adult, the five sacral vertebrae fuse to form a single sacrum, and the four coccygeal vertebrae fuse to form a single coccyx.

Which bone contains the depression called the sella turcica? What is located in this depression?

The sphenoid contains the sella turcica, which in turn contains the pituitary gland.

Which layer of the uterus is sloughed off, or shed, during menstruation?

functional layer of the endometrium

Define rheumatism.

general term describing any painful condition of the bones, muscles, and joints (musculoskeletal system).

Which of the following is not one of the four proximal carpal bones? triquetrum lunate hamate scaphoid pisiform

hamate

Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers_______. lack mitochondria. have many nuclei. are very small. have large gaps in the cell membrane. lack a plasma membrane.

have many nuclei.

Name the bones that make up each hip bone.

ilium, ischium, and pubis

The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the______. femur. ischium. ilium. pubis. patella.

ilium.

The sacrum articulates with the_______. pubis. ischium. ilium. ilium and ischium. ischium and pubis.

ilium.

The penetration of the endometrium by the blastocyst is referred to as___________. implantation. embryogenesis. placentation. fertilization. cleavage.

implantation.

In an isotonic contraction, _________. many twitches always fuse into one. the peak tension is less than the load. tension rises and falls but the muscle length is constant. muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load. postural muscles stabilize the vertebrae.

muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load.

Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called______ transversus. medialis. rectus. lateralis. oblique.

oblique.

Female bodybuilders and women with eating disorders such as anorexia nervosa commonly experience amenorrhea. What does this fact suggest about the relationship between body fat and menstruation? What effect would amenorrhea have on achieving a successful pregnancy?

observations suggest that a certain amount of body fat is necessary for menstrual cycles to occur. The nervous system appears to respond to circulating levels of the adipose tissue hormone leptin; Because a woman lacking adequate fat reserves might not be able to have a successful pregnancy, the body prevents pregnancy by shutting down the ovarian cycle, and thus the menstrual cycle

In which bone is the foramen magnum located?

occipital bone

What vessels carry blood between the fetus and the placenta?

paired umbilical arteries and returns in a single umbilical vein

Which portion of the temporal bone houses the structures of the internal ear? zygomatic squamous mastoid petrous styloid

petrous

The bones that form the fingers are the_______. metatarsals. metacarpals. phalanges. carpals. tarsals.

phalanges.

Define gonads.

reproductive organs that produce gametes and hormones.

The medial malleolus is located on the________. ischium. femur. tibia. patella. fibula.

tibia

Why does a mother's blood volume increase during pregnancy?

to compensate for the reduction in maternal blood volume resulting from blood flow through the placenta.

A muscle whose name ends in the suffix -glossus would be found within or attached to the______. chin. lips. tongue. jaw. cheek.

tongue.

Movements that occur at the shoulder and the hip represent the actions that occur at a joint. (a) hinge, (b) ball-and-socket, (c) pivot, (d) plane.

(b) ball-and-socket,

Of the following actions, the one that illustrates that of a second-class lever is________. (a) knee extension, (b) ankle extension (plantar flexion), (c) flexion at the elbow, (d) none of these.

(b) ankle extension (plantar flexion),

Abduction and adduction always refer to movements of the (a) axial skeleton, (b) appendicular skeleton, (c) skull, (d) vertebral column.

(b) appendicular skeleton,

Identify the three life stages that occur between birth and approximately age 10. Describe the timing and characteristics of each stage.

(1) Neonatal period (birth to 1 month) (2) Infancy (1 month to 1 year) (3) Childhood (1 year to puberty)

What three processes are involved in repaying the oxygen debt during a muscle's recovery period?

(1) O2 for aerobic metabolism is consumed by liver cells, which must make a great deal of ATP to convert lactate to pyruvate, and pyruvate to glucose; (2) O2 for aerobic metabolism is consumed by skeletal muscle fibers as they restore ATP, creatine phosphate, and glycogen concentrations to their former levels; (3) the normal O2 concentration in blood and peripheral tissues is replenished.

Name and describe the three types of joints as classified by range of motion.

(1) an immovable joint or synarthrosis, (2) a slightly movable joint or amphiarthrosis, and (3) a freely movable joint or diarthrosis. A synarthrosis can be fibrous or cartilaginous, a bony fusion, An amphiarthrosis is either fibrous or cartilaginous, A diarthrosis is a synovial joint, which permits the greatest range of motion.

What three layers of connective tissue are part of each muscle? What functional role does each layer play?

(1) epimysium: surrounds entire muscle (2) perimysium: surrounds bundles of muscle fibers (fascicles) (3) endomysium: surrounds individual skeletal muscle fibers (cells)

What five interlocking steps are involved in the contraction process?

(1) exposure of active sites; (2) attachment of cross-bridges; (3) pivoting of myosin heads (power stroke); (4) detachment of cross-bridges; (5) reactivation of myosin heads (recocking myosin head)

Which four muscle groups make up the axial musculature?

(1) muscles of the head and neck, (2) muscles of the vertebral column, (3) oblique and rectus muscles, and (4) muscles of the pelvic floor.

What three functional groups make up the muscles of the lower limbs?

(1) muscles that move the thigh, (2) muscles that move the leg, and (3) muscles that move the foot and toes.

Which eight bones make up the cranium?

(1) occipital bone; (2) frontal bone; (3) sphenoid; (4) ethmoid; (5) paired parietal bones; (6) paired temporal bones

List the four patterns of fascicle arrangement used to classify the different types of skeletal muscles.

(1) parallel, (2) convergent, (3) pennate, and (4) circular.

What seven bones constitute the orbital complex?

(1) sphenoid; (2) frontal bone; (3) ethmoid; (4) lacrimal bone; (5) maxilla; (6) palatine bone; (7) zygomatic bone

What three functions are accomplished by the muscles of the pelvic floor?

(1) support the organs of the pelvic cavity, (2) flex joints of the sacrum and coccyx, and (3) control movement of materials through the urethra and anus.

Which seven bones make up the ankle (tarsus)?

(1) talus; (2) calcaneus; (3) cuboid; (4) navicular; (5-7) three cuneiform bones

List and summarize the important steps in the ovarian cycle.

(1) the development of a dominant tertiary follicle, or mature graafian follicle, (2) ovulation, (3) the formation of the corpus luteum and its degeneration into the corpus albicans.

Recessive X-linked traits (a) are passed from fathers to their sons, (b) are more likely to be expressed in males, (c) always affect some aspect of the reproductive system, (d) are never expressed in females, (e) cannot be passed from mothers to daughters.

(b) are more likely to be expressed in males,

The muscles of facial expression are innervated by cranial nerve ________. (a) VII, (b) V, (c) IV, (d) VI.

(a) VII,

During relaxation, muscles return to their original length because of all of the following except ___________. (a) actin and myosin actively pushing away from one another, (b) the contraction of opposing muscles, (c) the pull of gravity, (d) the elastic nature of the sarcolemma, (e) elastic forces.

(a) actin and myosin actively pushing away from one another,

The ___________ contains vesicles filled with acetylcholine. (a) axon terminal, (b) motor end plate, (c) neuromuscular junction, (d) synaptic cleft, (e) transverse tubule.

(a) axon terminal,

Which vertebral movements are involved in (a) bending forward, (b) bending to the side, and (c) moving the head to signify "no"?

(a) bending forward is flexion. (b) bending to the side is lateral flexion. (c) moving the head to signify "no" is rotation.

The pre-embryo develops into a multicellular complex known as a (a) blastocyst, (b) trophoblast, (c) lacuna, (d) blastomere.

(a) blastocyst,

Levers make action more versatile by all of the following, except_________. (a) changing the location of the muscle's insertion, (b) changing the speed of movement produced by an applied force, (c) changing the distance of movement produced by an applied force, (d) changing the strength of an applied force, (e) changing the direction of an applied force.

(a) changing the location of the muscle's insertion,

Compartment syndrome can result from all of the following except________. (a) compressing a nerve in the wrist, (b) compartments swelling with blood due to an injury involving blood vessels, (c) torn ligaments in a given compartment, (d) pulled tendons in the muscles of a given compartment, (e) torn muscles in a particular compartment.

(a) compressing a nerve in the wrist,

What changes occur in females during sexual arousal as the result of increased parasympathetic stimulation?

(a) engorgement of the erectile tissue of the clitoris and vestibular bulbs, (b) increased secretion of cervical and greater vestibular glands, (c) increased blood flow to the wall of the vagina, (d) engorgement of the blood vessels in the nipples.

Decreasing the angle between bones is termed_________. (a) flexion, (b) extension, (c) abduction, (d) adduction, (e) hyperextension.

(a) flexion,

The secondary spinal curves (a) help position the body weight over the legs, (b) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera, (c) include the thoracic curvature, (d) do all of these, (e) do only a and c.

(a) help position the body weight over the legs,

At the glenoid cavity, the scapula articulates with the proximal end of the (a) humerus, (b) radius, (c) ulna, (d) femur.

(a) humerus,

A muscle producing near-peak tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation is said to be in _________. (a) incomplete tetanus, (b) treppe, (c) complete tetanus, (d) a twitch.

(a) incomplete tetanus,

The more movable end of a muscle is the _________. (a) insertion, (b) belly, (c) origin, (d) proximal end, (e) distal end.

(a) insertion,

The anulus fibrosus and nucleus pulposus are structures associated with the ________. (a) intervertebral discs, (b) knee and elbow, (c) shoulder and hip, (d) carpal and tarsal bones.

(a) intervertebral discs,

Blood vessels that drain blood from the head pass through the (a) jugular foramina, (b) hypoglossal canals, (c) stylomastoid foramina, (d) mental foramina, (e) lateral canals.

(a) jugular foramina,

Which of the following lists contains only facial bones? (a) mandible, maxilla, nasal, zygomatic, (b) frontal, occipital, zygomatic, parietal, (c) occipital, sphenoid, temporal, lacrimal, (d) frontal, parietal, occipital, sphenoid.

(a) mandible, maxilla, nasal, zygomatic,

In anatomical position, the ulna lies (a) medial to the radius, (b) lateral to the radius, (c) inferior to the radius, (d) superior to the radius.

(a) medial to the radius,

The main hormone of the postovulatory phase is__________. (a) progesterone, (b) estradiol, (c) estrogen, (d) luteinizing hormone.

(a) progesterone,

Important flexors of the vertebral column that act in opposition to the erector spinae are the________. (a) rectus abdominis, (b) longus capitis, (c) longus colli, (d) scalene.

(a) rectus abdominis,

Knee extensors known as the quadriceps femoris consist of the________. (a) three vastus muscles and the rectus femoris, (b) biceps femoris, gracilis, and sartorius, (c) popliteus, iliopsoas, and gracilis, (d) gastrocnemius, tibialis, and peroneus.

(a) three vastus muscles and the rectus femoris,

The major extensor of the elbow is the________. (a) triceps brachii, (b) biceps brachii, (c) deltoid, (d) subscapularis.

(a) triceps brachii,

A normally pigmented woman whose father was an albino marries a normally pigmented man whose mother was an albino. What is the probability that they would have an albino child? (a) 50 percent, (b) 25 percent, (c) 12.5 percent, (d) 6.25 percent, (e) 100 percent.

(b) 25 percent,

The epiphysis of the femur articulates with the pelvis at the (a) pubic symphysis, (b) acetabulum, (c) sciatic notch, (d) obturator foramen.

(b) acetabulum,

Mary's newborn is having trouble suckling. The doctor suggests that it may be a problem with a particular muscle. What muscle is the doctor probably referring to? (a) orbicularis oris, (b) buccinator, (c) masseter, (d) risorius, (e) zygomaticus.

(b) buccinator,

The structure(s) that allow(s) active and passive exchange between the fetal and maternal bloodstreams is/are the (a) yolk stalk, (b) chorionic villi, (c) umbilical veins, (d) umbilical arteries.

(b) chorionic villi,

Areas of the body where you would not expect to find slow fibers include the______. (a) back and calf muscles, (b) eye and hand, (c) chest and abdomen, (d) all of these.

(b) eye and hand,

The bundles of muscle fibers within a skeletal muscle are called________. (a) muscles, (b) fascicles, (c) fibers, (d) myofilaments, (e) groups.

(b) fascicles,

The strongest masticatory muscle is the ________. (a) pterygoid, (b) masseter, (c) temporalis, (d) mandible.

(b) masseter

The stage of development that follows cleavage is the (a) blastocyst, (b) morula, (c) trophoblast, (d) blastocoele.

(b) morula,

The point of the elbow is actually the of the ulna. (a) styloid process, (b) olecranon, (c) coronoid process, (d) trochlear notch.

(b) olecranon,

If a sperm lacked hyaluronidase, it would not be able to (a) move its flagellum, (b) penetrate the corona radiata, (c) become capacitated, (d) survive the environment of the female reproductive tract, (e) metabolize fructose.

