ACE Key Concepts to Remember

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

A person of a poor fitness level should exercise for between __________ minutes per day.

20-30

A BMI greater than 25 increases risk for:

208 -cardiovascular disease -metabolic syndrom -hypertension -type 2 diabetes

sigittal plane

???? -birddog exercise with hip extension 551 ----当lacks flexibility in the hip flexors ➡️ extended leg and hips externally rotate in the transverse plane ➡️ compensated movement 还要看其他planes

creatine phosphate

磷酸肌酸 creatine phosphate and glycogen are used for anaerobic energy production. This energy is used to power the movement of contraction.

myofibril

肌原纖維

⚫️Prior to introducing lower body plyometrics to your client, what performance goal should he met first? a. Squat 1.5 times his weight b. Perform 3 to 5 box jumps c. Perform upper body plyometric exercises with good form d. Squat 10 times with 70% of his body weight

Clients should be able to 💕squat 1.5 times their body weight or perform 💕5 squats with 💕60% of their own body weight within 💕5 seconds. a

hip width stance

-when designing static-balance training programs, the most appropriate stance in the beginning stage of progression -the safest, most effective stance to utilize in the beginning stage of static-balance training.

cross training

130 413 591

static posture

151 --the alignment of the body's segments --"statically" or "isometrically" --involves the actions of multiple postural muscles = deeper muscles = 💕contain greater concentrations of type I muscle fiber = low-grade isometric contractions for extended period

⚫️Phase ____ is the final phase before the anaerobic phases, and most non-competitive fitness goals can be accomplished aerobically.

This is a general knowledge question. Walking slowly has been assigned a MET value of ______, where running has been assigned a MET value of _______.

2 11.5

sivananda yoga

490 for more details --beginner or low functional capacties

👏Which of the following presents a safety hazard? a. A client who is wearing old tennis shoes and a torn t-shirt b. Letting the client finish their set while you leave to get their folder c. Allowing a client's friend to watch their session d. A client stopping the treadmill to get a drink of water

A trainer should never leave their client unattended while exercising. Unsupervised activity is a liability and safety issue. b

delete

Aerobic base training

Which of the following does aerobic exercise utilize but anaerobic does not? a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Oxygen d. Carbon dioxide

Aerobic exercise depends on oxygen to burn calories, and anaerobic does not. c

Which of the following assessments should be repeated after 1-3 months? a. Resting Vital Signs b. Body Composition c. Static Posture and Movement Screens d. All of the Above e. Both a and b

Almost all of the initial assessment factors should be re-assessed after a period of 1-3 months to determine any changes that may have taken place. d

if you need to call 9-1-1, what information should you give to the emergency dispatcher? a. The exact location of the emergency b. Your name c. What the emergency is d. All of the above e. Both a and c only

An emergency dispatcher will ask what the emergency is, where it is and your name. Also, you may be asked if the victim is conscious and breathing normally. d

Which of the following is not a health-related parameter when assessing detailed needs on your client? a. Aerobic capacity b. Balance c. Flexibility d. Muscular strength

Balance is a skill-related parameter. Other skill-related parameters include power, speed, agility, coordination and reactivity b? ?

Zack is a 22-year-old athlete who needs to increase his power for football. Which of the following equations would be used to manipulate his training to help increase his ability to produce power? a. Mass x Acceleration b. Force x Distance c. Power x Time d. Force x Velocity

By manipulating the time of force production through different loading techniques that involve quick accelerations and decelerations, clients can improve power. Power training enhances the velocity of force production by improving the ability of muscles to generate a large amount of force in a short period of time. d

👏During a leg extension exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the antagonist? a. Hamstrings b. Soleus c. Gluteus Maximus d. Quadriceps

The muscle that is opposing the "work", or lengthening with the resistance, is the antagonist. In this case it is the hamstrings. a

hypertonicity

Chapter 9 过度紧张

Your client is complaining of pain at the front and inner side of the knee when walking up and down stairs, along with swelling around the kneecap. What type of condition does your client likely have? a. Torn lateral meniscus b. Chondromalacia c. ACL sprain d. MVL sprain

Chondromalacia is a softening or wearing away of the cartilage behind the patella, resulting in inflammation and pain. Pain at the front or inner side of the knee is common.

Which of the following is a true statement regarding comparative negligence? a. Comparative negligence splits the fault 50-50 b. Comparative negligence apportions damages on degrees of fault c. Comparative negligence is always at issue. d. Comparative negligence bars a recovery to the plaintiff.

Comparative negligence is when multiple parties may have caused injuries and the court apportions the guilt and any subsequent award for damages. b

⚫️compound sets

Compound sets consist of 💕two or more exercises for the same muscles in rapid succession. It is a type of advanced training approach that bodybuilders often train with. --e.g., 3 sets of triceps press-downs and 3 sets of bench dips to push the triceps to a high level of fatigue and muscle pump ------------------------------- The most common advanced training programs used by bodybuilders include supersets breakdown training assisted training compound training. ---------------------

____________ stretches are usually performed during the exercise phase of a workout session.

Dynamic

Which of the following are utilized for aerobic energy production? a. Creatine phosphate b. Fatty acids c. Glycogen d. None of the above.

Fatty acids are the main substrate utilized for aerobic energy production. b

👏Which of the following training principles cannot be altered during an exercise session? a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Type d. Time

Frequency refers to how often a person exercises, and therefore cannot be changed during a session. a

Which of the following are utilized for anaerobic energy production? a. Glycogen b. Fatty Acids c. Amino acids d. Oxygen

Glycogen and creatine phosphate are the main substrates utilized for anaerobic energy production. a

. Which of the following tests are typically administered in the first or second week of training a client? a. Muscular Endurance and Strength b. Health Related Assessments (body composition, etc.) c. Skill Related Assessments d. All of the above

Health related assessments are typically covered in the first real week of training, after the client has been determined to be healthy and prepared for exercise but before more complex areas of fitness are tested. b

If your client experiences heat cramps, what are some potential treatments? a. Gentle massage b. Direct pressure to the cramp and release c. Ballistic stretching of the affected area d. All of the above e. Both a and b only

If you suspect heat cramps, it is best to rest, apply gentle massage, direct pressure to the cramp and release, drink plenty of fluids, and passive stretching. e

👏What is the best course of action if you come across a piece of exercise equipment that is broken or malfunctioning? a. Exercise caution when using the equipment b. Notify management c. Put a sign on the equipment d. Disable or remove the equipment

It is important to disable or remove any malfunctioning or broken equipment to prevent potential injuries. d 注意不是put sign

Casey is a new client and you are ready to begin your first couple of sessions. Which variable is the most important to monitor? a. Frequency b. Intensity c. Duration d. Exercise Progression

It is important to monitor intensity as one of the most critical elements. However, it can also be one of the most difficult to measure. b

⚫️A neutral pelvic position is achieved via opposing force-couples between which of the following four major muscle groups? a. Rectus abdominis, hip flexors, hamstrings, and hip adductors b. Hip flexors, hamstrings, transverse abdominis, and erector spinae c. Rectus abdominis, hip flexors, hamstrings, and erector spinae d. Hamstrings, erector spinae, transverse abdominis, and hip abductors

Maintenance of a neutral spine position is achieved via opposing force-couples between the rectus abdominis, hip flexors, hamstrings and erector spinae c

You are conducting the 💕shoulder flexion assessment on your client. In the 💕supine position, the client is able to flex her shoulders and touch the floor, but only if the lower back is raised. Which muscle is most likely contributing the 💕lower back having to be raised? a. Pectoralis major b. Teres major c. Rhomboids d. Latissimus dorsi

Origin and Insertion of the latissimus dorsi connect the thoracolumbar fascia to the humerus. This muscle is required to stretch throughout the 💕shoulder flexion assessment and can lead to dysfunction if it becomes tight. d

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that a client in phase 1 of cardiorespiratory training would perform? a. Five 30 second sprint intervals b. 20 minute run c. 30 minute jog d. 20 minutes of Power walking

Phase 1 of cardiorespiratory training should not pass level 1 on the talk test. The client should be able to perform this exercise without becoming exhausted and should be relatively comfortable throughout the exercise. d

Of the three energy systems in the body, which one is considered the most rapid in ATP production? a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic glycolysis c. Phosphagen d. None of the above

Phosphagen has the fastest rate of ATP production. c

Which of the following is an example of a Muscle Imbalance? a. Poor exercise technique b. Low energy level c. Compromises in the mobility-stability relationship d. Altered neurological properties

Poor exercise technique is an example of an initial muscular imbalance which sets the stage for neurological alterations and compromises in the mobility-stability relationship. Muscular imbalances are always physical and generally simple, like repetitive motion. a

You are assisting your client with a hamstring stretch that consists of a contract/relax stretching technique. Which of the following stretching methods are you helping your client perform? a. Assisted ballistic stretching b. Assisted dynamic stretching c. Assisted PNF stretching d. Assisted static stretching

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) is a method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle. c

rotational movement

Rotational movements are most complex, given how many movements follow spiral or diagonal patterns throughout the body.

You have client who is a beginner to exercise and you want to use a piece of equipment that has body support and predetermined movement patterns. Which piece of equipment would best fit this client? a. Cables b. Selectorized equipment c. Free weights d. Elastic resistance

Selectorized machines are particularly well-suited for beginning exercisers, because they provide body support and predetermined movement patterns. The weight stacks always move vertically to provide a consistent resistance force throughout the lifting and lowering actions. b

👁️Tight hip adductors and weak gluteus medius muscles can lead to which compensation? a. Knees moving inward b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine c. Lateral torso shift to one side d. Lack of foot stability

The muscles that oppose the inward movement of the knees are weak and the muscles that generate it are tight, therefore causing the movement to occur. a

knee

stabilty

The most mobile joint in the body is the ____________.

shoulder

Waist-to-hip ratio is determined by ________ circumference divided by __________ circumference.

waist hip

supine position

仰卧位

exercising in the heat

417 很重要 --

cardiac arrest

610

Which of the following statements is false regarding muscular growth and strength? a. Tendon inserts on the bone and does not affect muscle hypertrophy. b. A person's gender does not affect muscle quality. c. Limb length influences muscle hypertrophy. d. Muscle length relative to bone length can determine muscle size.

All of the following statements are correct except (c). Limb length does not influence muscle size, although it is a factor in strength performance. c

👏You have a new client who is extremely obese, and you realize that your body fat calipers (skinfold measurement) may not be an accurate method to determine their body fat percentage. You want to have a starting measurement to determine their progress. What is the best course of action? a. Do your best to use the calipers and get some kind of skinfold measurement. b. Refer them to a medical fitness center that offers hydrostatic weighing. c. Refer the client to a physician to have an MRI. d. Utilize Body Mass Index (BMI) and girth measurements.

Most forms of body fat testing other than skinfold measurement are pricey and uncomfortable, and are not usually necessary for determining progress. Instead you can utilize BMI and circumference measurements to determine progress, as these will change along with body fat percentage. d

speed drill

You are working with an athlete client who wants to improve his workouts with speed drills. Which of the following would be an observation to help the efficiency of your client's arm action? a. Drive from the elbows, not the shoulders. b. Short strokes are utilized during top speed. c. Relax the hands and maintain an open hand position. d. Long strokes are utilized during the acceleration and deceleration phases. Long strokes are utilized during the top speed and sustained speed phases. Short strokes are only utilized in the acceleration and deceleration phases. It is also important for the client to drive from the shoulders, not the elbows.

gastrocnemius muscle

腓腸肌

⚫️authenticity, or ability to be honest and open

genuineness --building rapport

The exercise session should be discontinued if the systolic blood pressure or diastolic blood pressure rise to _________ or __________, respectively, or if the systolic blood pressure drops below __________.

250mmHg / 115mmHg 20mmHg

⚫️superset

257 -compound of exercises or sets of exercises performed in sequence with little or no rest between them. ---Supersets involve 💕alternating exercises for 💕opposing muscle groups with little rest between sets. --💕bodybuilder ---e.g., 4 sets of leg extensions with 4 sets of leg curls, moving quikly between ---e.g., 3 sets of 12 repetitions alternating bench press and leg press with no rests in between. e.g. Wil is training with you and a goal to compete in a body building competition next year. Monday's workout plan is to perform alternating 4 sets of bicep curls with 4 sets of tricep extensions, moving quickly between the 2 exercises. What type of training approach is being demonstrated with this workout plan? ---Supersets involve 💕alternating exercises for opposing muscle groups with little rest between sets.

movement compensations

265- -muscle shortening (e.g., prolonged periods of sitting without hip extension shortens the hip flexors) ---as the agonist shortens ➡️ the antagonist lengthen ➡️ 导致 length-tension and force-coupling relationships

LBM

327 Diabetes Exercises --both aerobic and resistance training -----reduce fat weight and increase LBM ➡️ lower body resistance to insulin ------------------------- 计算方法见另词条

👏the microtrauma-repair and muscle-remodeling processes require increased energy for at least _________ hours following challenging strength-training.

329 -72 ---resistance training every third day

opposing muscle

329 -gastrocnemius and anterior tibialis -quadriceps and hamstrings -erector spinae and rectus abdominis...) 还有什么呢

to reduce the risk of unbalanced muscle developement, pay special attention to _______________ muscles at the __________, (e.g., _________________________________)

329 -opposing muscles -joints -gastrocnemius and anterior tibialis, quadriceps and hamstrings, erector spinae and rectus abdominis...) 还有什么呢

physiological adaptations to resistance training to note

330 for more details 还没看完 ------------------------------------- A Number of Acute Physiological Response Must Take Place: --nerve impulses must be transmitted from the central nervous system to active the appropriate motor units and muscle fibers in the prime mover muscles ➡️ --fuel sources (contract): creatine phosphate, glycogen for anaerobic energy production 还没看完 ------------------------------------ Two Principal Long-term Physiological adaptations: 💕muscular strength and muscle size/hypertrophy --331 没懂 --muscle tissue microtrauma ➡️ remodeling ➡️ growth of muscle fibers coupled with small increases in muscular strength Myofibrilla Hypertrophy ----an increase in the number of myofibrils/contractile proteins ➡️💕 results in greater muscle contraction force ⭐️heavy weightload, low repetitions, and long rests between sets Sarcoplasmic Hypertrophy ----increase in the muscle cell sarcoplasm that surrounds the myofibrils, but not directly involved in contractile processes ➡️ 💕 result in increase the corss-sectional area/size ⭐️moderate weightload, moderate repetations, and short rests between sets Transient Hypertrophy --"muscle pump" --immediately following resistance training --caused by fluid accumulation in the spaces between cells and quickly diminishes after -----------------------------------

most people may complete approximately ______ repetition with ______% of their 1-RM weightload.

334 -10 -75 -Ex. 334

muscular power

334 for more details 334 figure 10-2 --product of muscular strength and movement speed -training with 💕medium resistance and moderate-to-fast movement speeds produces the highest power output and is the most effective means for increasing muscular power💕

⚫️👁️standard strength training sessions (________ exercises, _______ sets of _______ repetitions) require at least ________ hours for muscular strength to attain or exceed baseline levels.

335 -8 -3 -10 -72 ????

👏advanced exercisers who perform high-volume/high-intensity strength workouts should not train the same muscle groups more frequently than every _________ day

335 -third -比如 monday & thursday, tuesday & friday, wednesday & saturday

_______ or ________ weekly strength training sessions work equally well for new exercisers

336 -two or three weekly

assistance exercise

336/357 Assistance exercises are single-joint rotary exercises such as the leg extension, leg curl, and calf raise. The deadlift would be a primary, multi-joint, linear exercise and not an assistance exercise.

resistance training appropriate program progressions

337 -337 要拍图

training volume

337 ="volume" refers to how many reps or sets are performed, and "intensity" indicates how much weight is lifted =ENDURANCE 计算方法 --Repetition-volume calculation: ----volume = sets x repetitions (for either the muscle group or the session) --Load-volume calculation: ----volume = exercise weightload x repetitions x sets (and then summing the total for each muscle group or the entire session) 🌟 338 要拍图 --很重要一定要背下来 ----training volume based on goal ----比如competitive powerlifter ➡️ lower volume + fewer exercises, repetitions, and sets with heavier weightloads ----比如competitive bodybuilders ➡️ higher volume + more exercises, repetitions and sets with moderate weightloads

👁️powerlifter

338 🌟training volume is typically lower compare to bodybuilder -- perform fewer exercises, repetitions and sets with heavier weight loads as they focus on improving the muscle's ability to maximally recruit fibers to generate higher amounts of force.

bodybuilder

338/357 ---"pumping up" ---short rest, 💕30-90 secs --higher-volume work out compare to powerlifter ----💕more exercises, reps, sets, 💕moderate weightload ----focus on increasing the amount of time the muscle spends under tension performing work to stimulate 💕hypertrophy The most common advanced training programs used by bodybuilders include 💕supersets 💕breakdown training 💕assisted training 💕compound training.

Most periodization models for strength-training programs begin with _______ volume/_______ intensity workouts, progress to _______ volume/________ intensity workouts, and conclude with _______ volume/________ intensity workouts.

339 -higher/lower -moderate/moderate -lower/higher

When training a client to activate their core for the purpose of gaining proximal stability, what exercise modality should come first in the progression? a. A sequence of movements in alternating planes with contralateral limbs raised off the floor. b. Sagittal plane shoulder movements with one arm raised off the floor. c. Frontal plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor. d. Transverse plane hip movements with one knee raised off the floor.

A sequence of controlled shoulder movements with one arm raised an inch off the ground is an appropriate beginning exercise for core stability. b

A cool down should be performed for _____ to _____ minutes following a workout to decrease any chances of _______________________________.

5-10 pooling blood in the extremities Prevents blood from pooling in your arms and legs (major benefit)

👁️birddog

551 265 不标准姿势

______ seconds is considered the best movement speed per repetition for new exercisers . It is recommended to be ___ to ___ seconds on the concentric part and ___ to ____ seconds on the eccentric part.

6 1-3 2-4

The commonly recommended movement speed is ___ seconds per repetition. This involves a ___ to ___ second concentric phase and a ___ to ___ second eccentric phase.🌟

6 2-3 3-4

CPR

609 cardiopulmonary resuscitation The purpose of CPR is to help the person's body maintain 💕perfusion, or 💕blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues. --CPR cannot change abnormal heart rhythm/VF ➡️ 但 CPR preserves the heart and brain and can prevent VF from deteriorating into an unshockable rhythm while waiting for an AED to arrive ----------------------- the ABC's C/pulse/💕circulation ---💕💕💕without a C ➡️ 💕immediate CPR -----severe bleeding secondary to CPR and is not urgent unless major blood loss(life-threatening) dyspnea： 💕unconsious: --612 details --if no chest movement/no sound indicating air movement around the mouth and nose, PT SHOULD give breath --if 💕no pulse, CPR choking： --🌟if the 💕thrusts(i.e., the 💕heimlich maneuver) for not succeed in dislodging the object, victim become unconscious ➡️ call for help and start CPR severe hypoglycemia --unresponsive/unconscious --cannot sit up/swallow ----PT should not try to make them eat/drink instead call EMS immediately --💕if vomit, turn to side to prevent aspiration/one side lying down ----prevents airway blockage in case vomiting occurs. This position allows fluids to drain from the nose and mouth. --💕be aware of possible seizure/be ready to start CPR cardio arrest --见另词条 ----------------------- e.g., You have just finished training your client Brian. He starts to eat a protein bar with some water. Suddenly he cannot breathe or talk and is making the universal sign for choking, by holding his neck with both hands. You immediately start a Heimlich maneuver on him. The thrusts are not successful and Brain becomes unconscious. What should you do next? a. Have someone call EMS and continue the Heimlich maneuver. b. Lie the client down and call EMS immediately. c. Have someone call EMS and start the steps of CPR. d. Sit the client up in a "tripod position and call EMS immediately. If thrusts with the Heimlich maneuver do not succeed in dislodging the object, the victim may become unconscious. If this occurs, the personal trainer should have someone call for help and start the steps of CPR. c When on the treadmill, your client becomes dizzy and passes out. She hits her head on the ground. She is unconscious and non-responsive. What is an appropriate action to take? a. Go to a phone and call 911. b. Gently move her out of the way of bystanders and prop her head with a pillow. c. Have a coworker call 911 while you stay with her. d. Begin CPR. It is necessary to call 911 if your client is unconscious, but you should never leave your client. You should never move someone with a possible head or neck injury unless they are somewhere life threatening. c

syncope

615 暈厥＝fainting 🌟🌟🌟 when these happen: --have the person 💕sit/lie down --💕drink plenty of fluids to keep blood volume at adequate levels --💕some need medications --------------------- --temporary loss of consciousness due to a 💕lack of blood flow to the brain ------------------------------------ 💕causes: --emotional stress --severe pain --dehydration/heavy sweating --overheating --exhaustion --sudden posture changes after blood has pooled in the legs, (squatting for a period of time --violent coughing spells, especially men, due to a rapid change in blood pressure --neurologic, metabolic, or psychiatric disorders --problems with the heart and lungs --side effect of some medications ---------------------------------- usually benign, some cases may signal life-threatening --when exercise ----palpitations/irregular heartbeat/family history of syncope associated with sudden cardiac death --physcial examination needed ---------------------------------- 🌟 before faint may feel: --warm sensation --nausea --lightheadedness --sweaty palm --visual "grayout"

⚫️fluid intake recommendations during exercise

622 --💕2 hours prior to exercise, 💕500-600 mL (17-20 oz) --💕every 10-20 mins during exercise, 💕200-300 mL (7-10 oz), or, preferably drink 💕based on sweat losses --💕following exercise, 💕450-675 mL for 💕every 0.5 kg body weight lost (or 16-24 oz or every pound)

Which of the following is not an effective cognitive behavioral technique? a. Decision making b. Feedback c. A written contract d. Goal setting

???? Cognitive behavioral techniques include feedback, self-monitoring, decision making and goal setting. A written contract is not a cognitive behavioral technique.

vicarious liability

???? Vicarious liability is also referred to as respondent superior. This liability holds employers responsible for the actions of their employees ??????? b. Absolute liability c. Contributory liability d. Strict liability ????????

In what specific location should the arm be measured? a. Around the largest part of the upper arm with the bicep flexed. b. Around the largest part of the upper arm with the arm relaxed. c. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the arm relaxed. d. Midway between the acromion and the olecranon process with the bicep flexed.

???? 还要看其他的测量方法 The measurement of the arm should be taken between the acromion (lateral portion of the collarbone) and the olecranon process (elbow) with the arm relaxed for best results. c

What intensity level should generally be utilized for sustained aerobic activities? a. Low b. Low-Moderate c. Moderate d. Moderate-High

A low to moderate intensity should be maintained in order for a person to sustain aerobic exercise as well as to obtain results from said exercise. b

A low-risk CAD client should have a stable cardiovascular and physiological response to exercise. Which of the following characteristics is not generally applied to low-risk CAD clients? a. Functional capacity greater than 4 METS b. Normal ventricular function with an ejection fraction greater than 50% c. No evidence of resting or exercise-induced ischemia d. No significant resting or exercise-induced arrhythmias

A low-risk CAD client should have a functional capacity greater than 7 METS. There are safety concerns that need to be considered by the trainer prior to implementing any program with CAD clients, and physician clearance, recommendation, and limitations should be obtained before proceeding. a

Which of the following is the result of a traumatic twist that results in a complete tear of the affected ligament with severe swelling and bruising? a. Grade 2 sprain b. Grade 2 strain c. Grade 3 sprain d. Grade 3 strain

A sprain is stretching or tearing of ligaments. A strain is stretching or tearing of muscle or tendon. c

👏Beth is a 28-year-old woman who is looking to improve her overall fitness. How long should she rest for in between sets on a leg press exercise? a. Less than 30 seconds b. 30-90 seconds c. 2-5 minutes d. 30-60 seconds

A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for 30-90 seconds in between sets of a resistance exercise. c

In which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change (TTM) is a client ready to adopt and live a healthy lifestyle? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action

A person in the preparation phase may be somewhat sporadic in their activity level, but is 🌟ready to make the change to a healthy lifestyle. b

👏Jeff has recently begun regular physical activity, but is still surrounded by inactive family members that do not understand the importance of physical activity. Which principle of behavior may influence Jeff enough to affect his likelihood of success? a. Operant conditioning b. Shaping c. Observational learning d. Cognitions of behavior

A personal trainer should be aware of the client's surroundings in order to prevent negative distractions. Jeff should be encouraged to interact with other physically active individuals to improve his likelihood of success. c

Kelly has been diagnosed with a ligament sprain in her knee. She has minimal impairment and tenderness and has been advised to bear weight as tolerated. What severity level is Kelly's ligament sprain? a. Grade I b. Grade II c. Grade III d. Grade IV

A sprain with minimal discomfort and the option of weight bearing is a grade I sprain.

A trainer who wishes to further develop his or her active listening skills should consider an action plan that consists of all the following options, except: a. Identifying areas that need improvement b. Measuring improvements in specific ways c. Remaining passive to achieve the improvements d. Taking active steps to achieve the improvements

A trainer can identify specific areas that need improvement and create a SMART goal chart to monitor progress. afterwards coaching self-monitoring requesting feedback observing oneself daily reflecting back at the end of the day are all methods to move forward in achieving success in communication skills. c

You are working with your bodybuilding client and decide to implement an advanced training approach. What type of approach would involve training the muscle to fatigue before receiving manual assistance from the trainer in the concentric muscle action? a. Supersets b. Compound sets c. Breakdown training d. Assisted training

During assistance training the trainer helps with the concentric muscle action due to people being about 40% stronger on eccentric muscle actions. The post-fatigue repetitions are terminated when the exerciser has difficulty controlling the lowering action. d

stage of learning

?????

