Ace ASCP
According to AABB Standards, at least 90% of all Apheresis Platelets units tested shall contain a minimum of how many platelets? 5.5 X 10^11 5.0 X 10^11 3.0 X 10^11 6.5 X 10^11
Feedback As per AABB Standards, at least 90% of platelet pheresis units sampled must contain at least 3.0 x 10^11 platelets.
If total cholesterol is 230 mg/dl, HDL is 55 mg/dl and triglycerides is 190 mg/dl, what is the concentration of LDL? 137 mg/dl 125 mg/dl 85 mg/dl 140 mg/dl
A. 137 mg/dl Feedback Friedewald formula (1972)= LDL= Total cholesterol-HDL-TAG/5 (mg/dl) 230-55-(190/5)= 137 mg/dl
According to AABB standards, Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) must be infused within what period of time following thawing? 24 hrs 36 hrs 48 hrs 72 hrs
A. 24 hours
Hallmarks of this type of anemia: Formation of a fusion protein, AML1-ETO or RUNX1-RUNX1T1, due to a translocation of chromosome 8 to chromosome 21 or t(8;21): Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL) Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)
A. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) Feedback FAB M2 is a subtype of Acute Myeloid Leukemia. It is also known as "Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia with Maturation".
Standardization of Mueller-Hinton Agar? adjust pH to 7.2 adjust pH to 6.5 adjust pH to 8.5 All of the above
A. Adjust pH to 7.2
17-Ketosteroids is produced in the: Adrenal glands Hypothalamus Thyroid glands Pituitary glands
A. Adrenal glands Feedback 17-ketosteroids are substances that form when the body breaks down male steroid sex hormones called androgens and other hormones released by the adrenal glands in males and females, and by the testes in males.
Weak D: A. All antigens are present but under expressed B. Develops antibody C. A and B D. All antigens are expressed
A. All antigens are present but under expressed
Which of the following antigen/s is enhanced by enzymes? Kidd, Rh Lewis, P ABO All of the abov
A. All of the above Feedback: (KLARP) Kidd, Lewis, ABO, Rh and P antigens are enhanced by enzymes, MNS and Duffy antigens are destroyed by enzymes.
An alkaline urine refrigerated becomes turbid because of? Amorphous phosphates Amorphous urates WBC Bacteria
A. Amorphous phosphates Feedback Amorphous phosphates are usually formed in alkaline urine and they are without a color. The precipitate of amorphous phosphates is white while Amorphous urates are yellow, yellow-brown or pinkish in color. They tend to form in acidic urine and their precipitate is pink with a cloudy appearance of the mixed urine. Amorphous urates are a normal presence in the urine.
What disease is associated with the possession of HLA-B27? Ankylosing spondylitis Hashimoto's Disease Goodpasture's syndrome SLE
A. Ankylosing spondylitis Feedback: Ankylosing spondylitis belongs to a group of arthritis conditions that tend to cause chronic inflammation of the spine (spondyloarthropathies). The HLA-B27 gene can be detected in the blood of most patients with ankylosing spondylitis.
Identify the organism: Fig. 3 Blastomyces dermatitidis Malasezia furfur Alternaria Candida albicans
A. Blastomyces dermatitidis Feedback The above image show broad base budding.
Order of migration of hemoglobins during alkaline electrophoresis, starting from the origin towards the anode: C,S,F,A C,S,A,F S,C,A,F A,F,S,C
A. C, S, F, A Feedback The order of migration of different hemoglobins starting from the origin is C,S,F,A. Fastest towards the anode is Hemoglobin A.
Causative agent of Eye conjunctivitis: C. trachomatis H. ducreyi L. monocytogenes T. pallidum
A. C. trachomatis Feedback Chlamydial conjunctivitis is treated with both antibiotic pills and eyedrops or ointment to kill the chlamydia in your body. Your sexual partner must also be treated. Usually you will get better after taking the antibiotics for 3 to 4 weeks. Treatment for a newborn is antibiotic ointment and IV antibiotics.
Lactic acid specimen: Chilled and separated from cells Heated Room temperature Request EDTA sample only
A. Chilled and separated from cells Feedback Special Handling: No tourniquet. Place on ice immediately and deliver to lab or aliquot within 15 minutes. DO NOT FREEZE WHOLE BLOOD SPECIMEN.
