abnormal psych

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY Chapter 1 1. Hippocrates advocated treatment approaches that most closely resemble: d. those of modern medicine. 2. The explicit and implicit rules for proper conduct that a society establishes are referred to as: c. norms. 3. Bernheim and Liébault used hypnotic suggestion to induce hysterical disorders in "normal" people, providing support for which perspective of abnormality? b. psychogenic 4. If a person is very unhappy, the condition is chronic and severe, and the psychiatrist prescribed medication, it would likely be: b. an antidepressant drug. 5. If a man is confused and usually thinks that he is King David (Old Testament), and if his psychiatrist ordered medication, it would most likely be: a. an antipsychotic drug. 6. What is the distinction of Bethlehem Hospital, founded in London in 1547? d. Popularly called "Bedlam," it came to represent deplorable conditions for patients. 7. An otherwise "normal" person during hypnotic suggestion is made to bark, sit, and fetch like a dog. The occurrence of these "abnormal" behaviors lends support to which explanation for abnormality? c. psychogenic 8. Behavior that violates legal norms is: a. deviant and criminal. 9. The deinstitutionalization of mental patients is chiefly due to: a. the development of psychotropic medications. 10. Hippocrates attempted to treat mental disorders by: b. correcting underlying physical pathology. 11. In the United States today, one is most likely to find a severely ill mental patient: a. on the street or in jail. 12. People who jump into icy water on New Year's Day are generally not considered abnormal because: c. their daily functioning is not disrupted. 13. Exorcism and trephination have in common the goal of: c. releasing evil spirits from the body. 14. Psychoanalysis is a form of: d. outpatient therapy. 15. The increased use of psychotropic medications in the past fifty years generally has led to: c. deinstitutionalization and outpatient care. 16. Brilliant scholars or champion athletes are not considered clinically abnormal because: c. their behaviors are valued by the culture. 17. A research procedure in which a variable is manipulated and the manipulation's effect on another variable is observed is called a(n): b. experiment. 18. The fact that hundreds of thousands of people with severe psychological disturbances end up living on the streets or in jails points out one deficiency of: a. deinstitutionalization. 19. "'Moral treatment' is the best way to deal with abnormality; even the best of us at some time may break under stress." Who of the following would agree most strongly with this statement? b. Philippe Pinel 20. Despite popular misconceptions, most people with psychological problems are not: b. dangerous. 21. One who sees abnormality as a problem in living usually refers to those seeking help with their problems in living as: d. clients. 22. A medical researcher develops a drug that decreases symptoms of depression and other "mood" disorders. The general term for this type of drug is: d. psychotropic. 23. The individual considered to be the founder of the modern study of psychopathology is: d. Johann Weyer. 24. Those most often in charge of treating abnormality in the Middle Ages in Europe were the: b. clergy. 25. "Abnormal behavior is a symptom of disease, and once the disease is cured, the abnormality will cease." Who would agree most strongly with this statement? d. Hippocrates 26. If a healer subjected you to trephination (and you lived to tell about it), you probably lived during: c. ancient times. 27. Eugenic sterilization reflects the ______ perspective on abnormality. d. somatogenic 28. The policy of deinstitutionalization forces attention to: a. outpatient psychological services. 29. What model of mental illness did most people hold during the Middle Ages? d. the demonology model 30. Hippocrates thought that abnormal behavior resulted from an imbalance in the four humors, one of which was: b. phlegm. 1. Acquiring insight about unconscious psychological processes is a feature of: a. psychoanalysis. 2. In many areas, asylums of the 1500s, such as Bethlehem asylum in London, became: c. tourist attractions. 3. Which of the following patients is most likely to benefit most from psychoanalytic treatment? a. a person who has difficulty expressing ideas and feelings verbally b. someone who is severely disturbed and in a mental hospital c. someone who is insightful and thinks clearly 4. Hippocrates' model of mental illness would be described as: a. somatogenic. 5. An individual has a 9-to-5 job. However, this person seldom gets up early enough to be at work on time, and expresses great distress over this fact. This individual's behavior would be considered abnormal because it is: a. deviant. b. dysfunctional and deviant. d. dangerous. 6. Psychoanalysis is a form of: b. outpatient therapy. 7. The policy of deinstitutionalization forces attention to: d. outpatient psychological services. 8. The "moral treatment" movement rapidly declined in the late nineteenth century because: d. hospitals became underfunded and overcrowded. 9. The fact that hundreds of thousands of people with severe psychological disturbances end up living on the streets or in jails points out one deficiency of: a. deinstitutionalization. 10. Which of the following would be least appropriately studied using a natural experiment? a. the effects of premarital abstinence on later sexual functioning 11. According to Thomas Szasz's views, the deviations that some call mental illness are really: c. problems in living. 12. One who sees abnormality as a problem in living usually refers to those seeking help with their problems in living as: c. clients. 13. Psychoanalysis is NOT very effective for hospitalized mental patients because: a. the ratio of caretaker to patient is too high. b. patients lack the necessary insight and verbal skills. d. there are not enough patients to form meaningful therapy groups. 14. The use of exorcism suggests a belief that what we call mental illness was caused by: a. evil spirits. 15. One cause of the increase in homeless individuals in recent decades has been the: d. policy of deinstitutionalization. 16. The finding that syphilis causes general paresis is important because it supports the idea that: a. organic factors can cause mental illness. 17. Exorcism and trephination have in common the goal of: d. releasing evil spirits from the body. 18. Panic, anxiety, and depression are common in those who survive a natural disaster. Why is that behavior not considered deviant? d.That behavior is explained by the context in which it occurs. 19. Hippocrates's contribution to the development of our understanding of mental illness was the view that such conditions were the result of: c. natural causes. 20. Tarantism and lycanthropy are examples of: b. mass madness. 21. The increased use of psychotropic medications in the past fifty years generally has led to: c. deinstitutionalization and outpatient care. 22. The approach to therapy for mental illness in which a person pays a psychotherapist for services is called: b. private psychotherapy. 23. Eugenic sterilization reflects the ______ perspective on abnormality. c. somatogenic 24. "Many people are not aware of the sources of their abnormality, because abnormality often arises from unconscious psychological processes; such people need insight about those processes." Who would agree most strongly with this statement? c. Freud 25. In the United States today, one is most likely to find a severely ill mental patient: d. on the street or in jail. 26. Those most often in charge of treating abnormality in the Middle Ages in Europe were the: d. clergy. 27. Thomas Szasz's view about the idea of "mental illness" is that: b. most abnormalities are simply "problems in living." 