(b) penetrate the corona radiata,

Rotation of the forearm that makes the palm face posteriorly is (a) supination, (b) pronation, (c) proliferation, (d) projection.

(b) pronation,

The muscles that rotate the radius without producing either flexion or extension of the elbow are the________. (a) brachialis and brachioradialis, (b) pronator teres and supinator, (c) biceps brachii and triceps brachii, (d) a, b, and c.

(b) pronator teres and supinator

If an allele must be present on both the maternal and paternal chromosomes to affect the phenotype, the allele is said to be (a) dominant, (b) recessive, (c) complementary, (d) heterozygous.

(b) recessive,

A sudden surge in LH secretion causes the________. (a) onset of menstruation, (b) rupture of the follicular wall and ovulation, (c) beginning of the proliferative phase, (d) end of the uterine cycle.

(b) rupture of the follicular wall and ovulation,

The joint between adjacent vertebral bodies is a (a) syndesmosis, (b) symphysis, (c) synchondrosis, (d) synostosis.

(b) symphysis,

The structures that limit the range of motion of a joint and provide mechanical support across or around the joint are (a) bursae, (b) tendons, (c) menisci, (d) all of these.

(b) tendons,

Dislocations involving synovial joints are usually prevented by all of the following except..... (a) structures such as ligaments that stabilize and support the joint, (b) the position of bursae that limits the degree of movement, (c) the presence of other bones that prevent certain movements, (d) the position of muscles and fat pads that limits the degree of movement, (e) the shape of the articular surface.

(b) the position of bursae that limits the degree of movement,

Although the knee joint is only one joint, it resembles separate joints. (a) two, (b) three, (c) four, (d) five, (e) six.

(b) three,

Cervical vertebrae can usually be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of (a) transverse processes, (b) transverse foramina, (c) demifacets on the body, (d) the vertebra prominens, (e) large spinous processes.

(b) transverse foramina,

The unpaired facial bones include the (a) lacrimal and nasal, (b) vomer and mandible, (c) maxilla and mandible, (d) zygomatic and palatine.

(b) vomer and mandible,

Joints typically located between the ends of adjacent long bones are (a) synarthroses, (b) amphiarthroses, (c) diarthroses, (d) symphyses.

Complete loss of contact between two articulating surfaces is a (a) circumduction, (b) hyperextension, (c) dislocation, (d) supination.

Standing on tiptoe is an example of at the ankle. (a) elevation, (b) flexion, (c) extension, (d) retraction.

In females, meiosis II is not completed until________. (a) birth, (b) puberty, (c) fertilization occurs, (d) uterine implantation occurs.

The hormone that is the basis for a pregnancy test is (a) LH, (b) progesterone, (c) human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), (d) human placental lactogen (hPL), (e) either c or d, depending on the type of test.

Which of the following activities would employ isometric contractions? (a) flexing the elbow, (b) chewing food, (c) maintaining an upright posture, (d) running, (e) writing.

Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? (a) shock absorption, (b) nutrient distribution, (c) maintenance of ionic balance, (d) lubrication of the articular surfaces, (e) waste disposal.

The muscle that rotates the eye medially is the________. (a) superior oblique, (b) inferior rectus, (c) medial rectus, (d) lateral rectus.

Developing sperm are nourished by_________. (a) interstitial cells, (b) the seminal glands, (c) nurse cells, (d) Leydig cells, (e) the epididymis.

The lateral walls of the vertebral foramen are formed by the (a) body of the vertebra, (b) spinous process, (c) pedicles, (d) laminae, (e) transverse processes.

The anterior joint between the two pubic bones is a (a) synchondrosis, (b) synostosis, (c) symphysis, (d) synarthrosis.

The tarsal bone that transfers and distributes weight to the heel or toes is the (a) cuneiform, (b) calcaneus, (c) talus, (d) navicular.

When you rotate your head to look to one side, (a) the atlas rotates on the occipital condyles, (b) C1 and C2 rotate on the other cervical vertebrae, (c) the atlas rotates on the dens of the axis, (d) the skull rotates the atlas, (e) all cervical vertebrae rotate.

Examples of monaxial joints, which permit angular movement in a single plane, are ________. (a) the intercarpal and intertarsal joints, (b) the shoulder and hip joints, (c) the elbow and knee joints, (d) all of these.

Problems involving the formation of the chorion would affect (a) the embryo's ability to produce blood cells, (b) the formation of limbs, (c) the embryo's ability to derive nutrition from the mother, (d) lung formation, (e) the urinary system.

The detachment of the myosin cross-bridges is directly triggered by _______. (a) the repolarization of T tubules, (b) the attachment of ATP to myosin heads, (c) the hydrolysis of ATP, (d) calcium ions.

The signal to contract is distributed deep into a muscle fiber by the_______. (a) sarcolemma, (b) sarcomere, (c) transverse tubules, (d) myotubules, (e) myofibrils.

Which of the following skeletal characteristics is an adaption for childbearing? (a) inferior angle of 100 ° or more between the pubic bones, (b) a relatively broad, low pelvis, (c) less curvature of the sacrum and coccyx, (d) All of these are correct.

(d) All of these are correct.

Which of the following statements about myofibrils is not correct? (a) Each skeletal muscle fiber contains hundreds to thousands of myofibrils. (b) Myofibrils contain repeating units called sarcomeres. (c) Myofibrils extend the length of a skeletal muscle fiber. (d) Filaments consist of bundles of myofibrils. (e) Myofibrils are attached to the plasma membrane at both ends of a muscle fiber.

(d) Filaments consist of bundles of myofibrils.

The presence of tubercles on bones indicates the positions of (a) tendons and ligaments, (b) muscle attachments, (c) ridges and flanges, (d) a and b.

(d) a and b.

An activity that would require anaerobic endurance is ________. (a) a 50-meter dash, (b) a pole vault, (c) a weight-lifting competition, (d) all of these.

(d) all of these.

The atlas (C1) can be distinguished from the other vertebrae by (a) the presence of anterior and posterior vertebral arches, (b) the lack of a body, (c) the presence of superior facets and inferior articular facets, (d) all of these.

(d) all of these.

The hip is an extremely stable joint because it has (a) a complete bony socket, (b) a strong joint capsule, (c) supporting ligaments, (d) all of these.

(d) all of these.

The ovaries are responsible for__________. (a) the production of female gametes, (b) the secretion of female sex hormones, (c) the secretion of inhibin, (d) all of these.

(d) all of these.

The type of contraction in which the tension rises, but the load does not move, is ________. (a) a wave summation, (b) a twitch, (c) an isotonic contraction, (d) an isometric contraction.

(d) an isometric contraction.

A saddle joint permits movement but prevents movement. (a) rotational; gliding, (b) angular; gliding, (c) gliding; rotational, (d) angular; rotational.

(d) angular; rotational.

The part of the vertebra that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the (a) vertebral arch, (b) lamina, (c) pedicles, (d) body.

(d) body.

The function of the articular cartilage is (a) to reduce friction, (b) to prevent bony surfaces from contacting one another, (c) to provide lubrication, (d) both a and b.

(d) both a and b.

An action potential can travel quickly from one cardiac muscle cell to another because of the presence of ________. (a) gap junctions, (b) tight junctions, (c) intercalated discs, (d) both a and c.

(d) both a and c.

The joint between the frontal and parietal bones is correctly called the suture. (a) parietal, (b) lambdoid, (c) squamous, (d) coronal.

(d) coronal.

The connective tissue coverings of a skeletal muscle, listed from superficial to deep, are (a) endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium, (b) endomysium, epimysium, and perimysium, (c) epimysium, endomysium, and perimysium, (d) epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium.

(d) epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium.

Jack injures himself playing hockey, and the physician who examines him informs him that he has dislocated his pollex. What part of Jack's body did he injure? (a) his arm, (b) his leg, (c) his hip, (d) his thumb, (e) his shoulder.

(d) his thumb,

The powerful flexor of the hip is the________. (a) piriformis, (b) obturator, (c) pectineus, (d) iliopsoas.

(d) iliopsoas.

The chorionic villi (a) form the umbilical cord, (b) form the umbilical vein, (c) form the umbilical arteries, (d) increase the surface area available for exchange between the placenta and maternal blood, (e) form the portion of the placenta called the capsular decidua.

(d) increase the surface area available for exchange between the placenta and maternal blood,

Jane has an upper respiratory infection and begins to feel pain in her teeth. This is a good indication that the infection is located in the (a) frontal sinuses, (b) sphenoid bone, (c) temporal bone, (d) maxillary sinuses, (e) zygomatic bones.

(d) maxillary sinuses,

Which of the following is primarily responsible for stabilizing, positioning, and bracing the pectoral girdles? (a) tendons, (b) ligaments, (c) the joint shape, (d) muscles, (e) the shape

(d) muscles,

The large foramen between the pubic ramus and ischial ramus is the (a) foramen magnum, (b) suborbital foramen, (c) acetabulum, (d) obturator foramen.

(d) obturator foramen.

The bones of the hand articulate distally with the (a) carpal bones, (b) ulna and radius, (c) metacarpals, (d) phalanges.

(d) phalanges.

The fibula (a) forms an important part of the knee joint, (b) articulates with the femur, (c) helps to bear the weight of the body, (d) provides lateral stability to the ankle, (e) does a and b.

(d) provides lateral stability to the ankle,

Subacromial, subcoracoid, and subscapular bursae reduce friction in the joint. (a) hip, (b) knee, (c) elbow, (d) shoulder.

(d) shoulder.

A synarthrosis located between the bones of the skull is a (a) symphysis, (b) syndesmosis, (c) synchondrosis, (d) suture.

(d) suture.

The boundaries between skull bones are immovable joints called (a) foramina, (b) fontanelles, (c) lacunae, (d) sutures.

(d) sutures.

All of the following are structural characteristics of the female pelvic girdle compared to the male pelvic girdle with either one or two exceptions. Identify the exception(s). (a) The female pelvis is adapted for childbearing. (b) The female pelvic girdle is lighter than the male pelvic girdle. (c) Relaxin produced by the male pelvic girdle loosens the pubic symphysis and sacro-iliac joints. (d) The shape of the female pelvic girdle is the same as that of the male. (e) Answers c and d are exceptions.

(e) Answers c and d are exceptions.

According to the length-tension relationship, __________. (a) longer muscles can generate more tension than shorter muscles, (b) the greater the zone of overlap in the sarcomere, the greater the tension the muscle can develop, (c) the greatest tension is achieved in sarcomeres where actin and myosin initially do not overlap, (d) there is an optimum range of actin and myosin overlap that will produce the greatest amount of tension, (e) both b and d are correct.

(e) both b and d are correct.

The pelvis (a) protects the upper abdominal organs, (b) contains bones from both the axial and appendicular skeletons, (c) is composed of the coxal bones, sacrum, and coccyx, (d) does all of these, (e) does b and c.

(e) does b and c.

In the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle, the ovary_________. (a) undergoes atresia, (b) forms a corpus luteum, (c) releases a mature ovum, (d) secretes progesterone, (e) matures a dominant tertiary ovarian follicle.

(e) matures a dominant tertiary ovarian follicle.

In determining the age of a skeleton, all of the following pieces of information would be helpful except (a) the number of cranial sutures, (b) the size and roughness of the markings of the bones, (c) the presence or absence of fontanelles, (d) the presence or absence of epiphyseal cartilages, (e) the types of minerals deposited in the bones.

(e) the types of minerals deposited in the bones.

Improper administration of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can force the into the liver. (a) floating ribs, (b) lumbar vertebrae, (c) manubrium of the sternum, (d) costal cartilage, (e) xiphoid process.

(e) xiphoid process.

Put the following events of the neuromuscular junction in the order in which they occur. 1. Action potential is propagated in the sarcolemma. 2. Acetylcholine binds to ligand gated sodium channels. 3. Action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction. 4. Vesicles full of acetylcholine are stored at the axon terminal. 5. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft. 4,3,5,1,2 4,5,3,2,1 4,1,3,2,5 4,3,1,5,2 4,3,5,2,1

4,3,5,2,1

How many chromosomes are contained within a human zygote?

46 chromosomes.

Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur. 1. Cross-bridge detachment 2. Cross-bridge formation 3. Active site exposure 4. Myosin reactivation 5. Calcium ions bind troponin 6. Myosin head pivoting 5,3,2,6,1,4 3,5,2,6,1,4 5,3,2,6,4,1 5,3,6,2,4,1 5,3,6,2,1,4

5,3,2,6,1,4

A chiropractor manipulates joints, specifically the vertebral joints, to correct dislocations. What is another way to state this? A chiropractor corrects major dislocations that occur at amphiarthroses. Synarthroses are major weak points for subluxations. A dislocation can only be corrected by a chiropractor. A chiropractor puts pressure on specific points to correct partial dislocations.