👁️The primary role of the _________ is to prevent anterior gliding of the tibia away from the femur. This can occur in sudden stopping or cutting motions combined with twisting, pivoting or side stepping.

ACL = Anterior cruciate ligament

Which of the following is a common management technique for musculoskeletal injuries? a. Anti-inflammatory medication b. Avoiding aggravating movements c. Physical therapy d. All of the above

All of the above are common techniques for managing musculoskeletal injuries, as well as ice/heat modalities and cortisone injections. 要看

⚫️Which of the following symptoms merit test termination during any test that involves muscular endurance? a. Angina b. Cyanosis c. Wheezing d. All of the above e. Both a and c

All of the above are possible symptoms or warning signs that merit test termination to ensure the safety of the client. d

⚫️One of your clients is taking 💕antidepressants. What is the likely effect on her 💕exercising heart rate? a. No significant effect b. An increase c. A decrease d. There is no data on this

Antidepressants have 💕no significant effect on exercising heart rate. There can be an 💕increase in resting heart rate/RHR however. a

As muscle fibers contract to provide the necessary movement force, what fuel sources do the fibers use for energy production? a. Cortisol and epinephrine b. Hydrogen ions and lactate c. Proteins and carbohydrates d. Creatine phosphate and glycogen

Creatine phosphate and glycogen are used for anaerobic energy production. This energy is used to power the movement of contraction. d

⚫️When answering the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q), your client answers "yes" to chest pain during physical activity as well as currently taking a prescription blood pressure medication. What is the next step in his fitness program? a. Begin training at a low intensity. b. Talk with his doctor about his readiness for exercise. c. Conduct a fitness appraisal. d. Fill out a Health History Questionnaire.

Explanation: If a client answers 💕"yes" to one or more of the questions on the PAR-Q it is necessary for them to talk with their doctor about their readiness to begin an exercise program before any other actions are taken, especially before a fitness appraisal.

👏What information does the Informed Consent form collect? a. Evidence of disclosure. b. Previous exercise history. c. Detailed medical and health information. d. Fitness measurement data.

Explanation: The informed consent form is where your client acknowledges their "assumption of risk", serves as evidence of disclosure of risks and communicates the potential dangers of exercise. 🌟It does not release liability.

👏In which resistance training phase should muscular strength and endurance be periodically assessed? a. Stability and Mobility training b. Movement training c. Load training d. Performance training

Muscular strength and endurance should be periodically assessed throughout the Load training phase in order to aid in program design and ensure progression. c

Which of the following statements is true about open-kinetic chain movements(OKC)? a. OKC movements are generally considered more functional, as they closely mimic daily activities. b. OKC exercises load and compress joints, increasing kinesthetic awareness. c. OKC exercises are usually too challenging for deconditioned individuals. d. OKC movements are used to improve control and movement efficiency.

Open-kinetic chain movements are used to improve control and movement efficiency and increase kinesthetic awareness. d

⚫️Bob is a new client who is 70 years old and has been inactive for about 10 years. His risk for exercise has been assessed and he has been cleared for exercise. How many sessions per week do you advise him to meet with you for full-body resistance training? a. 1 day per week b. 2 days per week c. 3 days per week d. None of the above. Bob should not be performing resistance exercises.

Research indicates than older adults recover more slowly from their strength-training workouts than younger adults. 💕Two resistance-exercise sessions per week may be advisable for older trainees to attain ample muscle-remodeling time between training days. b

Megan is performing a kettlebell exercise and feels sudden pain in her shoulder. What is considered an example of an early intervention strategy? a. RICE b. Stretching the muscles where she feels pain c. Strengthening the muscles where she feels pain d. None of the above

Rest-Ice-Compression-Elevation (RICE) is considered an effective early intervention strategy for an acute injury. a

shoulder packing

Shoulder packing is performed to kinesthetically improve awareness of good scapular position, improving flexibility and strength of key parascapular muscles. Each contraction of scapular retraction and depression should be held for 5 to 10 seconds.

Helping clients successfully adopt and adhere to exercise programs is an integral part of a personal trainer's job. Therefore, personal trainers must be able to incorporate behavior-change strategies. One effective behavior-change is stimulus control. Which of the following is an example of a simple and effective stimulus control strategy? a. The trainer guides the client through the goal-setting process and helps them understand how to set effective and appropriate goals. b. The trainer and client outline a system of rewards for maintaining the program and maximizing adherence. c. The trainer continuously educates the client on everything from the principles of behavioral change to exercise techniques. d. The trainer recommends that the client write down workout times as part of a weekly schedule.

Stimulus control refers to making adjustments to the environment to increase the likelihood of healthy behaviors. The overall goal of stimulus control is to make being physically active as convenient as possible. d

What would be an implication observed while watching your client perform the Apley's scratch test for shoulder mobility? a. The ability to reach up the spine with shoulder extension and internal rotation b. The avoidance of impingement in the moving arm c. The ability to touch the opposite inferior angle of the scapula d. The inability to touch the medial border of the contralateral scapula

The Apley's Scratch Test is to assess simultaneous movements of the shoulder girdle, or primarily, the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joint. The inability to touch the medial border for the contralateral scapula would be observed as an implication. d

What is activated after 10 seconds of a low-force stretch with an increase in muscle tension? a. Golgi tendon organ b. Stress-relaxation c. Creep d. Autogenic inhibition

The GTO is activated after 10 seconds of low-force stretching and inhibits muscle spindle activity and any tension in the muscles. This allows for greater stresses along the collagen fibers to remodel them as they pull apart. a

There are six external rotators of the hip. Which of the following muscles is not one of them? a. Adductor magnus b. Gluteus minimus c. Gluteus medius d. Quadratus femoris

The adductor magnus is one of the muscles of the hip that produces adduction and internal rotation. a

Which of the following is a component of a 🌟business plan? a. Executive summary b. Marketing plan c. Risk analysis d. All of the above e. Both a and b only

The components of a business plan are - Executive summary, business description, marketing plan, operational plan, risk analysis and decision-making criteria. d

👏You have been monitoring your client's blood pressure during his treadmill workout. At what point do you need to discontinue the exercise session? a. If the systolic blood pressure drops below 20mmHg. b. If the blood pressure rises to 250/115. c. If the blood pressure rises above 140/90. d. Both a and b.

The exercise session should be 💕discontinued if the systolic blood pressure or diastolic blood pressure rise to 💕250mmHg or 115mmHg, respectively, or if the systolic blood pressure drops 💕below 20 mmHg. d

Which of the following muscles are not included as one of the four SITS? a. Infraspinatus b. Teres Minor c. Trapezius d. Subscapularis

The four SIT muscles that surround the rotator cuff are the infraspinatus, subscapularis, teres minor and supraspinatus. c

What type of movements are performed within the scapulothoracic region and the glenohumeral joint? a. Push and pull type movements b. Bend and lift type movements c. Thoracic spine rotational type movements d. Trunk extension type movements

The glenohumeral joint is a highly mobile joint and its ability to achieve this degree of movement is contingent upon the stability of the scapulothoracic region. a

👏All of the following joints are responsible for stability except: a. Knee b. Glenohumeral c. Lumbar spine d. Foot

The glenohumeral joint is responsible for mobility as opposed to stability. Each of the other joints is responsible for stability. b

You are teaching your client the deadlift exercise and have broken it up into separate segments in order to practice each skill in its simplest form. What would this movement-training sequence be called? a. Part-to-whole teaching strategy b. Kinematics c. Dynamic balance d. Limits of stability

You have identified a need for one of your clients to strengthen his posterior chain as a result of poor posture. What is the proper progression of suggested exercises? a. Isometric contractions to dynamic ROM exercises b. Dynamic ROM exercises to isometric contractions c. Dynamic ROM exercises to myofascial release d. Isometric contractions to myofascial release

The proper progression is to move from isometric contractions with 2 to 4 reps, then to 1 to 3 sets of dynamic ROM exercises. a

👏What is the purpose of 💕CPR? a. To help the body maintain perfusion. b. To get air into the person's lungs. c. To keep the person conscious. d. None of the above.

The purpose of CPR is to help the person's body maintain 💕perfusion, or 💕blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues. a

Which of the following inaccurately describes the muscles involved in respiration? a. The diaphragm is used during passive inspiration. b. The sternocleidomastoid pulls the rib cage upward during active inspiration. c. The quadratus lumborum pulls the rib cage upward during active expiration. d. The rectus abdominis pulls the rib cage downward during active expiration.

The quadratus lumborum is grouped with the rectus abdominis and pulls the rib cage downward during active expiration. These muscles assist with spanning the thorax and abdomen. c

Maintenance of a neutral pelvic position is achieved via opposing force-couples between four major muscle groups that all have attachments on the pelvis. Which of the following two muscle groups is responsible for pulling upward on the pelvis? a. Rectus abdominis and hamstrings b. Rectus abdominis and erector spinae c. Hip flexors and erector spinae d. Hamstrings and erector spinae

The rectus abdominis pulls upward on the anterior, inferior pelvis. The erector spinae pulls upward on the posterior, superior pelvis. b

You are performing the risk management protocol and are specifying the risks that may be encountered in the areas of instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure. What step of the risk management protocol are you performing? a. Risk evaluation b. Selection of an approach for managing each risk c. Implementation d. Risk identification

The steps of the risk management protocol are risk identification risk evaluation selection of an approach for managing each risk implementation and evaluation The specification of risks in the areas of instruction, supervision, facilities, equipment, contracts, and business structure are all part of risk identification. d

If a client has an asthma acerbation during exercise, which action should the trainer take to help the client? a. The trainer should reduce the intensity of the exercise. b. The trainer should allow the client to take his or her rescue medication. c. The trainer should perform the Heimlich maneuver to clear breathing passages. d. Both a and b

The trainer should reduce the intensity and allow the client to take his or her rescue medication. If necessary, the trainer should seek medical treatment if the client's breathing does not improve or gets worse. d ?不是应该stop？

⚫️👁️All of the following are ways to progress agility drills, except: a. Increase the speed of movement b. Increase the complexity of the task c. Increase the base of support d. Introduce resistance such as bands and ankle weights

To progress agility drills you would want to progressively 💕narrow the base of support. Other tips would be to create reactive drills where the client reacts to unexpected verbal or visual cues. c

core stability

Which of the following statements is true based on a one inch increase in a man's waist circumference and his risk level? a. His blood pressure increases by 10% b. His risk for metabolic syndrome increases by 18% c. His triglycerides increase by 18% d. All of the Above e. Only a and b

？？？ All of the factors mentioned above are risk factors when a man increases his waist circumference by as little as one inch. d

Which of the following is accurate in terms of a personal trainer and a liability waiver? a. All states have the same rules regarding the validation of waivers. b. Waivers will typically not protect the trainer for injuries directly caused by his gross negligence. c. Waivers will place the assumption of risk on the trainer. d. Waivers are straightforward documents you can get off the internet and do yourself.

？？？？ Waivers typically do not protect the personal trainer from injuries directly caused by gross negligence. The law on waivers differs from state to state. While forms are available on the internet, it is best to retain an attorney to draft a liability waiver you intend to use in your business. The waiver will seek to have the risk of injury assumed by the client. b

six external rotators of the hip

？？？？ gluteus minimus gluteus medius quadratus femoris 还有什么

Your client has been complaining of a knee injury. He tells you that while playing a game of basketball, he made a sudden cut and pivoted to follow the opponent. What ligament could be most affected by this deceleration of the body? a. Lateral meniscus b. Medical meniscus c. Anterior cruciate ligament d. Posterior cruciate ligament

The primary role of the acl is to prevent anterior gliding of the tibia away from the femur. This can occur in sudden stopping or cutting motions combined with twisting, pivoting or side stepping. c

testimonial

a. A personal biography telling the story about who the trainer is b. Success stories from satisfied clients c. Pictures of clients in their wedding dresses or tuxedos after working with their trainer Publishing a testimonial of a client who achieved his or her goal can become a strong advocate for a trainer and will speak to friends and family about the positive experience. Another strong item would be before and after photos of the client. Providing information on your client's medical conditions can be a breach of confidentiality so must be avoided.

single leg squat

proper progression for a single leg squat --perform with feet at normal gait-width apart --perform a leg swing to mimic gait --add resistance --------to increase difficulty of a single-leg squat.

When stretching the hip flexors in this position, the client should stretch the muscle in the ______________ before incorporating any frontal or transverse plane movements into the stretch (e.g. a lateral trunk lean or trunk rotation).

sagittal plane

A client should be able to show ____________, ____________ and ______________efficiency in all areas prior to performance based training.

stability, mobility and movement efficiency Strong core function Anaerobic efficiency Sufficient static and dynamic balance

sprint

短跑

scoliosis

脊柱侧凸 lateral spinal curvature = scoliosis is a sideways curvature of the spine. --💕need referral

palpation

觸診

plantar flexion

足部(下壓) --subtalar joint pronation 157

kyphosis

駝背 -当kyphosis ➡️ attempts to extend the thoracic spine ➡️ increase lumbar lordosis = lack of thoracic mobility

iliopsoas

髂腰肌 = hip flexors

levator scapula

高低肩

rhomboids

高低肩

upper trapezius

高低肩

overtraining

104-105 C-phase 3/4 🌟 increase fatigue ➡️ 需要 warm-up, cool-down, and active rest intervals ---💕importance of active recovery and rest ⭐️Overtraining： --💕increased RHR --💕disturbed sleep --💕decreased hunger on multiple days --⭐️should ------💕decrease the frequency and/or intensity of the client's intervals and 💕focus more time on recovery ----🌟if cannot reach the desired intensity (workload, duration, or training heart rate)/unable to reach the desired recovery heart rate ➡️ stop session and recover with low-to-moderate (RPE of 3, no more than 4) ➡️ to PREVENT overtraining ⭐️coupled with additional life stress to INDUCE overtraining ------------------------- e.g., Which of the following are methods you can utilize 💕to help clients avoid overtraining syndrome? a. Distribute zone 1 cardio training throughout warm ups and cool downs b. Utilize zone 1 cardio training on moderate-intensity days c. Utilize zone 1 cardio training for recovery after zone 2 or 3 training intervals d. All of the above e. Both b and c only 🌟Continuing to utilize zone 1 cardiorespiratory training intermittently can help a client to feel confident and increase self efficacy, which can decrease the possibility of overtraining syndrome occurring. d ---------- After speaking with your endurance athlete about her goals in competing in road cycling, you have decided to provide short-duration, higher-intensity intervals that are well above VT2. Which stage will allow your client to develop peak power through intervals at an RPE of 9 or above? a. Aerobic base Training b. Aerobic efficiency Training c. Anaeroic endurance Training d. Anaerobic power Training Since your client has sport specific goals in a longer endurance event such as cycling, she may need the highest phase to improve her peak performance and aerobic capacity. Keep in mind that even though your client is in phase 4, she should be at or below VT1 70-80% of the time in order to improve recovery and avoid overtraining. ------------------------- ------------------------- -------------------------

core stabilization

280在完成core activation之后 -lumbar spine/minimal loading ➡️ during movements of hips and shoulders -279 没看完 -table 9-2 280

components of a cardiorespiratory workout session

396- warm-up phase conditioning phase cool-down phase ---------------------------------------- Warm-Up: 396 --💕5-10 mins for most health adults --💕begin with low to moderate intensity that gradually increase in intensity --💕latter portion of warm-up ➡️ some brief higher-intensity exercise to prepare the exerciser for more intense elements of the stimulus phase/conditioning phase ----💕harder the conditioning phase/older the exercise ➡️ more extensive the warm-up ----------see chapter 14 for more details 💕should not creates fatigue that would reduce performance, especially when working with competitive athletes

⚫️An athlete with advanced skill like James should train no less than ____ times a week and can train up to ____ if done properly.

4 7

It takes _________________ to _______________ to achieve steady state and the more fit the quicker adaptation. The rate of oxygen uptake, heart rate, cardiac output, ventilation, blood lactate concentration, and body temperature all reach stable after a short period of exercise.

45 seconds 3 minutes

👏According to ACSM guidelines, a minimum of _____ hours should be allotted for recovery of each muscle group worked between sessions. This is the estimated amount of time it takes for muscle to completely recover from resistance exercise.

restorative yoga

489 for more details --appropriate for 💕who are just embarking on a yoga program --💕weak, fatigued, or experiencing peak stressful periods in life Restorative yoga is used to be 💕easier and more relaxing for those who are relatively weak, fatigued, or experiencing a peak stressful period in life. The other forms of yoga range from moderate to difficult. -------------------- E.g.,: Your client is 💕beginning a yoga program and you are implementing the use of props and elementary poses to allow for relaxation and decrease fatigue. What form of yoga would this be? a. Bikram yoga b. Kundalini yoga c. Restorative yoga d. Ashtanga yoga

AED

Automated External Defibrillator An AED should only be used if the person is 💕unconscious, 💕not breathing and has 💕no palpable pulse Early defibrillation --AED 611 for details --CPR cannot change abnormal heart rhythm/VF ➡️ 但 CPR preserves the heart and brain and can prevent VF from deteriorating into an unshockable rhythm while waiting for an AED to arrive ---AED used to convert VF back to normal = keeping the tissues purfused with oxygenated blood ---use as soos as becomes available/ideally first 3-5 mins ⭐️drfibrillation cannot treat all heart rhythms ---AED machine will first analyze determine if a shock is appropriate(will not shock when normal heart rhythm) ⭐️child between 1-8 yrs old: ? 611 details ⭐️should not be used on an infant under one year old 💕never be used on a person who is consicous, breathing, or has a pulse --------------------- When a person is in 💕cardiac arrest, 💕ventricular fibrillation is common. If in a fitness facility during this event, what can be used to convert VF back to a normal rhythm? a. CPR b. AED c. EMS d. FA 💕CPR cannot change an abnormal heart rhythm. An 💕AED (automated external defibrillator) is used to convert ventricular fibrillation back to a normal rhythm by delivering an electric shock to the heart through two adhesive electrode pads on the person's chest. b

👏Which of the following statements is not true regarding participation and adherence in an exercise program? a. A client's past exercise history is a predictable behavior with exercise. b. Social support plays an important role in maintaining an exercise program. c. A client's location relative to the exercise facility can have an influence. d. Clients who perform moderate intensity exercises are almost twice as likely to drop out.

Clients tend to drop out twice as much when they do high intensity workouts compared to moderate intensity programs. d

Bob is a 45-year-old man who quit smoking 2 months ago. He has not participated in any exercise program in 2 years. His body mass index (BMI) is 32. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors? a. Moderate risk, doctor's supervision needed. b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary. c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise. d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

Explanation: Since Bob is over 45 years old, it has been less than 6 months since he quit smoking and he also has a BMI of 32, he has 3 points on the risk stratification scale. Note that since Bob has a BMI above 25, you have to assume prediabetes which makes him symptomatic. Based on these factors, Bob is considered high risk, therefore he needs to have a medical examination prior to beginning an exercise program. 要拍图 118-119 还要详细看一下－还没找symptomatic判断方法

Which of the following is not an example of a closed kinetic chain exercise? a. Squats b. Deadlifts c. Lunges d. Leg extension

In a closed chain movement, the distal end of the extremity is fixed, emphasizing joint compression and, in turn, stabilizing the joints. Leg extension is an example of an open chain kinetic movement. d

When beginning an exercise program with a client, you determine that he has checked "yes" to 4 risk factors on the Health Questionnaire. The next step in the training process is to: a. Design adaptive exercises that will work around his risks. b. Ask to speak to his physician to obtain approval for exercise. c. Give your client a form to be signed by his physician, approving the exercise program. d. Apologize to the client and let him know that you cannot train him since he has 3 or more risk factors.

If a client has 1 or more risk factors, you may not legally train him or her without a signed consent form from his/her physician. c

⚫️While you are setting up equipment for a circuit workout for your client, you notice that the floor is buckling and is uneven in several areas throughout the room. You decide that the floor area is unsafe to train your client on. What actions should you take because of this observation? a. Cancel the training session until the floor is repaired. b.Notify the facility's management c. Inspect a new training area and have a contingency plan d. Both a and b e. Both b and c

If an unsafe condition is noticed, the trainer should notify the facility's management. The trainer should also develop contingency plans for unsafe facilities. e

You are demonstrating proper form for an exercise that requires the gluteus maximus, hamstrings and gastrocnemius muscles to be the prime movers. What movement are you demonstrating? a. Straight-leg deadlift b. Squat c. Leg press d. Leg curl

Prime movers for hip extension (leg curl) are the gluteus maximus, hamstrings and gastrocnemius. d

When training a client with scapular protraction, which exercises should be avoided until the postural misalignment has been corrected to prevent further aggravation of the misalignment? a. Lat Pull Down b. Row c. Back extension d. Chest Press

Scapular protraction occurs when the serratus anterioir and synergistic muscles are tight and muscles of the upper back are weak. Chest press is an exercise that strengthens the serratus anterior and should be avoided to prevent increased tightness in the muscles causing the imbalance. d

A client has become very successful at performing a lunge and the trainer acknowledges the progress by reinforcing the client's performance and adding weight to increase the skill demand. Which principle of behavior is being used to gradually achieve a target behavior? a. Operant conditioning b. Shaping c. Observational learning d. Cognitions of behavior

Shaping begins with a simple skill that the client can perform and progresses to a more demanding skill that is reinforced with praise. This is a powerful behavior-control due to the reinforcement and increasing demands at an appropriate rate. b

q angle

Sheila is your client who is 34 years old who is interested in gaining strength in her lower body. While she is performing a set of body weight squats, which of the following critical mechanics would you observe because she is a female? a. Q angle b. Glute dominance c. Quad dominance d. Hip adduction The Q angle is the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur and the line of pulls of the patellar ligament. This angle is larger in women and more critical for preserving the integrity of the knee.

👁️What is the term used for the exercise of depression and retraction of the scapulae? a. External humeral rotation b. Posterior mobilization c. Shoulder packing d. Thoracic spine mobilization

Your client Mike likes to jog three to five miles 3 times per week. To reduce the risk of having unbalanced muscle development, what muscle groups should you pay special attention to?

a. Quadriceps and hamstrings b. Erector spinae and rectus abdominis c. Gastrocnemius and anterior tibialis Jogging places greater stress on the posterior leg muscles than the anterior leg muscles, leading to muscle imbalance. To reduce the risk of unbalanced muscle development, personal trainers should include resistance exercises for all of the major muscle groups. d

What are the two most accurate methods used to measure heart rate? (choose 2) a.Electrocardiogram b.Telemetry c.Auscultation d.Palpation

c d

antidepressant

抗抑鬱劑 Antidepressants have 💕no significant effect on 💕exercising heart rate. There can be an 💕increase in resting heart rate/RHR however.

auscultation

聽診

dorsiflexion

(足部)上舉 -with inadequate dorsiflexion a person can lose their COG or come up on their toes causing a dysfunctional movement. -in a squat is decreasing the angle between your shin and foot.

maintenance stage

- >6 months of physical activity -identify early signs of staleness to prevent burnout. -provide continued education about barrier identification. -keep the exercise environment enjoyable and switch it up to fight boredom.

👁️transient hypertrophy

--"muscle pump" experienced by many people immediately following resistance training -adaptations to exercise is caused by general fluid accumulation in the spaces between muscle cells ---not to be confused with sarcoplasmic hypertrophy which is an increase in sarcoplasm around the muscle cells, is the condition in which fluid accumulates around muscle cells and quickly dissipates after exercise.

deadlift

------------------ Your client's workout is beginning with squats. All of the following would be an assistance exercise following your primary exercise, except: a. Leg extension b. Deadlift c. Leg curl d. Calf raise Assistance exercises are single-joint rotary exercises such as the leg extension, leg curl, and calf raise. The deadlift would be a primary, multi-joint, linear exercise and not an assistance exercise. b You are teaching your client the deadlift exercise and have broken it up into separate segments in order to practice each skill in its simplest form. What would this movement-training sequence be called? a. Part-to-whole teaching strategy b. Kinematics c. Dynamic balance d. Limits of stability The part-to-whole teaching strategy allows for competence in simple skills before placing several skills in a sequence. You could perform this strategy in the deadlift to emphasize glute dominance over quad dominance. a

patellofemoral pain syndrome

----------------------------- Jim is 35 years old and an avid runner. Recently he has been complaining of 💕an 'achy' pain behind his patella. Which of the following training modifications should you make? a. Avoid deep squats b. Eliminate any downhill running c. Add stretches for his IT band d. All of the above ⭐️Jim is showing signs of patellofemoral pain syndrome. He should avoid deep squats and all downhill running likely to place more stress on the patella. Stretching should focus on tight calves, hamstrings and the IT band.

Excess body fat has been linked to what diseases?