28. Hippocrates thought that abnormal behavior resulted from an imbalance in the four humors, one of which was: a. phlegm. 29. The first physician to specialize in mental illness was: c. Johann Weyer. 30. People who are not impaired enough to need confinement in a mental hospital but who cannot live on their own sometimes live in supervised homes. This sort of facility is part of: d. the community mental health approach. Chapter 2 1. A client in a totally relaxed state vividly imagines formerly anxiety-arousing situations without feeling any lingering anxiety. Most likely, that client has just completed what type of therapy? c. systematic desensitization 2. What is libido? b. the source of pleasure 3. The model of abnormality that examines the effects of society and culture is the: b. sociocultural model. 4. According to Freud's psychodynamic theory, ineffective interaction of the id, ego, and superego can lead to entrapment at a developmental level. This is called: a. fixation. 5. The model of abnormality that cites physical processes as being the key to behavior is the: a. biological model. 6. David Rosenhan sent "pseudopatients" to a mental hospital where they pretended to be disturbed. The results led him to conclude that ______ greatly impacts mental illness. c. labeling 7. According to Freud's psychodynamic theory, at birth the child is in the: a. oral stage. 8. "The very skills that helped us survive as a species now doom us to fear and anxiety disorders." The one most likely to agree with this statement is the: c. evolutionary theorist. 9. Which of the following statements is the best example of the biopsychosocial perspective? d. Abnormality results from the interaction of genetic, emotional, and cultural influences. 10. The fact that anorexia nervosa is more common in Western societies supports which of the following aspects of the sociocultural model? a. cultural 11. Which of the following is true of psychological conflicts according to psychoanalysis? b. They are tied to experiences early in life. 12. According to Freud, another term for the symbolic meaning of dreams is: d. latent content. 13. A child is bitten by a vicious dog in front of a park. The child is later very afraid of the park. According to classical conditioning, the park is a(n): a. conditioned stimulus. 14. If one is asked to "free associate" about his or her mother's new husband and responds by changing the subject, a psychodynamic therapist would consider this an example of: b. resistance. 15. The paradigm or model adopted by people in the Middle Ages to explain abnormal behavior would have been: d. demonological. 16. The model of abnormality that pays particular attention to a client's family structure, societal norms, and a client's roles in society is: c. sociocultural. 17. The first step in using the treatment called "systematic desensitization" is to: d. teach the skill of relaxation over the course of several sessions. 18. If you recognize your worth as a person, Carl Rogers would say that you have developed: b. unconditional self-regard. 19. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is used most often in the treatment of: c. depression. 20. Messages moving from neuron to neuron must cross tiny spaces called: d. synapses. 21. The treatment a patient would be least likely to receive is: d. "talk therapy." 22. The model most likely to predict that transference will occur during therapy is the ______ model. a. psychodynamic 23. If you imagine biting into a big, juicy, sour lemon, you are likely to salivate. The lemon is an example of: c. an unconditioned stimulus. 24. Which of the following explanations for the higher levels of anorexia nervosa in Western cultures is consistent with a multicultural model? c. The media set an unreasonably small ideal body type for women. 25. When a child's mother is taking cookies out of the oven, which of the following would suggest most strongly that the id is firmly in control of the child's behavior? a. the child grabs some of the cookies and runs. 26. Which of the following would be most likely to use skillful frustration as a part of therapy? a. Fritz Perls 27. Behavior therapy: a. can be tested in the lab. 28. Superego is to conscience as ego is to: b. reality principle. 29. Which model of abnormality would focus on factors such as roles, family structure and religious factors, in particular? b. cognitive-behavioral 30. When a gestalt therapist refuses to meet her patient's demands, the therapist is using: b. skillful frustration. 1. The model of abnormality that examines the effects of society and culture is the: b. sociocultural model. 2. According to Freud's psychodynamic theory, ineffective interaction of the id, ego, and superego can lead to entrapment at a developmental level. This is called: a. fixation. 3. Multicultural theorists would explain the higher levels of mental illness among poor people as most likely due to: b. social factors leading to stress. 4. What we would call "conscience" is most like what Freud would call the: b. superego. 5. If you close your eyes and imagine biting into a big, sour lemon, you are likely to salivate. The salivation to this imagery is an example of: b. a conditioned response. d. an unconditioned response. 6. When a gestalt therapist refuses to meet her patient's demands, the therapist is using: b. skillful frustration. 7. If you recognize your worth as a person, Carl Rogers would say that you have developed: b. unconditional self-regard. 8. A family therapist might say that helicopter parents (those who are overly involved in their children's lives) are displaying ______ family pattern. d. an enmeshed 9. Infants tend to do things that feel good. This is in accord with what Freud called: b. the pleasure principle. 10. "Understanding a person's unconscious processes is critical in explaining abnormality." Which model of abnormality does this quote most closely represent? b. psychodynamic 11. As a therapist, you are interested in an individual's family and social interactions. You are most likely to subscribe to the: b. socio-cultural model. 12. The treatment a patient would be least likely to receive is: a. drug therapy. c. psychosurgery. 13. When a young child yells and throws toys (temper tantrum), the parents give the child a good deal of attention. As time goes on, the temper tantrums become more and more common. A behavioral psychologist would say that the temper tantrums result from: b. operant conditioning. 14. Which of the following is true of psychological conflicts according to psychoanalysis? b. They are tied to experiences early in life. 15. David Rosenhan sent "pseudopatients" to a mental hospital where they pretended to be disturbed. The results led him to conclude that ______ greatly impacts mental illness. c. labeling 16. The model of abnormality that pays particular attention to a client's family structure, societal norms, and a client's roles in society is: c. sociocultural. 17. Which of the following is the most legitimate criticism of cognitive therapy? d. It leaves out questions of the values and meaning of life. 18. When a man did not get the job he was sure that everything was going wrong, that his life was completely off track. This thought is an example of: c. overgeneralization. 19. According to Freud, another term for the symbolic meaning of dreams is: d. latent content. 20. A woman goes into a fit of depression and self-abuse when anyone criticizes or expresses disapproval. Much of what she does is for the purpose of getting people to like her. Cognitive theorists would say that her depression results in large part from: c. illogical thinking. 21. A therapist listens carefully to a client's words, then attempts to show accurate empathy and genuineness. The hope is that the client will self-examine with acceptance and honesty. Most likely, the therapist is: b. cognitive-behavioral. 