Arrange the common Rh antigens according to immunogenicity (greatest to least): D>c>E>C>e D>C>E>c>e D>c>E>e>C C>D>c>E>e
A. D>c>E>C>e Feedback Most immunogenic D > c > E > C > e least immunogenic.
Role of a supervisor in a laboratory: Democratic Autocratic Laissez-faire All of the above
A. Democratic Feedback (Democratic)- supervisor acts according to the mutual consent and discussion or in other words he consults subordinates in the process of decision making. This is also known as participative or consultative supervision. (Autocratic)- the supervisor wields absolute power and wants complete obedience from his subordinates. He wants everything to be done strictly according to his instructions and never likes any intervention from his subordinates. (Laissez-faire)- This is also known as independent supervision. Under this type of supervision, maximum freedom is allowed to the subordinates. The supervisor never interferes in the work of the subordinates.
A patient's record shows a previous anti-Jk(b), but the current antibody screen is negative. What further testing should be done before transfusion? Give Jk(b) negative crossmatch compatible blood Crossmatch type specific units and release only compatible units for transfusion Phenotype the patient's red cells for the Jk(b) antigen AOTA
A. Give Jk(b) negative crossmatch compatible blood Feedback Delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions may occur in recipients who are previously immunized but who do not have detectable antibody, if they receive blood with the corresponding antigen. When there is a history of clinically significant antibodies, donor red cells should be phenotyped and antigen-negative blood selected. A complete AHG crossmatch must be performed.
Identify: FI.g 5 Heinz bodies Basophilic stippling Howell-Jolly bodies Auer rods
A. Heinz Bodies Feedback Heinz bodies (also referred to as "Heinz-Ehrlich bodies") are inclusions within red blood cells composed of denatured hemoglobin. It is also seen in cases of moth balls (naphthalene) ingestion.
A woman having menstrual cycle would have the ff. result: Increased TIBC Increased Ferritin Increase % Saturation Normal Transferrin
A. Increased TIBC Feedback A total iron binding capacity value above 450 mcg/dL usually means that there's a low level of iron in your blood. This may be caused by a lack of iron in the diet, increased blood loss during menstruation, pregnancy, or a chronic infection.
Use to differentiate Salmonella from Citrobacter: Lysine decarboxylase ONPG Indole Vogues Proskauerterm-9
A. Lysine decarboxylase Feedback: Salmonella (+); Citrobacter (-)
With what leukemia is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) associated? M3 M1 M6 CML
A. M3 Feedback M3- Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (T15;17).
What is the sugar fermented by Staphylococcus aureus? Mannitol Sucrose Glucose Maltose
A. Mannitol Mannitol salt agar is a commonly used growth medium in microbiology. It encourages the growth of a group of certain bacteria while inhibiting the growth of others. It contains a high concentration (7.5%-10%) of salt (NaCl), making it selective for gram positive bacteria Staphylococci (and Micrococcaceae) since this level of NaCl is inhibitory to most other bacteria. It is also a differential medium for mannitol fermentors, containing mannitol and the indicator phenol red. Staphylococcus aureus produce yellow colonies with yellow zones, whereas other Staphylococci produce small pink or red colonies with no colour change to the medium. If an organism can ferment mannitol, an acidic byproduct is formed that will cause the phenol red in the agar to turn yellow.
pH 7.22, pC02: 35, H2CO3: 10 Metabolic acidosis Metabolic alkalosis Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis
A. Metabolic acidosis Feedback Normal values: pH- 7.35-7.45 pCO2: 35-45 HCO3: 22-26
The oxygen sensitive indicator that is used to ensure that anaerobic jars or chambers have met the anaerobic conditions required for anaerobes to grow is: Methylene blue Bromphenol blue Thymol blue Bromthymol blue
A. Methylene blue Feedback Methylene blue is used as an indicator of anaerobiosis. It remains blue when there is oxygen present in the environment but turns colorless if anaerobic conditions are met.
Identify the organism: Fig. 4 Clostridium difficile Mycobacterium tuberculosis Listeria monocytogenes Corynebacterium diphtheriae
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis Feedback Mycobacterium tuberculosis is an obligate pathogenic bacterial species in the family Mycobacteriaceae and the causative agent of tuberculosis. M. tuberculosis has an unusual, waxy coating on its cell surface primarily due to the presence of mycolic acid. Cells are curved rod-shaped and are often seen wrapped together, due to the presence of fatty acids in the cell wall that stick together. This appearance is referred to as cording, like strands of cord that make up a rope. M. tuberculosis is characterized in tissue by caseating granulomas containing Langhans giant cells, which have a "horseshoe" pattern of nuclei.