A chiropractor puts pressure on specific points to correct partial dislocations.

Define dislocation.

A dislocation is a complete loss of contact between the articulating surfaces within a joint.

Define fontanelle, and identify the major fontanelles.

A fontanelle is a relatively soft, flexible, fibrous region between two flat bones in the developing skull. The major fontanelles are the anterior fontanelle, posterior fontanelle, sphenoidal fontanelles, and mastoid fontanelles.

Define a lever, and describe the three classes of levers.

A lever is a rigid structure—such as a board, a pry bar, or a bone—that moves on a fixed joint called a fulcrum. There are three classes of levers: In a first-class lever, the fulcrum lies between the applied force and load; in a second-class lever, the load lies between the applied force and fulcrum; and in a third-class lever, the applied force or pull exerted is between the fulcrum and the load. Third-class levers are the most common type in the body.

Mike falls off his skateboard and sprains his ankle. Which of the following most likely occurs with this type of accident? Articulating bones are forced out of position and ligaments are torn. A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged. Dislocation of the ankle occurs. The tibia is broken and must be set in a cast. A bursa is damaged and leaks synovial fluid.

A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged.

Why does a muscle that has been overstretched produce minimal tension?

A muscle's ability to contract depends on the formation of cross-bridges between the myosin and actin myofilaments in the muscle. In a muscle that is overstretched, the myofilaments would overlap very little, so very few cross-bridges between myosin and actin could form and, thus, the contraction would be weak. If the myofilaments did not overlap at all, then no cross-bridges would form and the muscle could not contract.

What physiological adjustments must an infant make during the neonatal period in order to survive?

A neonate must fill its lungs with air, which alters the pattern of cardiovascular circulation due to changes in blood pressure and flow rates. It must excrete the mixture of debris (meconium) that has collected in the fetal digestive system. The neonate must obtain nourishment from a new source—the mother's mammary glands.The infant also has little ability to thermoregulate,

A football player received a hit to the upper surface of his shoulder, causing a shoulder separation. What does this mean?

A shoulder separation is an injury involving partial or complete dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint.

Bill broke his leg in a football game, and after six weeks the cast is finally removed. As he steps down from the examination table, he loses his balance and falls. Why?

A skeletal muscle not regularly stimulated by a motor neuron will lose muscle tone and mass and become weak (it will atrophy). While his leg was immobilized, it did not receive sufficient stimulation to maintain proper muscle tone. It will take a while for Bill's muscles to regain enough strength to support his weight.

Why would a sprinter experience muscle fatigue before a marathon runner would?

A sprinter requires large amounts of energy for a short burst of activity. To supply this energy, the sprinter's muscles rely on anaerobic metabolism. Anaerobic metabolism is less efficient in producing energy than aerobic metabolism, and the process also produces acidic wastes; this combination contributes to muscle fatigue. Conversely, marathon runners derive most of their energy from aerobic metabolism, which is more efficient and produces fewer wastes than anaerobic metabolism does.

Cross bridge detachment is caused by ________ binding to the myosin head. calcium acetylcholine magnesium acetylcholinesterase ATP

ATP

What forms of energy reserves do resting skeletal muscle fibers contain?

ATP, creatine phosphate, and glycogen.

How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine release affect muscle contraction?

Acetylcholine (ACh) release from the axon terminal is necessary for skeletal muscle contraction, because it serves as the first step in the process that leads to the formation of cross-bridges in the sarcomeres. A muscle's ability to contract depends on the formation of cross-bridges between the myosin heads and actin myofilaments. A drug that blocks ACh release would interfere with this cross-bridge formation and prevent muscle contraction.

Which activity would be more likely to create an oxygen debt: swimming laps or lifting weights?

Activities that require short periods of strenuous activity produce a greater oxygen debt, because such activities rely heavily on energy production by anaerobic metabolism. Because lifting weights is more strenuous over the short term than swimming laps, which is an aerobic activity, weight lifting would likely produce a greater oxygen debt than would swimming laps.

Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include______. strong muscular padding. almost complete bony socket. supporting ligaments. tough capsule. All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

Joints can be classified structurally as_____. fibrous. cartilaginous. synovial.bony. All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged? Friction in the joint increases. Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue. The matrix begins to break down. The exposed surface appears rough. All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group? vastus lateralis vastus intermedius vastus medialis rectus femoris All of the answers are correct.

All of the answers are correct.

What feature (or features) allows the bony thoracic cage to increase or decrease its volume during breathing? attachments of the intercostal muscles. articulation of ribs with vertebrae. articulation of ribs with sternum. All of the listed responses are correct.

All of the listed responses are correct.

What can the nervous system do to increase muscle tension? recruit larger motor units increase the number of active motor units increase stimulation frequency All of the listed responses can increase muscle tension.

All of the listed responses can increase muscle tension.

Which organ system functions to rid the body of the waste products generated by exercising muscles? respiratory integumentary cardiovascular All the listed responses are correct.

All the listed responses are correct.

What is an aponeurosis? Give two examples.

An aponeurosis is a collagenous sheet connecting two muscles. The epicranial aponeurosis and the linea alba are examples.

Define arthritis.

Arthritis applies to all the rheumatic diseases that affect synovial joints.

How do articular cartilages differ from other cartilages in the body?

Articular cartilages lack a perichondrium, and their matrix contains more water than does the matrix of other cartilages.

Why is it difficult to lift a heavy object when the elbow is at full extension?

As you increase the angle at or near full extension, tension production decreases,

Describe the location and general functions of axial muscles.

Axial muscles arise on the axial skeleton. They position the head and vertebral column, move the rib cage, and form the pelvic floor.

Many potent insecticides contain toxins, called organophosphates, that interfere with the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. Ivan is using an insecticide containing organophosphates and is very careless. Because he does not use gloves or a dust mask, he absorbs some of the chemical through his skin and inhales a large amount as well. What signs would you expect to observe in Ivan as a result of organophosphate poisoning?

Because organophosphates block the action of acetylcholinesterase (AChE), ACh released into the synaptic cleft would not be removed. It would continue to stimulate the motor end plate, causing a state of persistent contraction (spastic paralysis). If the muscles of respiration were affected (which is likely), Ivan would die of suffocation. Prior to death, the most obvious sign would be uncontrolled tetanic contractions of skeletal muscles.

How would severing the tendon attached to a muscle affect the muscle's ability to move a body part?

Because tendons attach muscles to bones, severing the tendon would disconnect the muscle from the bone, and so the muscle could not move a body part.

What purpose does a fontanelle serve?

Because they are not ossified at birth, fontanelles permit the skull to change shape during childbirth, and they allow for enlargement of the brain during infancy and early childhood.

________ are nearly identical cells that are produced by early cleavages. Gastrulas Blastulas Amnions Morulas Blastomeres

Blastomeres

what sort of information could the bones reveal?

Bones can reveal information about a person's sex, age, muscular development, nutritional state, handedness, and occupation, plus other information relative to the medical history.

What characteristics do typical synarthrotic and amphiarthrotic joints share?

Both consist of bony regions separated by fibrocartilage or cartilaginous connective tissue.

What two factors affect the amount of tension produced when a skeletal muscle contracts?

Both the frequency of motor unit stimulation and the number of motor units involved

Uterine contractions that are irregular and brief that occur toward the end of gestation are called________. expulsion. Braxton-Hicks. parturition. true labor. dilation.

Braxton-Hicks.

Linda's father suffers an apparent heart attack and is rushed to the emergency room of the local hospital. The doctor on call tells her that he has ordered some blood work and that he will be able to tell if her father actually had a heart attack by looking at the blood levels of CK and cardiac troponin. Why would knowing the level of CK and cardiac troponin help to indicate if a person suffered a heart attack?

CK is the enzyme creatine kinase. It functions in the anaerobic reaction that transfers phosphate from creatine phosphate to ADP in muscle cells. The presence of cardiac troponin, a form found only in cardiac muscle cells, provides direct evidence that cardiac muscle cells have been severely damaged.

What feature of cardiac muscle tissue allows the heart to act as a functional syncytium?

Cardiac muscle cells are joined by gap junctions, which allow ions and small molecules to flow directly between cells. As a result, action potentials generated in one cell spread rapidly to adjacent cells. Thus, all the cells contract simultaneously, as if they were a single unit (a syncytium).

Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells? Cardiac muscle cells does not have striations like skeletal muscle cells. Cardiac muscle cells does not have t-tubules. Cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres. Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not. Cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells.

Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not.

Joe injures his knee during a football practice such that the synovial fluid in the knee joint no longer circulates normally. The physician who examines him tells him that they have to reestablish circulation of the synovial fluid before the articular cartilages become damaged. Why?

Cartilage does not contain blood vessels, so the chondrocytes rely on diffusion to gain nutrients and eliminate wastes. The synovial fluid is very important in supplying nutrients to the articular cartilages that it bathes and in removing wastes. If the circulation of the synovial fluid is impaired or stopped, the cells will not get enough nutrients or be able to get rid of their waste products. This combination of factors can lead to the death of the chondrocytes and the breakdown of the cartilage.

What is the difference between colostrum and breast milk?

Colostrum is produced by the mammary glands from the end of the sixth month of pregnancy until a few days after birth. After that, the glands begin producing breast milk, which contains fewer proteins (including antibodies) and far more fat than colostrum.

Compare and contrast skeletal muscle tissue and cardiac muscle tissue.

Compared to skeletal muscle tissue, cardiac muscle tissue (1) has relatively small cells; (2) has cells with a centrally located nucleus (some may contain two or more nuclei); (3) has T tubules that are short and broad and do not form triads; (4) has an SR that lacks terminal cisternae and has tubules that contact the plasma membrane as well as the T tubules; (5) has cells that are nearly totally dependent on aerobic metabolism as an energy source; and (6) contains intercalated discs that assist in stabilizing tissue structure and spreading action potentials.

Describe the components of a synovial joint, and identify the functions of each.

Components include a joint capsule (articular capsule), articular cartilages, synovial fluid, and various accessory structures (menisci, fat pads, ligaments, tendons, and bursae). Synovial joints are freely movable joints that have a joint (synovial) cavity, which is the space between the articulating surfaces of two bones in a joint. The fibrous joint capsule surrounds the joint, and a synovial membrane, which secretes synovial fluid, lines the walls of the joint cavity. synovial fluid lubricates, distributes nutrients, and absorbs shocks. Menisci are pads of fibrocartilage that allow for variation in the shapes of the articulating surfaces. Fat pads protect the cartilages. Ligaments are cords of fibrous tissue that support, strengthen, and reinforce the joint. Tendons passing across or around the joint limit the range of motion and provide mechanical support

If you were contracting and relaxing your masseter muscle, what would you probably be doing?

Contracting the masseter elevates the mandible, and relaxing this muscle depresses the mandible. You would probably be chewing something.

________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on stimulation. Circular Convergent Straight Pennate Parallel

Convergent

Damage to the external intercostal muscles would interfere with what important process?

Damage to the intercostal muscles would interfere with breathing.

What event marks the onset of development?

Development begins at fertilization (conception), the union of a male gamete (a sperm) and a female gamete (oocyte).

Describe false ribs.

False ribs (ribs 8-12) are the five lower ribs on either side that do not articulate with the sternum directly.

Which movements are associated with hinge joints?

Flexion and extension are the movements associated with hinge joints.

Give the biological terms for fraternal twins and identical twins.

Fraternal twins are dizygotic twins, and identical twins are monozygotic twins.

Explain how fetal size is measured between weeks 8 and 20 and between week 20 and birth.

From 8 weeks to about 20 weeks, the fetus is measured from crown to rump. From 20 weeks to birth, the baby is measured from crown to heel.

Harold, a former boxer, complains of tingling and numbness in the external, anterior portion of his left lower jaw. Before confirming with further tests, the most obvious diagnosis is that __________. Harold has potential blockage of the mental foramen that impinges on the chin nerves. Harold suffers from osteoporosis. Harold's jaw is unaligned at the temporomandibular joint. Harold has loose teeth and strained gums resulting in loss of dental integrity.

Harold has potential blockage of the mental foramen that impinges on the chin nerves

The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the________. H band. Z line. A band. M line. I band.

I band.

Differentiate between immature delivery and premature delivery.

Immature delivery is the birth of a fetus weighing at least 500 g (17.6 oz), which is the normal weight near the end of the second trimester. Premature delivery usually refers to birth at 28-36 weeks at a weight of more than 1 kg (2.2 lb).

Improper administration of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can result in a fracture of which bones?

Improper compression of the chest during CPR can—and commonly does—result in a fracture of the xiphoid process of the sternum or the ribs.

Improper development of which of the extra-embryonic membranes would affect the cardiovascular system?