22. Which of the following would be most likely to use skillful frustration as a part of therapy? a. Fritz Perls 23. Which of the following phrases would one be most likely to hear in a self-help group? c. "Try this. It worked for me." 24. If a patient relives past repressed feelings, that patient is said to have experienced ______, according to psychoanalysts. d. catharsis 25. A young man observed his parents' generous behavior throughout his childhood. As a result, he developed a positive and generous attitude toward the world. According to the behavioral model, this young man has acquired his lifestyle through the process of: a. modeling. 26. Humanists would say that an individual who cares about others, is spontaneous, courageous, and independent is: b. self-actualizing. 27. A cognitive therapist would be most likely to say which of the following? b. Your thinking is illogical because you are overgeneralizing. c. Please construct a fear hierarchy related to your phobia. d. Does depression run in your family? 28. "That's all right. You are doing your best, don't worry. I am here for you." A therapist who would say this as a primary part of the therapy process would most probably follow the ______ tradition. b. humanistic 29. Which model of abnormality would focus on factors such as roles, family structure and religious factors, in particular? d. sociocultural 30. According to Freud's psychodynamic theory, at birth the child is in the: a. oral stage. Chapter 3 1. Which of the following is a reason to question the validity of clinical interviews? a. People may respond differently to clinicians who are not of their race. b. People respond differently to different interviewers. (question this) c. On different days, people might describe themselves differently. d. Clinicians might overemphasize pathology. 2. If a professional were seeking to learn as much as possible about an individual patient, that professional would be using: a. an ideographic approach. 3. Under the instructions of a psychologist, Tina's mother records the number of times Tina hits her brother at home, and what happens immediately prior to the hitting. In this situation, Tina's mother is: c. a participant observer. 4. One limit of the clinical interview as an assessment tool is that: d. the client may give an overly positive picture. 5. Currently clinical assessment is characterized by: a. the use of a battery of assessment tools. 6. Which of the following tests is a personality inventory? b. MMPI-2 7. The only test among the following that is not a projective test is the: a. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory. 8. Altogether, a DSM-IV-TR evaluation might involve diagnoses on a maximum of how many axes? a. 5 9. What kind of validity is most important to clinicians in evaluating the utility of a classification system? d. predictive validity 10. DSM-IV-TR is the classification system for abnormal behaviors that is: c. most widely used in the United States. 11. The assessment instrument most likely to be used to detect subtle brain abnormalities is the: b. neuropsychological test. 12. An adult frequently displays symptoms of depression at home, but seldom does so at work. In this case, clinical observations of this person at home would lack: c. cross-situational validity. 13. Under what axis do long-standing problems fall in DSM-IV-TR? b. Axis II 14. Axis III includes: d. any relevant general medical condition. 15. If you ask the question, "What type of therapy has been shown to be the most effective for my particular disorder?" you are asking a question about: d. therapy outcome studies. 16. A therapist's preferred method of assessing abnormal behavior is to watch clients in their everyday environments and record their activities and behaviors. This approach is known as: c. naturalistic observation. 17. Mental retardation is found in ______ of DSM-IV-TR. c. Axis II 18. The assumption behind the use of projective tests as assessment tools is that: a. the responses come from the client's unconscious. d. they are relatively easy to score. 19. Compared to projective tests, personality inventories generally have: c. greater reliability and greater validity. 20. While someone is watching, Jennifer actually eats fewer sweets than usual. This tendency to decrease a behavior while being observed is an example of: b. reactivity. 21. A strength of intelligence tests includes their: c. large standardization sample. 22. Binet and Simon are known for their work in creating a(n): b. intelligence test. 23. Personality assessment using projective tests is designed to: d. learn about unconscious conflicts in the client. 24. The most legitimate criticism of intelligence tests concerns their: b. cultural fairness. 25. A clinician who is using naturalistic observation would be most likely to do which of the following? c. observe parent-child interactions in the family's home 26. Which of the following is the best conclusion you could draw about the effectiveness of the various assessment techniques? a. When all is said and done, no technique stands out as superior. 27. The single most effective treatment for schizophrenia is: d. drug therapy. 28. The major focus of a clinical practitioner when dealing with a new client is to gather what type of information? b. idiographic 29 .A patient complains of a phobia. Two lines of questioning by the clinician concern the specific object of the phobia and what the person does when he or she confronts that object. This clinician's orientation is probably: c. behavioral. 30. "You know, it really doesn't matter. One kind of psychotherapy is generally just about as good as any other." One who agrees with this statement is: d. falling victim to the uniformity myth. ATTEMPT #2 1.Compared to projective tests, personality inventories: c. have higher validity. 2. What kind of validity is most important to clinicians in evaluating the utility of a classification system? d. predictive validity 3. The clinical interviewer most interested in stimuli that trigger abnormal responses would have what orientation? d. behavioral 4. Which of the following is the most legitimate criticism of self-monitoring? a. Validity is often a problem. 5. The most effective treatment for phobias is: d. behavioral therapy. 6. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (presently DSM-IV-TR) was developed by: b. the American Psychiatric Association. 7. "You know, it really doesn't matter. One kind of psychotherapy is generally just about as good as any other." One who agrees with this statement is: a. falling victim to the uniformity myth. 8. DSM-IV-TR is the classification system for abnormal behaviors that is: a. most widely used in the United States. 9. Deciding that a client's psychological problems represent a particular disorder is called: b. diagnosis. 10. The single most effective treatment for schizophrenia is: c. drug therapy. 11. A client reports having infrequent, but extremely disturbing, tactile hallucinations. The most useful of the following ways to gather information about this person would involve: a. structured observations. b. self-monitoring. c. naturalistic observations. d. a neuropsychological battery. 12. A person who primarily prescribes medication but does not conduct psychotherapy is called a: c. psychopharmacologist. 13. Mental retardation is found in ______ of DSM-IV-TR. a. Axis II 14. If a clinician begins by asking, "Would you tell me about yourself?" the clinician is most likely conducting: a. an unstructured interview. 15. The most legitimate criticism of intelligence tests concerns their: b. cultural fairness. 16. Which of the following is most likely to be used to assess psychological impairment following neurological damage? a. the response inventory b. the MMPI-2 c. magnetic resonance imagery (MRI) d. Bender-Gestalt 17. Under the instructions of a psychologist, Tina's mother records the number of times Tina hits her brother at home, and what happens immediately prior to the hitting. In this situation, Tina's mother is: a. a participant observer. 