197 -coronary artery disease (CAD) -metabolic syndrome -diabetes -certain type of cancer (breast, colon, and endometrial) -osteoarthritis -low back dysfunction -sleep apnea -even premature death

phase 1: stability and mobility training

---functional movement and resistance training/core and balance exercise/strength and function ---develop postural stability ---improving muscle flexibility/different stretching见另词条 271 有图 ----------------------------------------- Exercise: --💕core and balance ---low grade isometric contraction followed by controlled dynamic movements that increases the muscular volume and load ---low-intensity exercise to improve ⭐️ muscle balance, muscular endurance, core function, flexibility, and static and dynamic balance to improve posture ➡️ fundation for the movement skills ---use primarily body weight or body-segment weight as resistance ---develop postural stability ➡️supported surfaces that offer stability against gravity (e.g., floor or backrest) ➡️ focus on restorative flexibility, isometric contractions, limited-ROM strengthening, static balance, core activation, spinal stablitzationm and muscular endurance ------chapter 9 for details --------------------------------------- Assessment: 此阶段不需要muscular endurance/strength assessments 但需要以下： --posture --balance --movement --range of motion of the ankle, hip, shoulder complex, and thoracic and lumbar spine 🌟两到三周PT可以考虑assessing muscular endurance of the torso muscles ---Chapter 7 for details ----------------------------------------- -Progression: 210 🌟🌟🌟 proximal stability/lumbar spine/见另词条 = CORE ➡️ axial skeleton/proximal mobility = adjacent, hips and thoracic spine = scapulpthoracic region = stability and mobility of the lumbo-pelvic, thoracic, and shoulder region ➡️ distal segments -aim to reestabilish proper neuromuscular function and balance within the muscles acting at the across the joints ---extensibility and mobility at the joint ➡️ flexibility method = static stretching, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF), and myofascial release ---to improve a muscle's ability to maintain good joint position and function (endurance and strength) ➡️ ACE-recommended general progression sequence ➡️ low-grade isometric contractions of the targeted muscle (with the joint positioned in good posture), ➡️ controlled dynamic movement that increase muscular volume and load 🌟 一定要循序渐进不能过早地进行advanced exercie （在客人的stability and mobility还不够的情况下只会导致dysfunctional movement 265 ------------------------------------ 🌟347 To promote tissue extensibility and mobility ---flexibility method: static stretching, proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) and myofascial release -347 有部分没看懂

👏Exhale during _____________________________________, inhale during ________________________. /proper breathing pattern

--concentric muscle actions/lifting movement --eccentric muscle actions/lowering movement

👁️agility training

--lateral shuffles are an excellent example of an agility training drill. --------------------------------- Speed-endurance refers to the ability of an individual to maintain maximal velocity over an extended time period. Speed-strength is the ability to develop force at high velocities. Both are important components of agility training. ---------------------------------------------

muscle spindle

--the muscle spindle is a sensory organ within a muscle and stretches along with the muscle --the muscle spindle is activated and causes a reflexive contraction in the agonist muscle and relaxation in the antagonist muscle. It's known as the stretch reflex. -during a dynamic stretch -----is sensitive to stretch and is responsible for 💕protecting the muscle against too much stretch

⚫️知识点

--客人cardiorespiratory/resistace 的level不一定是在同一个phase的 --first meeting ➡️ health history assessment to determine referral, has limitations or contraindications 15 --PT should regularly update client records to identify and effectively address changes in health status as they occur --"remember to breathe'' rather than "don't hold your breath" --small group training session = to maximize the amount of money earned per hour = while providing a discount to each individual client 675 --不要有任何biases 不要有先入为主的观念一切平等看待 --有时要先判断客人讲的是不是实话有些没懂却会装作听懂有些没运动却说有运动 --"proximal stability promotes distal mobility" 263 ----hip, trunk, and shoulder girdle are stable, if facilitates greater mobility of the legs and arms

weight loss

--💕focus primarily on fat loss, without sacrificing lean muscle tissue ----相反的 weight gain, desire to gain lean muscle tissue and not an excess amount of adipose tissue --Resistance training alone is not a factor in weight loss 328 ----lack of evidence ----🌟虽然 positive changes in body composition, and may increase daily energy expenditure, 但是在initial months not seem to be effective for weight loss

general training frequency guidelines: -beginner/not currently training or just beginning with minimal skill -intermediate/basic skill -advanced/advanced skill

-2-3 -3-4 -4-7

⚫️Regardless of the workout, a proper warm up should be ____ to ____ minutes of low to moderate intensity exercise.

5-10

standard of care

-based on an exercise professional's actions in light of current professional standards as well as the trainer's age, condition and knowledge of the participant.

inspections

-check the lighting of the facility -check air and heat systems -check space requirements to make sure you can safely conduct exercises

inspection

-check the lighting of the facility -check air and heat systems -check space requirements to make sure you can safely conduct exercises -floor surfaces are clean and appropriate for the intended use -temperature -scan equipment for proper function. 这些不是： b. All screws are tightly fastened to each piece of equipment c. Bathrooms are clean d. Weights have been removed from all equipment Inspections are completed for the purpose of ensuring client safety. ----Having the dumbbells available has more to do with convenience than anything safety related.

forward head posture

-common to see as it is a repetitive motion that occurs daily. -Muscles that could be causing this position are the cervical spine extensors upper trapezius levator scapulae 🌟You are conducting a postural screening on your client by having her place one finger on her collar bone and another finger right above on her cheek.

👁️co contraction

-contractions consists of the mutual coordination of antagonist muscles to maintain a position? Agonist and antagonist muscles contract at the same time to stabilize a joint. ---For example, muscles of the core and the muscles of the pelvic floor must contract together to help maintain postural alignment during exercise.

supine bent knee marches

-designed to improve hip mobility without compromising lumbar stability ---best suited for improving hip mobility for an individual with lumbar stability concerns

motor learning

-during the first two weeks of an exercise program, strength gains are typically a result of Motor learning ----increased motor unit recruitment within the nervous system as opposed to an increase in muscle size, which comes later. 所以前两周先是strength 然后是size

concentric contraction

-e.g., hamstrings in a leg curl A concentric contraction occurs when the agonist muscle shortens, generating force. This occurs during the force-producing phase of the exercise

cardiorespiratory adaptations

-enlarged heart -increase in blood volume -blood pressure is improved Each of these adaptations are likely to occur when a client engages in regular, consistent exercise.

myofibrillar hypertrophy

-increase the number of myofibrils in a muscle fiber ----increase in the number of contractile proteins, or myofibrils, in a muscle cell or fiber

cognitions of behavior

-is greatly related to how they think about exercise participation and any thoughts associated with their success or lapse. It is the trainer's responsibility to understand the clients thought process to avoid handicapping their success. E.g.,: (Bill has been in a regular exercise regime with you for a while now, but has experienced a lapse and has developed negative feelings towards exercise.

selective listening

-listening only to keywords is a form of selective listening. ---in order to truly understand somebody's point of view you need to show empathy as in active listening. E.g.,: (you are going through an initial consultation with a potential client and he is explaining the struggles he has had with exercising and how it is always difficult sticking with a program. You are eager to get this person signed up for training and so you listen to keywords and hot buttons you can use to get him on-board. What type of listening are you demonstrating? a. Indifferent listening b. Selective listening c. Passive listening d. Active listening

👁️neural control

-movement principle ensures that impulses are transmitted to the intended muscles -controls and stabilizes movement at joints through transmitting impulses to the intended supporting muscles

Strength trained muscle fibers increase in cross sectional area as a result of two tissue adaptations. Responses to progressive resistance exercise is an increase in the number of ____________ and an increase in the ____________________________________

-myofibrils -muscle cell sarcoplasm that surrounds the myofibrils.

👁️chest press

-pushing exercise --because the push represents the concentric portion of the exercise --------------------- When training a client with scapular protraction, which exercises should be avoided until the postural misalignment has been corrected to prevent further aggravation of the misalignment? a. Lat Pull Down b. Row c. Back extension d. Chest Press Scapular protraction occurs when the serratus anterioir and synergistic muscles are tight and muscles of the upper back are weak. Chest press is an exercise that strengthens the serratus anterior and should be avoided to prevent increased tightness in the muscles causing the imbalance. d

Q angle

-the angle of the femur to the patellar ligament, which is generally larger in women due to increased laxity in joints.

preparation stage

-the goal of the preparation stage is to allow your client to regularly participate in physical activity. E.g.,: Joel has been working out with you regularly and has been able to stay active on his off days by picking up biking. Which of the following would be another intervention during the preparation stage that you could introduce to develop healthy behaviors? a. Identify early signs of staleness to prevent burnout. b. Provide continued education about barrier identification. c. Keep the exercise environment enjoyable and switch it up to fight boredom. d. Giving knowledge of someone else who is successfully participating in a similar program. 🌟所以a, b, c已经在maintenance 但d还是设法达到目标的阶段/(other interventions would be to provide a lot of support, feedback and reinforcement or to provide the opportunity for your client to express their concerns and triumphs. A, b, and c all are interventions found in the maintenance phase)

apley's scratch test

-to assess simultaneous movements of the shoulder girdle, or primarily, the scapulothoracic and glenohumeral joint. The inability to touch the medial border for the contralateral scapula would be observed as an implication. -it does not assess muscular endurance of the deep core muscles, including the lower back, that stabilize the spine. observe a. The ability to reach up the spine with shoulder extension and internal rotation b. The avoidance of impingement in the moving arm c. The ability to touch the opposite inferior angle of the scapula

👁️alexander technique

-transformation of neuromuscular habits by helping individuals focus on sensory experiences The Alexander technique is a practical method for improving ease and freedom of movement, balance, support, and coordination, and corrects unconscious habits of posture and movement which may be precursors to injuries. It is comparable to hatha yoga, pilates, and tai chi.

🌟According to most experts, a sensible diet-exercise approach to weight reduction tends to produce a rate of weight loss of approximately________ pounds per week.

1 to 2

⚫️For general muscle fitness it is recommended that a person complete ______ sets of between ______ repetitions.

1-2 8-15 30-90 secs varies

⚫️According to ACSM guidelines, a person should perform aerobic activity in bouts of at least ______ minutes in length.

Most people can complete approximately ___ repetitions with ____% of their 1-RM weight load.

10 75

👏Ken is a 42-year-old man who weighs 220 pounds and has an estimated body-fat percentage of 23%. Ken's goal is to reach a body-fat percentage of 17%. Approximately, what weight goal does he need to make in order to achieve his body-fat percentage goal? a. 211 pounds b. 204 pounds c. 196 pounds d. 188 pounds

100% - 23 = 77% (100% - Body- fat percentage = Lean mass percentage) 220 pounds x 0.77 = 169.4 pounds (Body weight x Lean mass percentage = Lean mass) 100% - 17% = 83% (Desired body fat percentage = Desired lean mass percentage) 169.4/.83 = 204 pounds (Lean body mass/LBM/Desired lean body mass percentage = Desired weight assume lean body mass 不变

power

101 more chapter 8: assessment chapter 10: program design & process ----------------------------------- phase 4 = velocity of force production = rate of performing work ⭐️velocity of force production by improving the ability of muscles to generate a large amount of force in a short period of time ⭐️neede in all sports and activities that require repeated acceleration and deceleration benefit: ⭐️improve body-composition levels ➡️ one of the most efficient methods of expending energy ⭐️development of lean muscle, since type II muscle fibers are responsible for high-force, short-duration contractions, and the enhancement of muscle size and definition ----------------------------------- power = force x velocity power = work/time .......................... force = mass x acceleration velocity = distance/time work = force x distance ------------------------------------- power 原理：102 more --maximizing the stretch reflex by minimizing the transition time between the eccentric and concentric phases of muscle action ----the faster a muscle can convert from the lengthening to shortening phases. the greater the amount of force generated by the muscle (eg. vertical jump) --------------------------------------- power training: --integrated full-body exercises to improve power in the legs, hips, core, shoulder complex, and arms

phase 4

101 还没看完 -functional movement and resistance training ---⭐️speed, agility, quickness, reactivity, and power 🌟performance-oriented goals/athletic --一般client不会到这个phase ---only highly fit and competitive clients with very specific goals related to high-speed performance during endurance events will require exercise programming in phase 4. -specific to the mode of activity and the intent is to perform very high-intensity training of nearly maximal muscular capacity ------------------------------------- Exercise selections: -focuses on anaerobic-⭐️power training ----见词条power 👇 -plyometric jump training...

phase 4: anaerobic power training

105 106 chapter 11 394 395 for more details 358- -standing long jump and vertical jump tests are used to assess anaerobic power. ----strength and power are closely related, but for assessment purposes, they should be evaluated independently. 应该只有advanced level才需要anaerobic power --time require --cardiovascular adaptations begin with the first exercise bout, but usually not ready to measurable for a couple of weeks 🌟VÓ2 max: ----standard marker of the aerobic-trianing effect ----reach peak and plateaus within about 6 months --394 没看懂 --type I muscle ----------------------------------- goals: -many clients will never reach this phase ---new interval to enhance anaerobic power -------short duration, high-intensity intervals, extended periods/longer endurance events ---to develop peak power and aerobic power with interval well above VT2/RPE>=9("very, very strong") ----------------------------------- program: -overload the fast glycolytic system and challenge the phosphagen system ➡️ enhancing high-intensity work for extended periods/longer endurance events ----比如 speeding up to stay with the pack in loading cycling; paddling vigorously for several minutes to navigate some difficult rapids while kayaking. ----short duration, high-intensity intervals that are very taxing -------require great intrinsic motivation ----------------------------------- 🌟 ---3-7days/week ---20 mins to several hours ---work interval, recovery, overtraining和phasě 3一样 -----不同点是 zone 3: high intensity, shorter duration, longer recovery interval(table 5-6 106) ----------------------------------- ????? -the highest level of work and the majority of your clients will never reach this phase -the most advanced training. -all three phases of training should be completed prior to reaching phase 4. After speaking with your endurance athlete about her goals in competing in road cycling, you have decided to provide short-duration, higher-intensity intervals that are well above VT2. Which stage will allow your client to develop peak power through intervals at an RPE of 9 or above? a. Aerobic base Training b. Aerobic efficiency Training c. Anaerobic endurance Training d. Anaerobic power Training Since your client has sport specific goals in a longer endurance event such as cycling, she may need the highest phase to improve her peak performance and aerobic capacity. Keep in mind that even though your client is in phase 4, she should be at or below VT1 70-80% of the time in order to improve recovery and avoid overtraining.

phosphagen

105 433 -has the fastest rate of ATP production. anaerobic-power training

empathy

111/113 -regardless of personal opinion ---113 key concept 还没看 -Listening to what they say and repeating it back ⭐️so they know you are listening. ----Repeating back what you hear can be helpful in showing empathy, since this allows you to make sure you are hearing your client correctly and understand their wants and needs.

communication skill

112 details 有些没记 chapter 3 ------------------------------------ Enviorment: --nurturing, professional, quiet, comfortable --avoid high-traffic, member distractions, do not attempt to establish rapport with a simple facility tour or orientation --sit facing client to create a level of comfort --personal appearance ------------------------------------- Effective communication: -verbal, nonverbal --distance and orientation (body positioning): -----face the client squarely and maintain appropriate distances = respect = ideally, 11/2 to 4 feet(0.5 to 1.2 m) --posture -----open, well-balanced, erect, but relaxed/a slight forward lean toward to show confidence and interest --mirroring and gestures: -----sensitively mimic a client's posture, gesture, and voice tone and tempo = facilitate open communication --eye contact -----relaxed look, but avoid fixed stares --facial expression -----sincere -----genuine smile -----eye expression --------------------------------------- Voice Quality: --tonality and articulation --不要太大也不要太小 --firm, confidence, and professional/warmth, compassion ----------------------------------------Listening Effectively: --nonverbal --listening more than speaking --listen to both content and emotions 🌟 indifferent listening: --not really listening, tuned out selective listening: --only key words passive listening: --give the impression of listening by using minimal noncommittal agreements (head nods, or uh huhs) ⭐️active listening: --shows empathy and listens as if he or she is in the speaker's shoes

neural hypertonicity

152 chapter 9 神经过度紧张

⚫️ankle pronation/supination and the effect on tibial and femoral rotation

156 Figure 7-6/table 7-4 157 297 298 -------------------------------------- 😈 💕pronation = arch flattening 💕supination = high arches ----at the 💕subtalar joint subtalar joint ➡️ impact the position of the tibia and femur --e.g., tibial torsion/femoral anteversion ⭐️pronated subtalar joint ➡️ forces internal rotation of the tibia and slightly less internal rotaion of the femur ---💕shoes off, hands firmly on the fronts of the thighs ➡️ notice the orientation of the knees and thighs/and calcaneus everts ---rotation and stresses on knee ligaments and joint itself ---tend to move the calcaneus into eversion ---➡️ lift the outside of the heel slightly off the ground (ankle into plantar flexion) ---➡️ tighten the calf muscles and potentially limit ankle dorsiflexion

subtalar joint

156 距下关节 --⚫️ankle pronation/supination and the effect on tibial and femoral rotation

calcaneus

157 跟骨 --subtalar joint pronation/calcaneus evert ankle pronation/supination

head position

162 for more details 163 figure 7-18/19 --sagittal view --tight muscles ----cervical spine extensors, upper trapezius, levator scapulae 🌟🌟🌟 --alignment of the 💕acromioclavicular joint/💕AC joint with the ear --alignment of the 💕collar bone and 💕cheek bone

client stands with a lordotic posture

17 不要诊断 --implementing a core conditioning program to improve strength and flexibility imbalances in muscles acting on the hips and spine

safety guidelines

17/661 for more details -- ----------------------------------- --well-planned, appropriate, and documented --conmmunicate and enforce all safety rules for equipment use --ensure equipment meet or exceed all industry standard --inspect al equipment prior and document adherence to maintenance schedules --never allow unsupervised activity by the client --limit participation to those under contract (ie., no friends or family members) --clearly warn clients specific risks of planned activities --only select activities within SOP and appropriate areas of expertise --ensure client wear any necessary protective equipment --review emergency plan (access to a phone and 911) --stay up-to-day with certifications and education inthe field -Clients must wear any necessary protective equipment, including closed-toed shoes.

⚫️signs or symptoms that merit immediate test termination and possible referral to a qualified healthcare professional

195 --onset of angina, chest pain, angina-like symptoms --significant drop (>10 mmHg) in SBP despite an increase in exercise intensity --excessive rise in blood pressure (BP), SBP >250 mmHg/DPB >115 mmHg --excess fatigue, shortness of breath, or wheezing(does not include heavy breathing due to intense exercise) --signs of poor perfusion, lightheadedness, pallor (pale skin), cyanosis (blush coloration, especially around the mouth), nausea, or cold clammy skin --increased nervous system symptoms (ataxia, dizziness, confusion, syncope,,,) --leg cramping or claudication --subject requests to stop --physical or verbal manifestation of severe fatigue --failure of testing equipment

👏When progressively increasing a workload (resistance, it is best to increase in increments of ____%

hydrostatic weighing

199 = underwater weighing, is a method of measuring body fat percentage by completely submerging a person in water and assessing the volume of water displacement. -benchmark --but not practical for standard fitness center ------------------------------ (The concept of behind hydrostatic weighing is based on the Archimedes Principle which states that the buoyant force on a submerged object is equal to the weight of the fluid that is displaced by the object. ) Density = Mass/Volume --is the equation used to determine lean weight and fat weight and determine a person's percentage of body fat. By volume, fat weighs less than muscle, and pound for pound fat and muscle each have a constant mass and displace a specific amount of water.

Clients should perform self-myofascial release with small, continuous, back-and-forth movements on a foam roller or similar device. This rolling should cover _______ inches over the tender region for ___________ seconds.

2 to 6 30 to 60

A person who is not currently training or is just beginning should start out exercising between _________ times per week.

2-3

⚫️It is recommended that 🌟new exercisers perform 💕resistance training ______ to ______ days a week for best results.

2-3

Guidelines from ACSM recommend targeting each major muscle group ______________ days a week, allowing a minimum of ________ hours of recovery between sessions.

2-3 48

during a weight-loss program combining diet and exercise, there are going to be times when the rate or amount of weight loss slows, stops, or even reverses = losing fat and gaining lean body mass/LBM. The only way to know for sure is through periodic ________________________

212 -body-composition assessments -是唯一可知道减脂增肌期间成效的方法

delete

220 - 32(age) = 188(Max HR) 188(Max HR) - 63(resting HR) = 125(heart rate reserve) 125(heart rate reserve) x .6(60% training percentage) = 75 125(heart rate reserve) x .8(80% training percentage) = 100 75 + 63 = 138 100 + 63 = 163 Kens target heart rate is between 138bpm and 163bpm b

⚫️you are training Ken for his first 5K run. He is 32 years old with a resting heart rate/RHR of 63bpm. Today he is to participate in a walk/ run interval workout on the treadmill at an intensity level of 60-80%. It is important to monitor his intensity throughout the workout. Using the Karvonen method, what is Ken's target heart rate? a. 138-158 bpm b. 138-163bpm c. 125-146bpm d. 136-146bpm

Submaximal talk test for VT1

222 assessment for 💕phase 2 ----💕to determine HR at VT1 ----can help clients gain a better understanding of RPE ➡️ VT1 approximately = RPE 4-5 ("somewhat strong" to "strong") no need to measure VT2 in phase 2 -HR telemetry (HR strap and watch) for continuous monitoring -to avoid missing VT1 222-223 ---exercise increments need to be small ➡️ 大概 5 bpm per stage 这一块还没看完 218-232 🌟🌟🌟

muscular strength testing

240- -dependent on such as muscle size (diameter), limb length, and neurological adaptations -important for everything from performance of ADL to sports Strength = absolute strength or relative strength ---Absolute Strength = great amount of weight that can be lifted one time = one-repetition maximum (1-RM) ---Relative Strength ---------takes the person's body weight into consideration and is used primarily when comparing individuals ---------maximal force a person is able to exert in the relationship to his or her body weight ---------公式➡️Relative strength = Absolute strength/Body weight -----------------absulute strength equals the amount of weight lifted variety of test for different muscle groups -1 RM bench press test -1 RM leg-press test -1 RM squat test ----详见另词条 🌟warm-up prior to strength testing to reduce the likelihood of injury and enhance overall strength ---prolonged static stretching discouraged ➡️ may decrease performance

1 RM

240- ?/ 248/ 334/ -one-repetition maximum -not well-correlated to muscular endurance = STRENGTH absolute strength: -----is tested with a one-repetition maximum test(e.g., 1-RM leg press test) in which the maximum amount of resistance that can be lifted one time is determined. 🌟1-RM tests should only be performed during phase 3 or 4 of the ACE IFT Model to make sure the body has proper stability, mobility and movement. -----⭐️risk with maximal exertion, musculoskeletal injury or worse --Submaximal strength testing ➡️ high amount of accuracy to determine a client's likely 1-RM ---⭐️do not exceed more than 10 rep ------more than 10 rep assess muscular endurance and not muscular strength ---✨✨✨248 249 算法对照表格要拍照还要再看 🌟normative data are not available for all forms of 1-RM testing ---a baseline for PT measure a client's future performance ➡️ motivating clients with improvements 🌟Considerations and Contraindications for 1-RM Testing: ---using free weight ➡️ proper form and control are necessary ➡️ novice exerciser may not 新手因为form不到位不行 ---beginning exerciser are often unsure of their abilities and tend to quit before their true maximum 新手因为不确定自己的能力所以会在真正最大之前放弃所以不准确 ---proper breathing patterns are necessary ➡️ avoid the Valsalva maneuver or any other form of breath-holding 需要正确的呼吸方法 ---hypertension and/or a history of vascular disease should avoid a 1-RM testing protocol 高血压和血管疾病患者不行

1 RM leg press test

244-246 -lower-extremity strength using a stable, supported movement: the leg press -only for: who demonstrate proper form and free of low back or knee pain／需要正确的form和没有low back or knee pain Equipment: -lege-press machine Pre-test procedure an Test protocol and administiration: 244 245 246 -还没看－以及对照表格 245 246 要拍照

👏Which component represents the final stage of stability and mobility training? a. Proximal mobility of the pelvis and thoracic spine b. Proximal stability of the scapulothoracic spine c. Proximal mobility of the glenohumeral joint d. Static balance

271 图 🌟Static balance is the goal and final stage of stability and mobility training. Once a person reaches static balance they can move on to resistance programs and progressions. d

SMR

271- /273/274 for more details Self myofascial release (SMR) Objective of myofascial release technique ----to inhibit the tension in a muscle by stimulating the GTO to bring about autogenic inhibition --------------------------------------- Myofascial release is a technique that applies pressure to tight, restricted areas of fascia and underlying muscle in an attempt to 💕relieve tension and improve flexibility💕. Applying direct sustained pressure to a tight area can inhibit the tension in a muscle by stimulating the Golgi tendon organ to bring about autogenic inhibition. -------------------------------------- ------------------------------- -虽然studies还很有限, 但 ---realign soft tissue and promote enhanced ROM/resets the proprioceptive mechanisms of the soft tissue ---好处1，reduce arterial stiffness, improve arterial function, and improve vascular endothelial function in sedentary subjects ---好处2，increase joint ROM acutely while not impeding the production of muscular force or rate of force development ------reduce hypertonicity/tightness within the underlying muscles and fascia, thereby improving ROM PT should 用SMR enhance mobility and ROM

static stretches

272 --point of tension --minimum four reps, each 15 to 60 secs

GTO

272 Golgi tendon organ What is activated after 10 seconds of a low-force stretch with an increase in muscle tension? a. Golgi tendon organ b. Stress-relaxation c. Creep d. Autogenic inhibition The GTO is activated after 10 seconds of low-force stretching and inhibits muscle spindle activity and any tension in the muscles. This allows for greater stresses along the collagen fibers to remodel them as they pull apart.

👁️dynamic stretching

272 dynamic and ballistic stretches during a dynamic stretch ---💕muscle spindle is sensitive to stretch and is responsible for 💕protecting the muscle against too much stretch --is the most popular and effective method of stretching to do 💕prior to a workout or 💕sport event or 💕competition. ----sports, and require ballistic activities

PNF

272 proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) --hold-relax stretch ----isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of 6 secs, followed by 10 to 30 assisted or passive static stretch --a method of promoting the response of neuromuscular mechanisms through the stimulation of proprioceptors in an attempt to gain more stretch in a muscle. --allows for more range of motion due to the initial release of the stress-relaxation in the muscles before passively or actively increasing the range of motion. --that is why it is required to hold the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds to allow the initial release. E.g.,: You are assisting your client with a hamstring stretch that consists of a contract/relax stretching technique. What form of stretching includes holding the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds, followed by a 10-to 30-second assisted or passive static stretch? a. Ballistic stretch b. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation c. Static stretch d. Dynamic stretch

Trainers can utilize the ACE IFT model for core conditioning and balance training. Which stage of the ACE IFT model emphasizes seat and standing stabilization over a fixed base of support? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. The later portion of stage 2 and all of stage 3

278 图 three stage model for core and balance training Stage 2 focuses on static balance. Stage 1 focuses on core function. Stage 3 focuses on movement training. b

distal mobility

297 for more details 271 总图 --foot stability ⭐️bend-and-lift or squatting movement

static balance

298 299 230 for more details 271 总图 --after reestablish core function, introduce static balance training --reduce the points of contact/two feet to one foot --add additional unstable surface/airex pad, foam roller, air discs, or medicine ball COM = center of gravity/COG

⚫️👁️The appropriate strength ratio for flexion to extension of the shoulder joint is _________.

2:3

⚫️when training for hypertrophy it is recommended to complete ______ sets of _______ repetitions.

3-6 6-12

Any person who is of a fair fitness level or higher/average can generally safely exercise from ________ minutes per day.

30-90

👏Any person who is of a fair／average fitness level or higher can generally safely exercise from _____________ per day.

30-90 minutes

A person exercising for the purpose of general fitness should rest for _________ in between sets of a resistance exercise.

30-90 seconds

👏concentric action

326 －muscle action which shortens to create muscle tension －when the muscle shortens in response to muscle tension, it is a concentric action

⚫️DOMS

340 delayed onset muscle soreness ----------------------- new client --low intensity ------------------------ 🌟try to minimize eccentric actions early in your resistance program to lessen the effects of DOMS (delayed onset muscle soreness) ----💕minimize eccentric actions as you get started in a new program ⚫️Trainer may need to consider muscle soreness when planning the durations of the 💕eccentric phase of contraction with new exercisers, as it is this phase that triggers DOMS, which may create a negative experience. ---------------------- An exercise program with a high level of intensity relative to the client's experience could create ____________________________(__________) and reduce the client's adherence to regular exercise.

double progressive training protocol

341 ---effective strength development ---reduces risk --配合考题词条267一起看 🌟第一步 adding repetitions ➡️ 第二步 adding resistance in 5% increments ---no time limit/whether one week or one month ---the resistance is increased only when the end-range number of repetition can be completed with proper form 🌟General Guideline 342 ---8-12 reps ---8/80% ---12/70% -------progressively training to muscle fatigue with 70 to 80% 叫做overload 342 --根据客人training的不同repetitions range ----ex, 4-8 or 12-16 要达成后加5％

You have been working with Judy for 1 month now. Her initial goals were to gain strength in her lower body and you have been working on body weight squats and lunges. She can perform 3 sets of 15 squats without a struggle. What is the best course of action to continue to increase her lower body strength significantly? a. Continue with the program as it is. b. Add resistance to her squats and lunges. c. Increase the number of squats to 20 repetitions per set. d. Discontinue the squats and lunges until she finds them difficult again.

341 Adding resistance is the next step in strength increase. This will produce significant results in lower body strength as opposed to increasing repetitions. -----341有应用例子可拍照

⚫️breakdown training

357 bodybuilder to enhance muscle hypertrophy, extending each exercise set with a few post-fatigue repetitions --to train to muscle fatigue --then immediately 💕reduce the resisntance by 10-20% --and perform as many as possible/typically 3 to 5 reps --to attain a deeper level of muscle fatigue

⚫️assisted training

357 bodybuilder to enhance muscle hypertrophy, extending each exercise set with a few post-fatigue repetitions --💕PT assist 在 💕concentric action ----没记录 357-358 --------------------------- e.g., You are working with your bodybuilding client and decide to implement an advanced training approach. What type of approach would involve training the 💕muscle to fatigue before receiving manual assistance from the trainer in the concentric muscle action? During assistance training the trainer helps with the 💕concentric muscle action due to people being about 40% stronger on eccentric muscle actions. The post-fatigue repetitions are 💕terminated when the exerciser has difficulty controlling the lowering action.

⭐️⭐️⭐️anaerobic power

358- -standing long jump and vertical jump tests are used to assess anaerobic power. ----strength and power are closely related, but for assessment purposes, they should be evaluated independently. 应该只有advanced level才需要anaerobic power

👁️plyometric exercise

361 362 for more details 💕phase 4: performance/power training -plyometric training can be programmed specifically for either the lower body or upper body 🌟focused on improving the production of muscular force and power ---incorporates quick, powerful movements. ---involve 💕stretch-shortening cycle: an active stretch/eccentric contraction of a muscle followed by an immediate shortening/concentric contraction of the same muscle The number of plyometric training workouts should be one to three depending on the conditioning level of your client and the rest period should be 48 to 72 hours. It is critical for recovery to allow adequate rest periods. ---------------------------------------- ⭐️ clients have to know appropriate landing techniques before jumps ---teaching small, low intensity jumps initially ⭐️ PT should introduce high-intensity, lower body plyometric drills only after the clients have demonstrated ability to successfully squat 1.5 times their body weight or complete five squat repetitions with 60% of body weight in five seconds ⭐️ Plyometric drills should performed at the beginning of a training session after dynamic warm-up/not fatigue to reduce risk of injury -------------------------------------- 🌟Movement pattern progression is another consideration for programming plyometric exercise. Patterns should begin with: forward movement and then progress to lateral, then backward, then rotational, and the crossover, cutting, or curving movements. ----💕crossover, cutting and curving are the most complex movements in power training and should come only after rotational movement has been mastered.

proper breathing

375 --exhale during concentric muscle actions/lifting movement --inhale during eccentric muscle actions/lowering movement

selectorized equipment

376 for more details Selectorized machines are particularly 💕well-suited for beginning exercisers, because they provide body support and predetermined movement patterns. The weight stacks always move vertically to provide a consistent resistance force throughout the lifting and lowering actions.

elastic resistance

377 --unlike其它, provide a softer form of resistance that can be easily adapted to almost any exercise Tubing 377 Elastic bands 377

body weight training

378 Body weight exercise progression is accomplished by performing 💕more repetitions 💕rather than adding resistance. Once the exercise set 💕exceeds 100 seconds, the strength-building stimulus 💕diminishes. ---------------------- e.g., Using the progressive-repetition approach in body weight training, how long would it take for the strength-building stimulus to diminish in a bodyweight exercise set? a. 30 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 100 seconds d. 90 seconds Body weight exercise progression is accomplished by performing more repetitions rather than adding resistance. Once the exercise set exceeds 100 seconds, the strength-building stimulus diminishes. c Mary has been training with you for 2 weeks. She can currently perform 45 sit-ups in 2 minutes. What is the best way to progress? a. Add resistance to her sit-ups. b. Aim for 60 sit-ups in 2 minutes. c. Aim for 80 sit-ups in 2minutes. d. Aim for 80 sit-ups in 3 minutes. It is important to 💕stay within the 2-minute range, or anaerobic range, when performing strength training. Therefore, 💕increasing the number of repetitions performed during the 2-minute time frame is the best way to progress with a body weight exercise.

cool down

398 for more details A cool down should be performed for 💕5 to 10 minutes following a workout to decrease any chances of 💕pooling blood in the extremities ----Prevents blood from pooling in your arms and legs (major benefit) ----------------------------- --same duration and intensity as the warm-up ----💕5-10 mins, low to moderate intensity ----原因 398 ----helps remove metabolic waste from the muscles so that it can be metabolized by other tissues ----a stretching routine following the cool-down period can improve flexibility ----------------------------------- asthma --increase warm up and cool down time --------------------------- 🌟stability and mobility /movement training exercises should be maintained 💕during phase 3 ---as a part of dynamic warm-up and to maintain flexibility during the cool down

specific guidelines for children and adolescents aged 6 to 17:

398 for more details --at least 60 mins of moderate to vigorous/day --include vigorous-intensity activity a minimum of 3 days/week --muscle-strengthening/bone-strengthening activity a minimum of 3 days/week --398 没看完

When using heart rate for a client with hypertension, the target should be set at the lower end of the heart-rate range, between ___% of the client's maximum heart rate and _____% of the client's maximum heart rate.

40-65

fartlek training

413 -involves varying the intensity of a workout to involve both aerobic and anaerobic systems into the exercise. ----something rarely achieved with exclusive steady-state training/aerobic, and different from traditional interval training/anaerobic with specific work-to-rest ration ----eg, intermittent-sport athletes... 413 -🌟unlike interval training, it is not as structured as interval training in that intensity is varied based on how the body feels. --many runner, especially beginners, enjoy fartlek training, speed work, but more flexible

water based exercise

415 416 highlights = aquatic exercise advise: --client who needs to reduce orthopedic loading. --older client who has hip and knee issues. --obese client with limited ROM. not advise: --client with a compromised circulatory function. ----mmersion in water causes the blood to be redistributed to the central circulation, away from the limbs. In people with compromised circulatory function, this can lead to complications like breathlessness and heart failure. --energy cost of ambulatory activities in the water is very strongly related to the depth of water --can increase markedly with only very slight increases in the speed of ambulating in the water ------------------------------------

⚫️Moderate exercise is considered any form of exercise that can be sustained for _____ minutes with a MET level of ________ and __________ of the individual's VÓ max.

45 3-6 40-60%

mind body exercise

480- for more details 416 --cardiorespiratory effects may still be achieved ----though not associated with high-intensity ----comparable to walking --Asian yoga and Tai chi = root of most Yoga: 483 --breath control, meditation --meditation and spiritual freedom hatha yoga: 483 --coupled with meditative-contemplative component --most practiced in the West today --several methods of hatha yoga 见另词条 Tai chi: 483 --derive from qicong Pilates ---------------------------------------- feldenkrais method alexander technique somatics pilates laban movement analysis integrative yoga, tai chi chih, contemporary martial arts, meditation walking American Indian yoga --------------------------------------- Benefits of Yoga and Tai Chi with research-supported outcomes include --increased muscular strength and flexibility --increased balance control --reduced knee arthritis symptoms --improved posture, --decreased falls in seniors --decreased low back pain/LBP ------------------------------------ core benefits from regular participation in programs such as tai chi, qigong, and hatha yoga: ---increased balance and strength ---increased flexibility ---increased relaxation and mental quiescence Mind body exercise, when taught respectfully and skillfully, is an opportunity to improve health for those who wish to complement their existing fitness program or who are otherwise sedentary and are looking for some greater meaning in their daily exercise routine.

hatha yoga

493 General Precaution: 493 --because many styles of hatha yoga involves acute dynamic changes in body position, it is important to understand the 💕hemodynamic and cardiac ventricular responses to such exercise and how these may alter cardiac function in people diagnosed with CVD, including hypertension or diabetes. --to avoid: ----493 还没看完 ------------------------------------- Core benefits from a hatha yoga program include increased balance, strength and flexibility. Which of the following would be a general precaution for someone taking a hatha yoga class for the first time? a. Inverted poses may alter cardiac function in people diagnosed with CVD. b. Head-down positions alternated with a head-up pose sequence may alter cardia function in people diagnosed with hypertension or diabetes. c. Clients who are initially deconditioned should minimize acute rapid changes in body position in early stages of hatha yoga training. d. All of the above.

👁️pilates

497 --overcome faulty compensatory movement patterns -mind body exercise programs is based on the idea that there is a core set of postural muscles that help to keep the body balanced and are essential to providing good support to the spine ---is divided into two modalities, floor/mat work and work on a reformer. ---combines stretching and strengthening exercises. The principle goal is to achieve efficient functional movement and improved performance.

feldenkrais method

498 contemporary mind body exercise 的一种 The Feldenkrais Method consists of two interrelated, somatically based educational methods. These are --the awareness through movement that is verbally directed for group work --functional integration which is a nonverbal manual contact technique designed for people desiring more individualized attention. Awareness through movement that's a verbally directed technique designed for group work

agreement to participate

652 653 figure 17-2 -💕protect PT from a client claiming to be 💕unaware of the potential risks of physical activity --💕not a formal contract, but demostrate that the client was made aware of the "normal" outcomes of certain types of physical activity and willingly assemed the risks of participation --typically "class" settins/bootcamp, group cycling 💕rather than individualized PT situations --detail the nature of the activity, the potential risks to be encountered, and the expected behaviors of the participant --💕as the participant recognizes that he/she may need to follow instructions while participating -------------------------------------- --💕PT should have a process to formally warn their clients about the potential dangers of exercise ------------------------------------ E.g. You are running a bootcamp in a class setting when one of your clients sprains his ankle and claims that he was unaware of the potential risks of physical activity in the bootcamp. What document would be needed in a defense to litigation for negligence in a class setting wherein the client assumes the risk of physical activity? You are training a small 💕group of clients for a TRX suspension class. Which type of form will you utilize to demonstrate that the client was made aware of the "normal" outcomes of the activity and their wiliness to assume the risks of participating in the TRX class? a. Informed consent b. Agreement to participate c. Specialty class waiver d. Freedom of consent An agreement to participate is designed to protect the personal trainer from a client claiming to be unaware of the potential risks of physical activity. Typically, the agreement to participate is utilized for 💕"class" settings. b

supervision

659 660 for more details General Supervision and Specific Supervision General Supervision --group, large class Specific Supervision --specific activity such as personal training --never leave a client when there is a potential for injury ⭐️ --when working with 2/more clients, ----alternate between require general and specific supervision both ----when specific to one (eg., spotting), the other rest/work on an activity that require only general supervision (eg., stretching/cardiovascular exercise) ⭐️ before beginning: --client's emergency medical info, such as emergency contact number --remote area, cell phone coverage should be checked to ensure 911 can be reached

health belief model [key concept]

68 -- Perceived susceptibility Cues to action Perceived seriousness Perceived susceptibility is the feelings one has about the seriousness of contracting the disease. Cues to action is when the client would actually have the physical symptoms to get them motivated and perceived susceptibility would be the client's subjective appraisal of likely developing the problem.

An AED is a portable electronic device used to restore normal heart rhythm in a person experiencing a cardiac arrest and can reduce the time to defibrillation before EMS personnel arrive. For each minute that defibrillation is delayed, the victim's chance of survival is reduced by __________%

7-10

It is recommended when training for hypertrophy, or size increase, to train at ____ -- ____% of a person's 1RM with a _________ number of repetitions and ______ rest between sets.

70 80 moderate little

⚫️an agility drill beginner should perform at less than _______ of their maximum effort for a period of _______ seconds.

70% 15-30

The recommended training intensity for muscle hypertrophy is about _____________% of maximum resistance.

70-80

bruce submaximal treadmill

??? ---typically performed to maximal effort in 3-minute stages until the client reaches 85% of their estimated maximum heart rate. This test may be too difficult and demanding for older or less fit individuals.🌟better suited for younger, fit individuals

rockport fitness walking test

??? -evaluates cardiorespiratory fitness in that it is more than 2 minutes long and is of low-moderate intensity -to estimate VÓ max from a client's immediate post-exercise heart rate ---calculated using the client's immediate post-exercise heart rate and his or her 1-mile walk time.

autonomous stage of learning

??? -perform the skill with 💕less monitoring from the trainer. The trainer may decide to introduce different exercises in order to repeat the learning process. E.g.: (Crystal has developed a good understanding of how to do a push-up and can perform the movement with 💕little correction or feedback from the personal trainer.

BIA

??? Bioelectrical Impedance Analysis (BIA) -measures electrical signals as they pass through the body ---through fat, lean mass and water in the body to ⭐️determine body fat percentage ---impedance is greatest in fat tissue, while fat-free mass, which contains 70-75% water, allows the electrical current to pass much more easily.

After an initial fitness consultation, you sit down with your potential client and show her the packages and prices for your services. Which basic component of being a successful sales professional did you display? a. Asking for the sale b. Marketing the personal-training service to potential clients c. Building a friendship d. Establish common ground

??? There are 💕two basic components to being a successful sales professional. These are 💕marketing your personal-training services to potential clients and 💕asking for the sale. Building friendships and establishing a common ground are also both basic rules for selling.

lordosis posture

???? -the lumbar extensors are shortened and tight. -also means the hip extensors, neck flexors and scapular stabilizers are lengthened.

. Which of the following would be considered a disadvantage of carrying out the business of personal training as an independent contractor? a. Marketing costs. b. Establishing the fees for training. c. Development of financial goals of the business d. The ability to move around and work out of different facilities

???? As an independent contractor, the trainer is responsible for all of her own marketing costs. As an independent contractor, the trainer will establish her own fees, develop her own financial goals and be able to move around and work at different facilities. a

You are beginning your business as a personal trainer and are creating your brand. Of the following, which would be the best demographic to begin building a brand identity? a. New health club members who want to learn the basics of exercise training b. Gym employees who want to work-out after work c. Non-gym members d. Fitness enthusiasts

????? Creating and communicating a unique brand to a demographic more susceptible to purchase your services will give you the best chance of building a brand identity. Other examples could be over-50 adults looking to improve their quality of life or people preparing for an adventure vacation. Choosing a demographic that is too broad, like any non-gym member, or less likely to purchase personal training such as fitness enthusiasts and gym employees, will reduce the chances of you being able to communicate your value to potential clients. a

Becky is in the aerobic base training phase of her plan. She is walking at an inclined grade on the treadmill. When she answers you her words come out two at a time between breaths. Above which of the following levels is Becky exercising using the talk test? a. Lactate Threshold b. First Ventilatory Threshold c. 9 rating of Perceived Exertion d. Second Ventilatory Threshold

????? In order to maintain aerobic-base training, a person must stay under their first ventilatory threshold, which means talking in sentences of more than a few words in length. b

👁️metabolic syndrome

????? 代謝症候群 -start out with low intensity activities and resistance training twice a week. They should also target 200 to 300 minutes per week for between 3 to 5 days. ----low impact activities. Twice a week resistance training. -------------------------------- You have a client with metabolic syndrome. What would be an initial intervention strategy to implement into his lifestyle? a. Decreased physical activity b. Weight-bearing activities ⭐️c. Tobacco cessation d. Weight gain The primary objective in a client with MetS is to reduce the risk for developing cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes. You would want to promote increased physical activity, weight loss, healthy eating, tobacco cessation. Personal trainers should consider using non-weight bearing activities for those with musculoskeletal challenges such as water exercise. The primary objective in a client with MetS is to reduce the risk for developing cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes. You would want to promote increased physical activity, weight loss, healthy eating, and tobacco cessation. Personal trainers should consider using non-weight bearing activities for those with musculoskeletal challenges such as water exercise.

cognitive behavioral technique

?????? -include feedback, self-monitoring, decision making and goal setting. A written contract is not a cognitive behavioral technique.

After identifying the risks of your personal training business, which of the following is included in a risk management protocol to manage and reduce the identified risks? a. Risk avoidance b. Risk transfer c. Risk retention d. All of the above.

?????? Avoidance, transfer, reduction, retention are approaches available to the personal trainer for managing and reducing the identified risks.

What is the major muscle group involved in the flexion portion of a leg curl exercise? a. Hamstrings b. Quadriceps c. Gluteus Maximus d. Gastrocnemius

?????? The hamstrings are the main group of muscles responsible for flexing the knee.

hip extension

?????? There are four primary muscles that act as hip extensors including the biceps femoris, gluteus maximus, semitendinosus semimembranosus.

SWOT analysis

??????? The SWOT acronym is a simple tool for conducting a risk assessment. It stands for strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

Collecting heart rate throughout a cardiovascular assessment is important in order to determine if an individual is experiencing which of the following conditions? a. Thermoregulation b. Blood lactate accumulation c. Cardiovascular drift d. Anaerobic threshold

????????? -Cardiovascular drift is an increase in heart rate when workload has not been altered, and can lead to unsafe complications. c

⚫️👁️Which of the following skill-related assessments evaluates the amount of work performed in a given unit of time? a. Anaerobic Power b. Anaerobic Capacity c. Agility d. Speed

?????????? -Power is determined using work performed in a certain amount of time. Power = work/time.

Which of the following is administered to assess a person's level of cardiorespiratory function? a. Maximum Heart Rate calculation b. Body Mass Index (BMI) c. Maximal Oxygen Uptake (VÓ2 max) d. Push up test

A VÓ2 max assessment tests a person's ability to take in and utilize oxygen, which is directly related to cardiorespiratory fitness. c

⚫️Matt is a 26-year-old man who is training for a mixed martial arts competition. He has been training in this area for 3 years. He has good shoulder mobility and has successfully completed all stability and mobility tests. What stretching techniques should be utilized before his workout based on his fitness level? a. Myofascial release, AIS and dynamic stretches b. Myofascial release, warm-up and static stretches c. Dynamic and ballistic stretches d. None of the above.

A client who is a performance 💕athlete and exhibits good skill and flexibility would benefit most from 💕dynamic and ballistic stretches to prepare their muscles for sport specific exercise. c

Maggie is a 50-year-old woman who has not participated in an exercise program in 8 years. She had a measurement 70 degrees of movement with a passive straight leg raise. She exhibits slight femoral internal rotation. What stretching techniques should be utilized before her workout based on her fitness level? a. Myofascial release, AIS and dynamic stretches b. Myofascial release, warm-up and static stretches c. Dynamic and ballistic stretches d. None of the above.

A client who is deconditioned with poor flexibility (a level less than 80 degrees on the passive leg stretch is considered tight) and muscle imbalance should start out with myofascial release, a good warm-up and static stretching to prevent injury. b

⚫️Michael is a 50-year-old man who has not exercised in 8 years. His fitness classification is "poor". What should Michael's heart rate stay between during cardiorespiratory exercise? a. 68-93 bpm b. 96-114 bpm c. 125-143 bpm d. 136-155 bpm

A deconditioned person with a "poor" fitness classification should exercise at approximately 57-67% of their maximum heart rate. For Michael, this is 96-114 bpm. You should be able to deduce this without calculating past his MHR by simply looking at the ranges. b

Which of the following compensatory movements is most likely to occur during the downward phase of a single-leg squat? a. Lateral hip shift b. Shifting backward c. Medial hip shift d. Hip extension

A lateral hip shift is most likely to occur as a subconscious attempt to re-adjust the base of support to center. a

The order of exercises you recommend should reflect a beginning group of exercises which move to more progressive exercises. Which of the following represents a typical recommended progression? a. Muscle isolation to unsupported machines b. Unilateral to bilateral exercises c. Unsupported to supported machines d. Muscle isolation to multijoint exercises

A typical progression would be to recommend muscle isolation exercises and progressing to multijoint exercises. d

Rob is your new client who is 48 years old, has a body mass index of 35 kg/m2, and has prediabetes. He quit smoking 2 months ago and now walks at a moderate-intensity level twice per week. 143. Before you begin your first workout with Rob, what is the most important thing to advise Rob to do? a. Refer to his physician to obtain approval for exercise b. Measure his blood glucose levels prior to his workouts c. Drink a protein shake before the workout d. Let you perform the Rockport fitness walking test

According to the ACSM Risk Stratification, Rob has 4 risk factors for cardiovascular disease and must refer to his physician for a medical exam before beginning any exercise program. a

👁️On the classical Borg Rate of Perceived Exertion scale, what level of exertion does a "6" represent? a. Fairly Light b. Hard c. Very Weak d. Nothing at all

According to the classic 6-20 Borg scale of RPE, a 6 equates to "Nothing at all". d

What is the main focus of aerobic-efficiency training? a. Helping clients to have positive experiences with exercise. b. Increasing the time of cardiorespiratory exercise while introducing intervals. c. Focused for clients with endurance-performance goals. d. Focused for clients with performance goals such as high sprinting speed.

Aerobic-efficiency introduces intervals to improve aerobic efficiency, fitness and health. The intervals will be in the lower end of zone 2 and eventually progress to the upper end of zone 2. The training can only progress after the client has become consistent with her cardiorespiratory exercise and can comfortably perform a minimum of 20 to 30 minutes of steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 1. b

Which stage of learning allows the client to master the basics and handle more specific feedback to refine the motor skill? a. Cognitive stage of learning b. Associative stage of learning c. Autonomous stage of learning d. Feedback stage of learning

After acquiring understanding of the motor skill in the cognitive stage, the client will then be able to perform the movement with feedback in the associative stage that will help them refine the motor skill. b ?????在哪一页??????

Your client has expressed an interest in performance training. Which of the following is not a question you need to ask before beginning a power-based performance-training program? a. Which movement patterns and activities are required for reaching the performance goal? b. What are the athletic skills and abilities the client currently lacks? c.What is the client's current vertical jump? d. What are the common injuries associated with the activity?

After the client has met the prerequisites for performance training, you will need to then determine the purpose of the program. These parameters will help you design a safe and effective program to meet the client's goals. c

You have implemented agility drills into your client's routine. When in the workout should these drills be performed? a. At the end of the workout b. First thing when your client arrives c. After the first working set d. After the warm up

Agility drills are explosive and these activities must be performed early in the session. The client will still need an appropriate warm up in order to prepare for the workout and reduce the risk of injury. d

⚫️agility drill

Agility drills are 💕explosive and these activities 💕must be performed early in the session. The client will still need an 💕appropriate warm up in order to prepare for the workout and reduce the risk of injury. -------------------------------- How long should an agility drill last for a beginner? a. 15-30 seconds b. Less than 10 seconds c. 10-60 seconds d. 60 seconds to 2 minutes A beginner should perform at less than 💕70% of their maximum effort for a period of 💕15-30 seconds. --------------------------- All of the following are ways to progress agility drills, except: a. 💕Increase the speed of movement b. 💕Increase the complexity of the task c. Increase the base of support d. 💕Introduce resistance such as bands and ankle weights To progress agility drills you would want to progressively 💕narrow the base of support. Other tips would be to create reactive drills where the client reacts to unexpected verbal or visual cues. c ----------------------------- The glycolytic system is predominating in speed and agility drills that require moderate power at a moderate duration

You are training an older adult and wish to improve her balance and coordination. Which of the following is not a sensory system that will provide essential information to the central nervous system to maintain balance? a. Visual b. Vestibular c. Cognition d. Somatosensory

Aging has an effect on the visual, vestibular and somatosensory systems. People rely heavily on visual input for balance, the vestibular system for position of the head in space, and somatosensory system for muscle and joint proprioception and cutaneous and pressure receptors. c

Which of the following contractions consists of the mutual coordination of antagonist muscles to maintain a position? a. Isometric contraction b. Co-contraction c. Concentric contraction d. Eccentric contraction

Agonist and antagonist muscles contract at the same time to stabilize a joint. For example, muscles of the core and the muscles of the pelvic floor must contract together to help maintain postural alignment during exercise. b

👏According to the NSCA guidelines for youth resistance training, which of the following is recommended for exercises? a. Resistance increases of 5% - 10% increments b. One to three sets of each resistance exercise c. Resistance that permits six to 15 repetitions d. All of the above

All of the above are recommended. Resistance exercise should be a key component of youth fitness programs. When performed properly, progressive resistance training provides many health, fitness and performance benefits for children, including enhanced musculoskeletal development, improved body composition, reduced injury risk, and increased physical self-concept. d

👏Bill is a 50-year-old man with a family history of heart disease. His body mass index is 20 and he has been running 3 miles 3-4 days a week for a year. What are the exercise testing recommendations according to risk stratification based on his cardiovascular disease risk factors? a. Moderate risk, doctor's supervision needed. b. Low risk, medical exam not necessary. c. Moderate risk, medical exam necessary before vigorous exercise. d. High risk, medical exam before moderate exercise.

Although Bill is at a higher than average fitness level for his age, because he is over 45 years old and has a family history of heart disease, he has 2 points on the risk factor scale, therefore requiring a medical exam before any vigorous exercise is initiated. c

Emily is a 23-year-old woman who is interested in becoming more fit. She is going to school and working full time so she has limited availability. You decide to set a goal for her attendance of sessions, and she suggests "Emily will not miss any scheduled sessions in October." What is wrong with this goal? a. It is unattainable. b. It is not relevant. c. It is negative. d. It is not time-bound.

Always avoid setting goals with negative connotations. It is much easier to stick to a positive goal than avoid a negative one. A better goal would be "Emily will attend every scheduled session in October." c

⚫️On whom should you use an Automated External Defibrillator (AED)? a. A client who is unconscious and breathing shallowly. b. A member who is unconscious and not breathing but has a pulse. c. A member who is unconscious, not breathing and doesn't have a palpable pulse. d. A member who is barely conscious and complaining of chest pain.

An AED should only be used if the person is unconscious, not breathing and has no palpable pulse c

You are training a small 💕group of clients for a TRX suspension class. Which type of form will you utilize to demonstrate that the client was made aware of the "normal" outcomes of the activity and their wiliness to assume the risks of participating in the TRX class? a. Informed consent b. Agreement to participate c. Specialty class waiver d. Freedom of consent

An agreement to participate is designed to protect the personal trainer from a client claiming to be unaware of the potential risks of physical activity. Typically, the agreement to participate is utilized for 💕"class" settings. b

👏Which of the following is associated with an independent contractor versus and employee? a. Receives training from the fitness center. b. Receives payment specific to job duties performed. c. Oversees fitness center procedures. d. Receives health benefits from the fitness center.

An independent contractor will be paid based on specific duties rather than an hourly wage. b

👏What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? a. 130/70 mmHg b. 120/80 mmHg c. 121/81 mmHg d. 140/90 mmHg

An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 💕140 mmHg systolic and/or 💕90 mmHg diastolic is considered to be 💕hypertensive, or 💕high blood pressure, making it a 💕risk factor for cardiovascular disease. d

isometric

An isometric contraction occurs when there is no lengthening or shortening of the muscles, which only occurs when there is no movement e.g., quadriceps in a Wall Sit plank

Which of the following is NOT a myth about resistance training? a. Specific resistance training can target fat deposits in certain areas. b. Children are too young to lift weights. c. Training with very light resistance that can be performed for more than two minutes is not beneficial for muscle development. d. Light weight and high repetitions will improve muscle tone, while heavy weight and low repetitions will increase muscle mass.

Any resistance training should be performed with enough resistance to tire before the anaerobic threshold of 2 minutes in order to be beneficial for muscle development. c

What is an example of the "tell, show, do" technique used in the early stages of training? a. Telling your client to show you how to correctly perform an exercise. b. Showing your client proper form of every exercise and allowing them to try it on their own later. c. Explaining the proper way to perform an exercise, showing your client, and then allowing them to try the exercise. d. Watching the client perform the exercise and giving feedback about the proper form.

As a trainer you should always explain how to perform the exercise and show your client how it should look before they perform it. 🌟You should also allow them to try it immediately after, while you are with them.🌟

Your client's workout is beginning with squats. All of the following would be an assistance exercise following your primary exercise, except: a. Leg extension b. Deadlift c. Leg curl d. Calf raise

Assistance exercises are single-joint rotary exercises such as the leg extension, leg curl, and calf raise. The deadlift would be a primary, multi-joint, linear exercise and not an assistance exercise. b

Matthew is a new client that you have been seeing for two weeks now. You have completed the health risk appraisal and with no medical clearance needed, checked his resting measures, tested his static and dynamic posture as well as performed body composition and aerobic tests. What is the best test to perform next in his training process? a. Health Related Assessments (body composition, etc.) b. Skill Related Assessments c. Movement Screens d. Muscular Endurance and Strength

At this point he is ready to test his muscular endurance and strength as you have determined he is not a health risk and begun steps to correct any postural issues. Skill-related assessments should be saved for after you have determined his need for strength and/or endurance training. d

⚫️overhead press

Avoid： The overhead press puts the wrists in a fully extended position, which can 💕aggravate carpal tunnel syndrome, along with full flexion. ----------------------------------- While performing an overhead press, which muscle should you coach your client to engage during the lowering phase? a. Anterior deltoid b. Posterior deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi d. Triceps If the 💕latissimus dorsi is engaged to begin the lowering phase, anterior containment is provided to help stabilize the shoulder and precipitate greater force production during the lifting phase. Trainers should therefore coach clients to engage the latissimus dorsi during the lowering phase and not simply yield to gravity. How would a trainer progress the overhead press exercise? a. Prevent any movement besides the agonist muscles ⭐️b. Add a slight trunk rotation c. Be seated with a back rest d. Avoid changes in the plane of movement To progress the overhead press you can introduce changes in the plane of movement. Other ways to progress would be to add lateral trunk movements like a side lunge. Creating a more stable environment will reduce the stresses placed on the body and will not allow for progression.

Bob has a sedentary lifestyle and you notice that he has scapula protraction. Which muscles could be tight and causing a dysfunctional protraction? a. Upper trapezius b. Latissimus dorsi c. Rhomboids d. Serratus anterior

Being in a sedentary lifestyle allows for a hunched posture that over time can tighten the 💕serratus anterior, 💕anterior scapulohumeral muscles, and 💕upper trapezius which causes rounded or protracted scapulae. d

👏All of the following are research-supported benefits of yoga and tai chi for the musculoskeletal system, except: a. Increased muscular strength and flexibility b. Increased balance control c. Decreased blood lactate levels d. Decreased low back pain/LBP

Benefits of Yoga and Tai Chi with research-supported outcomes include --💕increased muscular strength and flexibility --💕increased balance control --💕reduced knee arthritis symptoms --💕improved posture, --💕decreased falls in seniors --💕decreased low back pain/LBP 💕Decreased blood lactate levels is a benefit to the metabolic system and not the musculoskeletal system. c

Using the progressive repetition approach in body weight training, how long would it take for the strength-building stimulus to diminish in a bodyweight exercise set? a. 30 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 100 seconds d. 90 seconds

Body weight exercise progression is accomplished by performing more repetitions rather than adding resistance. Once the exercise set exceeds 100 seconds, the strength-building stimulus diminishes. c

👏According to the ACE integrated fitness training model, which phase has a principal training focus of increasing the time of cardiorespiratory exercise while introducing intervals to improve aerobic efficiency, fitness and health? a. Phase 1 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 3 d. Phase 4

Clients will progress to this phase only after they have become consistent with their cardiorespiratory exercise and can comfortably perform a 💕 of 20 to 30 minutes of steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 1. b

Which of the following goes against safety guidelines? a. Leaving your client to take a call while they fill out paperwork b. A client exercising in open-toed shoes c. Your client drinking their own pre-workout drink during your session d. Not spotting an exercise performed on a machine.

Clients must wear any necessary protective equipment, including closed-toed shoes.

Which of the following are methods you can utilize to help clients avoid overtraining syndrome? a. Distribute zone 1 cardio training throughout warm ups and cool downs b. Utilize zone 1 cardio training on moderate-intensity days c. Utilize zone 1 cardio training for recovery after zone 2 or 3 training intervals d. All of the above e. Both b and c only

Continuing to utilize zone 1 cardiorespiratory training intermittently can help a client to feel confident and increase self efficacy, which can decrease the possibility of overtraining syndrome occurring. d

👁️Which of the following is a true statement regarding contributory negligence? a. Contributory negligence bars a recovery to the plaintiff. b. Contributory negligence apportions damages on degrees of fault c. Contributory negligence is always at issue. d. Contributory negligence covers the trainer if the client is partially at fault.

Contributory negligence prevents a plaintiff in a lawsuit who has played some role in the injury from receiving any remuneration. a

What are the two key hormones of behavior that bond brain and body together and play extensive roles in mind body visceral and cognitive responses? a. Testosterone and estrogen b. Corticotropin releasing hormone and adrenocorticotropin hormone c. Adrenalin and norepinephrine d. Cortisol and parathyroid hormone

Corticotropin releasing hormone (or CRH) and adrenocorticotropin hormone (or ACTH) create a bond in the hypothalamus and higher brain center. This interface is the consummate of "mind body connection." b

Your client says multiple times that he does not think that he has the capability at succeeding at his goal. All of the following are proper questions that the client can use to help replace irrational cognitions with healthier and factual thinking, except: a. What is the evidence for and against this thought? b. What would I tell a friend in this same situation as opposed to what I tell myself? c. If I were to give up, would anything really happen? d. Are there any other possible responses besides blaming myself?

Creating healthier, more productive thinking requires positivity while thinking about the situation. Other questions include asking if there's any conceivable way to look at this in a positive way, or how have I tolerated these situations in the past. c

_____________, ______________, and __________________ are the most complex movements in power training and should come only after ______________ movement has been mastered.

Crossover, cutting and curving rotational

DDD

Degenerative Disc Disease -it occurs in individuals between the age of 30 and 50. -the intervertebral disc gradually gets worn down and eventually degenerates. -it occurs between the fourth and fifth lumbar vertebrae or between the fifth lumbar vertebra and the first sacroiliac joint 95% of the time. It typically occurs due to the aging process.

Which of the following is not a potential determinant for physical activity? a. Personal attributes b. Environmental factors c. Physical-activity factors d. Current weight

Determinants can be described as the factors that influence a person's decision to engage in exercise behavior. Weight is not a potential determinant. d

shoulder flexion assessment

E.g.,: (you are conducting the shoulder flexion assessment on your client. In the supine position, the client is able to flex her shoulders and touch the floor, but only if the lower back is raised. Which muscle is most likely contributing the lower back having to be raised? a. Pectoralis major b. Teres major c. Rhomboids d. Latissimus dorsi Origin and Insertion of the latissimus dorsi connect the thoracolumbar fascia to the humerus. This muscle is required to stretch throughout the shoulder flexion assessment and can lead to dysfunction if it becomes tight.

👏Which of the following is associated with an employee versus an independent contractor? a. Choosing when and where to work. b. Maintaining autonomy in training decisions. c. Receiving little to no guidance. d. Having taxes withheld from their paycheck for Social Security.

Employees of fitness centers generally have taxes withheld from their checks, as opposed to independent contractors who will be responsible for their own withholdings. d

What type of activities would you recommend to a client with arthritis? a. Elliptical and rowing activities b. Aquatic activities c. Cycling activities d. All of the above

Encourage clients with arthritis to use a variety of low-impact activities to avoid overstressing the joints. Exercise programs should be carefully designed in conjunction with a physician and /or physical therapist. d

observational learning

Exercise behaviors of those people who are closest to your clients are likely to impact the likelihood of your client's success. This is called Observational Learning.

Which of the following assessments should be repeated after 1-3 months? a. Resting Vital Signs b. Body Composition c. Static Posture and Movement Screens d. All of the Above e. Both a and b

Explanation: Almost all of the initial assessment factors should be re-assessed after a period of 1-3 months to determine any changes that may have taken place.

👏A client's resting heart rate/RHR should always be checked ____________________. a. Before breakfast b. When the client is sitting c. When the client is lying down d. Before the client gets out of bed in the morning

Explanation: Although resting heart rate may be slightly lower when a client is lying down or has just woken up, it is 💕only necessary for them to be sitting to acquire an accurate resting heart rate. b 140

What blood pressure measurement is considered to be a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? a. 130/70 mmHg b. 120/80 mmHg c. 121/81 mmHg d. 140/90 mmHg

Explanation: An individual with blood pressure greater than or equal to 140 mmHg systolic and/or 90 mmHg diastolic is considered to be hypertensive, or high blood pressure, making it a risk factor for cardiovascular disease.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD. is s condition that affects mainly which system? a. Musculoskeletal b. Integumentary c. Cardiovascular d. Respiratory

Explanation: COPD is a common respiratory problem, affecting the lungs and an individual's oxygen carrying capacity. 130 还有其他疾病

⚫️When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight? a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

Explanation: Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip flexors and/or erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine. -160

Establishing proper ____________, ______________, ______________, __________ will all need to be developed first in the stability and mobility training.

posture, balance, movement, and range of motion

Which of the following is NOT necessary to monitor when observing a Bend and Lift Screen? a. Degree of lordosis in the lower back b. Stability of the feet c. Position of the scapulae relative to the ribcage d. Changes in head position

Explanation: Movement of the shoulder joint is not being monitored with this screen, therefore the position of the scapulae is not important to observe. 167

This Questionnaire serves as a non-invasive, minimal health-risk appraisal designed to determine contraindications to exercise. a. Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) b. Readiness to Change Questionnaire c. Health History Questionnaire d. Liability Waiver

Explanation: The PAR-Q is a simple questionnaire designed to screen for readiness 💕for low to moderate intensity training.

👁️Which of the following is important to consider when choosing which assessments to utilize with a client? a. Goals b. Physical Limitations c. Age d. All of the Above e. Both a and b only

Explanation: These are 💕3 major considerations when choosing which assessments to utilize with clients. Some factors may rule out certain assessments or make certain assessments more necessary than others. Availability of Equipment and the testing environment are also factors in these decisions. 137

Fibromyalgia clients should be encouraged to exercise at a low-to moderate-intensity level. Trainers should also encourage variety, rather than one particular type of activity, to reduce repetitive trauma and potential adverse symptoms. Gentle stretching should become part of the daily routine, with extra care being taken to avoid overstretching. a

Your client is mildly deconditioned with a fair to average fitness classification. What is the recommended exercise intensity for her to start with? a. 57 to 67% MHR b. 74 to 84% MHR c. 84 to 94% MHR d. 80 to 91%MHR

For a sporadic exerciser with a fair to average fitness classification, the appropriate exercise intensity is 74% to 84% MHR. b 我是这样理解：尽管mildly deconditioned 但还是落在average level 所以不算poor 不能用poor的

👁️Janet is a 55-year-old woman you have recently taken on as a client. She currently walks the mile in 15 minutes and wants to be able to run in a 5k in six months. Which is an example of a SMART goal for her? a. Janet will complete the mile in 12 minutes within two months. b. Janet will integrate jogging with walking within two weeks. c. Janet will feel confident about running in a 5k within five months. d. Janet will complete the mile in 10 minutes within one week.

For her goal, age and level of conditioning this goal is attainable, measurable (12 minutes), specific (complete the mile), relevant (wants to run a 5k) and time-bound (within one month). These are all the components that make up a SMART goal. a

⚫️👁️Allan is at an intermediate level with his plyometric training. How many contacts per session should he be completing with low intensity drills? a. 80 to 100 b. 100 to 150 c. 140 to 200 d. 200 to 220

For low intensity drills, clients at an intermediate level should be making 100 to 150 contacts per session. b

When a 🌟posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles are suspected to be tight? a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When a posterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight rectus abdominis and/or hamstrings, possibly causing reverse lordosis in the lumbar spine. b

Generally, the muscles supporting the occurring action, or the shortened muscles, are tight. When an anterior pelvic tilt occurs it is usually the result of shortened, tight hip flexors and/or erector spinae, causing lordosis in the lumbar spine. a

. The delivery of a virtual connection between the client and the fitness professional has allowed for an inexpensive way to eliminate the four walls of a physical building. What is one of the five reasons to use connected health tools for delivering a web-based health, wellness, and fitness intervention? a. Delayed feedback b. Increased delivery costs c. Reduction of stigma d. Increase in time based isolation barriers

Health tools allow the personal trainer to obtain information such as heart rate, physical activity, meal logs, body weight, blood pressure, and sleep habits that allow the trainer to provide real-time immediate feedback. The five reasons to use connected health tools are reduced delivery costs, convenience to users, timeliness, reduction of stigma, and reduction of time-based isolation barriers. c

HRR

Heart Rate Reserve (HRR) -the difference between a person's resting heart rate/RHR and their maximum heart rate (MHR). -can use the Karvonen method to determine her HRR. Since Monica is 40, we can determine her MHR by subtraction 40 from 220, which gives us 180 bpm. Then we take 70 away from 180 to get a HRR of 110 bpm.

Diana is looking to improve her hiking endurance. What are the main muscle groups that should be targeted? a. Pectoralis major and biceps b. Hip flexors and extensors c. Latissimus dorsi and erector spinae d. Rectus abdominis and erector spinae

Hip flexors and extensors While some other muscles may act as stabilizers, the 💕hip flexors and extensors are the main muscles utilized in hiking, and therefore should be the muscles targeted during resistance training.

Which of the following exercises should you recommend to your client to improve hip mobility, stability and core stability by activating the gluteal muscle groups? a. Hip mobilization: supine 90-90 hip rotator stretch b. Hip mobilization with glute activation: shoulder bridge c. Posterior mobilization: rocking quadrupeds d. None of the above

Hip mobilization: Lie supine with knees bent and the feet placed flat on the floor, aligning the anterior superior iliac spine with the knee and second toe. Activate the gluteal muscles to elevate the hips off the floor into hip extension without increasing lordosis. b

Michael is a 35-year-old man who has a body fat percentage of 19%. He says he is looking to become "leaner". He has not participated in any exercise routine for two years. What is the main fitness indicator to consider when creating a SMART goal for him? a. Muscular strength and endurance b. Medical indicators c. Body composition d. Body weight

His main goal is to decrease his body fat percentage, which deals with body composition. Therefore, a relevant goal would be specific to body composition. c

You have performed the Thomas test with Mary and have observed that her lower thigh does not touch the table and her knee does not flex to 80 degrees. What muscles do you suspect to be tight? a. Hamstrings b. Rectus femoris c. Iliopsoas d. Primary hip flexor muscles

If Mary has her back flat on the table and her knee does not flex to 80 degrees and her lowered thigh does not touch, then you should suspect her primary hip flexor muscles are tight. d

👏Under which one of the following scenarios should you NOT call 9-1-1? a. Client may have a broken bone b. Client has trouble breathing c. Client has a seizure d. Client is experiencing chest pain

If a client has broken a bone, it is more appropriate to call one of their emergency contacts. They are advised to see a healthcare professional immediately, but this is not considered a reason to call 9-1-1. a

Amnesia, headache, drowsiness and nausea are signs and symptoms of which condition? a. Spinal injury b. Concussion c. Shock d. Depression

If a person has fallen and is experiencing drowsiness, nausea or headache they may be suffering from a concussion and should seek medical attention. b

You plan on taking your client outside for a training session. Before beginning the session, what must you incorporate into your workout plan? a.You must have the client's medical release for outside exercise. b. You must make sure you have cell phone coverage where you intend to exercise. c. A vehicle must be present in case of emergency. d. An AED must be included in the equipment taken to the location.

If an emergency arises, you must be prepared to call 9-1-1. In addition, the trainer should have the client's emergency information available. The trainer should provide water that will be sufficient for the time, intensity, and temperature during the outdoor workout. b

⚫️At what times should heart rate be monitored throughout a cardiorespiratory assessment? a. Every 30 seconds b. Every minute c. Every 3 minutes d. Continuously

If possible, heart rate should be monitored continuously during a cardiorespiratory assessment. d

You are working with a client whose right shoulder appears to be lower than her left. Which muscles should you have her stretch? a. Right upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids b. Left upper trapezius, levator scaula and rhomboids c. Right Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi d. Left Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi

If the right shoulder appears to be lower, the likely cause is elevation of the left shoulder. This can be caused by tight, shortened muscles pulling it upward. The muscles that elevate the shoulder are the upper trapezius, levator scapula and rhomboids. b

power test

Power tests are vigorous and can be hard on the body. Not much data exists on power in middle-aged to older adults because it is generally deemed unnecessary unless it is a client's specific goal. A 56-year-old woman looking to get back into skiing = inappropriate

Your client has complained of shoulder injuries in the past and you are performing a dumbbell overhead press. What plane of motion will help prevent impingement of the shoulder when performing this exercise? a. Transverse b. Frontal c. Sagittal d. Rotational

If you position the shoulder in front of the body where the scapular plane would have the shoulder positioned 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane you can prevent impingement. Activities need to be modified in order to reduce the risk of shoulder injuries. b

Your client is walking on a treadmill at 4.0 mph, and on a grade of 5%. Fifteen minutes into the workout, you are asking her questions about how she is feeling. Your client can only answer you with 3-4 words comfortably. What training zone is she likely in? a. Training zone 1 b. Training zone 2 c. Training zone 3 d. Between zone 1 and 2

If your client can talk comfortably, she is training in zone 1. If she cannot talk comfortably while training, she is working in zone 3. c

You have observed that a client is exhibiting a muscle imbalance commonly associated with lordosis posture. Which muscle do you suspect is shortened? a. Hip extensors b. Neck flexors c. Lumbar extensors d. Scapular stabilizers

If your client has lordosis, this is an indication that the lumbar extensors are shortened and tight. It also means the hip extensors, neck flexors and scapular stabilizers are lengthened. c

Which client would you not advise for a water based exercise program? a. A client who needs to reduce orthopedic loading. b. An older client who has hip and knee issues. c. A client with a compromised circulatory function. d. An obese client with limited ROM.

Immersion in water causes the blood to be redistributed to the central circulation, away from the limbs. In people with compromised circulatory function, this can lead to complications like breathlessness and heart failure. c

closed kinetic chain exercises

In a closed chain movement, the distal end of the extremity is fixed, emphasizing joint compression and, in turn, stabilizing the joints. Leg extension is an example of an open-chain kinetic movement.

Which of the following would be an example of a close chain exercise? a. Preacher curl b. Leg extension c. Barbell squat d. Triceps extension

In a closed chain movement, the end of the chain farthest from the body is fixed, such as a squat where the feet are fixed on the ground and the rest of the leg chain moves. In an open-chain exercise, the end of the chain farthest from the body is free, such as in a seated leg extension. c

In order to substantiate a charge of negligence against a trainer in court, four elements need to be established by the plaintiff/client. Which of the following, if true, would mean the plaintiff's case would be dismissed in favor of the trainer? a. The defendant had a duty to protect the plaintiff from injury. b. The defendant failed to uphold the standard of care necessary to perform that duty. c. Harm or injury to the plaintiff did not occur. d.The harm or injury was caused by the defendant's breach of duty.

In order for a negligence case to go forward, the plaintiff has to have suffered harm or injury that was caused by the defendant's action or inaction, where the defendant had a duty to act or not act and where the injury or harm was actually and proximately caused by the breach of defendant's duty. If the plaintiff suffered no harm or injury, there can be no suit for negligence. c

delete

In order to avoid prematurely progressing your client's abilities, you should start a novice client with uniplanar movements that involve support and isolated muscle groups. This will allow them to develop proper muscle activation and stability before advancing to larger multi-planar movements. c

When measuring a client's blood pressure, where should the stethoscope be placed? a. On the inside of the client's arm at the bend of the elbow. b. On the inside of the client's wrist. c. Above the blood pressure cuff. d. There is no need for a stethoscope.

In order to hear the blood flow when releasing the pressure of the cuff, the stethoscope must be placed on the inside of the client's arm at the bend of the elbow. a

Your client has peripheral vascular disease and has been cleared by his doctor to begin an exercise program. What type of intensity should be performed during the client's workout? a. Jogging b. Plyometrics c. HIIT d. Swimming

In order to reduce risk, a client with peripheral vascular disease should use non-impact exercise such as swimming, cycling, and other ergometer use. Activities such as walking can be performed, but should be performed with short duration and longer rest periods to improve distance. d

While performing a hip bridge or a hip extension movement with your client, she tells you that the muscle being activated are the hamstrings. What would be the cause of the prime mover of the gluteals to become dormant in hip extension and allow the hamstrings to become the prime mover? a. Co-contraction b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Hypertonicity

In the length-tension relationships, there needs to be a balance within the body to allow for the proper activation of prime movers to carry out a movement. In this case, there could be an inhibition in the hips causing the body to call upon other muscles at the joint, or synergists, to becoming the prime mover. c ???????

Jim is a 45 year old investment banker who has been training with your for 2 weeks. He comes in after work Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays. Lately he has been calling an hour before his appointments to cancel because he is stuck at work. What is the best response to his lack of adherence? a. Thank him for calling and see him whenever he is available. b. Let him know that your time is important and if he doesn't come in for his appointments you'll have to fill them in with someone else. c. Recommend him to a trainer that has less clients and more time. d. Help him to see that health and fitness is a top priority, and ask if there are better times to make the appointments for.

It is important to sit down with this client and explain the importance of their exercise program, showing them how they will reach their goals by showing up and following their plan. Changing the time of sessions can be helpful as well. d

Mary has been training with you for 2 weeks. She can currently perform 45 sit-ups in 2 minutes. What is the best way to progress? a. Add resistance to her sit-ups. b. Aim for 60 sit-ups in 2 minutes. c. Aim for 80 sit-ups in 2minutes. d. Aim for 80 sit-ups in 3 minutes.

It is important to stay within the 2-minute range, or anaerobic range, when performing strength training. Therefore, increasing the number of repetitions performed during the 2-minute time frame is the best way to progress with a body weight exercise. b ????

In which situation is it not okay to utilize and display the ACE logo? a. Business cards b. Advertisements c. Items for sale such as videos d. Personal websites

It is not okay to utilize and display the ACE logo on any items that you are selling, or materials that promote services other than personal training.

👏Your new client informs you that she has diabetes and is taking insulin. What is the most important thing to do for this client? a. Make sure she eats a large meal before exercising. b. Refer her to a physician prior to beginning an exercise program. c. Monitor her blood glucose levels throughout the session. d. Have her fill out a waiver of liability prior to exercise.

It is very important for a client receiving insulin for diabetes to consult with a physician prior to beginning any kind of exercise program, both for legal reasons as well as client safety. b

⚫️In which situation is it not necessary to call 911? a. Your client has had a seizure b. A member is suffering from chest pain c. Your client is vomiting and ends her session early d. A member is threatening to hit another member

It is 💕not necessary to call 911 when a client is 💕vomiting, unless it is uncontrollably or interfering with their breathing. c

Which of the following statements is not accurate with regard to working out in the heat? a. It takes the body only a couple of days to become acclimated to the heat. b. The client should wear lightweight, well-ventilated clothing. c. Replace body fluids as they are lost. d. Air movement is critical for adequate cooling.

It takes approximately seven to 10 days for the body to become acclimated to exercising in the heat. You should introduce exercising in the heat in short periods of time each day. a

delete

Jeff is an advanced client. What would be a plyometric drill to advance him to the highest intensity? a. Single linear jumps b. Multiple linear jumps c. Multi Directional jumps d. Depth jumps The higher the intensity of a plyometric exercise is dictated by the amount of stress placed on the muscles, connective tissue, and joints. The depth jump plyometric exercise would rank at the highest in intensity and jumping in place would rank lowest in intensity.

Molly is just beginning plyometric performance training with you. What is the best exercise for her to perform? a. Multiple linear jumps b. Depth jumps c. Single linear jumps d. Jumps in place

Jumps in place are the best starting point for a beginner, as they are the lowest on the scale of intensity. d

Approximately 85 percent of ankle sprains are to the lateral structures of the ankle. All of the following are lateral ankle ligaments, except: a. Anterior talofibular ligament b. Calcaneofibular ligament c. Medial collateral ligament d. Posterior talofibular ligament

Lateral, or inversion, ankle sprains are the most common type. The mechanism of injury is typically inversion with a plantar flexed foot. c

You are going through an initial consultation with a potential client and he is explaining the struggles he has had with exercising and how it is always difficult sticking with a program. You are eager to get this person signed up for training and so you listen to keywords and hot buttons you can use to get him on-board. What type of listening are you demonstrating? a. Indifferent listening b. Selective listening c. Passive listening d. Active listening

Listening only to keywords is a form of selective listening. In order to truly understand somebody's point of view you need to show empathy as in active listening. b

Long strokes are utilized during the top speed and sustained speed phases. Short strokes are only utilized in the acceleration and deceleration phases. It is also important for the client to drive from the shoulders, not the elbows. c

Which of the following has been thought to represent the highest sustainable level of exercise intensity? a. Anaerobic threshold b. Aerobic threshold c. First ventilator threshold d. Talk test threshold

The anaerobic or lactate threshold is used as a marker of exercise performance as it is thought to indicate when an exercise intensity can no longer be sustained a

fibromyalgia

Mary is your client who has fibromyalgia and has been participating in a warm-water exercise class for 3 months. Along with the water exercises, what other recommendations do you have for Mary? a. Exercises should be low-to moderate-intensity levels b. Exercises should be repetitive c. Mary should only stay in the warm-water classes d. Dynamic stretching should become part of her daily routine Fibromyalgia clients should be encouraged to exercise at a low-to moderate-intensity level. Trainers should also encourage variety, rather than one particular type of activity, to reduce repetitive trauma and potential adverse symptoms. Gentle stretching should become part of the daily routine, with extra care being taken to avoid overstretching.

👏If your client has a one-repetition maximum bench press of 130 lbs., at what weight should he be able to perform 10 repetitions on the bench press? a. 98 lbs. b. 104 lbs. c. 110 lbs. d. 115 lbs.

Most people can complete approximately 10 repetitions with 75% of their 1-RM weight load. 130 x .75 = 97.5% a

During the first two weeks of an exercise program, strength gains are typically a result of what adaptation? a. Hypertrophy b. Motor learning c. Increased numbers of Mitochondria d. Transient hypertrophy

Most strength increases in the first two weeks of a training program are typically due to increased motor unit recruitment within the nervous system as opposed to an increase in muscle size, which comes later. b

🌟In which resistance training phase should movement assessments be administered? a. Stability and Mobility training b. Movement training c. Load training d. Performance training

Movement assessments should be administered on a monthly basis to determine if the client has mastered the movements necessary in order to move on to the Load training phase. b

Movement of the shoulder joint is not being monitored with this screen, therefore the position of the scapulae is not important to observe. c

👏Moving the leg medially toward the body in a frontal plane is referred to as: a. Adduction b. External Rotation c. Hip Flexion d. Abduction

Moving the leg toward the body medially in the frontal plane is adduction (think "adding the leg to the body). a

⚫️👁️What type of stretching technique should you advise your client to perform after his 5K interval workout? a. Myofascial release and dynamic stretches b. Dynamic and ballistic stretches c. Myofascial release and static stretches d. PNF and dynamic stretches

Myofascial release can help reduce tightness within the underlying muscles and fascia, thereby improving ROM. Static stretches should be taken to the point of tension and held for 15-60 seconds. c

Your client is demonstrating the ability to stand on one leg effectively. What movement patterns can you introduce to your client to make dynamic balance training more challenging? a. Standing on both feet on an unstable surface, such as a BOSU b. Standing on both feet, raise arms unilaterally, leaning trunk forward c. Standing on one foot, performing a leg swing from the hip-hinge position d. Standing on one foot with eyes closed

Once an individual demonstrated the ability to effectively stand on one leg, the trainer can introduce dynamic movements of the upper and lower extremity over a static base of support. c

👏👏👏You are implementing a bodyweight movement in all three planes that will demand proper sequencing from your client to keep his center of gravity. 🌟Which phase of the functional movement and resistance training would require you to promote proper movement patterning to perform an exercise efficiently in all three planes? a. Stability and Mobility Training b. Movement Training c. Load Training d. Performance Training

Once the client has accomplished 2 to 3 weeks of developing postural stability without compromising mobility, they may progress to phase 2, movement training. The phase will demand controlled motion and deceleration to improve their movement patterning. b

You have designed an exercise program for Carol. She plans on working out with you on Mondays and Wednesdays and is motivated to exercise on her own time as well. To help increase her self-awareness, and give her a more objective view of her behavior, you ask her to log her activities. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Carol? a. Action Stage b. Planning Stage c. Investigation Stage d. Rapport Stage

Once the design of the exercise program is complete, the client is ready to begin exercising. In many cases, the program is a combination of exercises performed with the trainer and by the client on their own. The action stage is a great time to enhance client success in many ways. a

Your client has experienced a plateau while performing the bench press exercise. You decide to switch to the incline bench press in order to allow your client's motor learning system to adapt to the new exercise and increase strength. Which training principle would this strategy entail? a. Diminishing returns b. Reversibility c. Overload d. Specificity

Once your client's genetic potential has been reached for muscle size and strength (or diminishing returns), you can change the exercise in order to involve new neuromuscular response and motor-unit activation patterning. This will allow for a period of progressive strength gains. a

What is the workload of 1 MET associated with? a. Oxygen consumption at rest b. Energy expenditure at rest c. Energy expenditure while performing a low-level task d. Oxygen consumption while performing a low-level task

One MET is equivalent to oxygen consumption at rest, which is approximately 3.5 mL/kg/min. a

👏Which of the following is NOT an overuse condition? a. Tendinitis b. Osteoporosis c. Stress fracture d. Bursitis

Osteoporosis is a condition in which bone density decreases, and it not related to overtraining.

What form of stretching includes holding the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds, followed by a 10-to 30-second assisted or passive static stretch? a. Ballistic stretch b. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation c. Static stretch d. Dynamic stretch

PNF stretching allows for more range of motion due to the initial release of the stress-relaxation in the muscles before passively or actively increasing the range of motion. That is why it is required to hold the isometric contraction of the agonist for a minimum of six seconds to allow the initial release. b

Your client has a family history of type 2 diabetes and currently does not exercise but tells you that he is scared of developing the disease. What factor of the health belief model would your client be in? a. Perceived susceptibility b. Cues to action c. Perceived seriousness d. Unaware

Perceived susceptibility is the feelings one has about the seriousness of contracting the disease. Cues to action is when the client would actually have the physical symptoms to get them motivated and perceived susceptibility would be the client's subjective appraisal of likely developing the problem. a

Roger has been a client of yours for 2 years. Lately, he has not been able to progress and feels like he has plateaued. Instead of doing the same workouts week to week, you plan on changing his training program at regular intervals with a variety of variables including resistance, repetition and sets. What type of training will you be adding to his workouts? a. Overload training b. Specificity training c. Periodization training d. Phase 2 movement training

Periodization training is a planned progression of resistance exercise that intentionally varies the training stimuli, especially with respect to intensity and volume. The advantage of periodization is the frequently changing demands on the neuromuscular system that require progressively higher levels of stress adaptation. c

Given the ballistic nature of 🌟plyometric training drills, appropriate strength, flexibility and postural mechanics are required to avoid injury. If your client weighs 200 lbs., what is the recommended weight your client should squat before he is introduced to high-intensity, lower-body plyometric drills? a. 100 lbs. b. 200 lbs. c. 300 lbs. d. 400 lbs.

Personal trainers should introduce clients to high-intensity, lower-body plyometric drills only after the clients have demonstrated their ability to successfully squat 💕1.5 times their body weight or complete 💕five squat repetitions with 💕60% of their own body weight in 💕five seconds. This will reduce the potential for injury and increase the likelihood of performance-related goal achievement for clients. c

Your client has come to you complaining of lower back pain. Which movement assessment would clear your client of any implications that may result in a referral to another healthcare professional? a. Lumbar extension or cobra pose assessment b. Shoulder impingement assessment c. Cervical spine assessment d. Thoracic spine rotation assessment

Putting your client into a cobra pose will produce lumbar extension and compression in the vertebrae and shoulder joint. This position gives you an insight into whether there is an implication that is outside your scope of practice. a

👏Optimal hypertrophy programs have several conclusions that determine the rate and extent of skeletal muscle hypertrophy. Which of the following is accurate in terms of resistance training and muscle hypertrophy? a. Resistance training should be periodized for muscle growth. b. Use of a repetition range of 12 or more. c. Single-set training (not multiple-set routines) produce superior hypertrophic results. d. Rest intervals should be 2 to 3 minutes.

Repetition range for muscle hypertrophy is 6 to 12 repetitions with rest intervals of 60 to 90 seconds. Multiple-set training appears to produce superior hypertphic results, not single-set training. Other non-training factors influencing muscle hypertrophy is genetic background, age and gender. a

cultural competence

Respecting your client's beliefs and lifestyle is important to forming a positive client-trainer relationship. This is all that is needed to treat your client with cultural competence.

The body can be broken down into regions that are prone to be either relatively stable or mobile in terms of the joints that are involved. Which of the following has the correct relationship between region and its role in joint mobility and stability? a. Hips - stable b. Thoracic Spine- mobile c. Scapulothoracic - mobile d. Knee - mobile

Sensory information can efficiently produce a proper movement sequence only if the joints are in the correct sequence of the stability/mobility relationship. While all joints are required to perform some form of stability and mobility, the 💕knee is more prone to being stable, 💕hips mobile, 💕thoracic spine mobile, and 💕scapulothoracic region more stable. b

Personal trainers can use SOAP notes to record client information and document progress. What information is O related? a. The client's symptoms and progress b. Weight, height and age measurements c. A summary of the client's health status d. A summary of the next steps in the overall client plan

The 'O' in SOAP is to record objective information such as vital stats, height, weight and other important measurements. b

⚫️After speaking with your endurance athlete about her goals in competing in road cycling, you have decided to provide short-duration, higher-intensity intervals that are 💕well above VT2. Which stage will allow your client to develop peak power through intervals at an 💕RPE of 9 or above? a. Aerobic base Training b. Aerobic efficiency Training c. Anaerobic endurance Training d. Anaerobic power Training

Since your client has sport specific goals in a longer endurance event such as cycling, she may need the highest phase to improve her peak performance and aerobic capacity. Keep in mind that 💕even though your client is in phase 4, she should be at or below VT1 💕70-80% of the time in order to improve recovery and avoid overtraining. d

Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that affects strength development and program design? a. Aerobic capacity b. Muscular endurance c. Flexibility d. Speed

Speed is one of the six skill-related parameters that affect strength development and program design. These are - power speed balance agility coordination reactivity d

⚫️Your female client tells you that she wishes to lose body fat under the arms and on the insides of her thighs. What would be an accurate statement regarding this form of "spot reduction"? a. People lose fat from adipose deposits in reverse order they accumulated the fat. b. You can target the areas with resistance training to help lose the body fat. c. You should be careful of excessive resistance training to the arms and thighs to avoid "bulking up". d. Genetics do not have an effect on displacement of adipose tissues.

Spot reduction is a common misconception as reducing fat is not necessarily exercise specific. The body loses fat in specific areas due to overall genetic factors. a

Which of the following is an example of Stability and Mobility training? a. Bend and lift movements b. Leg extension c. Depth jumps d. Isolated isometric contractions

Stability and mobility training consists of -isometric contractions -stretching to facilitate core strength d

Which of the following is based on professional standards and the trainer's age, condition and knowledge? a. Standard of care b. Statute of frauds c. Inherent risks d. Vicarious liability

Standard of care is based on an exercise professional's actions in light of current professional standards as well as the trainer's age, condition and knowledge of the participant. a ? ????????

40 yard dash to note

The 40-yard dash is designed to assess acceleration and speed. Assessments of speed and acceleration require maximal effort and swift limb movement, thus to perform well and avoid injury it is imperative that the client warms up adequately. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 255-256

👏Which of the following is an example of a simple and effective stimulus control strategy? a. Choosing a gym that is out of the direct route between home and work to create willpower. b. Having workout clothes, socks, and shoes laid out for early morning workouts. c. Avoiding a set time to work out as to not get discouraged if you cannot make it in. d. Eating out with friends on their cheat days.

Stimulus control strategies are used to develop effective behavioral changes in the client. Simple and effective stimulus control strategies would include: • Choosing a gym that is in the direct route between home and work; • Writing down a workout time as part of a weekly schedule; • Encouraging your client to surround themselves with other people who have similar health and fitness goals; and • Keeping a gym bag in the car that contains all the required items for a workout. b

delete

Strength training is the process of exercising with progressively heavier resistance to stimulate muscle development. The primary outcome of regular resistance exercise is an increase in muscle fiber size and contractile strength. b

👁️Your client explains that his warm-up includes 10 minutes of light exercise followed by static stretching on the muscles that are going to be focused on. What should you tell your client about stretching before a workout? a. It improves force-generating capacity of the contractile proteins of the muscle b. Decreases tissue viscosity c. Improves intensity d. It enhances hypertrophy capabilities

Stretching before a workout will improve muscle elasticity which lowers the force-generating capacity of contractile proteins. The warm-up should include a cardiovascular warm-up followed by an exercise specific dynamic warm-up. b ??????????????????

You are conducting a heart rate assessment to determine the fitness level of your client during rest. Which option would allow for a lower resting heart rate/RHR due to an increased amount of blood pumped from the heart? a. Stroke volume b. Hypotension c. Korotkoff sounds d. Cerebrovascular accident

Stroke volume is the amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle of the heart with each beat. Increased stroke volume is acquired through exercise adaptations allowing for a lower resting and submaximal heart rate. a

. Which of the following exercises is best suited for improving hip mobility for an individual with lumbar stability concerns? a. Supine bent-knee marches b. Pelvic tilts c. Shoulder/glute bridge d. Spinal twists

Supine bent-knee marches are designed to improve hip mobility without compromising lumbar stability. a

Susan is a fitness enthusiast who is looking for a higher-intensity cardiorespiratory routine. She is ready to increase the amount of sustained work at the second ventilatory threshold. In which phase of cardiorespiratory training is Susan in? a. Aerobic base Training b. Aerobic efficiency Training c. Anaerobic endurance Training d. Anaerobic power Training

Susan is ready to go into phase 3 of cardiorespiratory training which is also referred to as lactate threshold tolerance training. In Anaerobic endurance training, she will have the benefit of utilizing the working muscles to produce force at an extended period of time to get her at or above VT2. c

As a personal trainer, you must continue to build relationships with clients by using effective communication techniques. Which of the following is a communication and teaching technique used in daily interactions with clients? a. Trainers should prepare for each personal-training session by cultivating a mindful focus. b. Trainers should resist giving feedback to not discourage the client. c. Trainers should make the session strictly about exercise without small talk. d. Trainers should be vague in their exercise description to make the client feel successful.

Techniques used in daily interactions with clients should consist of reinforcing credentials, be prepared for each session, ask clients for feedback on themselves, use electronic communication channels with discretion, and try to make training fun. This will allow you to build productive relationships with clients. a

Catherine is a new client who has paid for 5 one-hour training sessions. In order for you to retain her as a long-term client, it is important that you develop a long-term exercise plan based on which of the following concepts? a. Concept of self efficacy b. Concept of periodization c. Concept of load training d. Concept of assisted training

The ACE IFT Model uses periodization as a long-term plan for exercise program design that is aimed at meeting individual client needs, while also providing their personal trainer with a marketing strategy for client retention. b

The "talk test" would be LEAST appropriate for which of the following clients?

The Correct Answer is: A marathon runner trying to qualify for the Boston Marathon Why? This response is correct because this marathon runner has a performance goal that would be best met with a periodized program that has specific training time spent below VT1, from VT1 to below VT2, and VT2 and above; or Zones 1, 2, and 3 respectively. The Submaximal Talk Test could be administered to help this runner find his or her training heart rate (HR) at VT1, and the VT2 Threshold Test could be used to help this runner find his or her HR at VT2. Once these HRs are known, the personal trainer could build out a periodized training program to help the client increase running speed and stamina to build toward the Boston Marathon goal. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 224-226 & 428-434

Question: When performing a seated row exercise, you notice the client's shoulders rising up toward his ears during each repetition. What is MOST likely causing this movement error?

The Correct Answer is: Tight upper trapezius overpowering weakness in the middle and lower trapezius Why? When the upper trapezius is tight and the middle and lower trapezius are weak, the scapulae elevate during scapular retraction movements that are seen during exercises such as the seated row. This occurs because the tight upper trapezius keep the scapulae high, pulling his shoulders up toward his ears with each repetition, while the weak scapular depressors (middle and lower trapezius) are not strong enough to overcome the tightness in the upper trapezius. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162 ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, pages 34-35

What is a somatically based educational method of the Feldenkrais Method? a. Transformation of neuromuscular habits helping individuals focus on sensory information b.Awareness through movement that's a verbally directed technique designed for group work c. Combination of difficult postures with controlled breathing d. Method of mind body conditioning that combines stretching and strengthening exercises

The Feldenkrais Method consists of two interrelated, somatically based educational methods. These are --the awareness through movement that is verbally directed for group work --functional integration which is a nonverbal manual contact technique designed for people desiring more individualized attention. b

Which of the following statements is consistent with the beliefs of the Health at Every Size movement? a. Long-term goals should focus on weight, not health. b. Goals do not need to be specific but measurable. c. Weight should be considered a behavior. d. Interventions should focus on modifiable behaviors to improve health and not weight.

The Health at Every Size program is an interdisciplinary movement that challenges the significance of promoting weight loss and dieting behavior and argues for a shift in focus to weight-neutral outcomes. It focuses on health, not weight and goals need to be specific, measurable, attainable, relevant and time-bound. d

How often should a trainer have a client complete the Physical Readiness Questionnaire? a. Every 12 months b. After experiencing dizziness and loss of balance c. Once per month d. When the client starts taking new medications for high blood pressure

The PAR-Q physical activity clearance is valid for a maximum of 12 months from the date it is completed. If a client's health changes so that they then answer YES to any of the PAR-Q questions, they must tell you and a physician. The client must also talk with their physician about any changes that may need to be made to the current physical activity plan. a

valsalva maneuver

The Valsalva maneuver is a strong exhaling effort against a closed glottis, which builds pressure in the chest cavity that interferes with the return of the blood to the heart: it may deprive the brain of blood and cause lightheadedness or fainting.

In what specific location is the abdominal circumference measured? a. Around the ribcage. b. Around the pelvic bone. c. Around the smallest portion of the abdomen. d. At the level of the umbilicus.

The abdomen should be measured at the level of the 💕umbilicus for best results. Waist circumference is taken at the smallest part. d

The amortization phase allows the body's reflexive response to concentrically contract a muscle after it has been rapidly stretched. This allows for greater power as the elastic energy built up in the eccentric phase can then be distributed immediately into concentric contraction. a

You notice that a piece of equipment is not working properly, but have seen others using the piece of equipment with no problems. Which of the following would not be an approach for managing risk? a. Avoidance b. Transfer c. Solve d. Reduction

The approaches to manage and reduce the identified risks are avoidance, transfer, reduction, retention, implementation, evaluation. Anything that would fall into high risk should be avoided completely. c

Following an ankle injury, your client has been cleared for exercise. You will begin with exercises that help reestablish ankle stability. Which of the following is the appropriate exercise progression? a. Backward running-multidirectional-side to side b. Side to side-forward running-multidirectional c. Forward running-side to side-multidirectional d. Multidirectional-side to side-forward running

The appropriate exercise progression modifications would be to start forward running, then progress to side-to-side movements, then move to multidirectional motions. c

👏What is the approximate standard deviation of an individual's maximum heart rate? a. 10 bpm b. 15 bpm c. 12 bpm d. 18 bpm

The approximate standard deviation for MHR is plus or minus 12 beats per minute, meaning a man of 22 years could have a maximum heart rate that falls between 186-210 bpm. c

In order to have a contract come into being, certain things need to take place. Which of the following is not needed to form a contract? a. Offer and acceptance on mutually agreed terms b. Consideration, or an exchange of value, like services for money c. A guarantee of performance d. Intention to create a legal relationship

The basic requirements to form a contract are offer and acceptance of mutually agreed terms consideration an intention to be legally bound A guarantee of performance is z required, though some form of guarantee can be agreed to. c

Which of the following factors does not directly influence muscular strength performance? a. Hormone levels b. Age c. Limb Length d. Muscle circumference

The circumference of a muscle does not directly influence the strength contained therein. Muscle circumference can be affected by fluid retention and many other factors that do not affect strength performance. d

In what specific location is the circumference of the upper thigh measured? a. Just above the knee. b. Just below the gluteal fold. c. Half way between the knee and the gluteal fold. d. At the smallest part of the thigh.

The circumference of the upper thigh should be measured at the largest part, or just below the gluteal fold b

The client has 4 risk factors and is considered to be High risk. +1 for male over 45 years old, +1 for BMI greater than 30, +1 for prediabetes, and +1 for quitting smoking within the last 6 months. d 为什么运动那项不算？？？

When training your new client on proper form for a plank, which of the following is an acceptable form of instruction? a. Help the client lift their torso and thighs off the floor, then cue to avoid hiking their hips into the air or bending the knees. b. Demonstrate a proper plank then inform the client you might help them with their form by touching their hips in order to get them parallel to the floor. c. The trainer should feel the clients core throughout the hold of a plank to see if it is "active", then palpate to see if they tighten up reactively. d. None of the above are acceptable because of liability concerns of physically touching a client.

The client should be informed about the purpose of potential touching before it occurs, and that it may be essential for proper instruction. b

Which of the following factors contribute to the intensity of performance training? a. Complexity of movement b. Speed c. Body weight d. All of the above

The complexity of movement, speed at which the exercise is performed, person's body weight, vertical height or movement and points of contact all affect the intensity of a plyometric workout. d

You are at the early stages of proximal stability with your client and you are trying to improve her activation of the transverse abdominus by working on the supine drawing-in exercise. What is the importance of the drawing-in exercise? a. Improve mobility b. Re-educate faulty neural pathways c. Hypertrophy d. Distal stability

The core needs to function properly in order to reflexively function to stabilize the spine during voluntary or involuntary movements and loading. This exercise serves a purpose to re-educate neural pathways to send proper sensory information to the brain. Providing your clients ability to draw-in properly is a prerequisite to enhance into proximal mobility b ????????

A personal trainer may own and operate his or her own business. Which of the following would be the risk that consists of the costs of such things as property rental fees, equipment, employees and marketing in the opening of a business? a. Barriers to entry b. Financial c. Competition d. Staffing

The cost associated with starting a business includes rental fees, equipment, employees and marketing, all of which are under the risk category of barriers to entry. The financial risk would be the access to the capital required to start or expand a business. a

education style

The education style is informational and will provide relevant information in a concise manner and allow the client to make a more informed decision. General psychological states and personality traits, as well as relevant cultural and ethnic factors, should all be considered when communicating with a client.

What would be a goal of exercising in the treatment of cancer? a. Improve cardiovascular conditioning b. Prevent musculoskeletal deterioration c. Reduce symptoms such as nausea and fatigue d. All of the above.

The specific exercise program undertaken should be tailored to the client's needs, type of cancer, treatments he or she is undergoing, and current medical physical-fitness status. Other goals would include improving the client's mental health outlook and overall quality of life. d

👁️Just as interview techniques are important in establishing rapport, trainers need to select a communication style that matches the client's needs and personality style. Which of the following styles would provide relevant information in a concise manner and allow the client to make a more informed decision? a. Preaching style b. Counseling style c. Education style d. Directing style

The education style is informational and will provide relevant information in a concise manner. General psychological states and personality traits, as well as relevant cultural and ethnic factors, should all be considered when communicating with a client. c

👁️Your client wants to know how many calories she is burning during exercise. If she weighs 190 lbs. and exercises for 30 minutes with an average VÓ of 40 mL/kg/min, what would be her total calorie expenditure? a. 409 kcal b. 214 kcal c. 517 kcal d. 710 kcal

The equation for caloric expenditure is {VÓ (mL/kg/min) x body weight (kg) / 1000} x 5 kcal/L/min. Remember that caloric expenditure is calculated in terms of gross VÓ during an activity by estimating the total quantity of Ó consumed per minute and multiplying it by 5 kcal/liter Ó. Convert lbs. to kg - 190 lbs. x .4535 kg/lbs.= 86.17 kg (40*86.17/1000) x 5 = 17.23 kcal/min x 30 minutes of exercise giving you 517.02.

When training your client to improve her speed and agility, she performs high intensity drills for 15-30 seconds at an intensity level for 70% of her maximal effort. Which of the following energy systems is predominant during this drill? a. Phosphagen system b. Glycolytic system c. Both a and b d. ATP system

The glycolytic system is predominating in speed and agility drills that require moderate power at a moderate duration b

Joel has been working out with you regularly and has been able to stay active on his off days by picking up biking. Which of the following would be another intervention during the preparation stage that you could introduce to develop healthy behaviors? a. Identify early signs of staleness to prevent burnout. b. Provide continued education about barrier identification. c. Keep the exercise environment enjoyable and switch it up to fight boredom. d. Giving knowledge of someone else who is successfully participating in a similar program.

The goal of the preparation stage is to allow your client to regularly participate in physical activity. Other interventions would be to provide a lot of support, feedback and reinforcement or to provide the opportunity for your client to express their concerns and triumphs. A, b, and c all are interventions found in the maintenance phase. d 所以a, b, c已经在maintenance 但d还是设法达到目标的阶段

Which of the following is an example of a biarticulate muscle? a. Soleus b. Triceps c. Hamstrings d. Gluteals

The hamstrings are biarticulate muscles. Biarticulate muscles cross two joints. c

Jeff is an advanced client. What would be a plyometric drill to advance him to the highest intensity? a. Single linear jumps b. Multiple linear jumps c. Multi Directional jumps d. Depth jumps

The higher the intensity of a plyometric exercise is dictated by the amount of stress placed on the muscles, connective tissue, and joints. The depth jump plyometric exercise would rank at the highest in intensity and jumping in place would rank lowest in intensity. d

What would not be included in a well-written executive summary? a. Business concept b. Financial information c. Liability coverage d. Current business position

The information included in a well-written executive summary is one page that includes a business concept, financial information, current business position, major achievements. Liability is not information that would apply to the executive summary. c

👁️Your client has had their hip replaced and wishes to begin exercising. All of the following are in accordance with guidelines for individuals with a hip replacement, except: a. The knee can flex at full range of motion. b. The toes should remain straight ahead with no pigeon or duck toes. c. No adduction should be done past the midline. d. The focus should be on leg/hip abduction, lateral movements, and strengthening.

The knee should go no higher than hip level or 90-degree flexion. The exercise program should be carefully designed in conjunction with a physician and/or physical therapist. a

Which of the following explains the length-tension relationship during a slight stretching of the sarcomere beyond its normal resting length? a.There is an increase in the spatial arrangement between the muscle's contractile proteins. b. There is an increase in force-generating capacity. c. There is an overlap of contractile proteins. d. Both a and b

The length-tension relationship is the relationship between the contractile proteins and their force-generating capacity. A slight stretching of the sarcomere beyond its normal resting length increases the spatial arrangement between the muscle's contractile proteins and increases its force-generating capacity. d

Which of the following is NOT a factor that may influence muscular hypertrophy? a. Amount of lean muscle mass a person has when beginning a resistance program b. Whether the person is male or female c. The muscle fiber types a person has d. The length of a person's muscles

The likelihood of hypertrophy occurring is not dependent on how much muscle a person starts out with. a

You are explaining the importance of stabilizing the scapulothoracic region during the proximal stability of the scapulothoracic region and distal mobility of the glenohumeral joint stage. On top of proper mobility of the thoracic spine, what would be a key factor to promote stability in the scapulothoracic region? a. Mobility of the lumbar spine b. Thoracic stability c. Impingement against the coracoacromial arch during deltoid action d. Muscle balance within the parascapular muscles

The lumbar spine is most efficient when it is relatively stable, whereas the thoracic spine is required to be more mobile. The rotator cuff serves as a stabilizer for the scapulae and any imbalance in the length tension relationships of the shoulder could potentially lead to a negative outcome such as impingement. d ??????

Which part of the muscle senses differences in the magnitude and rate of stretching that is imposed on a muscle? a. Myofascia b. Muscle spindle c. Mitochondria d. Muscle fiber

The muscle spindle detects quick stretches and invokes an involuntary contraction, increasing force production. b

During a dynamic stretch, which of the following is sensitive to stretch and is responsible for protecting the muscle against too much stretch? a. Muscle spindle b. Golgi tendon organ c. Sarcomere d. Myofibril

The muscle spindle is a sensory organ within a muscle and stretches along with the muscle. The muscle spindle is activated and causes a reflexive contraction in the agonist muscle and relaxation in the antagonist muscle. It's known as the stretch reflex. a

During a leg curl exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the agonist? a. Hamstrings b. Soleus c. Gluteus Maximus d. Quadriceps

The muscle that is doing the "work" against the resistance is the muscle that shortens, which is called the agonist. In this case, it is the hamstrings. a

During a leg extension exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the agonist? a. Hamstrings b. Soleus c. Gluteus Maximus d. Quadriceps

The muscle that is doing the "work" against the resistance is the muscle that shortens, which is called the agonist. In this case, it is the quadriceps. d

During a leg curl exercise, which muscle or muscle group is the antagonist? a. Hamstrings b. Soleus c. Gluteus Maximus d. Quadriceps

The muscle that is opposing the "work", or lengthening with the resistance, is the antagonist. In this case it is the quadriceps. d

Heather is a middle-aged client who is recovering from a shoulder injury. After verifying that she has medical clearance, you have designed an exercise program to emphasize regaining strength and flexibility of her shoulder complex. During an overhead press, Heather is unable to move through a full ROM. What modification can you suggest for this exercise? a. The shoulder should be positioned 30 degrees posterior to the frontal plane. b. She should not be exercising the shoulder, because she could cause the muscle to re-tear. c. The shoulder should be positioned 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane. d. The shoulder should be positioned 30 degrees anterior to the sagittal plane.

The overhead press exercise can be modified so that the exerciser only moves through a portion of the ROM. The shoulders should be positioned 30 degrees anterior to the frontal plane. This shoulder position helps prevent impingement (pinching) of shoulder structures. c

part to whole teaching strategy

The part-to-whole teaching strategy allows for competence in simple skills before placing several skills in a sequence. You could perform this strategy in the deadlift to emphasize glute dominance over quad dominance. E.g.,: You are teaching your client the deadlift exercise and have broken it up into separate segments in order to practice each skill in its simplest form. What would this movement-training sequence be called? a. Part-to-whole teaching strategy b. Kinematics c. Dynamic balance d. Limits of stability

Which of the following clients would most likely need a recovery week? a. Jay began exercising with you 2 weeks ago and is making positive progress toward his goals of increased balance and weight loss. b. Mary began exercising with you 2 months ago and has been steadily progressing toward her goal of body fat reduction. c. Alex has been exercising with you for 2 months and has been increasing intensity in his anaerobic workouts over the last 3 weeks in order to reach his goal of increased anaerobic power. d. Janel has been exercising with you for 9 months and wants to ramp up her training to compete in a body building show.

The period of time a client has been training does not necessarily determine their need for a recovery week, but their training intensity and goals do. A person who has been training anaerobically for several weeks and has an anaerobic goal should take a week for their body to recover and prepare for their next level of training. c

Tight planta flexors can lead to which compensation? a. Knees moving inward b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine c. Raised heels d. Lateral torso shift to one side

The plantar flexor muscles cause the heels to elevate, therefore tight, or overactive, plantar flexors can lead to the inability to keep heels in contact with the floor. c

Which training principle describes the need for an ongoing maintenance program to keep any gains you have made while strength training? a. Specificity principle b. Reversibility c. Diminishing Returns d. Overload Principle

The principle of reversibility implies that a client will likely lose all their gains and potentially return to pre-training levels if they do not continue training or follow a maintenance program. b

You are using a plumb line to monitor your client's static posture when you notice an excessive lordotic curve. In which plane would a lordotic curve be in? a. Transverse b. Sagittal c. Frontal d. Rotational

The sagittal plane is the longitudinal plane that divides the body into left and right sides. Your client would need to be between the plumb line and the wall, facing sideways in order to view the lordotic curve in the sagittal view. Rotation is a component of the transverse plane and the frontal plane is referred to as lateral plane, so they are incorrect. b

You ask your client about her past performance with exercise to monitor her current self efficacy levels. Of following, which would not be listed in the six sources of self efficacy? a. Vicarious experience b. Negative experience c. Physiological state appraisals d. Emotional state and mood appraisals

The six sources of self efficacy are past performance experience, vicarious experience, verbal persuasion, physiological state appraisals, emotional state and mood appraisals, and imaginal experience. These sources are important to understand in order to achieve a high level of self efficacy for your client b

👁️After administering a static postural assessment, your client exhibits deviations in her static position from good posture. She is very deconditioned and has never engaged in an exercise program. Which of the following would you emphasize prior to introducing integrated strengthening exercises? a. Dynamic movement controlling the ROM to avoid excessive muscle lengthening b. Muscle isolation incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 15 repetitions c. Dynamic strength exercises incorporating two to three sets of 2 to 4 repetitions d. Isometric contractions incorporating two to four repetitions of 5 to 10 seconds each

The strengthening of weakened muscles follows a progression model beginning with two to four repetitions of isometric muscle contractions, each held for 5 to 10 seconds. The next progression is to dynamic, controlled ROM exercises incorporating one to three sets of 12 to 14 repetitions. d

The trainer's responsibility in strength development and program design is to identify the physiological parameters that need to be included in the program to achieve success. The movement analysis allows you to gather information to properly administer a program that will enhance the client's activity or sport. a

What three sites are suggested for skinfold measurement in women? a. Triceps, chest and thigh b. Biceps, thigh and suprailium c. Triceps, thigh and suprailium d. Chest, thigh and abdominal

The triceps (back of the arm), thighs and suprailium area are places women are known to hold fat; therefore it is important to assess these areas in a body fat percentage test c

You are creating a business plan and want to identify how your operating model is unique compared to nearby training studios in your area. What section of the business plan would this information fall under? a. Marketing plan b. Business description c. Operational plan d. Risk analysis

The 🌟business description provides the details for the business as outlined in the executive summary. This would include the mission statement, business model, current status of the market, how the business fills a need within the market, and the management team. b

👁️Sheila is your client who is 34 years old who is interested in gaining strength in her lower body. While she is performing a set of body weight squats, which of the following critical mechanics would you observe because she is a 💕female? a. Q angle b. Glute dominance c. Quad dominance d. Hip adduction

The 💕Q angle is the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the femur and the line of pulls of the patellar ligament. This angle is larger in women and more critical for preserving the integrity of the knee.

Which of the following factors has the most influence over flexibility? a. Tendons b. Muscle c. Joint capsule d. Skin

The 💕joint capsule or ligaments account for 47% of the resistance that is encountered and prohibits a full range of motion. c

🌟shoulder adduction

The 💕latissimus dorsi and 💕teres major are prime movers

👁️Which of the following is not one of the four mechanisms used by the body to give off heat? a. Radiation b. Convection c. Evaporation d. Receptors

There are four ways the body gives off heat including radiation, evaporation, conduction and convection. d

Which acronym represents a credible organization or agency which can be used as a valuable resource for the ACE personal trainer? a. ACSM b. NMMA c. BBB d. USB

There are many top organizations that a personal trainer can rely on for research and credible information. One of these organizations is the ACSM (the American College of Sports Medicine). a so what else??????

Which of the following are performance factors that affect the rate and degree of strength development in your client? a. Volume, Intensity, aerobic capacity, flexibility and frequency b. Rest intervals, volume, frequency, tempo and aerobic capacity c. Volume, intensity, tempo, rest intervals and frequency d. Power, aerobic and anaerobic capacity, volume and frequency

There are several exercise performance factors that affect the rate and degree of strength development. These training variables include volume intensity tempo rest intervals frequency c

👏Mind body exercise continues to emerge as an effective fitness and health-enhancement modality. Which of the following are core benefits from regular participation in programs such as tai chi, qigong, and hatha yoga? a. Increased balance and strength b. Increased flexibility c. Increased relaxation and mental quiescence d. All of the above

There is scientific evidence that the core benefits from these programs include increased balance, strength, and flexibility, as well as relaxation and mental quiescence. Mind body exercise, when taught respectfully and skillfully, is an opportunity to improve health for those who wish to complement their existing fitness program or who are otherwise sedentary and are looking for some greater meaning in their daily exercise routine. d

👏Which of the following is an example of negligence? a. Neglecting to ask if your client would like some water. b. Neglecting to give your client a break in the middle of their session. c. Neglecting to spot a client during a bench press exercise. d. Neglecting to ask a client for payment before the session.

This could potentially cause harm to the client and goes against what a "reasonable and prudent professional" would do. c

Your client Jen is on her third set of plyometric knee tucks. She falls to the ground and is unable to stand up. She feels an immediate severe pain and swelling in her left calf. There is also tenderness and bruising in the area. What type of strain does Jen likely have? a. Grade 1 strain b. Grade 2 strain c. Grade 3 strain d. Grade 4 strain

This is a complete tear. Grade 3 strains result in complete loss of muscle function, severe pain, swelling, tenderness, discoloration, and a palpable defect. c

⚫️Kristin is in for her second session and you are conducting fitness assessments. While you are checking her body fat percentage you ask her about types of exercise she prefers to do. What stage of the client-trainer relationship are you in with Kristin? a. Rapport Stage b. Planning Stage c. Investigation Stage d. Action Stage

This is an example of 💕gathering information, which you should do 💕before the planning stage. This is part of the 💕investigation stage. c

👏Which of the following is not a step in the planning stage? a. Setting goals b. Formulating a plan c. Generating and discussing alternatives d. Observing an exercise

This stage is viewed as a give-and-take opportunity in terms of 💕communication. The 💕last step listed in the planning stage is 💕evaluating the exercise program. d

As your client is performing the supine drawing-in exercise, you notice she has movement in her pelvis, low back and rib cage. What does movement of these joints indicate? a. Activation of the rectus abdominis b. An inability to activate the transverse abdominis in an isolated manner c. A loss of reflexive control along the lumbar spine d. Both a and b

Throughout the supine drawing-in exercises, there should be no movement of the pelvis, low back, or rib cage. Movement of these joints indicates activation of the rectus abdominis and an inability to activate the TVA in an isolated manner. d

How would a trainer progress the overhead press exercise? a. Prevent any movement besides the agonist muscles b. Add a slight trunk rotation c. Be seated with a back rest d. Avoid changes in the plane of movement

To progress the overhead press you can introduce changes in the plane of movement. Other ways to progress would be to add lateral trunk movements like a side lunge. Creating a more stable environment will reduce the stresses placed on the body and will not allow for progression. b

👏Which of the following would be considered negligence for a personal trainer? a. Not spotting your client during exercise. b. Not letting your client perform their favorite exercise. c. Asking your client to warm up before your appointment. d. Arriving late for a training appointment.

Trainers are expected to adhere to a standard of care which involves reasonable and prudent decision making in the best interests of their clients. Failing to properly supervise your client is considered an act of omission. a

Which skill-related training parameter involves the stretch-shortening cycle? a. Speed b. Balance c. Reactivity d. Power

Training for power is generally accomplished through plyometric exercise, which utilizes the stretch-shortening cycle to generate optimal force. This involves an active stretch followed by immediate shortening of the targeted muscle, facilitating increased force production.

What is the 🌟optimal amount of resistance for power exercises? a. Light resistance b. Moderate resistance c. Heavy resistance d. Very Heavy resistance

Training with moderate resistance at moderate to fast speeds is most effective for reaching a person's highest power output potential. b

👏This week Janet has 3 sessions at 60 minutes apiece with an RPE rating of 5. According to the training progression scale using RPE, what is Janet's rating in points for this week? a. 800 points b. 900 points c. 180 points d. 15 points

Using the 💕frequency x duration x intensity in RPE equation, 60 x 3 x 5 = 900 points on the training progression scale. b

Your client is doing intervals on the stair machine. Each interval contains a portion of intensity in which his MET level is a 7 and he is performing at 70% of his VÓ max. He maintains at this level for 2-minute intervals. What level of exercise is he performing at? a. Moderate Exercise b. Vigorous Exercise c. Light Exercise d. High Risk Exercise

Vigorous exercise is defined as exercising at a MET level above 6 and performing above 60% of an individual's VÓ max. There is a substantial cardiorespiratory challenge involved, and this level cannot be sustained for very long. b

Your client has been running sprints outside on a hot summer day. She begins to become dizzy and pale with cool, clammy skin. What steps should you take to prevent heat stroke? a. Have her lie down in a cool area with her feet elevated and give her fluids. b. Have her sit down and wait until she feels better to resume exercise. c. Give her plenty of fluids and wait to continue exercise until she feels better. d. Discontinue exercise and send her home.

When a client is showing 💕signs of heat exhaustion it is important to remove them from the heat, give fluids and elevate their feet to avoid shock. a

👏After taking the Exercise Induced Feeling Inventory/EFI 12 weeks into their program, your client appears to have the mood profile of "Positive Engagement". What might your client have answered to feeling very strongly? a. Worn out b. Enthusiastic c. Fatigued d. Tired e. a, c and d only

When a client's mood profile shows "positive engagement" this means that their mood has been improving since beginning training, and they may answer "feel very strongly" to feelings such as refreshed, enthusiastic, relaxed or upbeat on the Exercise Induced Feeling Inventory/EFI. b

What is the best course of action if you notice a client going into shock? a. Have her decrease her exercise intensity b. Have her sit with her head between her legs c. Activate EMS d. Have her lie down with her feet elevated .

When a person is showing signs of shock, they should lie down and elevate their feet to facilitate blood flow to their head d

Which of the following is an example of alternating pushing and pulling exercises within a session? a. 3 sets of chest press alternating with 3 sets of chest flys b. 3 sets of leg press alternating with 3 sets of squats c. 3 sets of bicep curls alternating with 3 sets of tricep push-downs d. 3 set of lat pulldowns alternating with 3 sets of rows

When alternating pushing versus pulling, the exercises must alternate between targeting muscles on either side of the joint. Biceps are on anterior side of the elbow joint and triceps are on the posterior side. c

. When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise? a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of a posterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the hip flexors and erector spinae. a

⚫️When an anterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise? a. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae b. Rectus Abdominis and Hamstrings c. Gluteus Maximus and Gluteus Medius d. Quadriceps and Anterior Tibialis

When an imbalance is determined it is important to strengthen the muscles opposing the action that is occurring. In the case of an 💕anterior pelvic tilt, these muscles are the 💕rectus abdominis and the 💕hamstrings. b

⚫️👁️Your client has begun a resistance-training program and is transitioning in the behavioral change stages. What would be the correct transition? a. Precontemplation to contemplation b. Contemplation to preparation c. Preparation to action d. Action to maintenance

When beginning a resistance-training program you should keep the total training volume relatively low to allow for adaptation and accommodation to training stress. This transition would be going from the preparation stage to the action stage of behavioral change. c

👏Jim has been training with you for 5 weeks and has increased his upper body strength in pull-ups by 25%. He is going on vacation and you are explaining to him the importance of continuing to train while he is away. Approximately how long would it take Jim to lose half of his strength gains? a. 10 weeks b. 2.5 weeks c. 5 weeks d. 2 weeks

When ceasing resistance exercise a person will 💕lose strength at approximately one half of the rate in which it was gained. Therefore, about half of Jim's strength gains will be lost in 5 weeks. c

You are using the Karvonen formula to determine your client's MHR. All of the following factors must be considered in order to properly understand the inherent error in the estimated MHR, except: a. Genetics b. Body size c. Hydration d. Exercise modality

When considering MHR you need to consider your clients ----genetics, exercise modality due to the difference in exercise and musculature involvement, medications, body size due to smaller individuals having smaller hearts, altitude, and age due to a 1-bpm drop each year. Hydration does not contribute to the inaccuracy of an estimated MHR. c

Which of the following is an example of a positive progression in functional movement and resistance training? a. Standing two-arm cable press to Shoulder bridge b. Lunges to Wall sits c. Wood chop to Pelvic tilts d. Plank to Prone lies on stability ball with torso movements

When progressing in functional movement and resistance training, it is important to start with static exercises and move to movement training. Plank is a static exercise focusing on core. Torso movements on a stability ball focus on the core as well but with added movement, thus progressing the exercise in a positive direction. d

Which training modality cannot utilize a 5% increase in training intensity as effectively? a. Training for muscular strength b. Training for hypertrophy c. Training for muscular endurance d. None of the above

When training for hypertrophy, an individual performs a large number of exercises with short recovery periods, which does not facilitate a simple 5% increase for every exercise. Therefore, when training for hypertrophy, intensity increases are determined on an individual basis. b

Your client Kim just finished a one-minute plank. As she starts to stand, she feels lightheaded and nausea. In this situation, the trainer should have Kim: a. stay in a standing position to encourage blood flow b. avoid hydration to not cause vomiting c. sit or lie down. d. move to a less intense exercise.