Improper development of the yolk sac—the mesoderm-derived structure that gives rise to blood vessels and is an important site of blood cell formation—would affect the development and function of the cardiovascular system.

Differentiate between a bulging disc and a herniated disc.

In a bulging disc, the nucleus pulposus does not extrude. In a herniated disc, the nucleus pulposus breaks through the annulus fibrosus.

Why does a convergent muscle exhibit more versatility when contracting than does a parallel muscle?

In a convergent muscle, the direction of pull can be changed by stimulating only one group of muscle cells at any one time. because the muscle fibers on opposite sides of the tendon are pulling in different directions rather than working together.

Compare and contrast the bones of males and females with respect to weight and bone markings.

In general, the bones of males tend to be heavier than those of females, and bone markings are more prominent in males than in females.

Why would a person suffering from osteoporosis be more likely to suffer a hip fracture than a broken shoulder?

In osteoporosis, a decrease in the calcium content of the bones leads to bones that are weak and brittle. Hip fractures involve the femur, not the hip bones. Because the hip joint must help support the body's weight, any weakening of the femoral bones may result in their breaking under the weight of the body. The shoulder, by contrast, is not a load-bearing joint and is not subject to the same great stresses or strong muscle contractions as the hip joint. As a result, it is less likely to become broken.

An injury to the flexor carpi ulnaris would impair which two movements?

Injury to the flexor carpi ulnaris would impair your ability to flex and adduct the wrist.

Which leg movement would be impaired by injury to the obturator?

Injury to the obturator would impair your ability to laterally rotate the hip.

What types of cells in the testes are responsible for functions related to reproductive activity? What are the functions of each cell type?

Interstitial endocrine cells (Leydig cells) produce male sex hormones (androgens), the most important of which is testosterone; nurse cells maintain the blood testis barrier, support spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis, and secrete inhibin, and androgen-binding protein.

Why is "clergyman's knee" (a type of bursitis) common among carpet layers and roofers?

Like members of the clergy, carpet layers and roofers kneel a lot (and they also slide along on their knees), causing inflammation of the bursae in the knee joint.

Which of the following is not true of acetylcholine? It diffuses across the synaptic cleft. It is digested by acetylcholinesterase. It binds to receptor membrane channels. It is stored in the neuron in vesicles. It enters the muscle fiber to release calcium form the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

It enters the muscle fiber to release calcium form the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Brianna gives birth to a baby with a congenital deformity of the stomach. Sally believes that her baby's affliction is the result of a viral infection she suffered during her third trimester. Is this a possibility? Explain.

It is very unlikely that the baby's condition results from a viral infection contracted during the third trimester, because organ systems develop during the first trimester and are fully formed by the end of the second trimester.

How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle? It would have little effect on skeletal muscles. It would produce muscle weakness. It would cause muscles to stay relaxed. It would make the muscles less excitable. It would cause muscles to stay contracted.

It would cause muscles to stay contracted.

While jumping off the back steps at his house, 10-yearold Joey lands on his right heel and breaks his foot. Which foot bone is most likely broken?

Joey has most likely fractured the calcaneus (heel bone).

Which tissues or structures provide most of the stability for the shoulder joint?

Ligaments and muscles provide most of the stability for the shoulder joint.

How does the aging process affect the reproductive systems of men and women?

Men aged 50-60 experience the male climacteric, a time when circulating testosterone levels begin to decline and circulating levels of FSH and LH rise. Women ages 45-55 experience menopause—the time that ovulation and menstruation cease, accompanied by a sharp and sustained rise in the production of GnRH, FSH, and LH and a drop in the concentrations of circulating estrogen and progesterone.

Joe and Jane desperately want to have children, and although they have tried for 2 years, they have not been successful. Finally, each of them consults a physician, and it turns out that Joe suffers from oligospermia (a low sperm count). He confides to you that he doesn't understand why this would interfere with his ability to have children since he remembers from biology class that it only takes one sperm to fertilize an egg. What would you tell him?

Most sperm that enter the female reproductive tract are killed or disabled before they reach the uterus. Many of the sperm reaching the uterus are incapable of reaching the secondary oocyte. Once at the oocyte, the sperm must penetrate the corona radiata, which requires the combined acrosomal enzymes of dozens of sperm. If too few sperm are present in the vagina, the number reaching the uterine tube is too low for any one sperm to penetrate the corona radiata.

Describe muscle fatigue.

Muscle fatigue is a muscle's reduced ability to contract due to low pH (hydrogen ion buildup), low ATP levels, or other problems.

How do muscle fibers continuously synthesize ATP?

Muscle fibers synthesize ATP continuously by utilizing creatine phosphate (CP) and metabolizing glycogen and fatty acids. Most cells generate ATP only through aerobic metabolism in the mitochondria and through glycolysis in the cytosol.

Identify the common properties shared by muscle tissues.

Muscle tissues share the common properties of excitability (the ability to receive and respond to a stimulus), contractility (the ability of a muscle cell to shorten when it is stimulated), extensibility (stretching movement of a muscle), and elasticity (the ability of a muscle to recoil to its resting length).

Muscle A abducts the humerus, and muscle B adducts the humerus. What is the relationship between these two muscles?

Muscles A and B are antagonists to each other, because they perform opposite actions.

Identify the kinds of descriptive information used to name skeletal muscles.

Names of skeletal muscles are based on several factors, including region of the body; position, direction, or fascicle arrangement; origin and insertion; shape and size; and action.

Explain why there must be a balance between osteoclast activity and osteoblast activity.

Osteoblast activity must equal osteoclast activity or else the integrity of bone structure is compromised.

Define oxygen debt.

Oxygen debt is the amount of oxygen required to restore normal, preexertion conditions in muscle tissue.

________ is the medical specialty that focuses on postnatal development from infancy to adolescence. Obstetrics Pediatrics Geriatrics Psychiatrics Orthopedics

Pediatrics

Describe the interaction between the reproductive system and the skeletal system.

Pelvic bones protect reproductive organs in females and portions of the ductus deferens and accessory glands in males; sex hormones stimulate growth and maintenance of bones, and accelerate growth and closure of epiphyseal cartilages at puberty.

Which type of muscle fibers would you expect to predominate in the leg muscles of someone who excels at endurance activities, such as cycling or long-distance running?

People who excel at endurance activities have a higher than normal percentage of slow fibers. Slow fibers are physiologically better adapted to this type of activity than are fast fibers, which are less vascular and fatigue faster.

Which of these is NOT a function of the pectoral girdle? Position the shoulder joint. Anchor muscles. Assist movements of the upper limb. Protect the thorax.

Protect the thorax.

Describe the components of a sarcomere.

Sarcomeres, the smallest contractile units of a striated muscle cell, are segments of myofibrils. Each sarcomere has a dark A band and light I bands. The A band contains the M line, the H band, and the zone of overlap. Each I band contains thin filaments, but not thick filaments. Z lines bisect the I bands and mark the boundaries between adjacent sarcomeres.

Identify the primary functions of skeletal muscle.

Skeletal muscles produce skeletal movement, maintain posture and body position, support soft tissues, guard body entrances and exits, maintain body temperature, and store nutrients.

Identify the structural characteristics of smooth muscle tissue.

Smooth muscle cells lack sarcomeres, and thus smooth muscle tissue is nonstriated. Additionally, the thin filaments are anchored to dense bodies.

Why can swallowing help alleviate the pressure sensations at the eardrum when you are in an airplane that is changing altitude?

Swallowing involves contractions of the palatal muscles, which elevate the soft palate as well as portions of the superior pharyngeal wall. Elevation of the superior portion of the pharynx enlarges the opening to the auditory tube, permitting airflow to the middle ear and the inside of the eardrum. Making this opening larger by swallowing facilitates airflow into or out of the middle ear cavity.

Terry suffers an injury to his forearm and elbow. After the injury, he notices an unusually large degree of motion between the radius and the ulna at the elbow. Which ligament did Terry most likely damage?

Terry has most likely damaged his annular ligament.

Identify the facial bones.

The 14 facial bones include 2 inferior nasal conchae, 2 lacrimal bones, 1 mandible, 2 maxillae (maxillary bones), 2 nasal bones, 2 palatine bones, 1 vomer, and 2 zygomatic bones.

Identify the bones of the axial skeleton.

The axial skeleton includes the skull (8 cranial bones and 14 facial bones), the bones associated with the skull (6 auditory ossicles and the hyoid bone), the thoracic cage (the sternum and 24 ribs), and the vertebral column (24 vertebrae, the sacrum, and the coccyx).

List the primary functions of the axial skeleton.

The axial skeleton serves as a framework that supports and protects organs, provides an extensive surface area for muscle attachment, and stabilizes and positions parts of the appendicular skeleton that support the limbs.

Joe suffered a hairline fracture (fracture without separation of the fragments) at the base of the dens. Which bone is fractured, and where is it located?

The axis is fractured. The dens is a tooth-like process projecting upward from the body of the axis, or second cervical vertebra, which is located in the neck (cervical region).

Why are the bodies of the lumbar vertebrae larger than those of the cervical and thoracic vertebrae?

The bodies of the lumbar vertebrae are larger because they must support a great deal more weight than do vertebrae that are more superior in the spinal column. The larger vertebral bodies allow the weight to be distributed over a larger area.

Which facial muscle is well developed in a professional trumpet player?

The buccinator, which positions the mouth for blowing, is well developed in a trumpet player.

How would a broken clavicle affect the mobility of the scapula?

The clavicle attaches the scapula to the sternum, and restricts the scapula's range of motion (mobility). When the clavicle is broken, the scapula has a greater than normal range of motion and is less stable.

Describe the three connective tissue layers associated with skeletal muscle tissue.

The epimysium is a dense layer of collagen fibers that surrounds the entire muscle; the perimysium divides the skeletal muscle into a series of compartments, each containing a bundle of muscle fibers called a fascicle; and the endomysium surrounds individual skeletal muscle cells (muscle fibers). The collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium come together to form either bundles known as tendons, or broad sheets called aponeuroses. Tendons and aponeuroses generally attach skeletal muscles to bones.

What is the relationship between the ethmoid and the nasal cavity?

The ethmoid forms the superior surface of the nasal cavity. The olfactory foramina within the cribriform plate of the ethmoid allow neurons associated with the sense of smell to extend into the nasal cavity.

List the factors involved in initiating labor contractions.

The fetal pituitary secretes oxytocin, which is released into the maternal bloodstream at the placenta. This release may be the trigger for the onset of true labor.

In addition to the spinal curves, what skeletal element contributes to the flexibility of the vertebral column?

The fibrocartilage discs between adjacent vertebrae make the vertebral column more flexible.

Bill accidentally fractures his first distal phalanx with a hammer. Which finger is broken?

The first distal phalanx is located at the tip of the pollex (thumb), so Bill's thumb is broken.

Characterize the key features of each trimester.

The first trimester is the time of pre-embryonic, embryonic, and early fetal development. The second trimester is a time of organ and organ system development. By the end of this stage, the fetus appears distinctly human. The third trimester is characterized by rapid fetal growth and the deposition of adipose tissue.

Name the foramina found in the ethmoid bone.

The foramina in the ethmoid are the olfactory foramina.

What structure in a sexually indifferent embryo may develop into a penis or clitoris and what hormone is involved in that development?

The genital tubercle of a sexually indifferent embryo will develop into a penis in the presence of testosterone or a clitoris without testosterone.

Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity?

The head of the humerus articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity.

Summarize the roles of the hormones in the ovarian and uterine cycles.

The hypothalamic secretion of GnRH triggers the pituitary secretion of FSH and LH. FSH initiates follicular development, and activated follicles and ovarian thecal endocrine cells produce estrogens. High estrogen levels stimulate LH secretion and increase anterior pituitary lobe sensitivity to GnRH, causing the release of LH. Progesterone is the main hormone of the luteal phase.

Why can smooth muscle contract over a wider range of resting lengths than skeletal muscle can?

The looser organization of actin and myosin filaments in smooth muscle allows smooth muscle to contract over a wider range of resting lengths than skeletal muscle.

Identify the bone containing the mental foramen, and list the structures using this passageway.

The mental foramen is found in the mandible. Structures passing through this opening include the mental nerve, which carries sensory information to the brain, and mental vessels, which supply the chin and lips.

Baseball pitchers sometimes suffer from rotator cuff injuries. Which muscles are involved in this type of injury?

The muscles involved in a rotator cuff injury are the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis (SITS).

What major function does the muscular system perform for the body as a whole?

The muscular system generates heat that maintains normal body temperature.

Describe the histology of the uterine wall.

The myometrium is the middle, muscular layer of the uterine wall; the endometrium is the inner, glandular layer; and the perimetrium is an incomplete outer serosal layer.

Describe the time frame for each of the following stages: neonatal period, infancy, and adolescence.