Causative agent of "Cat bite fever" Pasteurella multocida Actinomyces israelii Bartonella henselae Leptospira interrogans
A. Pasteurella multocida Feedback Pasteurella species are commonly isolated pathogens in most animal bites, especially in dog- and cat-related injuries. These injuries can be aggressive, with skin manifestations typically appearing within 24 hours following a bite. These wounds can exhibit a rapidly progressive soft-tissue inflammation that may resemble group A β-hemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes infections.
Specific gravity measured by refractometer: 1.035. Protein and glucose both trace in reagent strip: Presence X-ray medium Albuminuria Glucosuria Normal
A. Presence X-Ray medium Feedback Xray medium/Radiographic dye can cause erroneous results in urine specific gravity measurement.
2-month old baby with Normal WBC, Normal platelet, reticulocyte count: 0.1%: Pure red cell aplasia Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia Polycythemia vera
A. Pure red cell aplasia Feedback In pure red cell aplasia only red cell production is affected and WBC and platelet counts are normal. It is not likely that RBC count falls that low in lead poisoning.
Which of the following blood test uses radioimmunoassay test to detect direct and specific IgE? Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST) Radioimmunosorbent Test (RIST) A and B None of the above
A. Radioallergosorbent Test (RAST) Feedback RAST test is used to detect direct and specific IgE. RIST test is used to detect total serum IgE.
What is the first step in agglutination? Sensitization Precipitation Diffusion Lattice formation
A. Sensitization Feedback Agglutination involves two process: First, sensitization or initial binding. Second, lattice formation or formation of large aggregates.
What is the formula for sensitivity? TP/(TP+FN)x100 TP/(TP+FP)x100 (TP+FN)/TPx100 (TP+FP)/TNx100
A. TP/(TP+FN)x100
It is sometimes referred to as the "pork worm" due to it being typically encountered in undercooked pork products: Fig 11 Trichinella spiralis Trichuris trichiura Enterobius vermicularis Taenia saginata
A. Trichinella spiralis
Most common error in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is NUCLEIC ACID CONTAMINATION. A True (Correct Answer) B False
A. True
Burr cells are seen in the peripheral blood smear, this is indicative of? (Fig. 2) Uremia (Kidney Disease) Anemia Leukemia Liver Disease
A. Uremia (kidney Disease) Feedback: The above shown picture illustrates Burr cells, these cells are indicative of Uremia (kidney disease)
SC1-(37/LISS): 0 (Anti-IgG): +/- SC2-(37/LISS): 0 (Anti-IgG): +/- Use polyspecific AHG Report as Negative Report as Positive NOTA
A. Use polyspecific AHG Feedback Since most incomplete antibodies are IgG, polyspecific AHG serum contains anti-IgG. Because some IgG and IgM antibodies also cause C3 to attach to red cells, polyspecific AHG serum also contains anti-C3, which can cause C3-coated red cells to agglutinate
Which of the following should be tested in cases of Antacid overdose? pH Potassium Ammonia Chloride
A. pH Feedback Antacids do just what their name suggests: they neutralize the normal stomach acid (HCl), causing the pH to rise to a nearly neutral pH of around 6 to 7. As the pH rises above 4, pepsin activity decreases or stops. Some types of antacids, made of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3) or calcium carbonate (CaCO3), are easily absorbed into a person's body and can cause a pH imbalance, possibly leading to kidney damage or other problems (Berkow, 1987).
In emphysema, the absence of alpha-1 globulin peak is due the deficiency of: A1-Antitrypsin (AAT) Macroglobulin Hemopexin Transferrin
A1-Antitrypsin (AAT) Feedback Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an inherited disorder that may cause lung disease and liver disease. Affected individuals often develop emphysema, which is a lung disease caused by damage to the small air sacs in the lungs (alveoli). Characteristic features of emphysema include difficulty breathing, a hacking cough, and a barrel-shaped chest.