When warning signs of nausea and lightheadedness happen, have the person sit or lie down. To avoid fainting, the client should drink plenty of fluids. Fluids help keep blood volume at adequate levels. c

👏In which situation should you call 911? a. A client has fallen and twisted his ankle. b. A member has fallen and hit her head and is responsive c. A client needs to sit down from dizziness after a difficult bout of exercise d. A client is having difficulty breathing and you are unsure of what to do

Whenever you are unsure of what to do in a medical emergency you should call 911. Difficulty breathing is a medical emergency and can turn fatal within minutes, so it is important to call 911 in the case of difficulty breathing. d

All of the following are varieties of whey protein, except: a. Whey protein powder b. Whey casein c. Whey protein concentrate d. Whey isolate

Whey is the liquid remaining after mil has been curdled and contains all of the essential amino acids. Whey and Casein are separate forms of protein. b ??????

locus of control

Which of the following clients has a positive Locus of Control? a. Amy is excited about beginning her program but lets you know that she is very busy. b. Shellie enjoys exercise. She wants to lose 50 pounds but decides to set her goal for 25 in case she can't get to 50. c. Mike sets reasonable goals and shows up enthusiastic every day. d. Jenna sets reasonable goals and is excited about her program. She sometimes has trouble sticking to her fitness goals. 💕A person with a positive locus of control believes they have control over his or her health outcomes and acts in accordance with this belief.

👏It is necessary to call 9-1-1 in all of the following circumstances, except: a. When a client appears to have broken their finger b. When a client has chest pain c. When a client suddenly cannot move their arm d. When a client becomes unconscious

While a broken bone requires immediate attention from a healthcare professional, it typically does not require the activation of EMS. Call the emergency contact listed in the client's file or another individual as requested by the client. a

👏After a client with cardiovascular disease has been cleared for exercise, an initial exercise program should consist of which of the following? a. High intensity, low duration exercises b. Isometric exercises c. Use 2 to 3 sets of 12 to 15 repetitions d. Low intensity endurance exercises

While each client will be different, the majority of clients should begin with low intensity, endurance exercise, like walking, using a stationary bike or low impact aerobics, until they are able to increase in intensity and duration. d

👏Your client is ready to begin squatting with resistance, but has been told many different things on the subject of squatting with the knees past the toes. What is an appropriate movement cue to give your client if the client is squatting with his knees past his toes? a. Never let the knees go past the toes. b. Never letting the knees go past the toes is a myth. c. Keeping your lower leg vertical reduces shearing force. d. Keeping your legs vertical allows less hip stress.

While it is appropriate to avoid excessive forward movement of the knee during squatting and lunging movements, it is a myth that exercisers should "never let the knees go past the toes" while doing a squat or lunge. Keeping the knees vertical will cause an excessive lean in the torso placing 1,000% more hip stress. b

👁️Your client is going on vacation and wishes to run on the beach to keep up with her exercise program. What would be a helpful tip that can help protect your client's lower extremities when she runs on soft, uneven surfaces? a. Wear athletic shoes with cleats. b. Wear athletic shoes that are firm and stable. c. Wear knee braces. d. Supplement running workouts with exercise that dynamically strengthen the foot and ankle.

While it is true that soft surfaces can be easy on the joints, running on too soft of a surface can introduce a level of instability that may actually increase injury potential. The uneven surfaces place an excessive challenge on the foot and ankle to maintain whole-body balance while running. Shoes should also allow for proper mobility control and clients with a history of lower-extremity problems, especially involving the ankle joint, should avoid soft/uneven surfaces. d

Which of the following accounts for the unique position that personal trainers hold in the allied healthcare continuum? Choose One They are able to provide detailed dietary planning to combat chronic illnesses They are at the top of the allied healthcare pyramid due to the extended time they spend with clients They are able to show clients how to exercise effectively while following physicians' general recommendations They are licensed professionals who can prescribe specific exercise programs

While other members of the allied healthcare continuum might also give patients or clients guidelines for general exercise (e.g., "try to walk up to 30 minutes per day, most days of the week"), few of them actually teach clients how to exercise effectively. This is where personal trainers hold a unique position in the allied healthcare continuum. ACE Personal Trainer Manual, 5th edition, p. 6

👏If a client has too many goals or has goals that are too difficult to attain, the client's willpower may fail after only a short period of time. Since willpower is inherently limited, what is a strategy to conserve it? a. Introduce food choices when tired. b. Plan in advance. c. Take barriers as they come. d. Rely on your emotional side to dictate your actions.

Willpower is the ability to ignore temporary pleasure or discomfort to pursue a longer-term goal, and it is a biological function. Having too many goals or goals that are too difficult to attain may, on the first sign of trouble, cause the client's resolve to crumble. 💕Another strategy would be to have the client 💕write in a journal on how he or she would handle barriers to exercise. b

When performing a Static Postural Assessment on your client, you determine that your client has a slight posterior pelvic tilt. This means that the line of symmetry is __________________. a. Tilted Posteriorly b. Tilted Anteriorly c. Neutral d. Tilted to one side of the body

With a 💕posterior pelvic tilt, the line of symmetry is 💕tilted posteriorly, creating a posterior tilt. a

Your new client, Patty, wants to get stronger and lose some weight. She is afraid of developing bulky muscles and is hesitant about exercising on the selectorized weight equipment at the gym. What can you say to Patty to not be fearful of "bulking up"? a. A very small percentage of women possess the genetic potential to experience significant muscle hypertrophy. b. Women are typically smaller in size, and have less muscle tissue than men. c. Women have higher levels of anabolic hormones than men. d. All of the above e. Both a and b only s.

Women have lower levels of anabolic hormones (testosterone) than men. Women can enhance their muscular strength and size with genetic limitations but, with rare exceptions, they will not naturally develop unusually large, muscular physique e

movement analysis

You are in the program design stage of strength development with your athlete client and you ask her to identify the different movement patterns, speeds, and muscles involved in her sport in order to properly conduct a needs assessment. To which option, in the needs assessment, would this information be applicable? a. Movement analysis b. Physiological analysis c. Injury analysis d. Current conditioning level The trainer's responsibility in strength development and program design is to identify the physiological parameters that need to be included in the program to achieve success. The movement analysis allows you to gather information to properly administer a program that will enhance the client's activity or sport.

Howard is a diabetic client whom you have been training for 3 months. While exercising he begins to show signs of hypoglycemia. What is the best course of action? a. Discontinue the exercise and have Howard sit down, give him something sugary to drink and monitor him. b. Give Howard a sugary drink and continue the exercise, monitoring him. c. Have Howard discontinue the exercise and give him a protein bar and diet drink. d. Contact EMS as this is a potential life-threatening situation.

You should discontinue exercise at the first signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). It is not yet necessary to contact EMS. It is important to give the person something sugary to eat or drink as opposed to anything with artificial sweeteners or only protein. He should be monitored in case he loses consciousness. a

Larry is a client with whom you have been working for the past three months. During that time, he has cancelled or failed to show up for approximately 20% of scheduled workout sessions with you. Recently, Larry's work commitments have increased and he informs you that he will not be exercising until his work load decreases. In which stage of the transtheoretical model of behavioral change would Larry CURRENTLY be categorized?

Your Choice was: Action The Correct Answer is: Contemplation Why? Larry has relapsed to being physically inactive due to his work commitments, and has regressed to this stage of change. Individuals in the contemplation stage weigh the costs and benefits of lifestyle modification and are often ambivalent about changing. Individuals can remain in this stage for months or years, alternating between approaching readiness to make an effort at change and distancing themselves from it. Larry will have to decide to initiate a new exercise program before he can move back to the preparation stage and eventually to the action and maintenance stages. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 71-72

Mary is a healthy, 43-year-old female with no prior exercise experience. Which initial cardiorespiratory exercise program would be MOST appropriate for her?

Your Choice was: Aim to complete 30-minute sessions 4-5 days per week of moderate-intensity exercise with intervals of varying length and frequency performed above the talk test threshold The Correct Answer is: Begin with continuous exercise as tolerated below the talk test threshold and work up to 30 continuous minutes performed 5 days per week Why? This response is correct because it allows for this currently sedentary client to begin exercising at his current fitness level with a goal to work toward 30 continuous minutes. The exercise intensity of "below the talk test threshold" is also appropriate for this client, as she must develop initial aerobic-base fitness before progressing to longer sessions or intervals. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 398-399 & 422-424

👁️A new member of your health club has been cleared by her physician to begin an exercise program after recently celebrating her 65th birthday. Which of the following exercise parameters is MOST appropriate for her initial program?

Your Choice was: Functional training emphasizing dynamic balance exercises The Correct Answer is: Strength training utilizing low resistance and high repetitions Why? This response is an appropriate program design and initial intensity level for a new client and it addresses the loss of muscle mass and bone density as one ages. To promote strength gains and increases in bone density, a program with more resistance and fewer repetitions is required. However, because this individual is more than 50 years old, the ACSM recommends he begin his program with low resistance and high repetitions. This is the recommendation for older individuals due in part to the fact that as people age their blood pressures tend to rise. Low resistance and high repetitions is the recommendation for resistance training for hypertensive clients as well. After several months of training, a more intense program may be appropriate. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 375-376

A small-group training participant who enjoys the camaraderie of the group environment finds herself feeling as though she cannot keep up with the conditioning level of the other participants. What is the BEST recommendation for the trainer to make for this client?

Your Choice was: Suggest that she drop out of the small-group training class and work one-on-one with the trainer until her fitness improves to the level of the group The Correct Answer is: Offer her the opportunity to switch to another small-group training class that is a better match for her level of conditioning Why? This is the BEST recommendation to make so that she can continue to participate in small-group training, which she enjoys, but at a more reasonable level of conditioning. Reference: ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 689-691

At your request, a client visits his physician regarding recurrent leg pain. The physician diagnoses him with sciatica and instructs him to complete physical therapy for his problem. Which muscle is MOST commonly involved with sciatica due to its location relative to the sciatic nerve?

Your Choice was: The Correct Answer is: Piriformis Why? Tightness or spasm in the deep lateral rotators of the hip, particularly the piriformis, can lead to hip and leg pain, since the sciatic nerve often passes through or just inferior to the piriformis and can become irritated by a spasm in the piriformis. ACE's Essentials of Exercise Science for Fitness Professionals, page 45

As you are assessing a new client's static posture from the posterior view, you observe that the medial borders and inferior angle of his scapulae protrude away from the posterior surface of his back. This postural deviation is commonly referred to as 💕"scapular winging." Which of the following muscles should be of PRIMARY focus in his resistance-training program, as it is most likely weak and contributing to this postural deviation?

Your Choice was: The Correct Answer is: Serratus anterior Why? Weakness in the 💕serratus anterior can result in an inability of these scapular muscles to hold the medial border of the scapula in place against the ribs. This is known as 💕scapular "winging" and results in instability in the scapulothoracic joint that can lead to instability and injury in the shoulder girdle and/or shoulder joint. Personal trainers who see scapular winging should help the clients 💕strengthen the 💕serratus anterior, as well as the 💕rhomboids, which are also often weak with scapular winging. In addition, trainers should help clients learn how to "pack" their scapulae by retracting and depressing the scapulae. ACE Personal Trainer Manual (5th ed.), pages 160-162

👁️hip replacement

Your client has had their hip replaced and wishes to begin exercising. All of the following are in accordance with guidelines for individuals with a hip replacement, except: a. The knee can flex at full range of motion. b. The toes should remain straight ahead with no pigeon or duck toes. c. No adduction should be done past the midline. d. The focus should be on leg/hip abduction, lateral movements, and strengthening. The knee should go no higher than hip level or 90-degree flexion. The exercise program should be carefully designed in conjunction with a physician and/or physical therapist. a

amortization

Your client has met all the prerequisites in order to train in phase 4. To improve power, what phase between the concentric and eccentric actions should be kept to a minimum to produce the greatest amount of muscular force? a. Amortization b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Anaerobic d. Isometric The amortization phase allows the body's reflexive response to concentrically contract a muscle after it has been rapidly stretched. This allows for greater power as the elastic energy built up in the eccentric phase can then be distributed immediately into concentric contraction.

health related parameter

aerobic capacity flexibility muscular strength

leg curl

agonist = hamstrings antagonist = quadriceps

⚫️leg extension

agonist = 💕quadriceps = extension portion -- the main group of muscles responsible for extending the knee --doing the "work" against the resistance is the muscle that shortens antagonist = 💕hamstrings --an example of load training --an example of an open-chain kinetic movement. --an example of assistance exercises are single-joint rotary exercises such as the leg extension, leg curl, and calf raise.

_________________________, ___________________________, _____________________________ are important defenses to litigation for negligence. Ideally, each of these forms should be printed (avoid handwritten agreements) and signed by all clients before beginning the first exercise session

agreements to participate, informed consent, waivers --doctor prior to beginning any exercise routine --some attorneys may advise: not to train unless has verified tha t, at least, a basic health examination has been performed within six months --some agreement ask the health insurance info be provided ----so PT know the client has coverage, but also enable the trainer to provide that info if the client were in need of medical attention ⭐️ serve as a guide to improve understanding ----💕PT should not assume that they will provide adequate protection in the event of a lawsuit ----💕see a local attorney before areating, distributing, and colleting any agreements to participate, informed consent forms, or waivers

sarcoplasmic hypertrophy

an increase in sarcoplasm around the muscle cells, is the condition in which fluid accumulates around muscle cells -quickly dissipates after exercise.

👁️ACL

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) -responsible for connecting the femur to the tibia, ----stabilizing the femur on the tibia during knee extension, ----preventing the tibia from sliding forward ----preventing excessive internal rotation of the tibia during walking. ---------------------------------- Your client has been complaining of a knee injury. He tells you that while playing a game of basketball, he made a sudden cut and pivoted to follow the opponent. What ligament could be most affected by this deceleration of the body? a. Lateral meniscus b. Medical meniscus c. Anterior cruciate ligament d. Posterior cruciate ligament The primary role of the acl is to prevent anterior gliding of the tibia away from the femur. This can occur in sudden stopping or cutting motions combined with twisting, pivoting or side stepping.

👏An ACE certified personal trainer must complete how many continuing education hours in what period of time to keep their certification active? a. 10 hours in 1 year b. 20 hours in 2 years c. 20 hours in 1 year d. 10 hours in 2 years

👏In which stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Behavior Change (TTM) is a client ready to adopt and live a healthy lifestyle? a. Contemplation b. Preparation c. Precontemplation d. Action

b Explanation: A person in the preparation phase may be somewhat sporadic in their activity level, but is ready to make the change to a healthy lifestyle. －（已经开始参与activities 少量不定期）

⚫️The session should be delayed of postponed if the pre-exercise glucose level is ________________, or If the pre-exercise blood glucose is __________________. Clients should follow specific guidelines from their healthcare providers should these situations arise.

below 100 mg/dL greater than 300 mg/dL

plantar flexor muscles

bend and lift assessment: ---utilized to test for tight plantar flexor muscles ---generates a stretch in the plantar flexor muscles. If these muscles are tight the client's heels will come off the ground during the test. ----------------------- The rectus abdominis, upper back extensors, neck extensors, and 💕ankle plantar flexors are all facilitate/hypertonic muscles that could lead to 💕flat-back posture. ------------------- eg, Tight plantar flexors can lead to which compensation? a. Knees moving inward b. Excessive arching of the lumbar spine c. 💕Raised heels d. Lateral torso shift to one side The plantar flexor muscles cause the heels to elevate, therefore tight, or overactive, plantar flexors can lead to the inability to keep heels in contact with the floor. c

⚫️According to the ACE Integrated Fitness Training Model, what step in the training process best follows the testing of resting measures such as heart rate and blood pressure? a. Core Function b. Balance c. Static Posture d. Health Related Assessments

c Explanation: It is considered best to test a client's static posture after taking resting measures but before getting into training. （确认健康之后就是站姿测评）

Which stance is most challenging in the final stage of progression for static-balance training? a. Split-stance b. Staggered Stance c. Hip-width stance d. Single-leg stance

🌟The single leg stance offers the greatest challenge in static-balance training. d

_________________ and _______________ are used for anaerobic energy production. This energy is used to power the movement of contraction.

creatine phosphate glycogen

⚫️Trainer may need to consider muscle soreness when planning the durations of the __________ phase of contraction with new exercisers, as it is this phase that triggers DOMS, which may create a negative experience.

eccentric

👏Suggest that your client get fitted at the _______ of the day when her foot size is most likely at its largest size. It is possible for a person's foot size to increase by up to ____ size at the _____ of the day.

end ½ end

Prime movers for hip extension (leg curl) are the _____________, ________________, ___________________

gluteus maximus hamstrings gastrocnemius

Important to consider when choosing which assessments to utilize with a client:

goals physical Limitations age These are 3 major considerations when choosing which assessments to utilize with clients. Some factors may rule out certain assessments or make certain assessments more necessary than others. availability of equipment and the testing environment are also factors in these decisions.

The two primary hormones responsible for muscular strength and size/ tissue growth and muscular development are __________________ and ________________.

growth hormone testosterone

Older adults should avoid _____________ exercises in which a muscle is held in a position of contraction as this can increase blood pressure. Older adults should also avoid ____________________ during resistance training for the same reason.

isometric exercises holding their breath

lactate threshold

lactate threshold/tolerance training -------designed to increase the amount of sustained work that an individual can perform at or near VT2 ➡️ to improve cardiorespiratory capacity at or near VT2 ➡️ also help to increase the ability of the working muscles to produce force for an extended period

👏When looking to improve endurance, a __________ resistance and ________ number of repetitions should be used.

low-moderate high

The number of plyometric-training workouts should be ___________ depending on the conditioning level of your client and the rest period should be __________ hours. It is critical for recovery to allow adequate rest periods.

one to three 48 to 72

The progression from the seated press without any contact against the backrest, is to a _______________________________.

standing bilateral press in a split-stance position

do the math

🌟skinfold - body density - body fat 202-205 ------计算weight for desire range/lean mass to lose or gain 206 🌟BMI calculation and a quick reference 207 208 🌟body density－body fat 也可以通过girth measurements计算 ➡️ then be converted to percent fat 212

⚫️an unconditional positive regard, or respect, for another person regardless of his or her individuality and uniqueness. This quality will convey a climate that communicates safety and acceptance to the client.

warmth --building rapport

triathlons

【體】三項運動(游泳、單車、賽跑三項全能賽)

👁️quadricep

前面有四个 -rectus femoris

quadriceps

四頭肌

⚫️teres major

大圓肌 🌟shoulder adduction: The 💕latissimus dorsi and 💕teres major are prime movers 🌟💕Rope climbing ability: --prime mover muscles: ----💕pulling movement ➡️ 💕latissimus dorsi, teres major, biceps, and forearm flexors ➡️ 💕lat pulldowns, chin-ups, dumbbell bent-over rows, seated rows ----也要opposing muscle groups = pushing movement, eg, 342 ----但同样train all of the major muscle groups也很重要 = reduce risk of muscle imbalance and overuse injuries ---还没记完 342

👁️stroke volume

心搏量 -is the amount of blood pumped from the left ventricle of the heart with each beat. Increased stroke volume is acquired through exercise adaptations allowing for a lower resting and submaximal heart rate. --💕不能用来测量exercise intensity

COPD

慢性阻塞性肺病 Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease -a common respiratory problem, ----affects the lung making it difficult for them to deliver oxygen to the body's tissues. ---Similar diseases such as bronchitis and asthma should be cleared by the client's physician before beginning or continuing an exercise program. E.g.,: (You notice your client having dyspnea (difficult or labored breath) during a light aerobic warm up. Which health condition could be affecting his physical activity?

amputation

截肢術

👏novice

新手,初學者

👁️anaerobic threshold

无氧阈值 -the highest sustainable level of exercise intensity -the anaerobic or lactate threshold is used as a marker of exercise performance as it is thought to indicate when an exercise intensity can no longer be sustained

avid runner

狂热的跑步者

latissimus dorsi

背闊肌 core muscle --------------------- -origin and insertion of the latissimus dorsi connect the thoracolumbar fascia to the humerus. -this muscle is required to stretch throughout the 💕shoulder flexion assessment and can lead to dysfunction if it becomes tight. ------------------- 🌟shoulder adduction: The 💕latissimus dorsi and 💕teres major are prime movers -------------------------- 🌟💕Rope climbing ability: --prime mover muscles: ----💕pulling movement ➡️ 💕latissimus dorsi, teres major, biceps, and forearm flexors ➡️ 💕lat pulldowns, chin-ups, dumbbell bent-over rows, seated rows ----也要opposing muscle groups = pushing movement, eg, 342 ----但同样train all of the major muscle groups也很重要 = reduce risk of muscle imbalance and overuse injuries ---还没记完 342 ----------------------- Your client comes to you wanting 💕to improve her rope climbing ability. Which training principle would focus on the 💕latissimus dorsi, teres major, biceps and forearm flexors to achieve the desired results? a. Progression b. Overload c. Specificity d. Reversibility E.g.,: (you are conducting the 💕shoulder flexion assessment on your client. In the supine position, the client is able to flex her shoulders and touch the floor, but only if the 🌟lower back is raised. Which muscle is most likely contributing the lower back having to be raised? a. Pectoralis major b. Teres major c. Rhomboids d. Latissimus dorsi While performing an 💕overhead press, which muscle should you coach your client to engage during the 💕lowering phase? a. Anterior deltoid b. Posterior deltoid c. Latissimus dorsi d. Triceps 🌟If the latissimus dorsi is engaged to begin the lowering phase, anterior containment is provided to help stabilize the shoulder and precipitate greater force production during the lifting phase. Trainers should therefore coach clients to 💕engage the latissimus dorsi during the lowering phase and not simply yield to gravity.

sagittal plane

－frontal plane (sagittal plane), fundamental movements include flexion, extension, hyperextension, dorsiflexion plantar flexion.

forward head position

？？？ -the muscles that are 🌟tight include the cervical spine extensors, levator scapulae, and upper trapezius🌟 -eg. Amy is a new client who works at a computer for her job and is complaining of neck soreness and stiffness. To observe the presence of this imbalance, 🌟use the sagittal view🌟

👁️fast acting hormone

🌟 Insulin Glucagon Catecholamines --are fast acting hormones --responsible for bringing blood glucose levels back down. 🌟Cortisol is a slower acting hormone.

How long should an agility drill last for a beginner? a. 15-30 seconds b. Less than 10 seconds c. 10-60 seconds d. 60 seconds to 2 minutes

🌟A beginner should perform at less than 70% of their maximum effort for a period of 15-30 seconds. a

your client is on the treadmill exercising at 5 METs and 50% of her VÓ max, a level that she sustains for 45 minutes. What level of exercise is she performing at? a. Moderate Exercise b. Vigorous Exercise c. Light Exercise d. High Risk Exercise

🌟Moderate exercise is considered any form of exercise that can be 💕sustained for 45 minutes with a 💕MET level of 3-6 and 💕40-60% of the individual's VÓ max. a

Your client is exercising outside on a hot day and becomes confused. She has hot, bright red skin and is having difficulty breathing. She is scared and dizzy. What is the best course of action to take? a. Discontinue exercise, call 911 and begin actively cooling her. b. Discontinue exercise, begin actively cooling her and call 911. c. Discontinue exercise, have her sit down inside and give her fluids. d. Discontinue exercise, have her lie down inside

🌟with her head elevated and begin actively cooling her. It is important to begin actively cooling someone who is showing signs of heat stroke as soon as possible. Use cold, wet washcloths, ice packs, or even a cool bath. Once you have begun this process, activate EMS. b

⚫️Two hours prior to exercise, it is recommended that clients drink ___________ oz. of fluid (_____________ ml). Flavored sports drinks are more likely to encourage intake as well as replenish electrolytes and carbohydrates.

💕17-20 💕500-600

⚫️💕Adolescents should perform 💕resistance training approximately ________ non-consecutive days per week.

💕2-3

When a person is in 💕cardiac arrest, 💕ventricular fibrillation is common. If in a fitness facility during this event, what can be used to convert VF back to a normal rhythm? a. CPR b. AED c. EMS d. FA

💕CPR cannot change an abnormal heart rhythm. An 💕AED (automated external defibrillator) is used to convert ventricular fibrillation back to a normal rhythm by delivering an electric shock to the heart through two adhesive electrode pads on the person's chest. b

At what point in a maximal aerobic capacity assessment are 💕carbohydrates the primary source of fuel? a. Throughout the entire test b. After reaching the first ventilatory threshold c. After reaching the second ventilatory threshold d. In the last 2 minutes of the test

💕Carbohydrates are the main source of fuel after the first ventilatory threshold is reached. b

Your client is beginning a yoga program and you are implementing the use of props and elementary poses to allow for x💕relaxation and decrease fatigue. What form of yoga would this be? a. Bikram yoga b. Kundalini yoga c. Restorative yoga d. Ashtanga yoga

💕Restorative yoga is used to be easier and more relaxing for those who are 💕relatively weak, fatigued, or experiencing a peak stressful period in life. The other forms of yoga range from moderate to difficult. c

🌟The 💕latissimus dorsi and 💕teres major are prime movers for which movement?

💕Shoulder adduction The latissimus dorsi and teres major on the posterior side adduct the arm towards the vertebrae of the back.

ACE Key Concepts to Remember

Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Writing: How to Write A Paragraph

Josephine Morrow vSim

Try...

Social Psychology final

Chapter 11 practice test

3803 Final

COMM 2410 Small Group Communication EXAM 3 (Ch. 9-12) + Group Presentations

Math 1.7 Parallel and Perpendicular Lines

Micro Final Exam

FRL 301 Chapter 13

Final Exam

Accounting Exam 2

SPAN 151A - Catalan

Physics applied to respiratory care

EMT Chapter 5 Medical Terminology

ECON Macro Measures

FINA365 Chapter 3

APUSH PERIOD 4 REVIEW

Psych 323 Quiz

History of Art 4810 Final