The neonatal period is the time from birth to 1 month. Infancy continues from the neonatal period to age 1. Adolescence is the period after childhood in which sexual and physical maturity occur.

Describe the neuromuscular junction.

The neuromuscular junction, is the synapse between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle cell (fiber). This connection enables communication between the nervous system and a skeletal muscle fiber.

Identify the bone containing the optic canal, and cite the structures using this passageway.

The optic canal is found in the sphenoid. The optic nerve and ophthalmic artery pass through this structure.

The gracilis attaches to the anterior surface of the tibia at one end, and to the pubis and ischium of the pelvis at the other. When the muscle contracts, flexion occurs at the hip. Which attachment point is considered the muscle's origin?

The origin of a muscle is the end that is less movable. Because the gracilis moves the tibia, the origin of this muscle must be on the pelvis (pubis and ischium).

What is the difference in skeletal structure between the pelvic girdle and the pelvis?

The pelvic girdle consists of the two hip bones (coxal bones or pelvic bones). The pelvis is a composite structure; it consists of the two hip bones of the appendicular skeleton and the sacrum and coccyx of the axial skeleton.

What is the relationship between the temporal bone and the ear?

The petrous part of the temporal bone encloses the structures of the internal ear. The middle ear is located in the tympanic cavity within the petrous part. The external acoustic meatus (auditory canal) ends at the tympanic membrane (eardrum), which leads into the middle ear. Mastoid air cells within the mastoid process are connected to the tympanic cavity.

Tongue rolling is an autosomal dominant trait. What would be the phenotype of a person who is heterozygous for this trait?

The phenotype of a person who is heterozygous for tongue rolling—who has one dominant allele for tongue-rolling and one recessive allele for non-tongue-rolling— would be "tongue roller."

Examining a human vertebra, you notice that, in addition to the large foramen for the spinal cord, two smaller foramina are on either side of the bone in the region of the transverse processes. From which region of the vertebral column is this vertebra?

The presence of transverse foramina indicates that this vertebra is from the cervical region of the vertebral column. These foramina are passageways for important blood vessels that supply the brain.

Hemophilia A, a condition in which blood does not clot properly, is a recessive trait located on the X chromosome (Xh). Suppose that a woman who is heterozygous for this trait (XXh) has children with a normal male (XY). What is the probability that the couple will have daughters with hemophilia? What is the probability that the couple will have sons with hemophilia?

The probability that this couple's daughters will have hemophilia is 0, because each daughter will receive a normal allele from her father. There is a 50 percent chance that a son will have hemophilia, because each son has a 50 percent chance of receiving the mother's normal allele and a 50 percent chance of receiving the mother's recessive allele.

While playing tennis, Dave "turns his ankle." He experiences swelling and pain. After being examined, he is told that he has no ruptured ligaments and that the structure of the ankle is not affected. On the basis of the signs and symptoms and the examination results, what happened to Dave's ankle?

The problem is probably a sprained ankle. The ligaments have been damaged but not ruptured, and the joint remains unaffected.

Using the terms lateral and medial, describe the relationship between the forearm bones when a person is in the anatomical position.

The radius is lateral to the ulna while in the anatomical position; or the ulna is medial to the radius while in the anatomical position.

Describe how movement of the ribs functions in breathing.

The ribs raise and lower to increase and decrease the volume of the thoracic cage. When they rise, the thoracic cage expands and we breathe in. When the ribs are lowered to their original position, the volume of the thoracic cage decreases and we breathe out.

What is the importance of the secondary curves of the spine?

The secondary curves of the spine allow us to balance our body weight on our lower limbs with minimal muscular effort. Without the secondary curves, we would not be able to stand upright for extended periods.

Describe the functional relationship between the skeletal system and the integumentary system.

The skeletal system provides structural support for all the body systems and stores energy, calcium, phosphate. The integumentary system synthesizes vitamin D3, which is essential for calcium and phosphate absorption. Calcium and phosphorus are needed for bone growth and maintenance.

Why is the tibia, but not the fibula, involved in the transfer of weight to the ankle and foot?

The slender fibula parallels the tibia of the leg and provides an important site for muscle attachment. It does not help in transferring weight to the ankle and foot because it is excluded from the knee joint.

Identify the bones containing the paranasal sinuses.

The sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, and paired palatine and maxillary bones contain the paranasal sinuses.

On which bones do the four rotator cuff muscles originate and insert?

The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor originate on the posterior body of the scapula, and the subscapularis originates on the anterior body of the scapula. All four muscles insert on the humerus.

Which foot bone transfers the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes?

The talus transfers the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes.

Identify the three types of muscle tissue and cite their major functions.

The three types of muscle tissue are skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. Skeletal muscle tissue moves the body by pulling on our bones, cardiac muscle tissue pumps blood through the cardiovascular system, and smooth muscle tissue pushes fluids and solids along the digestive tract and other internal organs, and regulates the diameters of small arteries.

Identify the three types of skeletal muscle fibers.

The three types of skeletal muscle fibers are (1) fast fibers (also called white muscle fibers, fast-twitch glycolytic fibers, Type II-B fibers, and fast fatigue fibers); (2) slow fibers (also called red muscle fibers, slowtwitch oxidative fibers, Type I fibers, and slow oxidative fibers); and (3) intermediate fibers (also called fast-twitch oxidative fibers, Type II-A fibers, and fast resistant fibers).

How does cardiac muscle tissue contract without neural stimulation?

The timing of cardiac muscle contractions is determined by specialized cardiac muscle fibers called pacemaker cells; this property of cardiac muscle tissue is termed automaticity.

What structural feature of a skeletal muscle fiber propagates action potentials into the interior of the cell?

The transverse (T) tubules

The rounded projections on either side of the elbow are parts of which bone?

The two rounded projections on either side of the elbow are the lateral and medial epicondyles of the humerus.

What type of joint only permits slight movements?

The type of joint that only permits slight movements is an amphiarthrosis

In a newborn, the large bones of the skull are joined by fibrous connective tissue. The bones later grow, interlock, and form immovable joints. Structurally, which type of joints are these?

These are fibrous joints known as sutures.

The soleus muscle is very red in color. Which of these statements about soleus muscle fibers is FALSE? They are large in diameter. They have a slow twitch speed. They are slow to fatigue. They are rich in myoglobin.

They are large in diameter.

What are the main differences between true ribs and floating ribs?

True ribs (ribs 1-7) attach directly to the sternum by separate costal cartilages; floating ribs (ribs 11-12) are the two lower ribs on either side that are not attached anteriorly to the sternum.

In a condition known as endometriosis, endometrial cells are believed to migrate from the body of the uterus into the uterine tubes or by way of the uterine tubes into the peritoneal cavity, where they become established. A major symptom of endometriosis is periodic pain. Why does such pain occur?

Under the influence of estrogen at the beginning of the menstrual cycle, any endometrial cells in the peritoneal cavity proliferate and begin to develop glands and blood vessels, which then further develop under the control of progesterone. The dramatic increase in size of this tissue presses on neighboring abdominal tissues and organs, causing periodic painful sensations.

Describe the changes that occur in the oocyte immediately after fertilization.

When a sperm contacts the secondary oocyte, their plasma membranes fuse. The oocyte is then activated: Its metabolic rate rises; it completes meiosis II; and the cortical reaction prevents additional sperm from entering. The male and female pronuclei replicate their DNA, fuse (amphimixis), and the zygote begins preparing for the first cleavage division.

Which types of movements are affected when the hamstrings are injured?

When the hamstrings are injured, flexion at the knee and extension at the hip are affected.

While unloading her car trunk, Amy strains a muscle and as a result has difficulty moving her arm. The doctor in the emergency room tells her that she strained her pectoralis major. Amy tells you that she thought the pectoralis major was a chest muscle and doesn't understand what that has to do with her arm. What should you tell her?

When the pectoralis contracts, it contributes to flexion, adduction, and medial rotation of the humerus at the shoulder joint. All of these arm movements would be impaired if the muscle were damaged.

Predict what would happen to a muscle if the motor end plate lacked acetylcholinesterase (AChE).

Without acetylcholinesterase (AChE), the motor end plate would be stimulated continuously by acetylcholine, locking the muscle in a state of contraction.

Diane has peritonitis (an inflammation of the peritoneum), which her physician says resulted from a urinary tract infection. Why might this condition occur more readily in females than in males?

Women more frequently experience peritonitis stemming from a urinary tract infection because infectious organisms exiting the urethral orifice can readily enter the nearby vagina.

Sue's pregnancy test indicates an elevated level of the hormone hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin). Explain whether she is pregnant or not.

Yes, Sue is pregnant. After fertilization, the developing trophoblast (and later, the placenta) produce and release the hormone hCG.

Can a skeletal muscle contract without shortening? Explain.

Yes, a skeletal muscle can contract without shortening. The muscle can shorten (isotonic concentric contraction), elongate (isotonic eccentric contraction), or remain the same length (isometric contraction), depending on the relationship between the load (resistance) and the tension produced by actin-myosin interactions.

The spermatic cord is________ a layer of smooth muscle in the skin of the scrotal sac. the external marking of the boundary between the two chambers of the scrotum. a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis. a dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis. a narrow opening that links the scrotal chamber with the peritoneal cavity.

a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis.

Which type of fascicle arrangement would you expect in a muscle guarding the anal opening between the large intestine and the exterior?

a circular muscle, or sphincter. The concentric circles of muscle fibers found in sphincters are ideally suited for opening and closing passageways and for acting as valves in the body.

Name the bones of the pectoral girdles.

a clavicle (collarbone) and a scapula (shoulder blade)

The hormonal change most responsible for the tissue changes seen in menopause is _________. a decrease in L Han decrease in FSH an increase in progesterone a decrease in estrogen

a decrease in estrogen

At about age 50 to 60, men commonly experience __________. a rise in both testosterone and LH a drop in both testosterone and LH increasing levels of testosterone a drop in testosterone but a rise in LH

a drop in testosterone but a rise in LH

The joint between the occipital bone of the skull and the first cervical vertebra (atlas) is a part of which class of lever?

a first-class lever system. The joint between the two bones (the fulcrum) lies between the skull (which provides the load) and the neck muscles (which provide the applied force).

Define gamete.

a functional male or female reproductive cell.

Define heterozygous

a genotype possessing two different alleles at corresponding sites of a chromosome pair. For a heterozygous trait, one or both of the alleles determines the individual's phenotype.

While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch. Which of the following complaints would you expect her to have? a headache a black eye a sore chest a sore jaw a sore back

a headache

Define the term synergist as it relates to muscle action.

a muscle that helps a larger prime mover (or agonist—a muscle that is responsible for a specific movement) perform its actions more efficiently.

Polyspermy results in_______. a nonfunctional zygote. fetuses with different fathers. chimeric adults. haploid individuals. twins.

a nonfunctional zygote.

The flava ligament is________. a paired ligament that connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae. a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies. a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae. a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum. a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.

a paired ligament that connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.

A movement away from the midline of the body is called______. abduction. extension. adduction. inversion. flexion.

abduction.

After fertilization, the first cell division is completed_______-. in 12 hours .about 6 hours later. about 30 hours later. within the hour. within a few seconds.

about 30 hours later.

The ________ of a sperm contains the enzymes essential for fertilization. flagellum acrosome nucleus nucleosome neck

acrosome

The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after contraction is_________. active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. diffusion of calcium out of the cell. active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma. active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft. diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

In ________, a sample of amniotic fluid is removed and the fetal cells it contains are analyzed. paracentesis thoracentesis chorionic villus sampling amniosis amniocentesis

amniocentesis

How is the female pelvis adapted for childbearing?

adapted for supporting the weight of the developing fetus and enabling its passage through the pelvic outlet during delivery. include an enlarged pelvic outlet, a sacrum and coccyx with less curvature, a pelvic inlet that is wider and more circular, a relatively broad shape, ilia that project farther laterally, and an inferior angle between the pubic bones that is greater than 100 degrees (as opposed to 90 degrees or less for males).

The term ________ is used to describe an injury caused by displacement of the cervical vertebrae during a sudden change in body position. rearrangement whiplash adjustment remodel fracture

adjustment

The alternate forms of any one gene are called________-. alleles. homozygous. heterozygous. autosomes. homologous.

alleles.

A space opens within the inner cell mass that will form the______________. chorion. blastocoele. allantois. amniotic cavity. lacunae.

amniotic cavity.

What is the male climacteric?

andropause, is a period of declining reproductive function in men, typically between the ages of 50 and 60.

A type of muscle whose action opposes that of another muscle is called a(n)______. agonist. prime mover. fixator. synergist. antagonist.

antagonist.