A patient with an anti-K and an anti-JKa in her plasma needs 2 units of RBC for surgery. How many group specific units would need to be screened to find 2 units of RBC? The frequency of Jka+ is 80% and K+ frequency is 15%.
B. 12 Feedback Formula: Number of units to crossmatch is equivalent to: # of units need by patient/(frequency of negativity of antigen #1 x frequency of negativity of antigen #2). Negativity of Jka+ is .20%, Negativity of K+ is .85%. Using the formula, 2 units/(.20x.85)=11.76 rounded to 12.
Sterilization of autoclave: 121°C at 20 lbs/psi for 30 minutes 121°C at 15 lbs/psi for 15 minutes 85°C for 15 lbs/psi 30 minutes 100°C for 20 lbs/psi 50 minutes
B. 121°C at 15 lbs/psi for 15 minutes Feedback Many autoclaves are used to sterilize equipment and supplies by subjecting them to high-pressure saturated steam at 121°C (249 °F) for around 15-20 minutes depending on the size of the load and the contents.
What does hemoglobin F consist of? Two alpha and two beta chains Two alpha and two gamma chains Two alpha and two delta chains Four beta chains
B. 2 alpha, 2 gamma chains
A newborn infant has a WBC count of 37,000/ul with the differential count revealing the presence of 50 nRBCs per 100 WBCs. What is the corrected WBC count? 15,000/ul 24,700/ul 27,300/ul 12,500/ul
B. 24,700/ul Feedback Corrected WBC count= Uncorrected WBC count x100/nRBCs+100: Thus, (37,000ulx100/50+100= 24,700ul)
What is the coefficient of variation if the mean is 90 and the standard deviation is 5.48? 2.75 6.09 5.68 30
B. 6.09 Feedback: CV= SD/meanX100, (5.48/90)X100= 6.09.
When performing semen analysis, sperm count is done: After collection After liquefaction No certain time NOTA
B. After liquefaction Feedback Sperm count is done after liquefaction which is approximately 20-30 minutes.
Identify the organism: Fig. 9 Enterobius vermicularis Ascaris lumbricoides Trichinella spiralis Taenia solium
B. Ascaris lumbricoides Feedback The above shown image is a fertile egg of Ascaris lumbricoides. Ascaris lumbricoides is a roundworm, infects humans when an ingested fertilized egg becomes a larval worm (called rhabditiform larva) that penetrates the wall of the duodenum and enters the blood stream.
Gram positive bacilli; non-motile; non-hemolytic; catalase positive; spore forming: B. anthracis B. cereus N. meningitidis N. lactamica
B. B. anthracis Feedback Important distinguishing characteristics between B. anthracis and B. cereus is motility, B. anthracis is non motile while B. cereus is motile.
Concentration of a substance is directly proportional to the amount of light absorbed or inversely proportional to the logarithm of the transmitted light: Nernst equation Beer's law Boyle's law NOTA
B. Beer's law
Causative agent of pseudomembranous colitis? C. perfringens C. difficile C. jejuni All of the above
B. C. Difficile Feedback Pseudomembranous colitis refers to swelling or inflammation of the large intestine (colon) due to an overgrowth of Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) bacteria. This infection is a common cause of diarrhea after antibiotic use.
Encapsulated yeast seen in Diabetes Mellitus: C. albicans C. neoformans A and B NOTA
B. C. Neoformans Uncontrolled diabetics are prone to infections due to numerous factors as the glucose-rich blood serves as an excellent media for growth. Cryptococcus neoformans is an opportunistic fungus that is an important cause of CNS infections among immunocompromised patients, but it has only sporadically been reported in non-HIV-positive persons. The presence of elevated pro-inflammatory cytokines and abnormalities in numerous systemic indicators of inflammation in diabetics makes it conceivable that diabetics mount an exaggerated immune response to C. neoformans (paradoxical to their defective immune state) leading to grave outcomes.
A and B blood group antigens are derived when glycosyltransferases add specific sugars to precursor H. What is the terminal sugar for B antigen? Fucose D-galactose N-acetylglucosamine N-acetylgalactosamine
B. D-galactose Feedback The A Blood Type is the H antigen with N-acetylgalactosamine attached. The B Blood Type is the H antigen with D-galactose attached. The O Blood Type is the H antigen with no additional sugar attached.