18. Personality assessment using projective tests is designed to: c. learn about unconscious conflicts in the client. 19. A therapist's preferred method of assessing abnormal behavior is to watch clients in their everyday environments and record their activities and behaviors. This approach is known as: b. naturalistic observation. 20. The major focus of a clinical practitioner when dealing with a new client is to gather what type of information? c. idiographic 21. A clinician who is using naturalistic observation would be most likely to do which of the following? b. observe parent-child interactions in the family's home 22. The assumption behind the use of projective tests as assessment tools is that: c. they are relatively easy to score. ? d. the responses come from the client's unconscious. ? 23. The test you are taking has these scales on it: hypochondriasis, psychasthenia, and hypomania. What test is it? b. MMPI-2 24. Racine has recently broken up with her boyfriend and at the same time lost her job. Which axis of DSM-IV-TR would these factors be included under? b. Axis IV 25. A strength of intelligence tests includes their: c. large standardization sample. 26. When Rorschach testers ask themselves questions like, "Did the person respond to the whole picture or to specific details, and to the colors or to the white spaces?" they are interested in the ______ of the response. d. style 27. If a clinician focused on where you placed your drawing on the page, the size of the drawing, and the parts you omitted, you most likely took which of the following tests? a. Draw-a-Person 28. Clinical interviews are the preferred assessment technique of many practitioners. One particular strength of the interview process is: a. the chance to get a general sense of the client. 29. Currently clinical assessment is characterized by: d. the use of a battery of assessment tools. 30. Altogether, a DSM-IV-TR evaluation might involve diagnoses on a maximum of how many axes? d. 5 Chapter 4 1. Someone who believes that among our ancestors, those who feared animals, darkness, and heights were more likely to survive long enough to reproduce, represents the ______ explanation of the development of phobias. d. evolutionary 2. According to behavioral theory, specific learned fears become a generalized anxiety disorder through the process of: b. stimulus generalization. 3. Sally is never sure of the right thing to do. She married Tod and has been wondering for years if that was the right thing to do. She is exhibiting: b. obsessive doubts. 4. According to Freud, children who are prevented from expressing id impulses—making mud pies, playing war, and exploring their genitals—are at risk for developing: b. neurotic anxiety. 5. The neurotransmitter implicated in the control of obsessive-compulsive disorder is: c. serotonin. 6. "Everyone has intrusive and unwanted thoughts. Most people ignore them. But some people blame themselves and expect terrible consequences, so they act in ways they hope will neutralize the thoughts." The type of theorist most likely to agree with this quote would be a: b. cognitive theorist. 7. Religious rituals and superstitious behavior (such as not stepping on cracks) would be considered a compulsive behavior: a. when they interfere with daily function and cause distress. 8. A person who frequently experiences terror attacks, and goes to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath, rapid heart rate, and feelings of impending death, although nothing is medically wrong, is experiencing: a. a panic disorder. 9. If a professor had the notion that there were germs lurking everywhere, on papers students handed in, on books checked out of the library, on the chalk left by the previous teacher, the professor would be experiencing: c. obsessive ideas. 10. Cognitive therapists believe that generalized anxiety disorder is induced by: c. maladaptive assumptions. 11. If your therapist told you to "Drop a cookie on the contaminated floor, pick it up, and eat it," you would be receiving what kind of therapeutic technique for your obsessive-compulsive disorder? a. exposure and response prevention 12. A professor who puts on rubber gloves before grading papers and religiously avoids any contact with the hands of students is exhibiting a(n): d. touching compulsion. 13. Behaviorists believe that compulsive behavior: b. is reinforced because engaging in it reduces anxiety. 14. Max is upset because he cannot stop thinking that he has forgotten something and is constantly going back to his apartment to check. It is interfering with his life because he does it so often. This behavior is an example of: c. obsessive-compulsive disorder. 15. A person who believes that it is awful and catastrophic when things are not the way he or she would like them to be is displaying: b. irrational assumption. c. metaworry. d. condition of worth. 16. If I believe that it is a dire necessity for me to be loved or approved by everyone and that it is catastrophic if things are not the way I want them, I am displaying basic: a. irrational assumptions. 17. Harry is terrified of the snakes that his 8-year-old son brings home. During his therapy, his therapist demonstrated how to handle them. This is a form of therapy based on: a. modeling. 18. People who experience a positive event, get excited, breathe harder, and have an increase in their heart rate, then interpret the symptoms as a heart attack, are experiencing what cognitive theorists call: b. anxiety sensitivity. 19. Which of the following reflects the most common obsessive thought? b. If I touch that doorknob, I will be dirty and contaminated. 20. A college student who is so anxious that he can't function unless his clothes are arranged by color and type in his closet is experiencing: c. an obsessive-compulsive disorder. 21. According to Freud, generalized anxiety disorder is most likely to result when: b. defense mechanisms are too weak to cope with anxiety. 22. "Phobic and generalized anxiety disorders arise when people stop looking at themselves honestly and with acceptance and instead deny and distort their true thoughts, emotions, and behavior." This explanation for anxiety disorders would most likely be offered by: b. humanistic theorists. 23. You notice someone who is sweating, experiencing shortness of breath, choking, feeling dizzy, and is afraid of dying. If it is not a heart attack but an indicator of anxiety disorder, it is probably a: c. panic attack. 24. Karla's phobia about small insects is: c. specific phobia. 25. Which of the following is an anxiety disorder? d. obsessive-compulsive disorder 26. College students who always become so anxious when taking a test that they cannot remember even simple things that they know quite well are experiencing: c. a panic disorder. d. a phobia. 27. The therapy for generalized anxiety disorder developed by Albert Ellis is called: a. rational-emotive therapy. 28. One procedure used to treat phobic disorders involves having the therapist confront the feared object or situation while the fearful client observes. This is called: d. modeling. 29. Generalized anxiety disorder is more common: a. in African-Americans than in white Americans. 30. While walking through a forest during a rainstorm, 5-year-old Samir was almost struck by lightning. Today, as an adult, he is extremely afraid of trees. What is the conditioned stimulus in the example? c. the tree 1. A person who experiences unpredictable panic attacks combined with dysfunctional behavior and thoughts is probably experiencing: b. panic disorder. 