The bones of the forearm, or ________, consist of the radius and ulna. antecubital region brachium cubital region antebrachium olecranon region

antebrachium

While you're visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is_______. sphenoidal fontanelle. cushion spot. anterior fontanelle. mastoid fontanelle. occipital fontanelle.

anterior fontanelle.

A(n) ________ can be described as a broad tendinous sheet. fasciae interstitium retinaculum aponeurosis tympanum

aponeurosis

Why would improper circulation of synovial fluid lead to the degeneration of articular cartilages in the affected joint?

articular cartilages are avascular (lack a blood supply), they rely on synovial fluid to supply nutrients and eliminate wastes. Impairing the circulation of synovial fluid would have the same effect as impairing a tissue's blood supply: Nutrients would not be delivered to meet the tissue's needs, and wastes would accumulate

The ability to nod "yes" is due to the articulation of which two bones? atlas and C3 axis and occipital atlas and axis atlas and occipital axis and C3

atlas and occipital

A boy has a genetic mutation such that FSH is not produced, but LH is normal. After the boy grows to maturity, it is likely he will_________. be sterile. have impaired function of the interstitial endocrine cells. not develop secondary sex characteristics. produce large amounts of inhibin.be impotent.

be sterile.

Why does a pennate muscle generate more tension than does a parallel muscle of the same size?

because a pennate muscle contains more muscle fibers, and thus more myofibrils and sarcomeres, than does a parallel muscle of the same size.

The muscles of the vertebral column include many posterior extensors but few anterior flexors. Why?

because many of the large trunk muscles flex the vertebral column when they contract. most of the body weight lies anterior to the vertebral column, and gravity tends to flex the intervertebral joints

Which of the following are members of the hamstring group? biceps femoris and rectus femoris gluteus maximus and rectus femoris biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius adductor longus and adductor magnus

biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus

The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves_________. adduction. abduction. extension. flexion. both flexion and extension.

both flexion and extension.

List the physiological events of sexual intercourse in both sexes, and indicate those that occur in males but not in females.

both sexes are arousal, erection, lubrication, orgasm, and resolution. Emission and ejaculation are additional phases that occur only in males.

The surface of articular cartilage is______. flat. smooth. slick. rough. both slick and smooth.

both slick and smooth.

Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae? atlas axis vertebra prominens both the atlas and the axis both the atlas and the vertebra prominens

both the atlas and the axis

The leading cause of death in women between the ages of 35-45 is__________. uterine cancer. breast cancer. fibrocystic disease. ovarian cancer. cervical cancer.

breast cancer.

The small paired structures at the base of the penis that secrete a thick, alkaline mucus are the______. Bartholin glands. bulbo-urethral glands. seminal vesicles. preputial glands. prostate glands.

bulbo-urethral glands.

Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called_______. lacunae. fat pads. bursae. fasciae. menisci.

bursae.

The Achilles tendon attaches to the __________. calcaneus cuboid talus navicular

calcaneus

What is the calcium-binding protein in smooth muscle tissue?

calmodulin.

Smooth muscle contracts when calcium binds to __________ and activates __________. troponin; myosin light chain kinase troponin; tropomyosin calmodulin; myosin light chain kinase calmodulin; actin

calmodulin; myosin light chain kinase

Identify the physiological effects of exercise on the cardiovascular, respiratory, and integumentary systems, and indicate the relationship between those physiological effects and the nervous and endocrine systems.

cardiovascular system by increasing heart rate and dilating blood vessels. the rate and depth of breathing increases, and sweat gland secretion increases. The physiological effects that result from exercise are directed and coordinated by the nervous and endocrine systems.

The ________ allow for a wide range of head movements. intervertebral discs hyoid bones occipital condyles temporomandibular joints cervical vertebrae

cervical vertebrae

The Pap smear looks for abnormal cytology of the_________. vagina. cervix. uterus. uterine tube. ovary.

cervix.

A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in________. blowing. kissing. chewing. frowning. spitting.

chewing.

Identify the incorrect pair. gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone chondrosis; freely moving joint synarthrosis; immovable joint amphiarthrosis; slightly movable joint They are all correct; there is no incorrect pair.

chondrosis; freely moving joint

An individual's karyotype shows trisomy 21. This is an example of a_________. recombination error. teratogen. translocation. chromosomal abnormality. mutation.

chromosomal abnormality.

Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles. circular pennate bipennate parallel convergent

circular

Why does the level of FSH increase and remain high during menopause?

circulating estrogen levels begin to decrease. Estrogen has an inhibitory effect on FSH (and on GnRH). As the level of estrogen decreases, the levels of FSH increase and remain high.

Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall? glenoid cavity clavicle radius scapula sternum

clavicle

Which of these bones does NOT articulate with the humerus? clavicle scapula ulna radius

clavicle

The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the______. coxal bones articulate with the femur. clavicle articulates with the humerus. vertebral column articulates with the sacrum. clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process. clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.

clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.

The process that divides different portions of the zygote's cytoplasm among blastomeres is called __________. fertilization cleavage embryogenesis placentation

cleavage

The process of cell division that divides the cytoplasm of the zygote among blastomeres is called___________. blastulation. cleavage. embryogenesis. placentation. implantation.

cleavage.

A muscle producing its maximum tension for a prolonged period is in __________. complete tetanus rigor mortis incomplete tetanus treppe

complete tetanus

The occipital ________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical vertebra. condyles processes fossae foramina tubercles

condyles

Why can a pennate muscle generate more tension than can a parallel muscle of the same size?

contains more muscle fibers, and thus more myofibrils and sarcomeres, than does a parallel muscle of the same size, resulting in a contraction that generates more tension.

Shrugging your shoulders uses which muscles?

contracting your levator scapulae.

The ________ consists of the follicle cells that cling to the oocyte after ovulation. stroma corpus albicans corona radiata antrum zona pellucida

corona radiata

The layer of follicle cells that surround the unfertilized egg is called the__________. tunica follicularis. corona radiata. Graafian follicle. functional zone. zona pellucida.

corona radiata.

If fertilization occurs, the ________ is maintained because the embryo secretes ________. corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin corpus albicans; placental prolactin corpus cavernosum; human chorionic gonadotrophin corpus albicans; human chorionic gonadotrophin corpus luteum; luteinizing hormone

corpus luteum; human chorionic gonadotrophin

The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the______. membranous urethra. glans penis. corpora cavernosa. penile urethra. corpus spongiosum.

corpus spongiosum.

Which bone gives a crime scene investigator the best information on the gender of skeletal remains? teeth cranium coccyx coxal bone

coxal bone

The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse into a single bone called the_______. pectoral girdle. patella. pelvic girdle. coxal bone. coccyx.

coxal bone.

The ________ is the bony chamber that protects and supports the brain. cranium centrum cephalum skull cortex

cranium

The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and maintain the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments. popliteal patellar cruciate fibular collateral tibial collateral

cruciate

The term ________ means the failure of one or both testes to descend into the scrotum by the time of birth. orchitis cryptorchidism vasculitis premature puberty priapism

cryptorchidism

Fatigued muscles signify __________. accumulation of pyruvic acid oxygen recovery decreased pH lowered body temperature

decreased pH

What signs and symptoms would you expect in a person who has damaged the menisci of the knee joint?

decreases the joint's stability, so the person would have a difficult time locking the knee in place while standing and would have to use muscle contractions to stabilize the joint. If the person had to stand for a long time, the muscles would fatigue and the knee would "give out." It is also likely that the person would feel pain.

The most common type of joint inflammation is called_______. rheumatism. degenerative joint disease. rheumatoid arthritis. osteoporosis. gouty arthritis.

degenerative joint disease.

In polygenic inheritance, phenotypic characters are__________. determined by multiple copies of a single gene. determined by interactions among several genes. always controlled by genes on the same chromosome. determined by the genes on the Y chromosome. determined by a double pair of alleles.

determined by interactions among several genes.

A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________ septum. restrictive deviated deviant obstructive crooked

deviated

Based on a functional classification, the hip joint is a __________. syndesmosis diarthrosis synarthrosis amphiarthrosis

diarthrosis

The process that results in the formation of different cell types occurring through selective changes in genetic activity that causes some genes to be turned off, while others are turned on is called __________. differentiation development conception fertilization

differentiation

Name the three stages of labor.

dilation stage, expulsion stage, and placental stage.

A ________ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position. sprain dislocation bursitis fracture bunion

dislocation

The organ that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the_______. ductus deferens (vas deferens). epididymis. ejaculatory duct. seminal gland (seminal vesicle). corpus cavernosum.

ductus deferens (vas deferens).

At what point during excitation contraction coupling does exocytosis play a role? during acetylcholine release from the synaptic terminal during calcium ion reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum when sodium channels open up on the motor end plate when the action potential surges through the T-tubules when ATP splits into ADP and P on the free myosin head

during acetylcholine release from the synaptic terminal

Why are children not identical copies of their parents?

during meiosis, parental chromosomes are randomly distributed such that each gamete has a unique set of chromosomes. crossing over and mutations during meiosis introduce new variations in gametes. environmental factors can also affect the expression of genes and the resulting phenotype through epigenetic mechanisms.

Painful menstruation is called_____________-. dysmenorrhea. polymenorrhea. amenorrhea. menorrhea. nocimenorrhea.

dysmenorrhea.

Which embryonic germ layer forms the brain and spinal cord? trophoderm ectoderm epiderm mesooderm endoderm

ectoderm

In ________, implantation occurs somewhere other than in the uterus. hydramnios placenta previa ectopic pregnancy spontaneous abortion abortion

ectopic pregnancy

Titin is a(n) __________. tropomyosin-binding protein thin-filament protein elastic protein calcium-binding protein

elastic protein

Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle? elevates the larynx elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible depresses and retracts the tongue depresses the larynx elevates the mandible

elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible

Which embryonic germ layer forms the linings of the respiratory and digestive tracts? ectoderm mesoderm endoderm trophoderm epiderm

endoderm

The painful condition that develops because epithelial tissue from the uterus is present in the peritoneal cavity is_________. ovarian cysts. endometriosis. orchitis. lymphedema. peritonitis.

endometriosis.

The first organ that sperm pass through is the __________. epididymis ductus deferens ejaculatory duct prostate gland

epididymis

The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the________. tendon. fascicle. perimysium. endomysium. epimysium.

epimysium.

Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be fractured? ethmoid bone temporal bone mandible parietal bone zygomatic bone

ethmoid bone

What is the developmental fate of the inner cell mass of the blastocyst?

eventually develops into the embryo.

Excessive turning of the sole of the foot outward is called __________. dorsiflexion protraction inversion eversion

eversion

What respiratory changes occur in pregnant women?

experience an increase in respiratory rate and tidal volume.

The broad ligament is a(n)_________. thickened fold of mesentery that supports and stabilizes the position of the ovary. structure that extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall. extensive mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus. pocket formed between the posterior wall of the uterus and the anterior surface of the rectum. structure that anchors the ovary to the recto-uterine pouch.

extensive mesentery that encloses the ovaries, uterine tubes, and uterus.

A collagenous type of connective tissue that reinforces the synovial joint and is found outside the joint capsule is called the______. extracapsular tendon. extracapsular ligament. intracapsular ligament. meniscus. intracapsular tendon.

extracapsular ligament.

Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of_______. notched spinous processes. transverse foramina. transverse processes. facets for the articulation of ribs. costal cartilages.

facets for the articulation of ribs.

Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum. floating free filamentous fibrous false

false

Usually found outside the capsule, ________ protect the articular cartilages and act as packing material for the joint. menisci ligaments bursae tendons fat pads

fat pads

The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues are the________. lateral menisci. popliteal ligaments. cruciate ligaments. medial menisci. fat pads.

fat pads.

Another term for vulva is______. accessory glands. female external genitalia. labia. gonads. vagina.

female external genitalia.

Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to_______. fibrous cartilage. dense regular connective tissue. rigid cartilaginous bridge. completely fused. periodontal ligament.

fibrous cartilage.

The tibia is bound to the __________ by the interosseous membrane. femur fibula talus patella

fibula

Which lower leg bone does not carry any body weight? calcaneus talus navicular tibia fibula

fibula

Nodding your head "yes" is an example of_______. flexion and extension. protraction and retraction. circumduction. pronation and supination. lateral and medial rotation.

flexion and extension.

A rise in the blood levels of follicle-stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is responsible for___________. follicle maturation. ovulation. atresia. menopause. menstruation.

follicle maturation.

The fibrous connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are______. Wormian bones. foramina. fibrocartilaginous discs. fontanelles. sutures.

fontanelles.

What is the primary function of the vomer?

forms the anterior, inferior portion of the bony nasal septum that separates the right and left nasal cavities.

A primary spermatocyte matures into ________ spermatids having ________ chromosomes. one; 46 four; 46 millions of; 46 millions of; 23 four; 23

four; 23

The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their supporting elements called________. girdles. rotator cuffs. ball and socket. sutures.joints.

girdles.

Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles? lunate surface gluteal lines greater sciatic notch lesser sciatic notch pubic symphysis

gluteal lines

List the basic structures of the reproductive system.

gonads (reproductive organs), ducts (which receive and transport gametes), accessory glands (which secrete fluids), external genitalia (perineal structures).

The glands that produce mucus used as a lubricant during sexual intercourse are ________ glands. vulvular seminal mons bulbourethral greater vestibular

greater vestibular

The ________ is the part of the sperm that contains the DNA. acrosome neck corona radiata head zona pellucida

head

Muscles including the term capitis would be found within or attached to the_______. neck. groin. head. abdomen. thorax.

head.

What benefit does the acidic pH of the vagina provide?

helps prevent bacterial, fungal, and parasitic infections in this region.

A(n) develops when an organ protrudes through an abnormal opening.

hernia

Part complete If an individual carries two different alleles for the same trait, the individual is ________ for the trait. polygenic autosomous homozygous homologous heterozygous

heterozygous

Monaxial joints are known as ________ joints. hinge saddle ball-and-socket condylar gliding

hinge

If an individual carries a pair of alleles that are the same, the individual is ________ for the trait. autosomous homologous heterozygous polygenic homozygous

homozygous

The presence of a recessive gene can be detected (seen) only if the individual is homozygous dominant. epistatic recessive. heterozygous dominant. heterozygous recessive. homozygous recessive.

homozygous recessive.

Name the bones making up the shoulder joint.

humerus and scapula.

The trochlea is located on the______. humerus. scapula. ulna. tibia. radius.

humerus.

Sperm release ________ to break down the bonds between adjacent follicle cells surrounding the oocyte. zonal inhibiting proteins calcium glucose relaxin hyaluronidase

hyaluronidase

Name two sperm enzymes important to secondary oocyte penetration.

hyaluronidase and acrosin.

Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue? geniohyoid lateral pterygoideus hyoglossus sternohyoid thyrohyoid

hyoglossus

The ________ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone. lacrimal ethmoid hyoid vomer atlas

hyoid

An extension past the anatomical position is known as________. hyperextension. double-jointed. extension. rotation. flexion.

hyperextension.

Where would you expect to find the greatest concentration of calcium in a resting skeletal muscle fiber?

in the terminal cisternae sarcoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid? provides nutrients shock absorption lubrication increases osmotic pressure within joint protects articular cartilages

increases osmotic pressure within joint

Identify three major factors opposing the calming action of progesterone on the uterus.

increasing estrogen levels, increasing oxytocin levels, and prostaglandin production.

Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the _______. medial and lateral nuchal lines. anterior and superior nuchal lines. anterior and posterior nuchal lines. inferior and superior nuchal lines. cranial and caudal nuchal lines.

inferior and superior nuchal lines.

The portion of the uterine tube that ends in fingerlike fimbriae is the_________. proximal segment. infundibulum. distal segment. isthmus. ampulla.

infundibulum.

The ductus deferens passes through the ________ to enter the pelvic cavity. mesiobuccal canal epididymis canaliculi inguinal canal urinary bladder

inguinal canal

The role of FSH in males is to________. initiate sperm production in the testes. stimulate the interstitial endocrine cells to produce testosterone. stimulate the growth of male accessory glands. influence sexual behaviors and sex drive. develop and maintain secondary sex characteristics.

initiate sperm production in the testes.

The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is called the_______. aponeurosis. tendon. origin. lever. insertion

insertion

Heat energy gained from muscle contraction is released by the ________ system. cardiovascular urinary respiratory integumentary endocrine

integumentary

Study of human skeletons can reveal all of the following information except the person's_______. age and nutritional status. sex. intelligence. size and handedness. health.

intelligence

What is the name of the flexible sheet that interconnects the radius and ulna (and the tibia and fibula)?

interosseus membrane

Explain why the absence of intervertebral discs is significant.

intervertebral disc between the first and second cervical vertebrae would prohibit rotation. The vertebrae in the sacrum and coccyx are fused to provide a firm attachment for muscles and ligaments.

Spinal nerves run to and from the spinal cord within what structure? vertebral arch foramen magnum vertebral foramen intervertebral foramina

intervertebral foramina

Ovarian cancer is the deadliest of the reproductive cancers because it________. affects the elderly population. is the most resistant to radiation therapy. is usually not diagnosed early. does not respond to any chemotherapy medications. is the most aggressive.

is usually not diagnosed early.

When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the______. inferior rami of the pubis. ischial tuberosities. iliac crests. obturator foramina. posterior inferior iliac spines.

ischial tuberosities.

The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called______. isometric. treppe. concentric. tetany. isotonic.

isometric.

The fibula is not part of the knee joint and does not bear weight. However, when it is fractured, walking is difficult. Why?

it is an important point of attachment for many leg muscles. When the fibula is fractured, these muscles cannot function properly to move the leg, so walking is difficult and painful. The fibula also helps stabilize the ankle joint.

The fulcrum of a lever system is the________. bone. load. muscle. resistance. joint.

joint.

Which of the following synovial joints would allow angular, monaxial movement? knee joint atlanto-axial joint (C1-C2 vertebrae) first carpometacarpal joint (thumb) hip joint

knee joint

Muscle fatigue occurs because of a buildup of __________ and a(n) __________ in pH. lactic acid; decrease creatine phosphate; decrease creatine phosphate; increase lactic acid; increase

lactic acid; decrease

The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture. coronal posterior lambdoid sagittal central

lambdoid

The round ligaments extend from the________. lateral margins of the uterus, through the inguinal canal to the external genitalia. body of the uterus to the fundus. lateral surface of the uterus to the anterior surface of the sacrum. cervix of the uterus to the vagina. base of the uterus and vagina to the lateral walls of the pelvis.

lateral margins of the uterus, through the inguinal canal to the external genitalia.

What effect would a low FSH level have on sperm production?

lead to low levels of testosterone in the seminiferous tubules, decreasing both the sperm production rate and sperm count.

A rigid structure that can change the effective strength of a muscle is called a __________. lever fulcrum tendon load

lever

The ulnar nerve is exposed when it crosses the posterior surface of what process? medial epicondyle deltoid tuberosity greater tubercle trochlea lesser tubercle

medial epicondyle

The foot arch that is maintained by ligaments running from the calcaneus to the metatarsals is the_______. superior arch. longitudinal arch. posterior arch. transverse arch. distal arch.

longitudinal arch.

The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region. coccygeal cervical lumbar thoracic sacral

lumbar

How would a torn calcaneal tendon affect movement of the foot?

make plantar flexion difficult because this tendon attaches the soleus and gastrocnemius to the calcaneus (heel bone)

The lateral bulge at the ankle is from the __________. femoral head malleolus of the fibula condylar process of the calcaneus malleolus of the tibia

malleolus of the fibula

Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken_______. mandible. clavicle. external auditory meatus. zygomatic bone. temporal bone.

mandible.

The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the______. tuberculum. angle. manubrium. body. xiphoid process.

manubrium.

The ________ muscle is the strongest jaw muscle. pterygoid lateral pterygoid medial pterygoid digastric masseter

masseter

The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the______. mandible. sternum. mastoid process of the temporal bone. clavicle. occipital bone.

mastoid process of the temporal bone.

During development a cleft palate forms when which bones fail to meet along the midline of the hard palate? maxillae ethmoid temporal sphenoid zygomatic

maxillae

Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called_____. lateralis. rectus. medialis. proximal. distalis.

medialis.

The spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae fuse to form the______. lateral sacral crest. median sacral crest. sacral hiatus. sacral tuberosity. sacral canal.

median sacral crest.

The uterine phase that develops because of a fall in progesterone levels is the___________. follicular phase. secretory phase. menstrual phase. proliferative phase. luteal phase.

menstrual phase.

Which of the following is not an upper limb bone? humerus carpals ulna metatarsals radius

metatarsals

In the condition known as ________, premature closure of all of the cranial sutures results in restricted brain growth and an undersized head. membranitis microcephaly anencephaly craniostenosis epicranial block

microcephaly

The region known as the primitive streak is the site of__________. migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm. migration of mesodermal cells to form the endoderm. endoderm formation. amnion formation. ectoderm formation.

migration of ectodermal cells to form the mesoderm.

Twins that occur when blastomeres separate are called______ fraternal. blastulatory. zygoblastic. dizygotic. monozygotic.

monozygotic.

In a triaxial articulation,_________. movement can occur in only two axes. only circumduction is possible. movement can occur in only one axis. movement can occur in all three axes. no movement is possible.

movement can occur in all three axes.

A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet. larger longer wider deeper narrower

narrower

One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the_______. pubic ramus. neck of the femur. patellar surface of the femur. coxal bones. distal epiphysis of the femur.

neck of the femur.

Name the postnatal stages of development.

neonatal period, infancy, childhood, adolescence, and maturity. These stages are followed by senescence, or aging, and death.

The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the______. radial groove. radial fossa. coronoid fossa. olecranon fossa. intertubercular groove.

olecranon fossa.

What is the role of the clitoris in the female reproductive system?

ontains erectile tissue that becomes engorged with blood during sexual arousal and provides pleasurable sensations.

Which of the following movements is a good example of depression? spreading the fingers extreme bending of the head backwards turning the hand palm upward opening the mouth moving the hand toward the shoulder

opening the mouth

To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called_______. opposition. rotation. circumduction. eversion. retraction.

opposition.

The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the______. buccinator. zygomaticus. levator labii. orbicularis oris. procerus.

orbicularis oris.

The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the_______. lever. origin. aponeurosis. tendon. insertion.

origin.

The site where fertilization normally occurs is in the__________. outer one-third of the uterine tube. union of the vagina and uterus. fimbrae. cervix. uterine wall near the fundus.

outer one-third of the uterine tube.

Name the structures of the female reproductive system.

ovaries, uterine tubes, uterus, vagina, and external genitalia (mons pubis, the clitoris and the labia majora and labia minora).

What changes would you expect to observe in the ovarian cycle if the LH surge did not occur?

ovulation and corpus luteum formation would not occur.

The surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle triggers________. menopause. atresia. follicle maturation. ovulation. menstruation.

ovulation.

Stretching of the cervix causes an increase in the blood levels of_______. relaxin. oxytocin. estrogen. progesterone. chorionic gonadotropin.

oxytocin.

Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are ________ muscles. pennate straight circular convergent parallel

parallel

Based on patterns of fascicle arrangement, name the four types of skeletal muscle.

parallel muscles, convergent muscles, pennate muscles, and circular muscles.

The patella slides in a groove on the femur called the_______. patellar surface. patellar canal. femoral head. medial condyle. interpatellar groove.

patellar surface.

Infertility may result when an STD leads to_______. pelvic inflammatory disease. premenstrual dysphoric disorder. polycystic ovary syndrome. menarche. menorrhagia.

pelvic inflammatory disease.

In a ________ muscle, the muscle fibers and fascicles lie in a slanted or oblique position to the tendon. convergent parallel divergent pennate circular

pennate

Sperm are moved along the ductus deferens (vas deferens) by_________. hydrostatic force. peristaltic contractions. hydraulic action. suction. ciliary action.

peristaltic contractions.

The atlantoaxial joint is an example of a ________ joint. ball and socket pivot condyloid saddle gliding

pivot

The two spinal curves present at birth are called __________ curves. fetal primary compensation congenital

primary

A(n) ________ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a particular movement. antagonist opposition synergist motor-unit prime mover

prime mover

The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability to______. store extra DNA for metabolism. produce more ATP with little oxygen. contract much more forcefully. produce nutrients for muscle contraction. produce large amounts of muscle proteins.

produce large amounts of muscle proteins.

The principal hormone secreted by the corpus luteum is_______. FSH. luteosterone. estrogen. LH. progesterone.

progesterone.

The PSA test is used for diagnosis of______. penile cancer. premature puberty. prostate cancer. testicular cancer. prostatitis.

prostate cancer.

Identify the three regions of the male urethra.

prostatic urethra, membranous urethra, and spongy urethra.

The role of inhibin in male reproduction is to_______. stimulate spermiogenesis. keep testosterone levels high inside the seminiferous tubule. stimulate the testes to descend. provide negative feedback regulation of FSH and GnRH secretion. decrease the production of testosterone.

provide negative feedback regulation of FSH and GnRH secretion.

Describe the interaction between the reproductive system and the cardiovascular system.

provides nutrients, oxygen, and waste removal for the fetus; and produces local blood pressure changes responsible for the physical changes that occur during sexual intercourse. The reproductive system supplies estrogens that may help maintain healthy blood vessels and slow the development of atherosclerosis.

A patient comes in the clinic expressing concern over changes in her body. She says she has been experiencing axillary and genital hair growth, breast growth, acne and she is going through a growth spurt. You reassure her these are all a normal part of maturation and inform her that she has begun________. menarche. prenatal development. puberty. menopause. peri-menopause.

puberty.