Test for Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria (PCH): Autohemolysis test Donath-Landsteiner Test Sucrose hemolysis test NOTA
B. Donath-Landsteiner Test Feedback Normal= (-) hemolysis on test and control, PCH= (-) hemolysis on control but (+) hemolysis on test sample.
A gram stain from a blood agar shows gram positive cocci in chains, non-hemolytic. The bacteria grow on 6.5% NaCl and is Bile Esculin positive. What's the most likely identification? Group D streptococcus Enterococcus Streptococcus pyogenes Micrococcus
B. Enterococcus Feedback Only Enterococcus can grow both 6.5% NaCl and Bile Esculin
Duckert's Test 5M Urea Solubility Test is used of: Factor II deficiency Factor XIII deficiency Factor VIII deficiency Factor XII deficiency
B. Factor XIII deficiency Feedback Duckert's Test is for factor XIII deficiency, Reagent: 5M Urea. Test Results: Normal: Clot is insoluble to urea (24 hrs), Abnormal: Factor XIII deficiency: Clot is soluble to urea (24 hrs)
Rheumatoid Factor: IgG that binds to the Fc portion of abnormal IgM IgM that binds to the Fc portion of abnormal IgG A and B None of the above
B. IgM that binds to the Fc portion of abnormal IgG
What is the effect of dextran, why it is difficult to interpret in blood banking? It inhibits Anti-A and Anti-B It causes rouleaux It destroys the D antigen on red cell surface It has soluble like antigen
B. It causes rouleaux. Feedback Rouleaux- pseudoagglutination or the false clumping of erythrocytes when the cells are suspended in their own serum. This phenomenon resembles agglutination and is due to the presence of an abnormal protein, plasma expanders such as DEXTRAN or wharton's jelly from cord blood samples.
Polycythemia vera mutation? ADAMS JAK2 Rpp Bcl/BCR
B. JAK2 Feedback Approximately 95% of all PV patients have a mutation of the JAK2 gene in their blood-forming cells. This mutation leads to hyperactive JAK (Janus kinase) signaling, causing the body to make the wrong number of blood cells.
Stomatocytes are indicative of? Fig. 10 Sideroblastic anemia Liver Disease IDA Folate deficiency
B. Liver Disease Feedback Stomatocytes can be seen with some acquired conditions such as chronic liver disease (most often due to alcoholism) or acute alcohol intoxication.
Primidone monitoring: suspected to have primidone overdose, but the serum concentration is within the normal range, what should the MLS do next? Measure procainamide concentration Measure phenobarbital concentration Measure phenytoin concentration Eliminate primidone overdose as possible diagnosis
B. Measure phenobarbital concentration Feedback Primidone is a structural analog of phenobarbital.
Which of the following condition is the most common cause of increase anion gap? A.Metabolic alkalosis B. Metabolic acidosis Respiratory acidosis Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis High anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused generally by the body producing too much acid or not producing enough bicarbonate. This is often due to an increase in lactic acid or ketoacids, or it may be a sign of kidney failure. More rarely, high anion gap metabolic acidosis may be caused by ingesting methanol or overdosing on aspirin.
Laboratory Results: Decreased T3, Decreased T4, Decreased TSH Secondary Hyperthyroidism Secondary Hypothyroidism Primary Hyperthyroidism Primary Hypothyroidism
B. Secondary Hypothyroidism Feedback The cause of secondary hypothyroidism is failure of the pituitary gland to secrete thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).
Blood smear below denotes Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL), which of the following test is used to identify this type of leukemia? Image. 1 Myeloperoxidase Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase Tartrate-resistant alkaline phosphatase Sudan Black
B. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase Feedback: Hairy cells demonstrate strong positivity for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TRAP) staining. The hairy cells are larger than normal and positive for CD19, CD20, CD22, CD11c, CD25, CD103, and FMC7.
A patient with walking pneumonia is being treated with penicillin. State one possible condition why the patient is not recovering: The organism produces beta lactamase The organism has no cell wall The organism has capsule The organism produces an enzyme that neutralizes the antibiotic
B. The organism has no cell wall. Feedback Pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae is routinely treated with antibiotics, although the disease is usually self-limiting. The disease is treated with macrolide, tetracycline, or fluoroquinolone classes of antibiotics. All mycoplasmas lack a cell wall and, therefore, all are inherently resistant to beta-lactam antibiotics (e.g., penicillin).