2. An intense, persistent, and irrational fear that is accompanied by a compelling desire to avoid the object of the fear to the point of interfering with the life of the person is called: d. phobic disorder. 3. A phobic person is taken to a snake-handling convention in order to actually confront snakes as part of desensitization training. This is an example of the ______ technique. c. in vivo 4. Which of the following is a nondrug biological treatment for anxiety that is in general use today? d. relaxation training 5. "Everyone has intrusive and unwanted thoughts. Most people ignore them. But some people blame themselves and expect terrible consequences, so they act in ways they hope will neutralize the thoughts." The type of theorist most likely to agree with this quote would be a: b. cognitive theorist. 6. The TV character Monk, who has to touch every light pole in the same place while walking down the street, is displaying: c. a compulsion. 7. When someone checks the stove 10 times to make sure it is turned off before leaving in the morning, he or she is exhibiting a(n): c. compulsion. 8. Cognitive therapists believe that generalized anxiety disorder is induced by: c. maladaptive assumptions. 9. A phobic person is taught to imagine the feared items as part of desensitization training. This is an example of the ______ technique. d. covert 10. Devon is being treated for anxiety. He is connected to an instrument that records muscle tension. His job is to try to reduce muscle tension. This is an example of: a. biofeedback training. b. EMG training. c. relaxation training. d. self-instruction training. 11. About what proportion of the normal population become irritated if forced to depart from their normal routine? c. 40% 12. Sam can't leave for work without going back into his house and making sure that he has taken all of his writing materials. He does this several times before he allows himself to start the car and drive to work. He is frequently late for work because he is so unsure about remembering everything. Sam is displaying: b. a checking compulsion. 13. Generalized anxiety disorder is more common: a. in African-Americans than in white Americans. 14. According to Freud, children who are severely and repeatedly punished for expressing their id impulses may develop: b. moral anxiety. 15. What is one important way obsessions and compulsions are related? b. Compulsions help people control their obsessions. 16. The first step in treatment called systematic desensitization is: b. relaxation training. 17. A professor who becomes anxious unless students sit in alphabetical order, turn in their papers in alphabetical order, and leave tests in that same order is experiencing: c. an obsessive-compulsive disorder. 18. Which of the following brain areas have been implicated in obsessive-compulsive symptoms? b. the orbitofrontal cortex and the caudate nuclei 19. "Phobic and generalized anxiety disorders arise when people stop looking at themselves honestly and with acceptance and instead deny and distort their true thoughts, emotions, and behavior." This explanation for anxiety disorders would most likely be offered by: d. humanistic theorists. 20. The defense mechanism that involves doing good works in order to cancel out one's previous bad acts is called: a. undoing. 21. According to Freud, generalized anxiety disorder is most likely to result when: a. defense mechanisms are too weak to cope with anxiety. 22. The cognitive explanation for panic disorders is that people who have them: a. misinterpret bodily sensations. 23. People with one anxiety disorder are most likely to: c. experience another anxiety disorder, too. 24. Which of the following is true about specific phobias? a. Each year about 9% of people in the United States have symptoms of a phobia. 25. Pairing the thought of feared objects and relaxation training is: b. systematic desensitization. 26. An obsessive-compulsive person who was told that everyone was required to wear shoes at all times in the house and not to vacuum for a week, would be experiencing what therapy procedures? a. exposure and response prevention 27. The most common mental disorders in the United States are the: c. anxiety disorders. 28. According to a behavioral-evolutionary explanation, we develop phobias because b. they help us survive and reproduce. 29. A person who frequently experiences terror attacks, and goes to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath, rapid heart rate, and feelings of impending death, although nothing is medically wrong, is experiencing: d. a panic disorder. 30. A person who is restless, keyed up, and on edge for no apparent reason is experiencing: a. free-floating anxiety. Chapter 5 f. Quiz 5 AB psych • The gland that produces a hormone that is involved in the reaction to fearful and stressful situations is the: o b. adrenal. • Which of the following accurately describes the sympathetic nervous system pathway of the stress response? o c. The hypothalamus excites the sympathetic nervous system which excites body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, producing even more arousal. • A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, and flashbacks that persists for years after a horrible event is called: o c. posttraumatic stress disorder. • Salina was terrified during the San Francisco earthquake of 1989 (who wouldn't be?). For a couple of weeks after, she did not sleep well or feel comfortable inside a building. However, gradually the fears diminished, and they disappeared within a month. Her reaction to the earthquake was: o d. an acute stress disorder. • A coach who wants to produce high emotional anxiety in players would: o threaten the players. • What proportion of women are the victims of rape at some point during their lives? o 1/6 • Some people are stimulated by exciting, potentially dangerous activities that terrify others. These varying reactions represent differences in: o state anxiety. • What percentage of rape victims qualified for diagnosis of acute stress disorder in Rothbaum, et al.'s study (1992)? o 94% • Which of the following does not characterize stress disorders? o a compulsive need to engage in activities that remind one of the event • The generic term for the white blood cells that react to foreign invaders in the body is: o lymphocytes. • Of the following, the most serious limitation of the Social Readjustment Rating Scale is that it: o does not show a significant predictable relationship with physical illness. • Relaxation training, biofeedback, meditation, and hypnosis all illustrate the use of: o psychological treatments for physical illnesses. • Maureen is learning to warm her hands. She looks at a dial that reflects the output from a heat-sensitive device on her fingers. She simply tried to make the dial go up. This is a form of: o biofeedback training. • Surveys show that in the U.S., the typical female victim of rape: o is not tested for HIV, and has long-term health problems. • A student who dreads being called on in class, and in fact panics at the thought of public speaking, is experiencing a(n) ______ response to stress. o emotional • Current research suggests that those who experience severe stress: o have abnormal levels of norepinephrine and cortisol. • Often those who respond to stress with a set of positive attitudes are less negatively affected by the stress, demonstrating what researchers call: o hardiness or resiliency. • Research suggests that which of the following is best related to a person's risk for developing a stress disorder? o generally being described as lacking in resiliency • Dorian was only 10 miles away when Mt. St. Helens exploded with one of the largest blasts in history. There was ash and lava everywhere, and he was sure he was going to die. He was terrified to the core of his being. When rescue teams found him a week later, he was cold, hungry, and scared. More than a year later he still has nightmares and wakes up in a cold sweat. This description best fits: o A posttraumatic stress disorder. • A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who is having "flashbacks" is: o reexperiencing the traumatic event. • The group of hormones that appears to be most involved in arousal and fear reaction are the: o corticosteroids. • Disorders that are thought to have both biological and psychosocial causes are: o somatoform. o psychophysiological. o factitious. • A woman complains of an assortment of physiological ailments. You think that she is intentionally producing the physical symptoms in order to gain attention. You think that the ailment fills some psychological need. You would diagnose: o factitious disorder. • A teammate of a basketball player says, "Congratulations on making those game-winning free throws. Weren't you bothered by the fans waving their arms behind the basket?" The basketball player replies, "Thanks. I felt a little nervous, but to tell the truth, I didn't even notice the fans." Most likely, the player who made the foul shots has: o low situational and trait anxiety. • If you were being treated using the technique called "rap group," you would be asked to: o meet with others and share your common experiences. • Stacey was out late at night when she came upon a group of men who appeared ready to attack her. She got scared and prepared to run. The part of her nervous system that was producing this reaction was the: o sympathetic nervous system. • Researchers have found a link between Type A personality and: o coronary heart disease. • When was acute stress disorder as a result of combat (called "shell shock") first recognized? o during World War I • Surveys suggest that about what percent of female rape victims in the U.S. are teenagers, or younger? o over 60% o 20% o 50% • A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who has symptoms of derealization and dissociation is: o experiencing reduced responsiveness. • Which of the following typifies posttraumatic stress disorder? o d. increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt • A person who has difficulty expressing unpleasant emotions such as anger or hostility is displaying a ______ and is at greater risk for heart disease/asthma. o b. repressive coping style • The most accurate statement about psychophysical disorders is that: o d. they result from an interaction of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors. • Relaxation training, biofeedback, meditation, and hypnosis all illustrate the use of: o b. psychological treatments for physical illnesses. • If a physician believes that a patient's disorder is due to hidden needs, repression, or reinforcement, then the patient may receive a diagnosis of: o malingering. o factitious disorder. o psychophysiological disorder. • In the United States: o your risk of being raped is higher than in any other industrialized country. • All of the following are considered traditional psychophysiological disorders except: o cancer. • Posttraumatic stress disorders: o c. last longer than a month. • Those most likely to experience substantial stress symptoms after the terrorist attacks in the U.S. on September 11, 2001: o lived near New York City. • About what proportion of Vietnam veterans suffered an acute or posttraumatic stress disorder? o b. 29% • Activation of the parasympathetic division of the nervous system leads to ______, while activation of the sympathetic division of the nervous system leads to ______. o c. overall calming; general arousal • I am generally a calm, relaxed person. If you are generally a tense, excitable person, we differ in: o c. trait anxiety. • A combat veteran receiving the best treatment for a stress disorder would be likely to experience all of the following except: o c. antipsychotic medication. • The Social Readjustment Rating Scale does all of the following except: o b. reflects responses from many different ethnic groups. • Of the following, the individual with the highest risk of developing heart disease is: o c. Type A, hostile. • A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who is upset by what she or he had to do to survive and perhaps even feels unworthy of surviving is: o experiencing increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt. • If a friend was suffering from hypertension, the best advice you could give from the following alternatives is: o combine medication with relaxation training. • A person who copes well with a happy event in life is showing a positive: o stress response. • In response to a threat, we perspire, breathe more quickly, get goose bumps, and feel nauseated. These responses are controlled by the: o sympathetic nervous system. • Current research suggests that those who experience severe stress: o have abnormal levels of norepinephrine and cortisol. • The most stressful life event for a student on the Holmes and Rahe stress scale is: o death of a family member (or friend). • For me, crossing a bridge is terrifying. If you hardly notice crossing a bridge, we differ in: o situational anxiety. Chapter 6 A child in an extremely abusive family situation often seems to become deaf to the verbal abuse, and insensitive to the physical abuse, as if the child simply wasn't there experiencing the abuse. One explanation of this behavior is: -self-hypnosis. Which of the following is true about malingering and factitious disorders? -Malingerers are trying to achieve some external gain by faking illness. A strong "feeling of knowing" is associated with which of the following? -the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon A person with paralysis of the arms but not the legs would probably be diagnosed with hysterical somatoform disorder rather than a medical problem because of the ______ of the symptoms. -oddity Barbiturates are sometimes used to help people with dissociative amnesia. They appear to work by: -helping people relax so that they can recall anxiety-arousing events. A person, years after committing a serious crime, is found living under a false identity over 1,000 miles from where the person used to live. The person's memory of the crime, and of other earlier events, is intact. Most likely this is a case of: -no mental disorder What characteristic is shared by both hypnotic amnesia and dissociative disorders? -forgetting specific information for a period of time, yet later recalling it A patient appeared at the clinic complaining of pain in her knee, shoulder, and abdomen, nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, and exhaustion. The patient history revealed that the patient had been going to clinics for years trying to get treatment for these complaints and a host of other physical symptoms. The diagnosis was: - somatization disorder. According to the psychodynamic view, conversion disorder symptoms function to keep unacceptable thoughts and conflicts out of consciousness. This is called: - primary gain. It was convenient when a witness awoke blind. The witness had been terrified about testifying and now did not have to. According to psychodynamic theory, this is an example of: -secondary gain. Imagine that you are a therapist treating Iraqi war veterans. If you encountered a veteran with posttraumatic stress disorder, you would also be likely to find: -a dissociative disorder. A visual image that is retained so vividly that one can continue to scan it for more information is called: -an eidetic image. Imagine that a woman experienced a traumatic sexual assault. Found wandering home by her friends, she could not recall anything about the assault because of: -localized amnesia. An individual who had suffered from dissociative fugue likely would have experienced all of the following except: - a recurrence of the problem months or years later. Conversion disorders most often appear in: -adolescence. Psychodynamic therapy may be particularly effective in the treatment of dissociative disorders because: -psychodynamic therapy often tries to recover lost memories. Jason has multiple personality disorder. Fat Freddy and Carmen are two personalities who are aware of all of the others, but do not interact with them. Fat Freddy and Carmen would be described as: -co-conscious. The key to the maintenance of our identity, and the avoidance of dissociative disorders, is: -memory. Which of the following memory problems is considered abnormal? -fugue Which of the following is an example of malingering? -intentionally faking a tic in order to avoid military service Plastic surgeons need to be sensitive to the fact that about 15% of their patients are probably experiencing: -body dysmorphic disorder. Psychodynamic theorists propose that unconscious conflicts cause conversion disorders. Their remedy is to bring these to consciousness and work them through. Knowledge of the underlying problem will make the symptom disappear. This therapy is based on: -insight. A cognitive theorist would be most likely to say which of the following about hysterical disorders? -The patient is otherwise unable to communicate difficult emotions. Freud believed that hysterical symptoms: -enabled people to avoid unpleasant emotional conflicts. The patient had several surgeries over the years for vague and nonspecific sexual reproductive problems, visiting many of the best hospitals in the East during the course of treatment. The best diagnosis for this disorder is: -somatization disorder. The chief sources of data used to support the theories of psychodynamic and behavioral clinicians are: -case studies. Preoccupation somatoform disorders differ from hysterical somatoform disorders in that the latter: -include hypochondriasis and body dysmorphic disorder The heart patient complained of adhesions from the scar, leg cramps, and joint stiffness, but no medical reason could be found to explain the symptoms. The best diagnosis for this disorder is: -pain disorder associated with psychological factors. Modern studies suggest that the average number of subpersonalities in cases of multiple personality in women is about: -15, and is lower for men. Munchausen syndrome by proxy is most likely to adversely affect the physical well-being of: -the child of the person experiencing it. Students whose illnesses enable them to miss an exam for which they have not studied would fit best into which of these diagnostic categories? -factitious disorder An individual who formerly knew almost all the state and international capital cities can no longer remember them as a result of a dissociative disorder. That dissociative disorder most likely is: - dissociative amnesia. If a person complains of a wide variety of physical symptoms over a period of time in the absence of a physical basis for the symptoms, the diagnosis would likely be: -somatization disorder. A person who is excessively concerned about genital odors and the shape and look of the genitals is most likely experiencing: -body dysmorphic disorder Our expectations, values, and goals combine to form our: -identity. A woman experiences a mugging and robbery in which her prized poodle is kidnapped. Eventually the dog is found and returned. However, she is unable to recall events immediately following the attack, up until the safe return of the dog. This is a classic example of: -localized amnesia. Imagine that a person experiences changes in physical functioning that are almost entirely caused by psychological factors. The best diagnosis would be: -hysterical somatoform disorder. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of an individual with Munchausen syndrome by proxy? -emotionally needy If you had lost your sense of identity, which of the following would most likely be disrupted? -your memory A client receiving treatment for dissociative identity disorder is progressing well through therapy; then, fusion occurs. Most likely, the client: -has merged the final two or more subpersonalities. Which of the following patterns is least characteristic of conversion disorder? -develops gradually over many years Having a background in medicine, but also a grudge against the profession puts a person at risk for: -a factitious disorder. Munchausen syndrome is a ______ disorder. -factitious The fact that personality transitions in dissociative disorders are usually sudden is supported by the idea that: -what we learn in one state of arousal is best remembered when we are in a different state of arousal. Imagine that a woman experienced a traumatic sexual assault. Found wandering home by her friends, she could recall the way her assailant smelled and what he said, but none of the other details of the assault because of: -selective amnesia. The most current research suggests that expectations and suggestions work by: a. blocking the release of endorphins. b. replacing one's logical cognitive skills. d. triggering chemical changes in the body. If the state-dependent learning explanation of dissociative disorders is correct, a person may not remember stressful events because he or she is: -at a different arousal level after the stress is over. What conclusion does research on hypnosis and hypnotic amnesia support? -Dissociative disorders are similar to behaviors seen in hypnotic amnesia. Treatments for somatoform disorders are most similar to treatments for: -anxiety. The usual goal of therapy for dissociative identity disorders is to: -merge the subpersonalities into a single identity. Which of the following hypotheses used to explain dissociative disorders is shared by psychodynamic and behavioral theorists? -They serve to help someone escape something unpleasant. Studies have shown that about what percent of women and men in the U.S. would change something about their appearance if they could? -more than 90% of men and of women The perspective on hysterical disorders that suggests people use these symptoms to communicate emotions that they cannot easily express otherwise is the ______ view. -cognitive A person who has repeated plastic surgeries in order to correct only very minor defects that no one else even notices is probably experiencing: -body dysmorphic disorder. Chapter 7 A preadolescent child who has not received a clinical diagnosis participates in a program designed to stop the development of an antisocial pattern of behavior. Most likely, that program is: d. a prevention program. Mild mental retardation is most common in which socioeconomic class? c. lower A 4-year-old child looks uncomfortable, then begins to cry, when left alone at a preschool day-care center. Ten minutes later, the child is using Legos to build a tower along with two other preschoolers, and does not seem distressed. The best diagnosis for this child would be: b. no disorder. c. bipolar disorder. d. oppositional defiant disorder. Tamara's parents are down on her all the time. When they are not criticizing her, they ignore her. This is an example of: c. psychological abuse. Anoxia, one possible source of mental retardation, involves brain damage resulting from: a. lack of oxygen during or after delivery. A child sneaks out of the home every now and then, and goes through the neighborhood breaking lawn decorations and scratching car paint. These behaviors most closely fit which pattern of conduct disorder? d. covert-destructive c. poor parent-child relationships. Research has shown that, during infancy and early childhood, children with autism are more likely to: d. None of the answers are true. About what percentage of those diagnosed with mental retardation fall in the DSM-IV-TR "mild retardation" category? c. 80-85% Compared to the adult population, children in the United States are more likely to: a. be victims of crimes, but less likely to commit crimes, including murder. b. commit crimes and be victims of crimes, but less likely to be murderers. c. commit crimes, including murder, and be victims of crimes. "That kid is pleasant enough, but will lie about practically anything, even things that don't seem to matter much." This behavior most closely fits which pattern of conduct disorder? a. overt-nondestructive c. covert-destructive d. overt-destructive Studies of the use of behavioral techniques in the treatment of autism have shown that behavioral techniques can produce: d. long-term gains in school achievement and intelligence test performance. "What is over there?" asks the child, pointing to a distant object; "Does it belong to you?" the child asks the therapist. The therapist answers the child in detail, and praises the child's efforts at communication. Most likely, the child is receiving: a. cognitive social integration therapy for Asperger's disorder. c. cognitive social integration therapy for autism. d. child-initiated interactions training for autism. At the end of the year the criteria for remaining in the state school changed, and Henry was simply released into the community. This is an example of: d. deinstitutionalization. Most diagnosed cases of Down syndrome are of the ______ type. d. trisomy 21 Among other things, a diagnosis of ADHD must include a total of at least: a. 6 symptoms, lasting at least 6 months. According to psychologists, how concerned should we be about IAD (Internet Addiction Disorder), especially with children? a. Very concerned; as many as 30% of Internet users develop IAD. b. Not much; because of incomplete brain development, children almost never develop IAD. d. Somewhat; there is at least a chance that children, in particular, will develop IAD. In terms of Ritalin consumption per person, the greatest increase in Ritalin use in the United States occurred in the: c. early 1990s. A 10-year-old has a diagnosable conduct disorder. The approach most likely to succeed would be to: a. begin therapy at once. Several decades ago, a child had a great deal of difficulty keeping on task in school. Not only did the child frequently roam around the classroom and talk to others, the child frequently squirmed around while at a desk. At the time, the child was diagnosed as suffering from "minimal brain damage," today's likely diagnosis would be: b. ADHD. Which of the following statements regarding current drug treatments for bipolar disorder in children is most accurate? b. Bipolar disorder in children is treated very effectively with drugs different from those used with adults. c. Bipolar disorder in children is treated with the same drugs used with adults, but their effectiveness is unknown at present. d. Bipolar disorder in children is treated with drugs different from those used with adults, but their effectiveness is unknown at present. A child has been diagnosed with conduct disorder, but was not previously diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder. This situation is: a. very common; the two disorders are not related to one another. b. not very common; about one third of those diagnosed with conduct disorder were earlier diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder. c. uncommon; over half of those diagnosed with conduct disorder were earlier diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder. According to the most recent research, which of the following sequences of treatments for teenage depression is in order from the most effective treatment to the least effective treatment? a. antidepressants alone, cognitive-behavioral therapy and antidepressants, cognitive-behavioral therapy alone, placebo b. cognitive-behavioral therapy and antidepressants, antidepressants alone, cognitive-behavioral therapy alone, placebo d. cognitive-behavioral therapy and antidepressants, cognitive-behavioral therapy alone, antidepressants alone, placebo One group researching Asperger's disorder uses the terms "rule boys," "logic boys," and "emotion boys" to identify subtypes of Asperger's disorder. Might a more inclusive word than "boy" be used for identifying subtypes? a. Yes, although about 80% of those diagnosed with Asperger's disorder are boys. Hanna could not metabolize phenylalanine properly when she was born. She is displaying: b. phenylketonuria (PKU). A child diagnosed with Asperger's disorder learns to make choices, and learns that rules are not necessarily rigid. Facing change and being flexible are other parts of the therapy. Most likely, the child is experiencing: b. cognitive social integration therapy. A person diagnosed with autism listens to a piano piece at a concert. Later at home, the person plays the piano piece without the music, and without making a mistake. This behavior is best described as: c. savant skill. Which of the following disorders of childhood and adolescence is most common? a. conduct disorder c. encopresis d. mental retardation The specific symptoms associated with dyslexia include: b. an impairment of the ability to recognize words and to comprehend what is being read. Boys and girls have about the same percentage chance of being diagnosed with: a. oppositional defiant disorder if they are postpuberty. A friend says to you, "My child has been diagnosed with separation anxiety disorder. I don't know whether to have it treated or not. Don't kids get over that just by growing up?" Of the following, your best answer would be: b. "Maybe, although untreated, it may become school phobia, or something similar." c. "No, they don't—medication plus psychotherapy is a must." d. "Almost always." A friend asks you for a nearly foolproof way to find out if someone has been diagnosed with autism or with Asperger's disorder. Your best answer among the following would be: a. "Try to talk with the person; if he or she converses well, it's probably Asperger's." Which of the following do phenylketonuria and Tay-Sachs disease have in common? a. Both are caused by a double recessive gene. Biological factors appear not to be the most important causes of which level of mental retardation? c. mild Assume that you are alone in a room with a child suffering from a disorder of childhood. If you didn't know what the child's diagnosis was, what behavior of the child's might start to convince you that the disorder is autism? b. The child is not responsive to other people. A child who has been diagnosed with ADHD frequently disrupts the class to such a degree that the teacher can no longer conduct instruction. This kind of problem behavior is: a. the norm; over three-quarters of those diagnosed with ADHD exhibit serious behavior problems. A diagnostician says, "I'm reasonably sure there's a hereditary factor for this disorder, especially since your uncle had the same disorder." This statement would be least accurate regarding: b. encopresis. Generally speaking, as children diagnosed with ADHD enter adulthood, the number of them who continue to have ADHD: d. decreases, and symptom severity decreases as well. A child's distracting behaviors occur only in a school setting, and include failure to follow instructions and finish work, answering questions before

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Which of the following statements about genetic factors in schizophrenia is accurate?

a. Close relatives of schizophrenics are more likely to be schizophrenic than distant relatives of schizophrenics.

The two most common treatments for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder have been:

a. behavioral and drug therapies.

In poor inner-city neighborhoods, children sometimes eat paint that is flaking off walls. This can lead to mental retardation because of:

a. lead poisoning.

What percentage of the world population is estimated to have schizophrenia?

b. 1%

Those with schizophrenia who wave their arms around in wild motions and make kicking motions with their legs are experiencing:

b. catatonic excitement.