Increases in the blood levels of GnRH, FSH, LH, and sex hormones mark the onset of which stage of development?

puberty.

The two pubic bones join medially at the_______. pubic tuberosity. superior ramus. inferior ramus. pubic symphysis. pubic tubercle.

pubic symphysis.

Which of these is NOT a function of smooth muscle? elevating skin hairs adjusting airway diameter pushing blood into the great vessels of the heart churning the stomach contents

pushing blood into the great vessels of the heart

What is the insertion of the biceps brachii? radial tuberosity infraglenoid tubercle medial epicondyle of the humerus olecranon process of the ulna

radial tuberosity

The attachment site for the biceps brachii muscle to the radius is at the_______. brachial tuberosity. deltoid tuberosity. radial tuberosity. greater tubercle. styloid process of the radius.

radial tuberosity.

Given its name, what does the levator anguli oris do? close the eyelids raise the eyebrows raise the mouth tense the mouth raise the eyelids

raise the mouth

The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor units is called______. recruitment. wave summation. incomplete tetanus. treppe. complete tetanus.

recruitment.

Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle? superior oblique rectus abdominis inferior rectus lateral rectus medial rectus

rectus abdominis

Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called______. transversus. rectus. lateralis. obliquus. medialis.

rectus.

A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this drug's effect on skeletal muscle contraction? increases tone in the muscle produces a strong, continuous state of contraction reduces the muscle's ability for contraction causes a strong contraction similar to a "charlie horse" cramp increases the muscle's excitability

reduces the muscle's ability for contraction

To what does a "pulled hamstring" refer?

refers to a strain affecting one or more of the three muscles that collectively flex the knee: the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus.

The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions to_______. allow biaxial movement. reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements. allow monaxial movement. limit the range of movements. reinforce the joint capsule.

reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements.

Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following except the_______. teres minor. infraspinatus. supraspinatus. rhomboid. subscapularis.

rhomboid.

After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as_______. tetany. treppe. depolarization. rigor mortis. oxygen debt.

rigor mortis.

What happens to sarcomere length if the zone of overlap is decreased? sarcomere length stays the same sarcomere length decreases sarcomere length increases

sarcomere length increases

Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except_______. pronator. levator. adductor. sartorius. extensor.

sartorius.

Name the male reproductive structures.

scrotum, testes, epididymides, ductus deferentia, ejaculatory duct, urethra, seminal glands, prostate, bulbo-urethral glands, penis.

The period of gestation when organs and organ systems complete most of their development and the fetus looks distinctly human is the ________ trimester. first second third

second

Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________ lever. first-class second-class third-class fourth-class fifth-class

second-class

The nurse cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following except_________. secrete androgen-binding protein. maintain the blood testis barrier. secrete inhibin. secrete testosterone. support spermiogenesis.

secrete testosterone.

Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone except the_______. sella turcica. petrous portion. mastoid cells. mandibular fossa. internal acoustic meatus.

sella turcica.

Trace the pathway that a sperm travels from the site of its production to outside the body.

seminiferous tubule → straight tubule → rete testis → efferent ductules → epididymis → ductus deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra.

Partial or complete dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint is called a(n)________.

separation.

Rachel is experiencing difficulty conceiving. All of the following may be reasons why, except__________. her pituitary gland is not producing adequate levels of FSH. she has a 28 day cycle. her ovaries are not producing enough progesterone. her ovarian and menstrual cycles are not properly coordinated. her ovaries are not producing enough estrogen.

she has a 28 day cycle.

What event in the uterine cycle occurs when the levels of estrogens and progesterone decrease?

signals the beginning of menstruation, the end of the uterine cycle.

Air-filled chambers found in several bones of the skull are called______. fossae. sinuses. sutures. conchae. fontanelles.

sinuses.

Sinus inflammation is called ______. sinusitis. asthma. postnasal drip. congestion. encephalitis.

sinusitis.

Which type of muscle tissue has the greatest effect on the body's heat production? cardiac smooth skeletal All of these muscle types have about the same effect on the body's heat production.

skeletal

Sperm develop from stem cells called________. spermatogonia. primary spermatocytes. secondary spermatocytes. spermatids. sperm.

spermatogonia.

Describe the location and general functions of appendicular muscles.

stabilize or move structures of the appendicular skeleton. move and support the pectoral (shoulder) girdles and the upper and lower limbs.

Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum? acromioclavicular joint sternoclavicular joint sternoacromial joint costalclavicular joint acromiosternal joint

sternoclavicular joint

List the functions of testosterone in males.

stimulates spermatogenesis and promotes the functional maturation of sperm; maintains the male accessory reproductive organs; determines male secondary sex characteristics; stimulates metabolic pathways, especially those concerned with protein synthesis and muscle growth; and affects CNS function, by stimulating sexual drive and sexual behaviors.

Would a tennis player or a jogger be more likely to develop inflammation of the subscapular bursa? Why?

subscapular bursa is located in the shoulder joint, so the tennis player would be more likely to develop bursitis. The condition is associated with repetitive motion that occurs at the shoulder, such as swinging a tennis racket.

Muscles visible at the body surface are often called______. profundus. superficialis. extrinsic. internus. intrinsic.

superficialis.

Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the inferior articular processes of the superior vertebra and facets on the ________ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae. lamellae superior articular processes dens transverse processes pedicles

superior articular processes

The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the borders? pectoral borders. dorsal and costal borders. scapular, sternal, and clavicular borders. superior, medial, and lateral borders. anterior, posterior, and superior borders.

superior, medial, and lateral borders.

A thickening of the frontal bone that helps protect the eye is the _____. supra-orbital margin. optic canal. superior orbital fissure. frontal suture.frontal sinuses.

supra-orbital margin.

The ________ ligament extends from the lateral surface of the ovary to the pelvic wall. ovarian round suspensory gubernaculum mesovarium

suspensory

Structurally, the joint found between adjacent vertebral bodies is a __________. synarthrosis symphysis synovial syndesmosis

symphysis

A suture is an example of a(n)_____. amphiarthrosis. symphysis. syndesmosis. diarthrosis. synarthrosis.

synarthrosis

A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)________. agonist. levator. synergist. originator. antagonist

synergist.

Identify the types of synovial joints based on the shapes of the articulating surfaces.

synovial joints are classified as plane (gliding), hinge, pivot, condylar (ellipsoid), saddle, and ball-and-socket joints.

Elongated bursae that reduce friction and surround the tendons that cross the posterior and anterior surfaces of the wrist form .

synovial tendon sheaths

What does the name flexor carpi radialis longus tell you about this muscle?

tells you that this muscle is a long muscle (longus) that lies next to the radius (radialis) and flexes (flexor) the wrist (carpi).

The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone is called a(n)________. epimysium. fascicle. ligament. tendon. myofibril.

tendon

The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except_________. the location of the muscle. structural characteristics of the muscle. the collagen content of the muscle. the action of the muscle. the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body.

the collagen content of the muscle.

On a warm day, would the cremaster be contracted or relaxed? Why?

the cremaster (as well as the dartos muscle) would be relaxed so that the scrotum could descend away from the warmth of the body, thereby cooling the testes.

The embryo becomes a fetus at_______. the end of the first week. the end of the second week. the end of the second trimester. the end of the eighth week. the end of the third trimester.

the end of the eighth week.

Identify the bones of the lower limb.

the femur (thigh), patella (kneecap), tibia and fibula (leg), tarsal (ankle) bones (talus, calcaneus, cuboid, navicular, medial cuneiform, intermediate cuneiform, and lateral cuneiform), 5 metatarsals, and 14 phalanges.

Name the bones making up the knee joint.

the femur, tibia, and patella. The fibula is not part of the knee joint.

Define differentiation.

the formation of different types of cells during development.

Identify the bones of the nasal complex.

the frontal, ethmoid, nasal, maxilla, palatine, and sphenoid.

Identify the bones of the orbital complex.

the frontal, sphenoid, zygomatic, palatine, maxilla, lacrimal, and ethmoid.

List all the bones of an upper limb.

the humerus, ulna, radius, carpal (wrist) bones (scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate, and hamate), 5 metacarpals (palm bones), and 14 phalanges (fingers).

What happens when the arteries within the penis dilate?

the increased blood flow causes the erectile tissues of the corpora cavernosa and corpus spongiosum to engorge with blood, producing an erection.

Complete dislocation of the knee is rare because________. the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee. the knee contains seven major ligaments. the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks. the knee is protected by the patella.the knee is extremely resilient.

the knee contains seven major ligaments.

During amphimixis, ___________. sperm become haploid. the male and female pronuclei fuse. the ovum finishes meiosis II. meiosis occurs. gametes are formed.

the male and female pronuclei fuse.

Define gestation.

the period of prenatal development. It consists of three trimesters.

Define menopause

the time when ovulation and menstruation cease, typically around ages 45-55.

Define inheritance.

the transfer of genetically determined characteristics from one generation to the next.

Increased muscle fiber endurance can be produced by __________. the length of the muscle fiber the amount of excitation-contraction coupling a muscle fiber with a smaller diameter the type of activity performed

the type of activity performed

The elbow joint is extremely stable because________. several muscles support the joint capsule. the articular capsule is thin. the ulna and humerus interlock. the joint lacks bursae. the capsule lacks ligaments.

the ulna and humerus interlock.

Which of the following is NOT considered an age-related change in the skeleton? thickening of bone loss of teeth development of major curves in the vertebral column increased risk of osteoporosis

thickening of bone

The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers. first-class second-class third-class fourth-class fifth-class

third-class

During gastrulation, ____________. the blastomeres fuse. cells from the hypoblast move to the epiblast. the placenta penetrates the endometrium. three germ layers are formed. the neural tube closes.

three germ layers are formed.

After implantation, how does the developing embryo obtain nutrients? What structures and processes are involved?

through the chorionic villi and later the placenta. The placenta develops during placentation.

The muscle action potential penetrates deep into a fiber along the __________. sarcoplasmic reticulum sarcolemma transverse tubules neuromuscular junction

transverse tubules

Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called________. lateralis. medialis. transversus. rectus. oblique.

transversus.

The protein that regulates muscle contraction by controlling the availability of active sites on actin is called_______. actin. titin. myosin. tropomyosin. nebulin.

tropomyosin.

Which of the following movements is a good example of supination? spreading the fingers moving the hand toward the shoulder opening the mouth turning the hand palm upward extreme bending of the head backwards

turning the hand palm upward

The ________ is formed by the allantois, blood vessels, and yolk sac. chorioallantoic membrane trophoblast chorion amnion umbilical cord

umbilical cord

The ________ is the region of the vagina that surrounds the cervix. fundus rugae external os vaginal fornix dartos

vaginal fornix

The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the______. transverse process. vertebral body. intervertebral space. articular processes. vertebral arch.

vertebral body.

If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful contraction occurs. This addition of one twitch to another is called______. treppe. complete tetanus. incomplete tetanus. wave summation. recruitment.

wave summation.

The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition? weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia. weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals. a loose calcaneal tendon. poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals. weak tarsometatarsal joints.

weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals

What effect would blockage of both uterine tubes by scar tissue (resulting from an infection such as gonorrhea) have on a woman's ability to conceive?

would cause sterility.

If someone hit you in your rectus abdominis, how would your body position change?

would cause that muscle to contract forcefully, resulting in flexion of the vertebral column. In other words, you would "double over."

What effect would a blockage of progesterone receptors in the uterus have on the endometrium?

would inhibit the development of the endometrium, making the uterus unprepared for pregnancy.

An inability to contract the ischiocavernosus and bulbospongiosus muscles would interfere with which part of the male sex act?

would interfere with a male's ability to ejaculate and to experience orgasm.

Would the blockage of a single lactiferous sinus interfere with the delivery of milk to the nipple? Explain.

would not interfere with the delivery of milk to the nipple because the mammary gland of each breast generally has 15-20 lactiferous sinuses.

Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured? hand ankle wrist foot forearm

wrist

When administering CPR, one structure that serves as both a landmark and a cause for concern is the __________. jugular notch false ribs manubrium xiphoid process

xiphoid process

What are the four extra-embryonic membranes?

yolk sac, amnion, allantois, and chorion.

The primary nutrient source for early embryonic development that later becomes an important site for blood formation is the_________. yolk sac. placenta. amniotic fluid. basal decidua. umbilical vein.

yolk sac.

When you do jumping jacks, which lower limb movements are necessary?

you move your lower limbs away from the body's midline; this movement is abduction. When you bring the lower limbs back together, the movement is adduction.

The cell that directly results from the fusion of a secondary oocyte and a single sperm is called a(n)_________. blastula. morula. ootid. zygote. gastrula.

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