Lowest concentration of drug in patients blood stream: Peak Trough A and B None of the above
B. Trough Feedback The trough level is the lowest concentration in the patient's bloodstream, therefore, the specimen should be collected just prior to administration of the drug. The peak level is the highest concentration of a drug in the patient's bloodstream.
Urinalysis result shows the following: RBC= 20-25/hpf Hyaline cast- 6-8/hpf WBC= 5-10/hpf RTE Cells: 25-35/hpf They are most likely indicative of: Glomerulonephritis Tubular necrosis Pyelonephritis Nephrotic syndrome
B. Tubular necrosis
From which source are you most likely to see this parasite? Fig.8 Stool Urine Sputum Blood
B. Urine Feedback Schistosoma haematobium is an important digenetic trematode, and is found in Africa and the Middle East. It is a major agent of schistosomiasis; more specifically, it is associated with urinary schistosomiasis.
When introducing a new manual technique, which is the best approach? Case presentation Workshop Lecture All of the above
B. Workshop
Cytogenetic anomaly in Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (M3): t(9:22) t(15:17) t(8:21) None of the above
B. t(15:17) Feedback Acute promyelocytic leukemia is characterized by a chromosomal translocation involving the retinoic acid receptor-alpha gene on chromosome 17 (RARA). In 95% of cases of APL, retinoic acid receptor-alpha (RARA) gene on chromosome 17 is involved in a reciprocal translocation with the promyelocytic leukemia gene (PML) on chromosome 15, a translocation denoted as t(15;17)(q22;q12). The RAR receptor is dependent on retinoic acid for regulation of transcription.
What is the minimum platelet count before you perform apheresis? 500 200 150 250
C. 150. Feedback Apheresis donors with low normal pre-procedure platelet counts (150 - 200 x 10 9/L) and Hb concentration (12.5 - 13 g/dL) should be examined for post-donation drops in these haematological parameters
Maximum interval which a recipient sample maybe used for crossmatching if the patient has been recently transfused, has been pregnant? 2 days 6 days 3 days NOTA
C. 3 days
Precipitation of ribosomes and RNA: Figure 7 Heinz bodies Howell- Jolly bodies Basophilic stippling Auer rods
C. Basophilic stippling Feedback 1. Fine stippling= polychromatophilia (production of RBCs). 2. Coarse stippling= lead poisoning.
Which of the following methods used for HIV identification is considered a signal amplification technique? DNA PCR Reverse Transcriptase PCR Branched Chain DNA Analysis Nucleic acid sequence-based assay (NASBA)
C. Branched Chain DNA analysis. Feedback Branched DNA (bDNA) is a signal amplification technology used in clinical and research laboratories to quantitatively detect nucleic acids. An overnight incubation is a significant drawback of highly sensitive bDNA assays.
Gram negative bacteria, normally found in the oropharyngeal tract of mammals, they are involved in the pathogenesis of some animal bite wounds as well as periodontal diseases. This bacteria exhibits GLIDING MOTILITY: Leptospira Actinobacillus Capnocytophaga Chlamydia
C. Capnocytophaga Feedback The term Capnocytophaga comes from "Capno" for its dependence on CO2 and "cytophaga" for its flexibility and mobility shift (" gliding motility ").
In HIV: Increased Total Lymphocyte Increased CD8 Decreased CD4 Normal CD8/CD4
C. Decreased CD4 Feedback A very low CD4 count (less than 200 cells/mm3) is one of the ways to determine whether a person living with HIV has progressed to stage 3 infection (AIDS).
High-Level Aminoglycoside Resistance: Micrococcus Staphylococcus Enterococci AOTA
C. Enterococci Feedback Enterococci are intrinsically resistant to aminoglycosides; a combination therapy using aminoglycoside with vancomycin has been known to increase the effectiveness of the aminoglycoside. It is important to identify this high-level aminoglycoside resistance (HLAR) to provide appropriate therapy.
Effect of increased Aldosterone to sodium and potassium: Decreased Sodium; Decreased Potassium Increased Sodium; Increased Potassium Increased Sodium; Decreased Potassium NOTA
C. Increased sodium; decreased potassium Feedback Hyperaldosteronism can cause high blood pressure, low potassium levels and an abnormal increase in blood volume because of the way the hormone affects the body. It's also possible to have low levels of aldosterone. Addison's Disease, a disease that causes a general loss of adrenal function, can be a cause. Sodium and potassium always have inverse relationship.
Alpha-1 globulin flat curve in a protein electrophoresis indicates? Multiple myeloma Inflammation Juvenile cirrhosis Nephrotic syndrome
C. Juvenile cirrhosis Feedback Juvenile cirrhosis (AAT Deficiency) exhibits alpha-1 globulin flat curve in a protein electrophoresis.
Tropical sprue has the peripheral blood picture of: Malaria Thalassemia Megaloblastic anemia IDA
C. Megaloblastic Anemia Feedback Tropical sprue is a malabsorption disease commonly found in tropical regions, marked with abnormal flattening of the villi and inflammation of the lining of the small intestine. Megaloblastic anemia is a Macrocytic, Normochromic anemia.
What is measured in the urease method determination of BUN? Uricase Urea NAD Nitrogen
C. NAD Feedback Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) is being measured in the final step of urease method determination of BUN, it is measured at 340nm.
CThe anemias of the qualitative hemoglobinopathies, such as sickle cell anemia, are morphologically classified as: Microcytic, hypochromic Macrocytic, normochromic Normocytic, normochromic NOTA
C. Normocytic, normochromic
Which of the following is best used to visualize oval fat bodies and crystals? Interference contrast Phase contrast Polarizing Bright-field
C. Polarizing Feedback Oval fat bodies contain lipids and may polarized and form maltese cross formation. They are best seen using polarizing microscope.
Latex agglutination for Staphylococcus aureus: Protein A and nuclease Phosphotase and protein A Protein A and clumping factor All of the above
C. Protein A and clumping factor
Vibrio culture media: Fletcher's Agar Bismuth Sulfite Agar TCBS BAP
C. TCBS Feedback Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose agar, or TCBS agar, is a type of selective agar culture plate that is used in microbiology laboratories to isolate Vibrio spp.
Hair perforation test/Hair baiting test is for identification of which two fungi? Aspergillus niger and A. japonicus Tinea pedis and T. corporis Trichophyton mentagrophyte and T. rubrum C. albicans and C. tropicalis
C. Trichophyton mentagrophyte and T. rubrum Feedback Trichophyton mentagrophyte is positive and T. rubrum is negative
Which of the following enzymes has the longest elevation after Myocardial Infarction (MI)? CK-MB Myoglobin Troponin AOTA
C. Troponin Troponin is elevated up to 10-14 days after Myocardial Infarction.
Which of the following pigments will deposit on urate and uric acid crystals to form a a precipitate described as "brick dust"? Urobilin Bilirubin Uroerythrin Urochrome
C. Uroerythrin Feedback Uroerythrin is a red pigment present in the urine, where it is part of a group of yellow, brown and red pigments generally designated as urochrome.
Grading of agglutination: Figure 6 1+ 2+ 3+ 4+
D. 4+ Feedback (1+)= Fine granular appearance visually, but definite small clumps (10-15 cells) per lower field, (2+)= Many fair large clumps with many free cells, (3+)= Three or four individual individual clumps with few free cells, (4+)= Single clump of agglutination with no free cells.
Which of the following least react with Anti-H? O A2 A1 A1B
D. A1B Feedback O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B
Autologous Donation: Age has no requirement Hgb atleast 11 g/dl, Hct atleast 33% Single unit is removed at a time, with atleast 3 day intervals AOTA
D. AOTA Feedback Donating blood for your own surgery is called an autologous donation. These blood units are collected and stored until the patient's surgery.
The reverse Camp Test, lecithinase production, double zone hemolysis and gram stain morphology are all useful identification of: Campylobacter jejuni Staphylococcus aureus Listeria monocytogenes Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium perfringens Feedback: Clostridium perfringens (formerly known as C. welchii, or Bacillus welchii) is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped, anaerobic, spore-forming pathogenic bacterium of the genus Clostridium. Clostridium perfringens shows double-zone hemolysis on blood agar. Small area of beta hemolysis are noted (complete lysis of red blood cells) surrounded by a larger zone of alpha hemolysis (partial hemolysis).
Urine with an specific gravity consistently between 1.002 and 1.003 indicates: Acute glomerulonephritis Renal tubular failure Addison's disease Diabetes insipidus
D. Diabetes insipidus Feedback Low specific gravity (SG) (1.001-1.003) may indicate the presence of diabetes insipidus, a disease caused by impaired functioning of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Low SG also may occur in patients with glomerulonephritis, pyelonephritis, and other renal abnormalities.
Moth balls (naphtalene) poisoning may show which of the following red cell characteristics? Howell-Jolly bodies Ovalocytes Sickle cells Heinz Bodies
D. Heinz bodies Feedback Ingestion of naphthalene-containing mothballs is a common occurrence in children. Heinz body formation, hemoglobinuria and mild methemoglobinaemia can occur due to poisoning with this substance
Specimen for blood gas analysis? Powdered EDTA Syringe with cap Citrated syringe with needle pierced on rubber stopper Heparinized syringe with needle pierced on rubber stopper
D. Heparinized syringe with needle pierced on rubber stopper
What test is use to detect Weak D? Elution Adsorption DAT IAT
D. IAT Feedback Some red cells possess the D antigen but it is expressed so weakly that the cells are not agglutinated directly by anti-D sera. An indirect antiglobulin test is necessary to identify patients with the Weak D (formerly known as Du )phenotype. Weak D testing is done on all prenatal patients and candidates for Rh immune globulin. Weak D testing is also done on Rh negative donors to ensure they are truly D negative.
Which of the following stain is recommended for identification of Cryptococcus neoformans? Methyl red Congo red Wright stain India ink
D. India ink Feedback Cryptococcus neoformans, because of its large polysaccharide capsule, can be visualized by the India Ink stain. Organisms that possess a polysaccharide capsule exhibit a halo around the cell against the black background created by the India Ink.
Postprandial turbidity of the serum is due to the presence of? Fatty acid Cholesterol Phospholipid Lipoproteins
D. Lipoproteins Feedback For approximately two to eight hours following a meal there is an additional LIPOPROTEIN class, called chylomicrons, representing the transport of dietary fat absorbed in the intestine.
Anti IgG (-); C3d (+): What should the MLS do? Elution IAT DAT Pre-warm
D. Pre-warm Feedback Prewarm technique can be used to prevent cold-reactive alloantibodies or autoantibodies from reacting in the IAT phase. Specifically, prewarm technique prevents cold antibodies from binding complement at RT (as opposed to 37o C ) and subsequently being detected by anti-C3 in the IAT by polyspecific AHG serum.
CIN (Cefsulodin, Irgasan, Novobiocin) Agar is a recommended culture medium for the recovery of: Rhodococcus equi Cardiobacterium hominis Brucella suis Yersinia enterocolitica
D. Yersinia enterocolitica Feedback: CIN Agar is recommended for use in the selective and differential isolation of Yersinia and Aeromonas species from clinical specimens, environmental samples, and food sources. Yersinia enterocolitica will exhibit bull's eye appearance on the said agar.
An ASO test can only be valid if the controls have yielded acceptable results. Which of the following indicates valid ASO Test? Hemolysis in both SLO and red cell control Positive control, hemolysis in all tubes No hemolysis on SLO control No hemolysis on red cell contro
D. no hemolysis on red cell control Feedback For an ASO tube test to be valid, the SLO control should show hemolysis and the RBC control tube should show no hemolysis.
First marker to be positive in HIV infection: HIV antibody HIV RNA CD4/CD8 ratio p24
D. p24 Feedback The p24 antigen test can detect the p24 protein on average 10 to 14 days after infection with HIV. p24 antigen is a viral protein that makes up most of the viral core. Serum concentrations of p24 antigen are high in the first few weeks after infection; tests sensitive to p24 antigen are therefore useful for diagnosing very early infection when antibody levels are still low.
Which of the following factors are affected by Coumadin Therapy? III, VII, VIII X, V, II, I II, VII, IX, X AOTA
c. Feedback The following factors are said to be Vitamin K Dependent factors. Coagulation factors affected by coumadin drugs are: II, VII, IX and X.
What analyte is monitored in preeclampsia? Potassium Ammonia Magnesium Ionized Calcium
c. Magnesium Feedback Preeclampsia is a pregnancy-specific disorder characterized by hypertension and excess protein excretion in the urine. It is an important cause of maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality worldwide. Magnesium sulfate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia.