ACSM CPT prepU EXAM QUESTIONS w/ ANSWERS

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A 30-year-old potential client states she just had a physical and was informed by her physician that her total cholesterol and blood pressure looked great. You review her medical history and note she is taking vitamins and antihypertensive medication. Based on this profile, she would be considered as having how many risk factors? a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Lifting a barbell in a power rack a few inches until it is pressed or pulled against the rack's pins is known as: a) Eccentric training b) Partial repetition c) Functional isometrics d) Forced negatives

Operational policies for your business should include information on: a) The business model chosen. b) Billing and cancellations. c) The business services you provide. d) Your mission statement.

A 29-year-old male has a bench press weight ratio of 1.48. What rep range would you start him with? a) 4 to 6 b) 15 to 20 c) 8 to 12 d) 10 to 15

A basketball player would benefit MOST from which of the following skill components of fitness? a) Speed, coordination, and agility b) balance, strength, and endurance c) Speed, agility, and power d) Balance, coordination, and reaction-time

Which type of activity would benefit from having ballistic stretching in the warm-up? a) Cycling b) Running c) Basketball d) Swimming

Demonstrating standard of care can best be accomplished by: a) Maintaining detailed documentation for all sessions conducted. b) Participating in peer discussion groups with fellow Personal Trainers. c) Ensuring clients sign a thorough and descriptive contract prior to rendering services. d) Maintaining professional certifications and continuing education.

Clinical manifestations of the Female Athlete Triad include eating disorders, amenorrhea, and: a) Hypertension. b) Hypoglycemia. c) Hypotension. d) Osteoporosis.

Paying Personal Trainers a percentage of generated revenue is known as: a) Fee for service. b) Bonus payment. c) Individual salary. d) Commission-based compensation.

Personal Trainers should always confirm with clients that their risk classification and health information are accurate and up to date before: a) Discussing health history. b) Agreeing to take on the client. c) Contacting the client's physician. d) Beginning exercise training.

When peddling on a stationary bike, the knee should be: a) Bent at least 30°;. b) Bent 10°; to 15°;. c) Fully extended. d) Bent 5°; to 10°;.

Using a behavior contract is one strategy that may be implemented when the client demonstrates a need for: a) Extrinsic motivation. b) Intrinsic motivation. c) Avoiding a relapse. d) Program variety.

Which of the following is an example of a short bone? a) Tarsal b) Ulna c) Sphenoid d) Ethnoid

During a barbell bench press, the weight should be lowered to the: a) Abdomen. b) Face. c) Chest. d) Forehead.

A client who prefers to learn exercises by practicing them first is MOST likely a ________ learner. a) Kinesthetic b) Spatial c) Cognitive d) Visual

ACSM Certified News self tests for CECs offer how many CECs per issue? a) 4 b) Self tests for CECs are not offered in ACSM Certified News. c) 1 d) 10

ACSM published joint position stands for health/fitness facilities regarding client screening, staffing, emergency policies, equipment, and procedures with: a) The American Heart Association. b) The American Dietetic Association. c) The US Department of Health and Human Services. d) The Emergency Association of America.

For a release, waiver, or Informed Consent document to be effective at barring liability, the forms must be clear and unambiguous and refer specifically to: a) Negligence of the party seeking the release. b) Dangers of participating in the activity. c) State and local law governing liability. d) Scope of practice provisions.

Health and fitness benefits occur with at least ______ minutes a week of moderate-intensity physical activity. a) 150 b) 75 c) 180 d) 60

Per the USDA, the makeup of a plate of food should consist of: a) half fruits and vegetables. b) one-third vegetables. c) one-quarter whole grains. d) one-third fruits.

You now are ready to proceed with scheduling a fitness assessment with your client tomorrow. To get the most accurate heart rate response, you instruct your client to: a) Refrain from drinking any caffeinated beverages 30 minutes prior to the assessment. b) Hydrate by consuming 200 to 300 mL of fluids 30 minutes before the assessment. c) Finish consuming any meals at least 2 hours prior to the assessment. d) Get at least 8 hours of sleep the night before.

A traditional or classic periodized training program consists of: a) a varying increase in the intensity that alternates between higher volumes and lower volumes during training weeks b) a straight-line increase in the intensity that trades off between intensity and volume c) a straight-line increase in the intensity that has a 2 week active rest period after each mesocycle d) a varying increase in the intensity that alternates weeks between higher volumes and lower volumes

ACSM risk classification defines moderate exercise as: a) 50% to <80% VO2R b) 40% to <60% VO2R c) 50% to <70% VO2R d) 40% to <70% VO2R

An agreement between a Personal Trainer and client for sessions is called: a) A commitment. b) A sale. c) A business arrangement. d) A promise.

An example of an open chain exercise is the: a) Push-up b) Leg extension c) Squat d) Pull-up

Personal Trainers can work as employees, establish a business, or operate independently as: a) A corporate entity. b) A sole proprietorship or "doing business as." c) A limited liability company. d) An independent contractor.

Positive feedback is an example of a/an ________ motivator. a) Intrinsic b) Extrinsic c) Active d) Self-monitoring

A "call to action" in advertising means: a) The campaign involves direct calling to prospective buyers. b) Targeted marketing has taken place focused on the preferred market niche. c) The marketing effort involves an offer with a deadline to create urgency. d) Marketing materials are designed to focus on the need to be active.

A Personal Trainer-Client Agreement must include which of the following policies that also assists with motivation? a) Duration b) Scheduling c) No-show d) On-time

Intermittent claudication refers to: a) Pedal pulse pressures that vacillate between strong and weak. b) A constant pain that is felt in the anterior compartment of the lower leg. c) Pain that occurs in the lower extremities during walking and disappears after stopping. d) Fluid buildup around the ankle joints during weight bearing.

Progressive muscle relaxation involves tensing and relaxing key muscle groups in order to: a) Improve circulation. b) Reduce pain and soreness after exercise. c) Reduce muscle tension and anxiety. d) Promote mind/body awareness.

Reduced athletic performance is associated with body water weight loss of ________ during activity. a) 5% b) Any amount c) 2% d) 1%

The Theory of Planned Behavior model suggests successful behavior change is dependent on the client's subjective norms, perceived control, and: a) Self-efficacy. b) Past success at behavior change. c) Attitude. d) Social network.

The best way to address all types of learning styles when teaching a new resistance training exercise is to: a) Give auditory and visual cues. b) Give visual cues. c) Use the tell-show-do method. d) Demonstrate the exercise.

The body of law that regulates civil wrongdoing is: a) Civil law. b) Negligence law. c) Tort law. d) Regulation law.

The elbow can performs movements in which plane? a) Transitional b) Frontal c) Sagittal d) Horizontal

The idea that a nutritional supplement will work because you believe it, despite any biological reason, is known as: a) Belief theory. b) The supplement effect. c) The placebo effect. d) Biological intervention.

Which of the following strongly communicates an individual's thougts and emotional state? a) Head position b) Speech cadence c) Eye contact d) Speech volume

Which stretch increases range of motion in the low-back? a) Supine hip rotator stretch b) Kneeling hip flexor stretch c) Supine knee to chest stretch d) Side lying quad stretch

Your client forgot his athletic shoes and asks to train with you in his work boots. You should: a) Allow him to exercise just this once in work boots. b) Inspect the work boots to ensure they are safe. c) Not allow him to train with inadequate shoes. d) Discuss the physical activity he normally performs in the work boots to make a decision.

________ are believed to be more reliable and essential to understanding another person than ________. a) Content; speech b) Speech; nonverbal cues c) Nonverbal cues; speech d) Speech; content

________ of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems is required in order to have beneficial adaptations in cardiorespiratory endurance. a) Steady state work b) Manipulation c) Overload d) Low intensity training

A medical exam AND a graded exercise test should be recommended before training a: a) Low-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise. b) Moderate-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise. c) Low-risk client wanting to perform vigorous exercise. d) High-risk client wanting to perform moderate exercise.

A weight loss of what percent is associated with a reduction in health risks? a) 20% b) 15% c) 5% d) 10%

During initial client contact, Personal Trainers should provide a service introduction packet that contains a Health History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form (if needed), Informed Consent, and: a) PAR-Q. b) Workout template. c) Nutrition handouts. d) The Client-Personal Trainer Agreement.

During pregnancy, resistance and flexibility exercises in the supine position should be avoided to prevent which of the following? a) Diaphoresis b) Ankle edema c) Exercise-induced hypertension d) Orthostatic hypotension

During resistance training, it is important not to perform ________. a) Less that 15 reps b) A circuit c) More than 4 reps d) Valsalva maneuver

Muscular strength is defined as: a) The amount of motor units recruited in 8 to 12 reps. b) The ability to apply a force repeatedly over time. c) The number of muscle spindles recruited during a maximal contraction. d) A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group.

One of the most important reasons for assessment of your client's body composition is: a) Percent body fat should be factored into program design. b) It provides a baseline for goal setting. c) Client fitness level can be determined. d) The correlation between obesity and increased chronic disease risk.

Research shows that one of the key factors in behavior change is: a) Knowledge. b) Social support. c) Outside guidance. d) Self-monitoring.

Scoliosis is defined as: a) Posterior deviation of the spine. b) Medial deviation of the spine. c) A combination of kyphosis and lordosis. d) Lateral deviation of the spine.

Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint? a) Piriformis and gluteus maximus b) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius c) Gluteus medius and hamstrings d) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding the socioecological model? a) Ecological mapping often discourages physical activity. b) Gradual changes in behavior are linked to social support. c) Support is mainly provided through knowledge and skills. d) Behavior change is linked to relationships, environment, and community.

Which of the following is NOT considered a true joint? a) Sternoclavicular b) Glenohumeral c) Acromioclavicular d) Scapulothoracic

Which of the following is the MOST effective exercise strategy for an individual who is extrinsically motivated? a) Create a list of advantages and disadvantages when formulating goals. b) Record mileage walked since the start of a program. c) Allow clients to increase intensity when they feel comfortable. d) Establish a reward upon completion of a specified number of exercise sessions.

Which of the following is the MOST important behavior as it relates to modeling? a) Performing exercises with proper form b) Training the client even when not feeling well c) Arriving 5 minutes earlier than the scheduled time d) Eating healthy snacks

Your client is eating an item of food with 25 grams of protein. How many calories from protein are there in total? a) 175 kcal b) 25 kcal c) 225 kcal d) 100 kcal

Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) Waist of 32 inches for females b) Waist of 40 inches for males c) BMI of 28 for females d) BMI >25 for males

Generally, Personal Trainers have not been deemed health care providers, and therefore: a) They should partner with medical professionals for referrals. b) The likelihood of involvement in lawsuits is minimal. c) They have not been subject to medical malpractice laws. d) They should avoid working in medical settings.

Personal Trainers most commonly use which type of company organization? a) S corporation b) Sole proprietorship c) Limited liability company d) Independent contractor

The muscles involved in a dumbbell fly and cable fly are the: a) Latissimus dorsi and teres major b) Teres major and pectoralis major c) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid d) Anterior deltoid and latissimus dorsi

The muscles that abduct the shoulder joint are the: a) Serratus anterior and subscapularis b) Levator scapula and upper trapezius c) Medial deltoid and supraspinatus d) Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major

The upper respiratory tract consists of ________. a) Trachea, larynx, and lungs b) Pharynx, larynx, and nasal cavity c) Nasal cavity, nose, and pharynx d) Pharynx, larynx, and lungs

The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________. a) Stroke volume b) Diastolic blood pressure c) Cardiac output d) Systolic blood pressure

During an exercise session on the recumbent bicycle, your client has a squeezing and burning sensation down both arms. Your client passed the PAR-Q test, so you should? a) Use a treadmill instead. b) Stop the exercise, and refer the client to a physician. c) Switch your client to a stair climber. d) Take the client's pulse and blood pressure.

During your initial meeting, you learn that your client's motivation was based on a hypertension diagnosis by her physician. This is consistent with the: a) Cognitive behavioral techniques b) Health belief model c) Transtheoretical Model d) Operant conditioning

What is the waist-to-hip ratio threshold at which a female client's health is considered at risk? a) 0.79 b) 0.82 c) 0.88 d) 0.85

Which outcome is most likely when performing a safe and effective resistance training program 2 to 3 times a week for 3 months? a) Muscle hypermobility b) Muscle atrophy c) Muscle hypertrophy d) Muscle hyperplasia

Failing to take reasonable precautions with a client, based on the evaluation of facts associated with an incident, can lead to a Personal Trainer being found: a) Outside scope of practice. b) Guilty. c) Reprimanded. d) Negligent.

Failure of Personal Trainers to consider nutrition when working with a client will MOST likely result in which of the following outcomes? a) Diminishment of the client's commitment to training b) Negative effects on the Personal Trainer-client relationship c) Questionable credibility as as a fitness professional d) Poor progression and training

Resistance training in cardiac patients improves: a) Flexibility, strength, and agility during activities of daily living. b) Balance, flexibility, oxygen uptake, and muscular density. c) VO2max and cardiac output during cardiovascular activities. d) Muscular strength and endurance while decreasing the cardiovascular demands of a given task.

Should a CEC audit determine some CECs are not applicable: a) You will be required to retake the certification exam. b) You must complete 45 new CECs for the certification period. c) Your certification is terminated. d) You will be given a timeframe to earn replacement CECs.

Which of the following is an endurance exercise training adaptation that benefits those with coronary artery disease? a) Decreases stores of ATP b) Increases maximal heart rate c) Decreases rate pressure product d) Provides relief of symptoms

Which sets, repetitions, and load would result in the GREATEST total training volume? a) 3 sets x 4 reps with 160 lbs b) 1 set x 12 reps with 150 lbs c) 2 sets x 8 reps with 110 lbs d) 2 sets x 12 reps with 90 lbs

Weight loss after exercise indicates less than optimal hydration. Athletes should consume ________ of fluid per pound of weight lost during activity. a) 1 cup (8 oz) b) 1 quart (approximately 1200 mL) c) 1 pint (approximately 600 mL) d) 1 gallon

To help your client transition from the contemplation stage of change to the preparation stage of change, you should intervene using: a) Periodic goal evaluation. b) Educational materials. c) A health risk appraisal. d) Relapse prevention strategies.

To prevent your client from experience a relapse while out of town for a few weeks, you should: a) Have your client walk at a brisk pace daily for 20 minutes. b) Plan ahead and discuss alternative strategies to remain active. c) Suggest staying at a hotel further away from the the places that will be visited regularly and walk for transportation. d) Locate the nearest public parks.

Which of the following best describes active listening? a) Asking the client to repeat himself or herself as needed b) Listening to verbal and observing non-verbal language c) Listening to the client with minimal interruption d) Writing detailed notes after the client responds to your questions

Which of the following muscles functions to externally rotate the hip joint? a) Semitendinosus b) Biceps femoris c) Gracilis d) Semimembranosus

Which of the following muscles is BEST suited to prevent scapular winging? a) Mid-trapezius b) Serratus anterior c) Latissimus dorsi d) Teres major

Which of the following muscles is considered a prime mover for a lat pulldown exercise? a) Biceps brachii b) Teres major c) Anterior deltoid d) Pectoralis major

Which of the following terms describes an eating disorder where normal-weight individuals repeatedly engage in binge eating followed by compensatory behaviors like excessive exercise or fasting? a) Disordered eating b) Bulimia nervosa c) Anorexia nervosa d) Oligomenorrhea

Which of the following theories of behavior change places a great emphasis on the client's thoughts and feelings? a) Transtheoretical model of change b) Self cognitive theory c) Theory of planned behavior d) Socioecological model

Which of the following would be a good warm-up for a healthy adult who is about to take a 3-mile run? a) Jogging at an intensity of 60% to70% of HRR for 3 to 5 minutes b) Light walking, then jogging for 5 to 10 minutes c) Rhythmic skipping for 5 to 10 minutes d) Running at an intensity of 65% to 75% HRR for 5 minutes

Which principle can help reduce the risk of overtraining? a) Progressive overload b) Periodization c) S.A.I.D d) Specificity

A range of ________ to ________ of one repetition maximum (1 RM) is recommended for optimizing strength gains. a) 80%; 95% b) 60%; 75% c) 75%; 90% d) 50%; 60%

One way to motivate clients to adhere to their exercise program is to: a) Demonstrate specific techniques for various exercises. b) Educate clients about contraindicated exercises. c) Help clients set realistic goals and modify them as needed. d) Be a knowledgeable resource to accurately answer health and fitness questions.

Overweight or obese clients who are seeking to lose weight should perform a minimum of ________ minutes of moderate-intensity exercise each week. a) 360 b) 480 c) 240 d) 120

People are more likely to adopt healthy lifestyles and fitness regimens for the long run if they are ________. a) Extrinsically motivated b) Self starters c) Intrinsically motivated d) Former athletes

Performing a squat with a board placed under the heels results in which of the following? a) Lengthened gastrocnemius and soleus b) Assists in establishing neutral spine c) Increased force requirements of the quadriceps d) Minimized patellofemoral joint forces

As the Personal Trainer is conducting the initial interview, she identifies one of the client's statements that can be used for teaching and learning opportunities. In doing so, she is demonstrating: a) Active listening. b) Appreciative inquiry. c) Empathy. d) Genuineness.

Defining criteria for the hypertension risk factor for cardiovascular disease is: a) BP 150/95 mm Hg or higher b) BP 120/80 mm Hg or higher c) BP 130/85 mm Hg or higher d) BP 140/90 mm Hg or higher

Dietary cholesterol should be limited to less that ________ per day, based on the ADA Dietary Guidelines. a) 1,000 mg b) 500 mg c) 100 mg d) 300 mg

If a client must see a physician prior to starting a moderate-intensity exercise program, which of the following should be completed both by the client and physician? a) Medical History Evaluation b) PAR-Q c) Health History Evaluation d) Medical Clearance Form

If you are randomly audited, you must submit CEC documentation to the ACSM National Office within: a) The time specified by ACSM in the audit notice. b) 14 days. c) 10 days. d) 30 days.

Joints between bones, along with bones and ligaments, collectively make up what system? a) The synovial system b) The skeletal system c) The amphiarthrodial system d) The articular system

Medications that affect heart rate and/or blood pressure response during exercise include: a) NSAIDs. b) Sleeping pills. c) Antidepressants. d) Diuretics.

Which activity would be contraindicated for someone with cardiovascular disease? a) Racquet sports b) Leisure cycling c) Slow dancing d) Aqua aerobics

Which of the following increases functional capacity and may relieve symptoms of coronary artery disease? a) Endurance exercise training b) Resistance training c) Circuit training d) Interval training

During a straight-legged dead lift, which muscle does most of the work as you extend? a) Gluteus medius b) Hamstrings c) Iliopsoas d) Quadriceps

Some of the most important work of a Personal Trainer is establishing rapport, creating a comfortable environment, and: a) Monitoring progress towards goals. b) Inspiring client motivation. c) Maintaining confidentiality. d) Stimulating behavior change.

You are working with a client who weighs 180 pounds with a body-fat percentage of 20%. What will his approximate weight be when he reaches his goal of 15% body fat, assuming that his lean body mass remains constant? a) 175 pounds b) 169 pounds c) 144 pounds d) 149 pounds

Legally, the duty to anticipate and plan for risks is called: a) Risk abatement. b) Legal anticipation. c) Foreseeability. d) Risk management.

Which exercise would recruit the most stabilizer muscles during the lift? a) Smith machine squat b) Squat with elastic tubing c) Barbell front squat d) Supine leg press

Which of the following best summarizes the Small Changes Model of behavior change? a) Clients are given a specific concrete plan for change. b) The client's environment, feelings, and thoughts toward behavior change are also accounted for. c) Gradual and cumulative behavior change is achieved relative to baseline activity. d) The client's intention to make behavior change is increased significantly.

Which of the following is a benefit of an S corporation? a) Limited liability b) The corporate veil c) No double taxation d) Flow-through taxation

What would be the best time under tension for a beginning exerciser doing the plank? a) 60 seconds b) 30 seconds c) 45 seconds d) 15 seconds

Which of the following is a similar site for both a male and a female when performing a 3-site skinfold test? a) Abdomen b) Supraliac c) Chest d) Thigh

Which of the following is considered a gliding joint? a) Atlanto-axial b) Scapulothoracic c) Ankle d) Sacroiliac

The most focused strategy for attracting clients to a personal training business is: a) Client referral. b) Direct mail. c) Community involvement. d) Lead boxes.

The pain that occurs in muscles with inadequate blood supply that is stressed by exercise is referred to as: a) Intermittent claudication. b) Lymphatic blockage. c) Bradycardia. d) Venous insufficiency.

A 53-year-old female has family history of a heart attack (father at age 72). If she wishes to participate in moderate-intensity exercise, you should: a) Perform a submaximal fitness testing to determine her functional capacity. b) Design an exercise program that progresses gradually in intensity and duration. c) Have her undergo fitness testing under medical supervision. d) Refer her to her primary care health provider.

A Personal Trainer encourages the client to continue squats after the client reports of severe muscle fatigue and pain and later becomes ill. Which of the following summarizes this behavior? a) Risk management b) Negligence c) Progressive exercise d) Professional standards

A client is exercising once a week and slowly increases to twice a week over the course of a month. This is consistent with which theory of behavior change? a) Social cognitive theory b) Health belief model c) Small changes model d) Socioecological model

An informal way to continually reevaluate the health status of clients would be: a) Physical assessments. b) Observation. c) Written assessments. d) Direct questions.

Appropriate assessments to measure client fitness level include: a) Calculation of BMI. b) Resting and exercise heart rate. c) Body weight and height measurement. d) Hip, waist, and limb circumference measures.

Approximately 95% of adults who successfully lose weight regain their weight within: a) 6 months. b) 5 years. c) 10 years. d) 1 year.

Assessments are tests and measurements used by Personal Trainers to evaluate physical and functional status; they indicate a client's: a) Likelihood of success. b) Functional ability. c) Motivation level. d) Aptitude for adherence.

The current ACSM Certified Personal Trainer recertification fee is: a) $25 b) $60 c) $45 d) $30

Which of the following would protect a Personal Trainer by transferring risk to the insurer? a) General liability insurance b) Medical insurance c) Malpractice insurance d) Professional liability insurance

ACSM recommends a Personal Trainer carry professional liability insurance in the amount of: a) $1 million per occurrence. b) $2 million per occurrence. c) $1 million per year. d) $2 million per year.

Asking clients to document how they use their time for one week and identify areas where they can incorporate exercise is an example of: a) Strategy of overcoming a personal barrier. b) Strategy of overcoming a social barrier. c) Strategy of overcoming an environmental barrier. d) Strategy of overcoming a impersonal barrier.

Asking the client questions like, "Did you feel you worked out hard enough?" and, "What was especially challenging today?" is the best way to: a) Obtain client feedback. b) Promote behavior change. c) Encourage adherence. d) Teach self-assessment.

At what age are children physically and mentally ready for resistance training exercise? a) Age 7 to 8 b) Age 12 to 13 c) Age 4 to 5 d) Age 10 to 11

Authoring published peer-reviewed journal articles or books can earn an ACSM credentialied professional: a) 10 CECs. b) 1 CEC. c) 5 CECs. d) An automatic renewal.

Before you provide a spot to a novice client for a given strength exercise, you should first: a) Provide a detailed verbal and visual representation of the exercise. b) Ask how many sets the client plans on completing. c) Provide instruction on what muscles will be strengthened. d) Be strong enough to hand off the resistance to the client.

Asking your client to complete a one-week diary of their activity is an example of which model or theory? a) Social cognitive theory b) The small changes model c) Theory of planned behavior d) The health belief model

Because of recent death in his family, a client begins to consider beginning an exercise program. This is known as: a) Action. b) Contemplation. c) Preparation. d) Precontemplation.

Client agreement to relinquish damages in the event of injury, prior to beginning exercise participation, is accomplished through: a) Confidential discussion. b) Negligence release. c) A waiver. d) Release of risk.

What is the suggested duration for severely deconditioned obese clients? a) Multiple bouts of exercise lasting 10 minutes or more b) 45 to 60 minutes of exercise per day, 3 times a week c) 300 minutes of exercise a week d) 30 minutes of exercise per day, 5 to 7 times a week

What tools do athletes use for variable resistance training? a) Chains b) Kettle bells c) Bosu ball d) TRX

CSM certified Personal Trainers must complete a minimum of ________ continuing education credits. (CECs) a) 45 b) 20 c) 30 d) 15

Carbohydrate intake is recommended for most individuals at ________ grams per kg body weight per day. a) 6 to 10 b) 10 to 14 c) 12 to 16 d) No more than 6

Compared to nonathletes, the protein requirement for physically active people is: a) About three times as much. b) Slightly less. c) Approximately double. d) The same.

Clients returning to exercise following greater trochanteric bursitis should generally avoid ________. a) Side-lying exercise positions that compress the lateral hip b) Prone exercise positions that compress on the anterior superior iliac spines c) Stretching the IT band complex d) Strengthening the deep hip rotator muscles

Consuming too little energy consistently can have what negative impact on athletic performance? a) Lean body mass (muscle) is burned, which reduces metabolic rate. b) Blood pressure increases, which reduces maximum heart rate. c) Fat mass decreases, which reduces power output. d) Glycogen stores deplete, which lowers anaerobic threshold.

Copyright law covers which of the following? a) Replication and distribution of client handouts b) Maintaining copies of Informed Consent documents c) Keeping client files locked up d) Updating health history documents annually

Copyrights protect original works of authorship such as: a) Fitness videos. b) Fitness programs. c) Ideas. d) Facts.

In designing business advertising, a market niche refers to: a) A client group with similar needs and goals. b) A client group seeing the specific skills and services offered by your business. c) A client group with a greater likelihood of purchasing multiple session. d) A client group that is most likely to purchase services.

In general, elbow injuries are a result of: a) Overuse or repetitive motion. b) Overactive biceps. c) Lack of radio-ulnar range of motion. d) Overactive triceps.

In negligence law, Personal Trainers may create legal obligations or duties not normally present if they: a) Advertise guaranteed outcomes. b) Teach contraindicated exercise. c) Violate industry standards of care. d) Fail to conduct client screening.

Which of the following BEST communicates client's energy level? a) Hand position b) Posture and stance c) Eye contact d) Voice intonation

In terms of equipment use, proactive steps to managing and minimizing risk include: a) Reviewing how to use each piece of equipment with all clients. b) Interviewing clients to determine the need to review each piece of equipment with them. c) Only using a small number of pieces of equipment. d) Teaching clients how to report equipment issues to facility management.

Muscular endurance is defined as: a) The ability to apply a force repeatedly over time. b) The number of muscle spindles recruited during a maximal contraction. c) A one-time maximal force that may be exerted and is localized to a joint or muscle group. d) The amount of motor units recruited in 8 to 12 reps.

Once the primary goal of a resistance program has been established, the next step is to determine: a) the specific joints, ROM, and types of muscle actions required. b) the amount of overload, type of plyometrics, and limb velocities. c) the amount of neurological adaptations required. d) the amount of muscle hypertrophy.

One of the major benefits of exercise for diabetic clients is: a) Improved insulin sensitivity and blood glucose control and decreased insulin requirements. b) Improved blood glucose sensitivity and increased insulin requirements. c) Reduced insulin sensitivity and blood glucose control and increased insulin requirements. d) Decreased surface area of receptor sites and improved blood glucose.

Which of the following common characteristics are reported by those experiencing symptoms consistent with coronary artery disease? a) "Heaviness" b) "Beating" c) "Pounding" d) "Light-headed"

Per the ACSM Code of Ethics for Certified and Registered Professionals, Personal Trainers practice within the scope of their: a) Knowledge, skills, and abilities. b) Academic background. c) Professional standards and integrity. d) Formal education and training.

The muscles that function to adduct the hip joint are collectively in which area of the hip? a) Medial b) Anterior c) Lateral d) Posterior

The negative effects of a lower metabolic rate include which of the following? a) Higher body weight b) Increased lean muscle mass c) Higher resting heart rate d) Elevated blood pressure

The products that make up cardiac output are: a) Heart rate and stroke volume b) VO2max and heart rate c) Stroke volume and VO2max d) Mean arterial pressure and heart rate

The purpose of ACSM recertification is to: a) Ensure skill and knowledge enhancement above minimum competence. b) Audit documentation of education courses completed. c) Confirm continued CPR certification. d) Prevent the need to retake the certification exam.

The simplest and least expensive business model is a(n): a) Sole proprietorship. b) Limited liability company. c) Independent contractor. d) S corporation.

The ulna bone is ________ to the humerus bone. a) Distal b) Posterior c) Proximal d) Anterior

The upper trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula and the lower trapezius causes ________ rotation of the scapula. a) Upward; upward b) Downward; upward c) Upward; protraction d) Downward; retraction

There is some evidence to suggest that static stretching may contribute to a decrease in: a) Muscular strength b) Muscle extensibility c) Muscular hypertrophy d) Muscle elasticity

To build a successful client relationship, you should: a) Use a client-centered approach. b) Offer excellent customer service and hospitality. c) Provide unsolicited advice for motivation. d) Demonstrate your knowledge and professionalism frequently.

Which of the following assesses the number of pros and cons perceived about adopting and maintaining an activity? a) Process of change b) Decisional balance c) Operant conditioning d) Self-efficacy

To create an optimal training environment, the Personal Trainer should: a) Provide immediate corrective feedback to ensure client safety. b) Encourage the client to finish the last few repetitions of a difficult exercise. c) Position the client's body as needed to promote kinesthetic awareness. d) Provide as much positive feedback during initial sessions.

Which of the following is considered a long bone? a) Sphenoid b) Radius c) Sesamoid d) Scaphoid

To ensure agreement between you and the client with respect to motivation and goals, you should: a) Explore the client's expectations and prior experience. b) Allow the client to plan the initial training activities. c) Establish a basic program for the client to start a regimen. d) Determine the client's present level of physical fitness.

To provide a safe environment during balance training, you should: a) Have spotters close by. b) Start on a slightly unstable surface. c) Start on a stable surface. d) Use a stability ball next to the wall.

What is the best cue to give someone who locks their knees during a squat? a) "Make sure to always keep a slight bend in your knees." b) "Don't lock your knees at the top of the movement." c) "Don't fully extend your legs and lock your knees." d) "Do not let your knees push back when you squat."

Which of the following is considered a risk factor for Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease (CVD)? a) HDL = 70 b) Sedentary c) BMI of 27 d) Woman, age 45

What is the best plan of action to always practice when spotting a client? a) Ask your clients for permission before physically touching them to ensure that they are comfortable with it. b) Only spot clients when they are using heavy weights. c) Spotting is only needed during the bench press. d) Always spot by touching the muscles involved in the movement.

As it relates to behavior modification, which of the following does NOT require a client to be committed to behavior change? a) Transtheoretical model of change b) Self cognitive theory c) Theory of planned behavior d) Health belief model

Which of the following is considered a risk factor? a) Body mass index of 28 kg · m-2 b) Systolic blood pressure of 143 mm Hg c) Serum cholesterol of 195 mg · dL-1 d) HDL cholesterol of 66 mg · dL-1

A client discloses that her spouse is undergoing some mild depression. Which response would be MOST appropriate? a) "I'm sorry to hear that. I hope he feels better soon." b) "Have you considered getting professional help? I could refer you to a clinical psychologist." c) "I would think that your spouse would be the last person to experience this. Is there anything I can do?" d) "One of my clients experienced the same thing. Would you like to talk to him?"

A highly trained male athlete, age 25, with a resting heart rate of 50, increases his VO2max by exercising at which of the following heart rate ranges? a) 173 to 188 bpm b) 166 to 185 bpm c) 165 to 175 bpm d) 145 to 155 bpm

When communicating or discussing any sensitive or private topic with a client, you should do so: a) In person. b) Via a text message. c) Via e-mail. d) Via a post-it note.

Which of the following is considered a hinge joint? a) Elbow b) Humeroulnar c) Humeroradial d) Hip

Which of the following is one of the principal symptoms of cardiac and pulmonary disease? a) Dyspnea b) Valsalva maneuver c) Ischemia d) Tachycardia

While training your client, the equipment being used is making a strange noise and is not operating smoothly. You should: a) Discontinue using the equipment and mark the equipment as out of order. b) Continue using the equipment and attempt to determine the cause of the problem. c) Continue using the equipment and report the noise to the facility manager immediately afterwards. d) Discontinue using the equipment and change to another exercise for the same muscle group.

You discover the following information about Rosalyn, your new 54-year-old female client: BMI = 24.3 (68", 160 lbs) Total cholesterol: 190 mg·dL-1 HDL cholesterol: 62 mg·dL-1 Blood pressure: 128/84 mm Hg with antihypertensive medication Former smoker: quit 2 months ago Family history: Father diagnosed with coronary heart disease at age 54 Walks to work 8 minutes each way Based on this information above, you determine that Rosalyn has: a) 3 positive and 1 negative risk factors. b) 2 positive and 1 negative risk factors. c) 3 positive and 2 negative risk factors. d) 1 positive and 0 negative risk factors.

You have a 4'8" female client who is obese and would like to build lower body strength. Which exercise variation is best suited for her? a) Kettle bell squat b) Leg curl machine c) Hip extension machine d) Leg extension machine

Before any health and fitness assessment is administered, the MOST important first course of action is to: a) Obtain baseline heart rate and respiration. b) Explain and demonstrate each assessment before the client is tested. c) Have the client read about the assessment and understand the testing norms. d) Ensure that the client is properly hydrated.

Behavior Change Theory is important because it allows for interventions that are replicable, sustainable, and: a) Customizable. b) Generalizable. c) Effective. d) Functional.

A 33-year-old female has a bench press weight ratio of .63. What rep range would you start her with? a) 4 to 6 b) 8 to 12 c) 15 to 20 d) 10 to 15

A 48-year-old female client has very tight gastrocnemius muscles. To facilitate permanent changes in the length of these muscles, in what position should the foot be placed and for what duration? a) Everted position for 2 to 3 minutes b) Dorsiflexed position for 60 seconds c) Plantarflexed position for 30 to 40 seconds d) Inverted position for 30 to 40 seconds

Which strategy is an effective strategy for improving exercise adherence? a) Make primary decisions regarding clients programs so that they can focus on the exercises. b) Revisit client goals during reassessments so they coincide with progress toward goals. c) Maintain records of workouts to free-up the client from unnecessary administrative tasks. d) Help the client move from external feedback to internal feedback for self-regulation.

Which type of goals should be avoided when creating a SMART goal? a) Measurable b) Broad c) Specific d) Realistic

Which type of stretch would be best for opening up the external rotators of the hips? a) Supine rotation stretch b) Supine hip rotator stretch c) Supine knee to chest stretch d) Side lying quad stretch

A preactivity screen is used to assess a client's: a) Goals. b) Motivation. c) Health and medical history. d) Behavior change aptitude.

Which activity is the best choice for a pregnant woman? a) Tennis b) Light skiing c) Walking d) Softball

Which of the following business structures has the benefit of limited risk and exposure of personal assets? a) Franchisee b) Partnership c) S corporation d) Independent contractor

Which strategy is LEAST appropriate for a client who is at risk of relapsing during vacation? a) "In case you don't find a gym to workout, exercise by doing your sightseeing on foot." b) "If you can't work out four times a week while on vacation, workout twice a week" c) "You just have to exercise whenever you can." d) "If you continue your exercise, think of how you are maintaining all gains you've made."

Your 40-year-old female client is ready to get started losing 15 pounds for the new year after being sedentary for about a year. She wants to focus on strength training as she has heard that this will help sculpt her body. You recommend that she: a) Obtain a diet plan from a registered dietitian first. b) Receive medical clearance from her primary health care provider. c) Increase her metabolism with aerobic activity and progressive strength training. d) Undergo a body composition assessment using hydrostatic weighing for a baseline measure.

Your 50-year-old client wants to lose weight, but is concerned she will "get big" with strength training. Given her concerns you should: a) Start with aerobic exercise with circuit training using multiple sets, high reps, and light resistance to help her feel comfortable. b) Demonstrate empathy by ensuring a program design that will help her to get toned. c) Educate her on how resistance training can help her gain lean muscle and raise resting metabolism. d) Provide assurance that she has nothing to worry about as this outcome will be avoided.

Your client consistently repeats your exercise instructions several times to make sure he can remember the proper position and movements as he is a ________ learner. a) Tactile b) Kinesthetic c) Auditory d) Visual

Your client eats a 1,200 kcal/day diet, with 30% of calories from fat. How many grams of fat per day does the client eat? a) 20 grams b) 80 grams c) 40 grams d) 60 grams

Your client is taking a multivitamin supplement, and she has no specific nutrient deficiencies. You recommend the supplement provide: a) At least 50% of the RDA. b) Extra calcium. c) No more than 100% of the RDA. d) 200% of the RDA for iron.

According to the ________, clients will be more likely to change if they have a positive attitude about change, feel it's enjoyable and controllable, and recognize the value of change. a) Goal Setting Theory b) Intention Theory c) Socioecological Theory d) Theory of Planned Behavior

Motivational interviewing should be performed during which stage of the client-contact? a) Initial consultation b) Screening process c) Program design d) Coaching

Where does gas exchange occur in the respiratory system? a) Bronchi b) Pharynx c) Larynx d) Alveoli

Which of the following muscles is involved in a dumbbell wrist curl? a) Pronator quadratus b) Extensor carpi ulnaris c) Extensor carpi radialis d) Palmaris longus

Which of the following BEST assesses lower-body muscular strength? a) Bodyweight squat b) 10-RM leg press c) Standing long jump d) 1-RM squat

Ankle edema may be indicative of which of the following? a) Congestive heart failure b) Claudication c) Anterior compartment syndrome d) Posterior compartment syndrome

Which type of routine would be best for a client with low back pain? a) Light rowing machine work to strengthen the low back. b) Restorative exercise designed to improve the structural integrity of the lower trunk c) Stretching all the lower trunk and lower leg muscles. d) Flexion and rotation exercises of the trunk to increase strength.

For Personal Trainers to minimize legal risks of training they should be aware of potential areas for liability and: a) Conform to professional standards. b) Engage legal experts when needed. c) Work with clients of lower risk. d) Work to minimize those risks.

A Personal Trainer who wants to provide massage to help clients who have tight or sore muscles can do so ONLY if: a) The Personal Trainer becomes a licensed massage therapist. b) The client gives his or her consent for the massage. c) The massage therapist is not available, and the Personal Trainer has some training. d) The Personal Trainer has extensive knowledge about the benefits of massage.

A beginning older adult starting a resistance training program would benefit most from how many repetitions per exercise? a) 10 to 15 b) 8 to 12 c) 15 to 20 d) 4 to 6

The ACSM certification is valid for: a) 3 years. b) 2 years. c) 5 years. d) 1 year.

Your client has been performing cardiovascular exercise for 30 to 60 minutes, 3 times per week. During your 3 month assessment you would expect her submaximal heart rate to: a) Decrease by 10% b) Stay the same c) Increase by 10% d) Decrease by 50%

Your regular female client becomes dizzy after a weight training session. Your best response would be to: a) Refer her to her physician b) Make note and reduce the load for the next workout c) Switch from strength training to circuit training d) Switch her to cardio training only

Which sport will mostly cause a shoulder impingement due to overtraining? a) Soccer b) Swimming c) Hockey d) Golf

You are performing a submaximal treadmill test for your client where you are gradually increasing the speed and grade. You observe a normal response to heart rate and blood pressure during the first several stages. During the next increase in speed and grade, you observe that SBP drops about 12 mm Hg. You should: a) Return to the previous speed and grade. b) Terminate the assessment. c) Return to the previous speed only. d) Return back to the previous grade only.

You are working with an older adult who is on high blood pressure medication. What is the best way to monitor his cardiovascular intensity? a) Karvonen formula b) RPE scale 0-10 c) Age-predicted maximum heart rate d) Talk test

Your client is convinced that a particular ingredient in a supplement will help his training goals. Which of the following is MOST accurate statement regarding this? a) Supplements should be considered if they are clinically proven for effectiveness. b) Neither registered dietitians nor physicians are certain about the ingredients in many supplements. c) Anecdotal evidence from multiple sources is typically compeling evidence for use. d) Supplements should be considered if they are approved by the Food and Drug Administration.

Your client states that she enjoys exercising and feeling the "burning sensation" in her muscles. This statement indicates that she learns best through: a) Program design skills. b) Intrinsic motivation. c) Self-esteem. d) Extrinsic motivation.

A credentialed professional must properly ________ any nonoriginal ideas that are utilized for business practices. a) Implement b) Replicate c) Cite d) Commend

Children are more prone to ________ injuries than adults. a) Tendon b) Cold c) Heat d) Ankle

Which exercise would be best suited for an advanced athlete? a) Static lunge b) Supine leg press c) Clean and jerk d) Bosu ball squat

With respect to social cognitive theory, which of the following will result in the desired behavior change? a) The client is confident he can double his push-up total in 3 weeks. b) The client feels like a failure because she cannot perform a plank for more than 10 seconds. c) The client believes he can lose 2 pounds a week for the next two months. d) The client feels incompetent because she cannot balance well on one leg for 20 seconds or more.

Without enough CECs to renew certification, there is a ________ grace period to complete credits, during which your certification is inactive. a) 6 weeks b) 1 month c) 6 months d) 3 months

You observe a long outward curve of the thoracic spine with an exaggerated curve. This postural deviation is known as: a) Flat back. b) Lordosis. c) Kyphosis. d) Sway back.

A 40-year-old homemaker has come to you to lose weight and reduce back pain. You realize she uses her pain to get attention from her family. Which statement would best motivate her to begin a strengthening program? a) Strength training will make you feel young again, and you won't need the attention you are craving from your family. b) I will mix strength training and running together in your program to take your mind off your worries and stress. c) Low back pain is hard to correct; however, if you work hard you will overcome this issue, and you can focus on your family. d) Starting a strengthening program will reduce your back pain and improve your quality of life, enabling you to spend more positive time with your family.

A Personal Trainer may begin immediately training which of the following clients? a) A 56-year-old female client who takes a calcium channel blocker b) A 49-year-old male client who has an abdominal hernia c) A 45-year-old male client who has asthma d) A 42-year-old female client who has lumbar lordosis

HIPAA laws apply to which form of client records? a) Soft copy b) Electronic copy c) Hard copy original documents d) Electronic and hard copy

Client records should be maintained for: a) 3 to 5 years. b) 10 years c) 1 year. d) 2 years.

Sharing a story of a struggle you have had in the past with weight loss is an example of: a) Self-disclosure. b) Empathy. c) Feedback. d) Support.

Which of the following allied health professionals may provide medical clearance for exercise participation? a) Nurse practitioner b) Athletic trainer c) Exercise physiologist d) Respiratory therapist

Which of the following body composition assessments BEST represents body weight distribution? a) Skinfold measurement b) Waist-to-hip ratio c) Bioelectrical impedance analysis d) Body mass index

Which of the following can help a client transition from one stage of change to the next? a) Role models b) Self-efficacy c) Self-directed goals d) Health concerns

Which of the follow assessments assesses flexibility? a) Push-up test b) Step test c) Sit-and-reach d) Curl-up test

A characteristic sign of heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency is: a) Bilateral ankle edema. b) Anasarca. c) Generalized edema. d) Unilateral limb edema.

A client who states that he or she can participate confidently in an exercise program: a) Has good self-efficacy related to exercise. b) Is intrinsically motivated. c) Has very strong self-esteem. d) Is in the contemplation stage of behavior change.

A feature of cardiac disease symptoms that are ischemic in origin is: a) Squeezing burning pain. b) Sharp stabbing pain. c) Pain aggravated by respiration. d) Dull aching pain.

A female client is 52-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 70 mg·dL-1. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does she have? a) 0 b) 2 c) -1 d) 1

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act went into effect in which year? a) 2003 b) 2010 c) 1986 d) 1996

Your hypertensive client has been cleared to exercise by a physician. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate program? a) Moderate cardiovascular and low-intensity resistance training b) Dietary restriction and high-intensity cardiovascular training c) Moderate cardiovascular and high-intensity strength training d) Stationary cycling and salt restriction

Your potential client has a history of swollen ankles and reports shortness of breath when walking up the stairs. You would classify this as: a) High risk and require that the client obtain a physician's clearance. b) High risk and start the client on a low-intensity exercise that progresses gradually. c) Moderate risk and start the client on a low-intensity exercise that progresses gradually. d) Moderate risk and require that the client undergo exercise testing under a physician's supervision.

____________ is the pressure exerted on the arterial wall during the ventricular contraction phase. a) Systolic blood pressure b) Diastolic blood pressure c) Stroke volume d) Cardiac output

A behavioral job interview for a Personal Trainer candidate uses experience-based questions, based on the idea that: a) Experienced Personal Trainers will be able to accurately answer questions. b) Future behavior is predicted by past behavior. c) Candidates should demonstrate how they work with clients in a mock session. d) Asking about past experiences is more important than typical interview-type questions.

A client is frustrated with his difficulty in reaching his personal goal of losing 30 pounds in eight weeks. You should: a) Recommend a more severe caloric restriction. b) Discuss the client's expectations and examine his goals. c) Suggest a greater emphasis on strength training. d) Suggest an increase in the level of intensity or duration of aerobic activity.

Which joint movement occurs in the transverse plane? a) Abduction b) Internal rotation c) Adduction d) Flexion

Which of the following is the BEST example of a corrective statement? a) "Your spine is not in neutral alignment." b) "Well done. Now check your knee alignment." c) "You are bouncing in your stretch; hold it steady." d) "Don't lock your knees like that."

Which of the following is the MOST accurate definition of glycogen? a) Composed of insoluble fiber b) The storage form of glucose c) A simple carbohydrate d) A nutrient needed for weight maintenance

Which of the following is utilized to obtain critical client information? a) PAR-Q b) Client Intake Form c) Personal Trainer-Client Agreement d) Medical Clearance Form

Which of the following muscles exerts an upward pull on the posterior surfaces of the pelvis resulting in a neutral pelvic position? a) Hip flexors b) Erector spinae c) Hamstrings d) Rectus abdominis

Which of the following provides emotional support for a new client? a) Having family members assist in achieving short-term goals b) Having family and friends encourage regular attendance c) Providing praise and reward when possible d) Showing baseline and progress toward goals frequently

Which of the following results from regular resistance training? a) Increased aerobic enzymes b) Increase in bone density c) Increase in respiratory capacity d) Improved cardiac output efficiency

Which of the following should be avoided in hypertensive clients? a) Isokinetic muscle contractions b) Isometric muscle contractions c) Eccentric muscle contractions d) Concentric muscle contractions

Which of the following types of resistance training allows an individual to exert maximal resistance throughout an entire range of motion by controlling the movement speed? a) Eccentric b) Isokinetic c) Concentric d) Isotonic

Which sport is performed primarily in the aerobic-oxidation system? a) 100-meter swim b) Cycling c) Gymnastics d) 200- to 440-meter dash

While training, wearing a shirt with a facility logo that indicates "Personal Trainer" ensures a professional look and also: a) Demonstrates the Trainer's knowledge. b) Provides visual representation of your relationship with the client. c) Provides advertising for the Trainer. d) Abides with the facility's dress code.

Why are great volumes of sweat produced in hot, humid climates? a) Sweat is too salty. b) Sweat glands close. c) Sweat becomes ineffective. d) Sweat evaporates.

You client forgets to bring the service introduction packet but is dressed appropriately for exercise. You should: a) Give the client another packet to complete, and obtain medical clearance by the next session. b) At a minimum, have the client sign the Informed Consent and fill out their Health/Medical History Evaluation. c) Reschedule the appointment, and underscore the importance of having all forms completed and signed. d) Have the client sign an Informed Consent so that you can still begin training.

A Personal Trainer agrees to adhere to the ACSM Code of Ethics: a) When a printed copy is furnished and then acknowledge by signature. b) Once the candidate earns a passing score on the certification exam. c) When training a client as an ACSM Certified professional. d) When registering for the ACSM Personal Trainer certification exam.

A key area of education that Personal Trainers should focus on with their clients is: a) Principles of muscle hypertrophy. b) Appropriate weight room etiquette. c) Safe use of cardiovascular equipment. d) Proper breathing technique.

Your client who is a novice exerciser demonstrates that he can perform a 1 repetition maximum bench press at 100 lbs. What would be an appropriate starting resistance for the first set of 12 repetitions? a) 40 to 45 lbs b) 85 to 90 lbs c) 50 to 55 lbs d) 65 to 70 lbs

Your new client is training 4 to 6 times a week for an annual 5K run and is not progressing as fast as she planned. To help her improve her performance, you should: a) Evaluate her training achievements. b) Provide a program card to record activities. c) Increase the number of training sessions. d) Understand her attitude towards training.

Your new client states that she likes to feel the "burn" in her muscles during strength training. Based on this, you should provide primarily which type of cueing? a) Alignment b) Safety c) Motivational d) Tactile

Which muscle group is responsible for hip extension? a) Gluteus maximus b) Quadriceps c) Quadratus lumborum d) Iliopsoas

Your client has a set a goal of running 3 times per week, for 2 months, in order to increase his fitness level and lose weight. What is the best way to measure this goal? a) Track the duration and intensity for each workout in a daily log. b) Track his daily eating habits and emotional relationship to exercise. c) Weight him each week, and track his weekly caloric intake. d) Measure his VO2max max weekly and track his miles for the week.

Your potential 37-year-old client is on medication to control her hypertension and wishes to start a moderate-intensity exercise program. She has no other risk factors. You should: a) Ensure that her primary health care provider signs the Informed Consent Form. b) Design an exercise program that starts at a lower intensity. c) Require that she obtain medical clearance prior to exercise. d) Take baseline blood pressure readings.

A lumbar vertebrae is an example of a ________ bone. a) Short b) Flat c) Sesamoid d) Irregular

A good technique for teaching clients proper form is: a) Use a set-up phase prior to the exercise. b) Demonstrate an exercise at least twice. c) Use hands-on adjustments each time. d) Describe proper form in detail.

A manifestation of coronary artery disease is: a) Pain that occurs with exertion or exercise. b) Jaw discomfort that occurs first thing in the morning. c) Tightness of the muscles between both scapulae during overhead activities. d) A dull ache in the low back that occurs with movement.

A measure of how different consumed carbohydrate foods affect blood sugar level is: a) The Glycemic Index. b) The Glucose Index. c) The thermic effect of food. d) Insulin response.

A mutual friend of yours is also a friend of your female client. At a social setting, this mutual friend asks how her training is going. You respond by saying: a) "I'm sorry, but I can't discuss this with you." b) "I'm not able to talk about details, but she's progressing slowly." c) "You'll need to ask her for permission first." d) "How do you think she's doing?"

A posterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________ and an anterior pelvic tilt produces lumbar ________. a) Flexion; extension b) Extension; flexion c) Flexion; flexion d) Extension; extension

The right/wrong method of cueing is appropriate for a client having difficulty with which of the following? a) Position of neutral pelvis b) Selection of exercise mode c) Rating of perceived exertion d) Blood pressure assessment

Which of the following can help promote exercise adherence? a) Online and print newsletters b) Online advertising c) Promotional training packages d) Online testimonials

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to first approach an exercising facility member you believe is a prospective client? a) "May I show you a more effective way to do this exercise?" b) "Do you need help with your exercise program?" c) "Are you aware that you're doing that exercise incorrectly?" d) "I'm curious, what exactly are you trying to accomplish with that exericse?"

Which of the following are considered whole grains? a) De-germed cornmeal b) Brown rice c) White flour d) White bread

Returning a tennis serve well is due to a high level of: a) Reaction time b) Power c) Coordination d) Balance

A Personal Trainer may rehabilitate a client who is recovering from musculoskeletal injuries provided that the Trainer: a) Has a bachelor's degree in Athletic Training. b) Has expertise in this area. c) Is certified for the specific injury. d) Has a license as a physical therapist.

A client who has suffered from whiplash and has been cleared for exercise would most likely benefit from which training routine? a) Stretching the pec minor and middle trapezius and strengthening the deltoids, lower trapezius, and pec major b) Stretching the pec major, spinalis muscles, and upper trapezius, and strengthening the middle deltoids, middle trapezius, and shoulder adductors c) Stretching the teres minor, erector spinae, and levator scapulae, and strengthening the lats, middle trapezius, and sternocleidomastoid d) Stretching the levator scapulae and sternocleidomastoids, strengthening the rhomboids, neck extensors, upper trapezius, and middle trapezius

A client with low back pain should lift objects with which of the following postures? a) Lunge, using flexion and rotation to lift the object from the floor b) Squat, with the load 1 foot from the body, upper back rounded c) Straight-legged dead lift position, with the load close to the body d) Squat, with the load close to the body, chest lifted

Approximately 50% of people who start an exercise program will drop out within the first: a) 3 months. b) 12 months. c) 9 months. d) 6 months.

Which of the following muscle actions controls the movement and maintains a constant speed throughout the range of motion? a) Concentric b) Isometric c) Eccentric d) Isokinetic

In lawsuits claiming negligence, a plaintiff must prove duty, breach of duty, proximate cause, and: a) Non-conformity. b) Contract violation. c) Damages. d) Misconduct.

ACSM Certification requires that you maintain documented proof of all CECs for: a) 5 years. b) 3 years. c) As long as you maintain your certification. d) 1 year.

Disordered eating, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis are described by the term: a) Energy spectrum disorder. b) Female athlete triad. c) Female athlete spectrum. d) Female amenorrhea syndrome.

Duplication of a continuing education CD for a fellow Personal Trainer is a potential violation of: a) Tort law. b) Copyright law. c) Negligence law. d) Industry standards.

During a forward lunge, the shin on the front leg should be: a) Inside the hip. b) Vertical. c) 120° to the ankle d) 35° to the ankle.

In reviewing your client's medical history, you note that she is on lipid lowering medication and her high-density lipoprotein cholesterol is 62 mg·dL-1. Based on her profile, how many total risk factors does she have? a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) 2

Per the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, what percentage of U.S. adults meet the ACSM recommended guidelines for regular moderate-intensity activity? a) 35% b) 50% c) 10% d) 20%

Per the USDA, Dairy Group choices should be: a) Low-fat. b) Butter. c) Cream cheese. d) Cream.

Preparticipation health screenings during initial client consultation helps Personal Trainers to maximize ________ and minimize ________. a) Benefit; risk b) Use of time; wasted effort c) Interest; boredom d) Trainer knowledge; injury

When exercising in the heat, which material works best to keep the body cool? a) Polyester b) Nylon c) Cotton d) CoolMax

Regular cardiorespiratory, resistance, flexibility, and neuromotor exercise training is ________ for most adults. a) Considered essential b) Highly recommended c) Beneficial d) Appropriately safe

Standards for delivering training services are set by the personal training manager who is ultimately responsible for every client's safety and: a) Customer satisfaction. b) Repeat business. c) Goal attainment. d) Referrals.

The belief of your clients in their ability to succeed is defined as: a) Self-efficacy. b) Hubris. c) Pride. d) Confidence.

The most common mineral deficiency you are likely to encounter as a Personal Trainer is: a) Iron. b) Calcium. c) Potassium. d) Magnesium.

The most commonly reported knee injury involves damage to the ________. a) Anterior cruciate ligament b) Patella c) Menisci d) Medial collateral ligament

The following statement is a definition of ________: As the body adapts to a given stimulus, an increase in the stimulus is required for further adaptations and improvements. a) Progressive overload b) Specificity of training c) Law of attraction d) SAID Principle

The foot's most stable position is in __________ due to the overall shape of the __________. a) Dorsiflexion; talus b) Plantarflexion; calcaneus c) Plantarflexion; talus d) Dorsiflexion; distal fibula

The four E's to consider when determining pricing are Education, Experience, Expenses, and: a) Environment. b) Exercise routine. c) Expertise. d) Established policies.

The goal for the 1 RM bench press is to find the 1 RM in ________ to ________ maximal efforts. a) 3 to 5 b) 6 to 8 c) 2 to 4 d) 1 to 2

Which of the following program formats would be LEAST appropriate for a beginning exerciser? a) Vigorous-intensity exercise b) Home-based training c) Small-group training d) Moderate-intensity exercise

Ron is training for leg muscle hypertrophy on the squat. He believes that by utilizing an explosive, rapid repetition speed he will increase the amount of work he is doing and thus "overload his quads better." He wants to know if his rationale is correct. Which of the following is the MOST accurate response? a) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he should be training using a constant repetition speed to maximize muscle work. b) He is incorrect in his approach and rationale, as he is using too much momentum in his training and should maximize acceleration in order to maximize work. c) He is correct in his rationale and should try to increase his repetition speed. d) He should continue to train using a rapid lifting technique to attain his goal, but his rationale is incorrect as he is increasing torque, not work.

Running is done predominately in what plane of movement? a) Sagittal b) Horizontal c) Transverse d) Frontal

During a back squat it is important to rest the barbell on: a) Upper trapezius near T2. b) Well below T4. c) Whatever feels comfortable. d) Top of the shoulder near C7.

During a back squat, the feet should be in which position? a) Shoulder-width apart and slightly turned out b) A little closer than shoulder-width apart c) Wider than shoulder-width apart and slightly turned in d) Shoulder-width apart with heels lifted

During a standing calf raise, the knee should be ________. a) Slightly flexed b) Bent to 90° c) Bent to 45° d) Completely extended

During a workout, you notice that a client displays a sudden lack of coordination and balance and, when asked, reports trouble seeing. What is the MOST likely cause of these symptoms? a) Stroke. b) Diabetes. c) Myocardial infarction. d) Claudication.

During the 1 RM bench press, it is important to ________. a) Avoid the Valsalva maneuver b) keep the hands close together c) Not lock the arms d) Inhale as you press the bar up

During the initial interview, your client discusses her exercise background. You carefully observe her body language in order to: a) Understand feelings and attitudes that relate to her spoken words. b) Observe her overall communication skills. c) Look for cues to interject words of encouragement. d) Become familiar with her posture, muscle tone, and movements.

During the interview with your client, you ask, "So what you're saying is that you feel supported by your spouse but not by your kids when you need to make time to exercise?" You ask this in order to: a) Clarify the client's statements. b) Understand the client's level of self-efficacy. c) Provide your personal points of view. d) Confirm your personal interpretation and assumptions.

During the kneeling hip flexor stretch, where should the upper body be? a) Lifted tall b) In a back bend c) Draped over the knee d) Leaning away from the front knee

Eating small but frequent meals has all of the following benefits EXCEPT: a) Decreased muscle mass. b) Maintenance of metabolic rate. c) Reduced production of stress hormones. d) Improved glucose tolerance.

Fitness center clients are entitled to, in the eyes of the court, facilities that: a) Are reasonably safe. b) Have warning signs posted. c) Are free of hazards. d) Receive annual inspection.

Fluid intake recommendations include: a) Matching fluid intake to sweat loss. b) Drinking as much as possible during activity. c) Keeping sufficient fluids nearby for consumption. d) Relying on thirst for the stimulus to drink.

For Personal Trainers who operate a business, creating an emergency plan is: a) A top priority. b) Based on each client's identified risk. c) Irrelevant. d) Dependent on where services are provided.

For a Type I diabetic, which of the following blood glucose levels is an indication to ingest a carbohydrate snack? a) 88 mg· dL-1 b) 215 mg· dL-1 c) 155 mg· dL-1 d) 110 mg· dL-1

For individuals with arthritis, a training session may have been too intense and may need to be modified if the client: a) Reports of greater joint pain the following training session. b) Experiences tightness in the lower extremities. c) Experiences decreased range of motion in the trunk. d) Reports of more soreness than usual.

Sending an e-mail to your client concerning strategies to keep active while at work and traveling is an example of: a) Informational support. b) Emotional support. c) Appraisal support. d) Tangible support.

Good advice to your clients about diet while traveling is to: a) Pack your own nutrient-dense foods for the trip. b) Not worry about diet because clients can get back to normal when they return. c) Avoid eating in restaurants. d) Cut portion sizes in half for all meals.

Helping clients set realistic goals is a good practice for Personal Trainers because: a) It promotes exercise adherence. b) Sessions are more effective. c) Exercise prescriptions are less complicated. d) Clients will be happier and more satisfied.

Higher levels of cardiovascular fitness are associated with: a) Lower mortality rates b) Increased HR and SBP at submaximal work rates c) Lower MET capacity d) Increased HR and SBP at maximal work rates

The majority of people are ________ learners. a) Dynamic b) Tactile c) Auditory d) Visual

A Personal Trainer working for a facility that maintains electronic client records should: a) Password protect files and never leave the computer with client files open for viewing. b) Alert the facility manager of the need to also keep hard copy files for liability reasons. c) Ensure the computer system is securely designed with protection against hacking. d) Maintain hard copy documents in their own client files for reference outside the facility.

A physiologic adaptation to aerobic conditioning in untrained individuals will result in a/an ________ in resting heart rate and a/an ________ in exercise heart rate at a submaximal effort. a) Decrease, decrease b) Decrease, increase c) Increase, increase d) Increase, decrease

A sedentary lifestyle is defined as NOT participating in at least: a) 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months. b) 30 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 5 days per week, for at least 3 months. c) 75 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 5 days per week, for at least 3 months. d) 75 minutes of moderate intensity activity, at least 3 days per week, for at least 3 months.

A written document provided to the client sharing health and fitness information to achieve understanding of participation options is called: a) Informed Consent b) Health assessment c) Release of information d) Medical Clearance Form

ADA Dietary Guidelines recommend that individuals over age 50 consume foods fortified with which vitamin? a) B12 b) K c) E d) D

Academic teaching and lecturing qualify for up to ________ of CECs towards ACSM certification renewal. a) 30% b) 75% c) 10% d) 50%

All of the following provide energy sources for physical activity EXCEPT: a) Vitamins. b) Fat. c) Protein. d) Carbohydrates.

Analysis of the strength or weaknesses of business competition helps determine: a) The market share that can be expected for your business. b) Demand for services similar to what your business will provide. c) Business prices to ensure lowest cost for service. d) Which will be the most viable business model.

Appropriate professional behavior for certified Personal Trainers includes: a) Conservative fitness clothing such as a polo shirt and professional sweats. b) Fitness attire consisting of shorts and a tank top. c) T-shirts with marketing of approved energy drinks. d) Form-fitting fitness attire.

Business owners are legally required to identify and eliminate reasonably foreseeable risks and to: a) Adequately warn customers of any persistently hazardous conditions. b) Visibly display information on emergency procedures. c) Mitigate risk potential due to staff incompetence. d) Hire only appropriately certified Personal Trainers.

Carrying professional liability insurance transfers risk to the insurer because: a) The insurance company assumes responsibility for resolving any claims. b) Non-certified Personal Trainers can be covered in the policy. c) Negligence laws don't apply if a trainer is covered. d) Insurance companies are funded to support lawsuits.

Deborah recently went through menopause and is finding that maintaining her weight isn't as easy as it used to be and she would like to lose weight. Her husband is not supportive of exercise, and Deborah is not motivated without his support. What is the best exercise-self regulation strategy for helping Deborah begin a successful exercise program? a) Revisit Deborah's motivations for exercise, and encourage her to replace her weight loss goals with goals related to meeting new people, relieving stress, and feeling good. b) Consider encouraging Deborah to have a serious conversation with her husband about how important staying active is to her and how she needs his support in order to be successful. c) Deborah should be motivated through using tape measurements and scale measurements at least once a week so she can see she is on target to lose weight. d) Encourage Deborah to set a goal of losing 2 pounds a week so she has something measurable to obtain each and every week.

Deviations in which plane are referred to as "hyperlordosis"? a) Sagittal b) Transverse c) Frontal d) Horizontal

Direct marketing sales efforts with signs, flyers, and brochures have a low return on investment because: a) They depend on the client to respond to the marketing piece. b) They cost too much money to create. c) They require a trademarked business name to produce. d) Too many copies are needed to recruit clients.

HIPAA laws apply to Personal Trainers working: a) Under a health care provider. b) With any client under physician care. c) With all clients. d) In fitness facilities with medical professionals on staff.

How many minutes of moderate intensity exercise per week are recommended by ACSM for weight loss or to help maintain weight loss? a) 150 minutes b) 180 minutes c) 90 minutes d) 120 minutes

If you take special care to end the initial new client meeting with personalization and hospitality, clients will MOST likely: a) Be motivated and inspired to return for the next visit. b) Be concerned that you may not have their best interests in mind. c) Have doubts they are spending their money wisely. d) Question your ability to help them meet their goals.

Improvements in muscular endurance are a result of: a) Increased capillary density b) Increase in myofibrils c) Increased ATP from the KREB cycle d) Increased fatty oxidation

In a corporation profits are: a) Paid as dividend and taxed for each shareholder. b) Paid to business owners after corporate taxes are taken. c) Demanded of stockholders in exchange for investing in the business. d) Reinvested in the business.

In describing the relationship between weight and energy, if a person eats more than they expend, the excess energy is ________, and body weight will ________. a) Stored; increase b) Burned; decrease c) Stored; decrease d) Burned; increase

In what way can a Personal Trainer demonstrate interest and compassion? a) Make eye contact and take notes. b) Mimic the client's emotions and tone of voice. c) Give verbal feedback after each statement. d) Talk in a soft voice and nod the head often.

Individuals with hyperkyphosis would benefit most from which stretch? a) Pectoralis major stretch b) Iliopsoas stretch c) Erector spinae stretch d) Quadratus lumborum stretch

Managing your business budget is typically performed with a computer as software programs help organize finances and: a) Aid in tax reporting. b) Provide accountability. c) Assess liability. d) Negate the need for professional assistance.

Marti is performing unilateral standing calf raises with a dumbbell held in the ipsilateral hand. You cue her to stand up tall and lean back slightly while performing the exercise to ________ and make the exercise ________, thereby increasing efficiency. a) Lengthen the lever arm; more difficult b) Shorten the lever arm; more difficult c) Lengthen the lever arm; easier d) Shorten the lever arm; easier

Minimizing the length of the ________ phase maximizes the use of elastic energy in plyometric training. a) Amortization b) Concentric c) Isometric d) Eccentric

Most claims against fitness facilities and fitness professionals are for injuries related to: a) Falls on the training premises. b) Bad nutrition advice. c) Equipment malfunctions. d) Cardiovascular episodes.

Optimal client goals should be ________. a) S.M.A.L.L. b) 6 months c) 3 months d) T.A.L.L.

Patrick has shoulder impingement syndrome. He has been referred to you by a physical therapist for strengthening of his shoulder complex and to begin first with a closed chain exercise. Which progression is MOST appropriate? a) Push-up plus off a wall -> shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press b) High-rep bench press -> shoulder IR/ER -> abdominal crunch c) Shoulder IR/ER -> seated DB press -> push-up plus d) Shoulder IR/ER -> push-up plus -> seated DB press

Personal Trainer candidates undergoing a skills assessment should be evaluated for providing explanations and modification, acting professionally, and: a) Addressing client questions and concerns. b) Ability to adequately document things. c) Their fitness level. d) Understanding of complex terms.

Personal Trainers gear workouts to address client concerns. Education is an important component in order to: a) Make sessions more meaningful for clients. b) Promote client satisfaction and loyalty. c) Ensure client goals are met on-time. d) Provide a wider variety of exercises.

Personal Trainers using weight machines can design instruction and supervision procedures for each exercise that include: a) Checking for proper body alignment and equipment setup. b) Inquiring if the client is familiar with the machine through previous use. c) Looking for hazards around the machine that may impact use. d) Documenting the weight the client lifts as well as number of reps and sets.

Sexual harassment is an area of potential liability for Personal Trainers; claims are difficult to prove and often rest on: a) Credibility. b) Documentation of sessions. c) Hearsay. d) Witness testimony.

Since clients will have different levels of experience in using various machines for exercises, you should: a) Provide specific instructions and supervision. b) Start with open kinetic-chain exercises before moving on to closed kinetic-chain exercises. c) Advise clients to use equipment they are comfortable with. d) Start with closed-chain exercises before moving on to open chain exercises.

Skinfold caliper assessment of body fat percentage can be very accurate if: a) The technician is properly trained and experienced. b) The calipers have been used more than 100 times. c) The client has a high level of subcutaneous fat. d) It is used in conjunction with BMI.

Sole proprietorship, or independent operation of a personal training business, does not afford the Personal Trainer any protection of: a) Personal assets. b) Tax implications. c) Negligence. d) Liability.

Strength gains during early phases of resistance training are largely due to changes in the: a) Nervous system b) Myofilaments c) Respiratory system d) Sarcomeres

Syncope is defined as: a) Loss of consciousness. b) Shortness of breath during exercise. c) An unpleasant sensation of forceful or rapid heart beats. d) Shortness of breath that occurs during rest.

The PRIMARY purpose of continuing education for Personal Trainers is to: a) Keep up to date with the latest research and exercise guidelines for health and fitness. b) Earn promotions so they can advance their careers. c) Increase earnings potential by adding specialty certifications. d) Enhance their resumes to attract more clients.

The _________ is responsible for collecting blood from the lungs and pumping it to the body. a) Left atrium and left ventricle b) Left atrium and right ventricle c) Right atrium and left ventricle d) Right atrium and right ventricle

The best exercise routine for a client with thoracic outlet syndrome would be? a) Correcting faulty biomechanics, strengthening the rotator cuff, and stretching the shoulder internal rotators and scalenes. b) Correcting faulty biomechanics, strengthening the rhomboids, and stretching the latissimus dorsi and sternocleidomastoid c) Correcting faulty biomechanics, strengthening the scalenes, and stretching the rotator cuff adductors and upper trapezius d) Correcting faulty biomechanics, strengthening the deltoids, and stretching the shoulder external rotators and levator scapulae

The clavicle is _________ to the pelvis. a) Superior b) Posterior c) Inferior d) Anterior

The easiest way to tell if you are dehydrated is: a) Urine color. b) Sweat rate. c) Thirst. d) Breath speed.

The five stages of change from the Transtheoretical Model include precontemplation, contemplation, maintenance, action, and: a) Preparation. b) Relapse. c) Resistance. d) Modification.

The ideal resistance training repetition range and set range for a healthy adult just starting an exercise program, with no previous exercise history, would be: a) 8 to 12 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 2 to 3 times per week. b) 8 to 12 reps, for 2 to 3 sets, 2 to 3 times per week. c) 15 to 20 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 3 to 4 times per week. d) 6 to 8 reps, for 1 to 2 sets, 3 to 4 times per week.

The long-term viability of a Personal Trainer's business is largely dependent on: a) Repeat business. b) Client injury prevention. c) Education level. d) Competitive rates.

The minimum number of minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity needed five days each week is: a) 30 minutes b) 20 minutes c) 45 minutes d) 60 minutes

The mnemonic FERPA stands for: a) Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act b) Federal Exercise Rights and Policy Act c) Family Exercise Rules and Policy Act d) Federal Education Rules and Privacy Act

The recommended calorie/energy distribution for athletes and physically active adults includes which of the following? a) 45% to 65% of total calories from carbohydrates b) No more than 10% of total calories from fat c) Less that 10% of total calories from protein d) 20% to 30% of total calories from carbohydrates

The thumb is classified as a ________ joint. a) Saddle b) Pivot c) Ellipsoidal d) Ball and socket

The two ergogenic aids shown to clearly improve a person's capacity to perform better are: a) Water and carbohydrates. b) Omega-3 fatty acids and fish oil. c) Caffeine and ephedrine. d) Protein and creatine.

The volume of blood pumped by the heart in liters per minute is defined as__________. a) Cardiac output b) Diastolic blood pressure c) Systolic blood pressure d) Stroke volume

What would be a good way to describe how to improve posture in a 39-year-old female who works in an office all day? a) Every two hours at work, sit on the edge of the chair, and maintain a perfectly neutral spine for 60 seconds. b) When you have a lunch break, stretch your rhomboids two times. c) It is important to have your computer monitor at least 10 inches from your eyes to improve posture. d) When you are at work, take a 10-minute break every 3 hours, and walk briskly outside.

When a muscle cannot generate sufficient force to overcome external resistance, the muscle lengthens. This is known as which type of action? a) Eccentric b) Isokinetic c) Isometric d) Concentric

When adopting nonoriginal work for a personal training business, a credentialed professional should: a) Give credit to the contribution. b) Provide documentation upon request. c) List the original author and additional contributor. d) Assume authorship for the modified work.

When creating or adopting an Informed Consent document, the Personal Trainer should always: a) Obtain appropriate legal counsel. b) Provide an area for a parent or guardian signature. c) Make the form no more than one page. d) Provide verbal explanation in addition to using the form with clients.

When exercising, which statement is most true about breathing? a) Clients should never hold their breath during any contraction. b) Clients should breath out during the eccentric phase of the exercise. c) Clients should inhale during the contraction phase of the exercise. d) Clients should hold their breath during the entire movement and exhale at the very end.

When giving a client advice, Personal Trainers risk liability for acting outside their scope of practice if: a) The advice could be interpreted as unauthorized practice of a licensed professional and results in client injury. b) The advice includes promotion of a product such as a nutritional supplement. c) The advice is not supported by current medical or health and fitness research. d) The advice is given without collaborating with licensed health care practitioners.

When performing a stability ball crunch, which of the following movements indicates poor form? a) The ball moves back and forth. b) The tongue is on the roof of the mouth. c) The ball stays stationary. d) The sacrum is touching the ball.

When pricing personal training services, in addition to knowing competitor prices, it is important to consider: a) The customer clientele focused on by any competitors. b) Competitor marketing strategies. c) How long any competitors have been in business. d) Whether your potential clients have previously worked with any competitors.

When referring to scientific papers or articles, you should at least cite: a) The author's name and year of publication. b) The author's name, city, and country. c) The name of the article. d) Important implications for training.

Which back exercise would be the most sport-specific for swimming? a) Pull-up b) Seated row c) Bent-over-row d) Front raise

Which evaluation form does a client sign to acknowledge that he or she has been educated about and understands the risks associated with being active? a) Informed Consent b) Exercise History and Attitude Questionnaire c) Agreement of Release of Liability Waiver d) Medical Release

Which joint movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Adduction b) Flexion c) Extension d) Circumduction

Which muscle functions to flex the shoulder joint? a) Long head of the biceps brachii b) Short head of the biceps brachii c) Pectoralis minor d) Brachialis

Which muscles act as agonists muscles during a lateral cable leg lift? a) Gluteus medius and minimus b) Peroneals c) Adductor brevis d) Sartorius

Which muscles are prime movers for lateral flexion of the lumbar spine? a) Quadratus lumborum and internal and external obliques b) Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, and external obliques c) Iliocostalis, longissimus, and interspinalis d) Iliopsoas, rectus femoris, and tensor fascia latae

Which of the following BEST determines your client's exercise preferences? a) Interview the client before beginning the program. b) Regularly monitor your client's satisfaction and enjoyment of the sessions. c) Have the client attempt a different activity at each session for one month, and ask the client to rate which exercise was preferred. d) Write an exercise contract before your client begins the program.

Which of the following BEST promotes exercise adherence with your new client? a) Sending text messages that provide feedback following training sessions b) Telling the client "good job" following each completed exercise c) E-mailing of a copy of the workouts planned for the week d) Providing a reward system sooner than you would for long-term clients

Which of the following alters the resistance throughout an exercise's ROM in an attempt to match increases and decreases in the strength curve of a muscle? a) Variable resistance equipment b) Eccentric training c) Elastic resistance bands d) Cable crossover machine

Which of the following business practices is consistent with ethical conduct? a) Playing music specifically produced for use in fitness facilities b) Providing discounted personal training services for promotional purposes c) Marketing a branded exercise class under another name to minimze license fees d) Offering nutrition education and meal planning based on short-term goals

Which of the following clients with a known cardiovascular disease would be classified as low risk for exercise? a) A client with a resting blood pressure of 145/91 mm Hg b) A client with diabetes and hypertension c) A client with dyslipidemia and obesity d) A client with a resting heart rate of 90 beats per minute and diabetes

Which of the following counts as part of the Fruit Group? a) 100% fruit juice b) 10% fruit juice c) 50% fruit juice d) 30% fruit juice

Which of the following cues is ideal during a training session? a) "Be sure to keep your shoulders down and back." b) "You're not tilting your pelvis back enough." c) "Do not let your knee move past your toes." d) "Don't bring the dumbbell too far behind your head."

Which of the following demonstrates that the Personal Trainer is actively listening to the client? a) Nodding the head and making appropriate eye contact b) Providing personal experiences to demonstrate empathy c) Using appropriate slang and metaphors that are culturally appropriate d) Looking down and away to make the client feel more comfortable

Which of the following generally results in the greatest amount of caloric expenditure? a) High intensity, long duration b) Low-intensity exercise, low duration c) High-intensity exercise, short duration d) Low-intensity exercise, long duration

Which of the following groups of muscles describes the rotator cuff? a) Supraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and infraspinatus b) Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, latissimus dorsi, and teres minor c) Teres minor, teres major, rhomboid minor, and rhomboid major d) Teres major, joint capsule, proximal portion of biceps tendon, and acromion

Which of the following indicates that a client-centered approach is being used? a) The client is talking more than the Personal Trainer. b) The Personal Trainer is helping the client make connections between risk factors and health. c) The client is speaking at a normal pace. d) The Personal Trainer is asking closed-end questions.

Which of the following is NOT a food group and yet provides essentail nutrients? a) Oils b) Refined grains c) Eggs d) White flour

Which of the following is a component of a well-stated goal that will help ensure program satisfaction? a) Time-oriented b) Competitive c) Flexible d) Precise

Which of the following is a good example of a behavioral interview question? a) "Give an example of a goal you reached, and describe how you achieved it." b) "Do you regularly go beyond the call of duty in your work?" c) "Describe your work experience in the field of personal training." d) "What are your three biggest strengths as a Personal Trainer?"

Which of the following is a potential copyright violation? a) Retyping an educational article on your business letterhead for client distribution b) Handing out copies of ACSM articles c) Posting an original educational handout for your clients on your Web site d) Hanging ACSM articles on a bulletin board at the fitness facility

Which of the following is a sign or symptom suggestive of cardiovascular disease? a) Discomfort in the neck and jaw after carrying a heavy suitcase for a several minutes b) Shortness of breath after climbing several flights of stairs c) Dull pain in the low back while touching the toes d) Dizziness after quickly moving from a lying to standing position

Which of the following is an acute response to exercise? a) Reduced blood flow to the gut b) Reduced resting heart rate c) Reduced body fat d) Reduced resting blood pressure

Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint? a) Glenohumeral b) Acromioclavicular c) Radiounlar d) Carpal-metacarpal

Which of the following is an example of emotional support? a) A friend periodically calling to encourage sticking with a workout program b) A magazine subscription that provides your client with monthly information on exercise c) Handouts from a Personal Trainer on new exercise routines d) A client's spouse offering to cook dinner while that client works out

Which of the following is an example of the type of questions that must be asked continuously in regards to client goal development? a) Is it vital to the program's success to achieve the particular training goal? b) Is the goal something the trainer believes is achievable for the client? c) Are you experienced in helping clients reach goals of this type? d) Is the goal determined by the client?

Which of the following is not a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise? a) Decreased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms b) Decreased heart rate and blood pressure at a given submaximal intensity c) Increased maximal oxygen uptake resulting from both central and peripheral adaptations d) Increased capillary density in skeletal muscle

Which of the following is related to behavior change as it relates to the health belief model? a) Education b) Age c) Gender d) Income

Which of the following is the LEAST effective strategy in helping a client get past barriers in his exercise program? a) Helping the client predict how he or she will respond to the plateau b) Utilizing "teaching moments" during the client's exercise program to increase knowledge of fitness concepts c) Helping the client to develop an intrinsic motivation for exercise d) Helping the client to find activities that are enjoyable

Which of the following muscles inserts on the humerus? a) Pectoralis major b) Biceps brachii c) Pectoralis minor d) Rhomboid major

Which of the following muscles is superior to the latissimus dorsi? a) Levator scapulae b) External oblique c) Lower trapezius d) Erector spinae

Which of the following provides for an ideal stress on the bone to promote positive adapations in the bone? a) Plyometric training b) Swimming c) Indoor cycling d) Indoor rowing

Which of the following statements is true about a business partnership? a) Partnerships are subject to personal income tax based on each partner's ownership share. b) Partner liability for meeting business-related obligations must be established at the time of agreement. c) Business partnerships are tightly governed by federal regulations. d) A business partnership requires filing of a formal contract with state government.

Which of the following statements provide corrective cues and then reinforce what the client did well after completing the first set of an unfamiliar strength exercise? a) "Exhale when you push the weight up. You started out just fine, so slow down just a bit, and get your breathing in sync." b) "That was a good start. For the next set, keep your shoulders down and back." c) "No. Don't do that on the next set. Keep your elbow closer to your body." d) "Keep breathing, and avoid holding your breath as the exercise gets harder. Start the next set when you're ready."

Which of the following terms refers to muscle contraction force created by the sliding filament theory? a) Tension b) Torque c) Power d) Work

Which of the following theories of behavior change has been shown to increase an individual's intention to exercise? a) Theory of planned behavior b) Social cognitive theory c) Health belief model d) Transtheoretical model

Which of the following would communicate a professional appearance to a potential client? a) A polo shirt with cargo shorts b) A muscle shirt and sweats c) A tank top and sweats d) A t-shirt and sweats

Which repetition range would be best suited for a healthy older adult? a) 10 to 15 b) 8 to 10 c) 4 to 6 d) 20 to 25

Which rotator cuff muscle internally rotates the shoulder joint? a) Subscapularis b) Supraspinatus c) Supraspinatus d) Teres minor

Which routine would be best for a client with hypertension? a) Aerobic exercise on most or all days of the week, for 30 to 60 minutes, at a low intensity. b) Resistance training 3 times a week, for 30 to 60 minutes, at a low intensity. c) Aerobic exercise 2 to 3 times a week, for 15 to 20 minutes, at a high intensity. d) Resistance training most or all days of the week as a circuit, for 30 to 45 minutes, at a moderate intensity.

Which sport is performed primarily in the ATP (anaerobic) pathway? a) Golf b) Swimming c) Tennis d) 400-meter dash

Which type of training takes advantage of the stretch-shortening cycle of the muscle? a) Plyometric training b) Forced repetitions c) Breakdown sets d) Olympic lifts

Which yoga pose would require the most balance? a) Plank with one foot lifted b) Plank from the elbows c) Plank from the knees d) Plank from the toes

While supine, your client performs range of motion on the shoulder joint. She displays tightness in the infraspinatus and teres minor. You were led to this conclusion since the client was: a) Unable to externally rotate the shoulder joint past 60°. b) Able to internally rotate the shoulder joint to about 60°. c) Unable to abduct the arm to shoulder level. d) Able to reach overhead to the contralateral shoulder.

You notice a member of your fitness facility on the elliptical trainer who is shaking her left arm and rubbing her chest. She states that she is okay and tells you her chest is feeling tight. You should: a) Stop the exercise, have her immediately cool down by walking around, and monitor for additional signs or symptoms. b) Let her know that you were concerned, and encourage her to keep exercising. c) Explain and demonstrate how she can later stretch her chest after her cool-down. d) Suggest that she switch to a nonweight-bearing mode such as cycling.

Your client is having difficulty performing a strength exercise after you have demonstrated and provided verbal cues. You decide to demonstrate what he is doing and then contrast with the proper technique. He immediately performs the exercise correctly. Based on this, you should primarily focus on teaching the client exercise primarily through: a) Visual cues. b) Kinesthetic awareness. c) Performance outcomes. d) Auditory prompts.

Your client would like to start playing tennis on the weekend. She has a BMI of 32, she is age 36, and she has led a very sedentary lifestyle. Which cardiovascular training program should she begin with? a) 30 minutes of walking per day, 5 days a week, at 40% to 59% of HRR b) Light tennis workouts on Saturday and walking for 30 to 45 minutes on Sunday c) 30 to 45 minutes of walking and jogging intervals, 2 to 3 times per week, at 60% to 70% of HRR d) 15 to 20 minutes of walking, 3 times per week, and 10 to 15 minutes of sprint intervals, one day a week

A client packs his work clothes the night before and wears his workout clothes to bed so that he is ready to exercise first thing in the morning. This is an example of: a) Contemplation. b) Stimulus control. c) Operant conditioning. d) Precontemplation.

A client that hangs an exercise adherence calendar in a prominent spot is demonstrating: a) Modeling. b) Stimulus control. c) Instrinsic motivation. d) Observational learning.

A client who performs exercise because of the feeling of well-being after completion demonstrates: a) Self-efficacy b) Intrinsic motivation c) Self-esteem d) Extrinsic motivation

A client with strong social support is associated with: a) Relapse-prevention . b) Improved program adherence. c) Appropriate goal setting. d) Goal attainment.

A competitive recreational basketball player is interested in completing an assessment to serve as a baseline against which he can measure future improvements. Which test will BEST measure these sports skills? a) 40- yard dash b) 300-yard shuttle run c) Margaria-Kalamen stair climb d) Pro-agility test

A distinct advantage of using free weights versus machines is that they: a) Avoid open chain movements. b) Promote kinesthetic awareness. c) Accentuate eccentric actions. d) Enhance isokinetic movements.

A female client who is 150 pounds and 5 feet, 8 inches tall would have a BMI of: a) 26.8 b) 22.8 c) 20.4 d) 24

A fitness professional must purchase a BMI or ASCAP license in order to: a) Market professional services in the fitness professional's city or province. b) Play commercial music in a for-profit class. c) Stream audio and video content from the Internet for professional purposes. d) Start charging clients for professional services.

A general training principle for cardiorespiratory endurance is that it requires: a) Activities that would require 2000 to 2500 MET minutes per week. b) Activities that involve major muscle groups and is continuous and rhythmic in nature. c) Activities that have an even work-to-rest ratio of approximately 4:1. d) Light-intensity exercises that are appropriate for conditioning in most adults.

A good method for building rapport with clients is to: a) Inquire about how they feel about how they are progressing towards their goals. b) Show a personal interest in the things you know are important to them. c) Tell them you want them to trust you to help them reach their goals. d) Keep a log book of the client's preferences during sessions.

A great resource for providing feedback to clients on their exercise sessions is: a) Facebook b) The Internet c) A diary d) Handouts from peer-reviewed journals

A joint is the most stable when it is in which of the following positions? a) Flexed b) Closed pack c) Open pack d) Extended

A key benefit from regular physical activity or exercise is a decrease in: a) High-density lipoprotein cholesterol b) Anxiety and depression c) Primary prevention d) Capillary density in skeletal muscle

A lateral lunge is performed in which plane of movement? a) Horizontal b) Frontal c) Transverse d) Sagittal

A potential client has been walking two miles, several times a week, for the past few months and would like to continue progress toward her goals. You suggest that she train with you for several sessions to teach her things she can do on her own. This would help reinforce which stage of change? a) Contemplation b) Maintenance c) Preparation d) Action

A single exercise session is referred to as resistance ________, while the combination of many consecutive sessions over time is resistance ________. a) Training; prescription b) Exercise; training c) Training; exercise d) Exercise; prescription

A solid business plan starts with a comprehensive: a) Assessment of competition. b) Demographic analysis. c) Marketing campaign. d) Clearly established budget.

A tool that identifies clients who are moderate to high risk based on CVD risk factors is: a) Double pressure product. b) The ACSM risk factor thresholds. c) The preactivity screen. d) CVD stratification tool.

All of the following are considered nutrients EXCEPT: a) Vitamins b) Anti-oxidants c) Minerals d) Water

An appropriate progression for balance training should transition from: a) Sitting to in-motion on unstable surface b) Sitting to standing c) In-motion to kneeling d) Kneeling to standing on unstable surface

Behaviors are shaped by interpersonal interactions, the surrounding environment, community, policy, and law according to which of the following? a) Structural Support Model b) Socioecological model c) Social Cognitive Theory d) Environment Model

Breathing exercises are one method of managing stress because: a) Focusing on breathing requires dissociation from ongoing worries. b) Breathing properly increases oxygen in the blood, which improves circulation. c) Breathing exercises teach diaphragmatic breathing that helps avoid breathing pattern disruption under stress. d) Deep breathing reduces heart rate and blood pressure.

By purchasing an appropriate ASCAP/BMI license, the credentialed professional is striving to: a) Minimize general liability. b) Respect copyright laws and intellectual property. c) Avoid fines for playing unlicensed audio or video. d) Minimize professional liability.

Client records should be kept: a) In a digital format on a server or computer. b) In a locked cabinet or locked room. c) In a folder along with training session records. d) In easily accessible folder in the staff office.

Consider the following program: Peform a total of six exercises. Select one exercise from each of the following areas: hips and legs, chest, back, shoulders, low back, and abdominals, 1-2 sets, 8-12 reps, 2 to 3 times per week. For which client is such a program best suited? a) Athlete b) Beginner c) Intermediate d) Advanced

Credentialed professionals may take credit only for work that they have: a) Shown competence for. b) Actually performed or created. c) the appropriate licenses for. d) Demonstrated expertise and experience.

Delivering standard programs to multiple clients is ill-advised; exercises need to be modified for each client to suit their needs, abilities, and: a) Goals. b) Anatomical characteristics. c) Interests. d) Available equipment.

During aerobic exercise with gradually increasing intensity, the point at which the increased demands for oxygen results in a nonlinear increase in ventilation corresponds with: a) VO2max b) Lactate threshold. c) Aerobic capacity. d) Pulmonary ventilation.

During the concentric phase of extension at the knee joint, the ________ work as an agonist and the ________ work as the antagonist. a) Gastrocnemius, iliopsoas b) Quadriceps, hamstrings c) Hamstrings, quadriceps d) Iliopsoas, gastrocnemius

Dyspnea is defined as: a) Abnormally low breathing rate. b) Abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing. c) Complete breathlessness. d) Exercise-induced shortness of breath.

Energy availability is defined as: a) The number of calories needed to fuel the body for exercise demands. b) Dietary energy intake minus exercise energy expenditure. c) Dietary energy intake minus the thermic effect of food. d) Exercise energy expenditure minus dietary energy intake.

Energy balance is important for body weight and body composition goals. In addition to performing exercises that will enlarge muscle mass, clients seeking to increase muscle mass should slightly increase daily energy intake by: a) 400 to 500 kcal. b) 300 to 400 kcal. c) Varying amounts of kcals depending on body size. d) 200 to 300 kcal.

Fat intake should be no more than ________ of total daily calories. a) 20% b) 30% c) 10% d) 5%

Fitness facility staff who work with clients and provide exercise instruction must be trained in: a) Working with special populations. b) CPR. c) Health care professional referral procedures. d) State employment practices.

Foot and leg care is extremely important for clients who have medical conditions that can impact the lower extremities, especially those with: a) Restless leg syndrome. b) Diabetes. c) Diagnosed joint conditions. d) Prior knee replacement.

For athletes seeking to optimize performance, diets that are severely energy-deficient should not be recommended because: a) Lean body mass is compromised. b) Energy requirements cannot be met to sustain power output. c) Compliance is too difficult long term. d) This will lead to significant weight loss.

For general muscular fitness, which program would be the best program for a healthy adult? a) Resistance training the lower body and trunk (hips, legs, back and abdomen) 1 to 2 days per week b) Resistance training the major muscle groups (chest, shoulders, back, abdomen, hips, and legs) 2 to 3 days per week c) Resistance training the postural muscles (upper back, hips, and abdomen) 2 to 3 times per week d) Resistance training the upper body and trunk (chest, shoulders, back, and abdomen) 3 to 4 days per week

Heavy negatives target which phase of training? a) Isotonic b) Eccentric c) Isometric d) Concentric

How long should heavy eccentric training be performed? a) 2- to 3-week training cycles, 2 to 4 times per year b) 4- to 6-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year) c) 6- to 8-week training cycles, 1 or 2 times per year d) 1- to 2-week training cycles, 4 to 6 times per year)

How many CECs are awarded by ACSM per college credit hour of courses that meet the requirements? a) 15 CECs b) 10 CECs c) 5 CECs d) 1 CEC

Impaired glucose tolerance is consistent with which of the following? a) Dyslipidemia b) Prediabetes c) Type 2 diabetes d) Type 1 diabetes

In a sit-to-stand movement, where is the center of gravity? a) Slightly anterior to the axis of the hip joint b) Shifted over the base of support c) Over the second sacrum d) Posterior to the axis of the knee joint

In addition to safe use of equipment, Personal Trainers should focus on equipment: a) Readiness for client use. b) Storage procedures. c) Appearance. d) Research on effectiveness.

In order to comply with the ACSM Code of Ethics, a fitness professional is obligated to: a) Record current music for personal use in exercise environment. b) Provided education based on current research, industry standards, and guidelines. c) Hire currently credentialed ACSM professionals. d) Disclose client information to all interested individuals.

Initial interviews with clients should include health history and exercise readiness forms, and inquiries about: a) Work schedule and hobbies that may interfere with training schedules. b) Client goals and expectations for working with a Personal Trainer. c) Previous work with other Personal Trainers. d) Social support networks that can help or hinder the training routine.

Ischemia is caused by: a) Decreased stroke volume. b) A lack of oxygen. c) Left ventricular dysfunction. d) Chest pain.

It has been estimated that a total of ________ liters of fluid per day would be required to maintain normal hydration in athletes who are exercising at high altitude. a) 1 to 2 b) 3 to 4 c) 5 to 6 d) 7 to 8

It is acceptable for a Personal Trainer to release a client's records: a) Only to the client themselves. b) With the client's signed authorization. c) With the client's verbal authorization. d) Only when ordered by a court

Len is a 75-year-old client referred to you by a occupational therapist for strengthening of the lower leg muscle responsible for endurance in standing and walking. You would have Len perform ________ calf raises to emphasize his ________ muscle. a) Standing; gastrocnemius b) Seated; soleus c) Seated; gastrocnemius d) Standing; soleus

Linda is performing a set of supine abdominal crunches. To increase recruitment of the left external oblique and right internal oblique, how should you have her perform the crunches? a) Maintain pure flexion motion in the sagittal plane throughout the motion. b) Rotate her trunk towards the right during concentric motion. c) Rotate her trunk towards the left during concentric motion. d) Have her lay on her left side, and flex her trunk to the right, maintaining pure frontal plane motion.

Lordosis is defined as: a) The convexity of the spinal curve is lateral. b) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior. c) The convexity of the spinal curve is medial. d) The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior.

Low energy availability for female athletes appears to occur below an energy availability of: a) 50 kcals per kg of fat free mass per day. b) 30 kcals per kg of fat free mass per day. c) 50 kcals per kg of total body weight per day. d) 30 kcals per kg of total body weight per day.

Measuring a client's exercise intensity using the Karvonen formula would be best for which client? a) Obese male b) Athlete c) Pregnant woman d) Hypertensive client

Movement resulting in an increase of the joint angle, usually moving posteriorly in the sagittal plane is called __________. a) Rotation b) Extension c) Abduction d) Flexion

Nonathlete adults require ________ protein per kilogram body weight versus athletes. a) The same b) Less c) More d) Significantly more

Obese clients benefit most from which of the following? a) Balance and flexibility b) Exercise and dietary restrictions c) Cardiovascular training d) Flexibility and cardiovascular exercise

One of the individuals in your class collapses. You should first: a) Call emergency medical services. b) Check consciousness. c) Check breathing. d) Check pulse.

One of the key health concerns of having a high stress level, which exercise can positively impact, is: a) Inability to concentrate. b) Negative blood lipid levels. c) Poor interpersonal skills. d) Limited social support network.

One of the main reasons skipping meals negatively impacts body fat levels is: a) Total daily caloric intake increases beyond weight maintenance levels. b) Changes in blood sugar levels impact insulin production, increasing fat stores. c) It promotes binge eating and leads to eating disorders. d) The thermic effect of food is reduced.

One protein food that contains all the essential amino acids in the right ratio to make a complete protein is: a) Broccoli. b) Eggs. c) Beans. d) Yogurt.

Over time, regular cardiovascular exercise reduces: a) Exercise threshold. b) Blood pressure. c) Capillary density. d) Oxygen uptake.

Performance training includes speed, agility, quickness, and reactivity drills that would be MOST appropriate for which of the following clients? a) 33-year-old female, marathon runner b) 45-year-old male, competitive tennis player c) 27-year-old male, body builder d) 52-year-old female, competitive golfer

Personal Trainers must work with the client's health care team. When problems arise that are beyond the Personal Trainer's scope of practice, the Trainer should: a) Stop working with the client until the problem is resolved. b) Refer clients to other members of the health care team. c) Contact one of the client's health care team members for direction. d) Discuss options with fellow Personal Trainers.

Personal Trainers should follow evidence-based practices of program design to: a) Educate clients. b) Promote effectiveness and safety for clients. c) Promote the science of training design. d) Demonstrate their technical skill.

Prior to the first training session scheduled next week, you should provide specific session instructions on: a) Supplement and hydration preparation. b) Appropriate exercise attire. c) Auto-payment options. d) Activities clients can perform on their own.

Restating the main points and feelings in a client's communication is using which method of active listening? a) Encouraging b) Summarizing c) Redirecting d) Probing

Rhabdomyolysis is a clinical pathology that is characterized by ________. a) Mild muscle soreness b) Rapid breakdown of muscle tissue c) Delayed onset muscle soreness d) Reduced lactic acid production

S corporation stands for: a) Small business corporation. b) Subchapter corporation. c) Subsidiary corporation. d) Sole proprietorship corporation.

When a client keeps a daily workout log, this helps with ______. a) Fear of injury b) Exercise adherence c) Social barriers d) Environmental barriers

Sales goals for the purpose of setting a business budget are determined by: a) Average session rate charged minus expenses, divided by number of sessions. b) Projected number of training sessions multiplied by an average session rate. c) The number of sessions you would like to offer per week times the number of weeks per year you want to work. d) Desired monthly income multiplied by 12 months.

Substances that enhance athletic ability through either enhanced endurance or improvement in power are called: a) Vitamins and minerals. b) Ergogenic aids. c) Dietary supplements. d) Energy substrates.

The ACSM Code of ethics requires that credentialed professionals maintain all of the following EXCEPT: a) Education based on evidence-based science. b) An updated business plan. c) CPR certification. d) Client confidentiality.

The FITT-VP principle stands for? a) Fitness, intensity, time, temperature, variables, and periodization b) Frequency, intensity, time, type, volume, and progression c) Frequency, intensity, tempo, type, variables, and progression d) Frequency, intensity, time, temperature, variables, and periodization

The Personal Trainer needs to be adept at exercise demonstration since a majority of clients will be ________ learners. a) Tactile b) Visual c) Kinesthetic d) Auditory

The USDA 2010 Dietary Guidelines recommend reducing certain food components, increasing nutrients, building healthy eating patterns, and: a) Understanding special populations b) Balancing calories to manage weight. c) Ensuring safe food preparation. d) Tracking daily eating habits.

The adage "use it or lose it" basically states that physiological gains from training: a) Are typically permanent in nature. b) Must be maintained through regular training. c) Will gradually decrease 1% per year with respect to strength gains. d) Will gradually decrease 1% per year with respect to aerobic capcity.

The final and critical last step in initial client screening is to: a) Obtain a medical clearance. b) Refer the client to a physician if warranted. c) Determine if a medical evaluation is necessary. d) Complete an Informed Consent.

The first area of focus to treat the Female Athlete Triad is: a) Starting psychotherapy. b) Increasing energy availability. c) Addressing the athlete's mental health. d) Beginning nutrition counseling.

The first step a Personal Trainer should take with a client who is overtraining is: a) Call the client's spouse. b) Provide empathy. c) Reduce exercise intensity by 50%. d) Call the client's doctor.

The gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are located in which lower leg area? a) Superficial posterior compartment b) Posterior tibial compartment c) Deep posterior compartment d) Anterior tibial compartment

The legal rationale for protecting client confidentiality is to prevent: a) Identify theft. b) Harm to a client's reputation. c) Client lawsuits. d) Information theft.

The location of the client consultation is critical because it: a) Demonstrates the Personal Trainer's planning skills. b) Sets the tone for relationship building and information sharing. c) Is an opportunity to expose clients to an exercise environment in a non-threatening way. d) Can assist in client motivation.

The main shortcoming of using BMI for body composition assessment is: a) BMI doesn't correlate with body fat percent. b) Clients have difficult relating and interpreting needed weight loss or weight gain based on the measure. c) The method of calculation provides a single number for comparison. d) It is inaccurate for very short and very tall individuals.

The most frequent claims of scope of practice violations are in the area of: a) Diet analysis. b) Supplementation. c) Malpractice. d) Misrepresentation of education.

The muscles involved in a dumbbell fly and cable fly are the: a) Latissimus dorsi and teres major b) Pectoralis major and anterior deltoid c) Anterior deltoid and latissimus dorsi d) Teres major and pectoralis major

The muscles that are strengthened by dumbbell shrugs are the: a) Rhomboid major and rhomboid minor b) Levator scapulae and upper trapezius c) Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior d) Teres major and latissimus dorsi

The negative risk factor for cardiovascular disease is: a) Body mass index. b) High density lipoprotein cholesterol. c) Sedentary lifestyle. d) Family history.

The quadruped (birddog) exercise functions to strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Transverse abdominis and quadratus lumborum b) Multifidus and erector spinae c) Rectus abdominis and obliques d) Latissimus dorsi and teres major

The range of professional activities Personal Trainers can undertake and the boundaries that limit those activities is referred to as: a) Code of expertise. b) Scope of practice. c) Scope of training activities. d) Professional ethics.

The saying "if in doubt, refer out" means: a) When scope of practice doesn't specify what the Personal Trainer should do, ask a colleague. b) Personal Trainers should refer clients to health care professionals in situations where they are unsure if a referral is needed. c) Personal Trainers should research medical conditions they are unfamiliar with before working with a new client. d) Personal Trainers should seek guidance on liability issues if clients indicate they are high risk.

The science that applies the study of forces to living organisms is: a) Physiology. b) Biomechanics. c) Kinesiology. d) Physics.

The study of the mechanics of human movement is called: a) Kinematics. b) Kinesiology. c) Biology. d) Biomechanics.

The typical length of time Personal Trainers should keep client documentation is: a) 7 years. b) 3 to 5 years. c) 1 year. d) 10 years.

Which of the following has the greatest effect on the reduction of blood pressure? a) Strength training b) Aerobic exercise training c) Circuit training d) Interval training

Thoughts can shape both feelings and behaviors. Positive self-talk can promote confidence to make positive lifestyle change, while negative thoughts reduce the confidence needed to make change. These are called: a) Mind power aids. b) Thought traps. c) Motivators. d) Reality models.

To accomplish progressive overload, increase the intensity and/or volume by increasing resistance, increasing the number of sets/reps/exercises, or: a) Altering time of day of the exercise session. b) Altering rest intervals. c) Modifying the order of exercises in a session. d) Lengthening warm-up time.

To determine perceived value in the marketplace and your price point for offering personal training you should: a) Determine your desired profit. b) Complete a market analysis. c) Conduct a direct mail or phone survey. d) Set business objectives.

To enhance training and prevent injury, Personal Trainers should educate clients about appropriate clothing to ensure it allows movement and is comfortable and: a) Stylish. b) Breathable. c) Increases client confidence. d) Lightweight.

To manipulate the intensity and increase the challenge of balance-related training, you should: a) Widen the base of support b) Narrow the base of support c) Shift the line of gravity outside the base of support d) Shift the line of gravity through rotary motion

To measure progress toward goals, reassessments should be performed: a) As frequently as possible to elicit intrinsic motivation. b) After approximately 4 to 6 weeks to better reflect a training effect. c) On a weekly basis to measure steady progress. d) When the client needs to improve upon exercise adherence.

To minimize any type of detraining effects, strength training should primarily consist of: a) Eccentric training. b) Concentric training. c) Isokinetic training d) Isometric training.

To promote kinesthetic awareness during a stiff-leg deadlift, you should make sure that the client: a) Can perform at least 15 repetitions. b) Feels the stretch in the hamstrings. c) Demonstrates the proper stance and balance. d) Understands your visual demonstration.

Tom is a 65-year-old normal healthy male who has exercised consistently for the last 5 years. While having him perform a set of abdominal crunches (a new exercise for him), he reports a gradual onset of a "dull ache" and "slight burn" in his neck towards the end of the set. Upon set completion, these feelings subside. Which of the following is the BEST course of action? a) Instruct him to utilize a reverse crunch to minimize earlier symptoms. b) Continue the exercise as part of his regimen, and provide education. c) Stop the exercise, and move to another that offers cervical spine support. d) Stop the exercise, and recommend an physician consultation.

Types of equipment used for dynamic constant external resistance include: a) Cable crossover machines b) Dumbbells and kettlebells c) Machines with cams d) Unstable platform devices

Understanding nonverbal cues is important in establishing a successful client relationship because: a) Hand position is usually consistent with verbal communication. b) More information is communicated in this manner. c) Eye contact cannot tell much about a client's emotional status. d) Posture is usually consistent with verbal communication.

Vegetarian athletes have a more challenging time maintaining adequate levels of: a) Essential fatty acids. b) Calcium and iron. c) Vitamins A and D. d) Potassium.

Vigorous exercise, per the ACSM risk classification, is activity at what MET level? a) 3 to <6 METs b) 6 METs or greater c) 5 METs d) 3 to 5 METs

Weight machines carry more of a reduced risk of injury than free weights because: a) Free weights require that spotting be performed by someone educated and trained in the appropriate techniques. b) The client's body is more stable and movement is more restricted with weight machines. c) Weight machines minimize joint motion and restrict the client's likelihood of hyperextension. d) Clients are often limited to the weight of available dumbbells and are prone to overexertion.

What business structure is the simplest and least expensive business model? a) Limited liability corporation b) Sole proprietorship c) C corporation d) Subchapter S corporation

What does the 1 RM bench press assess? a) It measures the strength of the muscles involved in shoulder adduction. b) It measures the strength of the muscles involved in arm extension. c) It measures the strength of the muscles involved in arm flexion. d) It measures the strength of the muscles involved in horizontal abduction.

What is the ideal frequency and duration of exercise for a child age 10? a) 30 minutes per day, 5 to 7 days a week b) 60 minutes per day, at least 3 days a week c) 20 minutes per day, 7 days a week d) 10 to 20 minutes per day, 2 to 4 days a week

What is the maximum number of consecutive rest days in between exercise sessions for diabetic clients? a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1

What is the rotator cuff's primary role at the shoulder joint? a) Promote shoulder impingement during motion b) Provide dynamic stability during humeral motion c) Prevent scapular winging d) Promote scapular stability during arm movements

What muscles are antagonists to the bicep brachii, brachialis, and brachioradialis? a) Pronator quadratus b) Anconeus and triceps brachii c) Pronator teres d) Anconeus and supinator

What would be a good heart rate range for an apparently healthy 20-year-old client using an estimate of the maximum heart rate method? a) 170 to 200 bpm b) 140 to 170 bpm c) 110 to 130 bpm d) 128 to 188 bpm

What would be a good target heart rate for a deconditioned 50-year-old male? a) 120 to 130 bpm b) 77 to 96 bpm c) 8 to 9 on the RPE scale of 20 d) 13 to 15 on the RPE scale of 20

When "selling" personal training services, which of the following benefits is most effective to talk about? a) Greater likelihood of increased oxidative stress b) Increased motivation with reduced risk of injury c) Ability to reach goals faster with training efficiency d) Various types of payment options available

When lacking, which of the following is considered the strongest barrier to exercise? a) Connecting with a Personal Trainer b) Strong support from family and friends c) Readiness to change behavior related to exercise d) Shower facilities

When looking at postural alignment from a lateral view, the vertical plumb line should be ________. a) Slightly posterior to external auditory meatus b) Slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus c) Slightly posterior to the axis of the knee joint d) Through the mid thoracic vertebral bodies

When looking at postural alignment from a posterior view, the vertical line should pass through the ________. a) Knee joint b) Midline of the body c) Ankle d) Scapula

When spotting the elbow extension exercise, where is the best place to spot? a) Hold the client's torso upright. b) Place your hands on the client's elbows c) Assist by pressing the bar with the client. d) Place your hands on the client's shoulders

When using variable-resistance devices, what are the three types of strength curves? a) Primary, secondary, and stabilizer b) Ascending, descending, and bell-shaped c) Strength, endurance, and power d) Lever 1, level 2, and lever 3

Which document acknowledges an "assumption of risk" with regard to the participation in physical activity? a) Liability waiver b) Informed Consent c) Medical Release d) Behavioral Contract

Which individual is MOST likely to adhere to a given physical activity program? a) A motivated beginner who elects to begin a vigorous-intensity exercise program b) A middle-aged man who has prehypertension but believes he has personal control over his health c) An obese man who is motivated by a fear of adverse health conditions that are common in his family d) An individual who perceives his health to be poor and has been encouraged by his doctor to exercise

Which is an appropriate food source for vitamin K? a) Citrus fruits, berries, and vegetables b) Green leafy vegetables c) Milk, liver, eggs, and peanuts d) Dairy and grain products

Which movement occurs in the frontal plane? a) Extension at the hip b) Elevation of the of the scapula c) Supination at the wrist d) Flexion at the elbow

Which muscles are prime movers for eversion of the ankle joint? a) Tibialis posterior and plantaris b) Peroneus longus and brevis c) Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus d) Gastrocnemius and soleus

Which muscles function to rotate the lumbar spine? a) Rectus abdominis and transverse abdominis b) Internal and external obliques c) Erector spinae and multifidus d) Quadratus lumborum and tensor fascia latae

Which of the following advanced resistance training techniques should be used only 1 to 2 times per year for 4 to 6 week training cycles? a) Plyometrics b) Forced negatives c) Supersets d) Breakdown sets

Which of the following are known as "good cholesterol" and carry lipids away from storage and to the liver for excretion? a) Unsaturated fatty acids b) High-density lipoproteins c) Low-density lipoproteins d) Triglycerides

Which of the following assessments should not be used with beginners? a) Rockport One-Mile Fitness Walking Test b) 1.5-mile test c) Astrand-rhyming test d) Step test

Which of the following best describes the effect of length changes on the force-generating capacity of shortened muscles? a) The shortened muscles will produce the same amount of force as they did at normal length, only at a faster rate of movement. b) There is a greater force-generating capacity at the new length, but diminished force-generating capacity at normal resting length. c) The lengthened muscles generally have a higher force production throughout the full range of motion, as muscles are strongest when they are longest. d) They will have diminished force-generating capacity at their new lengths, but greater force-generating capacity at normal resting lengths.

Which of the following blood pressure readings indicates hypertension? a) 130/88 mm Hg b) 142/91 mm Hg c) 134/80 mm Hg d) 120/67 mm Hg

Which of the following cholesterol levels requires referral to a physician for further evaluation? a) Total -190mg · dL-1 , TC/HDL - 4 b) Total -200 mg · dL-1 , TC/HDL - 6 c) Total -205 mg · dL-1 , TC/HDL - 3 d) Total -167 mg · dL-1 , TC/HDL - 4

Which of the following client information is the LEAST critical as it relates to confidentiality? a) A client's Informed Consent document b) Appointment schedule for a client c) The first client prescreening form d) Notes documenting training sessions

Which of the following concepts, if applied, makes resistance training easier to perform? a) Newton's third law b) F = ma c) P = mv d) Newton's first law

Which of the following decreases efficiency during resistance training? a) Acceleration torque production b) Mechanical disadvantage c) Biomechanical angle velocity d) Torsional maximization

Which of the following describes a situation where a Personal Trainer provides improper instruction and as a result the client becomes injured? a) Malpractice b) Negligence c) Assumption of risk d) Risk management

Which of the following exercise intensities would be best for a pregnant woman? a) 50% to 60 % of HRR b) RPE of 12 to 14 on the 6-20 RPE scale c) 60% to 70% of HRR d) 60% to 75% of VO2max

Which of the following fasting blood glucose levels are indicative of prediabetes? a) 96 mg·dL-1 b) 124 mg·dL-1 c) 145 mg·dL-1 d) 82 mg·dL-1

Which of the following form discusses the risk and benefits of performing assessments and exercise? a) Client Intake Form b) Informed Consent c) Medical Clearance d) Personal Trainer-Client Agreement

Which of the following forms may be used if a Health/Medical History Evaluation form is not readily available? a) Personal-Trainer Client Agreement b) PAR-Q c) Informed Consent d) Health Fitness Assessment

Which of the following includes all components of a well-stated exercise goal? a) Increase bicep measurement from 12 to 15 inches in six months through a strength training program of one set of 15 repetitions performed two times per week. b) Lose 1 to 2 pounds per week over the next ten weeks, through a program of diet, aerobic exercise, and strength training. c) Lose 15 pounds in 8 weeks through a program of low-intensity aerobic activity. d) Increase range of motion in the lower back by performing 40 to 60 abdominal crunches daily for 6 weeks.

Which of the following is MOST important when working with special needs clients? a) Peforming postural and gait assessments b) Implementing the appropriate levels of training intensity c) Testing muscle strength and motor control d) Having expertise with prescription medication and dosage

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for Personal Trainers? a) Educating clients about resting metabolic rate (RMR) and providing an RMR specific meal plan to lose weight b) Helping clients gain a better understanding of portion sizes and healthful foods so they can make better choices c) Conducting 24-hour dietary recalls to help clients learn where they have micro-nutrient deficiencies d) Providing clients with recipes and shopping lists for 4 weeks to get them on track with healthful eating

Which of the following is a benefit of using a machine versus free-weight exercise? a) Machines are designed to fit the proportions of all individuals. b) Machines are more practical when training certain populations. c) Machines better accommodate linear resistance and its range of motion. d) Machines readily allow for power training.

Which of the following is a skill-related parameter that might be addressed in a client's exercise program? a) Body composition b) Balance c) Aerobic capacity d) Flexibility

Which of the following is an appropriate method for helping motivate a client to lose weight? a) E-mail attachments of peer-reviewed journal articles. b) Provide links of news articles of individuals who have similar background as your client. c) Provide several links to professional membership organizations. d) Give the client's family a brochure on the mortality and morbidity on obesity.

Which of the following is an example of an enarthrodial joint? a) Acromioclavicular b) Glenohumeral c) Radiounlar d) Carpal-metacarpal

Which of the following is an example of extrinsic motivation? a) Short-term goals b) Positive feedback c) Enjoyment of the exercise d) Long term goals

Which of the following is an example of tangible support? a) A group fitness instructor encouraging your client's attendance in more classes b) A friend offering to pick up your client's dry cleaning to give your client more time to work out c) Co-workers giving feedback on the changes they have seen in your client d) A Personal Trainer providing handouts on new exercise routines

Which of the following is considered the prime mover for both shoulder flexion and shoulder horizontal adduction? a) Teres major b) Pectoralis major c) Latissimus dorsi d) Serratus anterior

Which of the following is ideal for promoting exercise adherence? a) Cueing via e-mail for proper exercise technique during strength training b) Support behavior change strategies via Web-based tools c) Video-based live fitness assessments d) Distribution of newsletters and promotions

Which of the following is indicative of heat stroke? a) Altered mental status b) Increased body temperature c) Red, hot, sweaty skin d) Fatigue, weakness, and headache

Which of the following is required from an ethical and liability standpoint and will also help provide feedback and monitor progress? a) Performing baseline body composition assessments b) Documenting client activities and events c) Performing functional movement screens d) Setting both short- and long-term goals

Which type of movement creates the MOST harmful stresses to the low back? a) Abduction b) Rotation c) Extension d) Adduction

Which type of periodization is best for someone trying to build muscle endurance? a) Nonlinear b) Reverse linear c) Linear d) American-style

Which type of training provides the best results for maximum strength? a) Reverse linear periodization b) Nonlinear periodization c) American-style periodization d) Linear periodization

With everything being equal, which of the following groups are MOST LIKELY to continue exercise participation in the long term? a) Women b) Those who are intrinsically motivated c) Those who are extrinsically motivated d) Men

Your new client is ready to start training next week. You provide her with a service introduction packet which must include, at a minimum, which of the following forms? a) PAR-Q, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and training log b) Health/Medical History Evaluation, Medical Clearance Form, and Informed Consent c) Medical Clearance Form, Personal Trainer-Client Agreement, and liability waiver d) Health/Medical History Evaluation, liability waiver, and training log

Athletes exercising at high altitude need an estimated ________ of fluid daily to maintain normal hydration. a) 1 liter b) 5 liters c) 3 to 4 liters d) 2 liters

Which type of resistance training program would be best for a client with diabetes? a) Olympic lifting b) Plyometric training c) Circuit training at a low intensity d) Strength training at 6 to 8 reps

Asking the client questions like, "Did you feel you worked out hard enough?" and, "What was especially challenging today?" is the best way to: a) Teach self-assessment. b) Encourage adherence. c) Obtain client feedback. d) Promote behavior change.

A client sprains her ankle during a training session and is noticeably limping. You should: a) Rest the ankle, then apply alternate heat and ice treatment before elevating it. b) Contact the client's physician, apply ice, and give the client an anti-inflammatory agent. c) Rest, apply ice and compression, then elevate the ankle. d) Apply ice, and bandage the ankle before continuing with the exercise.

A client who is also a high school soccer player is interested in using the glycemic Index to guide his "refueling" after practices and matches. You should recommend: a) Carrots b) Oatmeal c) Apples d) Rye bread

A client with hardly any regular past exercise history plans to work with you for 8 weeks as she is ready to get fit and lose weight. Based on this information, what would be the MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward her goal? a) 30, longer multiple bouts b) 20, longer multiple bouts c) 30, shorter multiple bouts d) 20, shorter multiple bouts

A heart attack is characterized by which of the following signs and symptoms? a) Sudden loss of consciousness, with no breathing and no pulse b) Sustained stabbing pain in and around the chest c) A squeezing pressure in the chest that can be mistaken for heartburn d) A sudden, severe headache and weakness on one side of the body

A heart murmur that is clinically significant may be indicative of: a) Anemia. b) Hypertension. c) Valvular heart disease. d) Shortness of breath.

A low to high diagonal chop using a medicine ball takes place in: a) The frontal plane. b) The sagittal plane. c) Multiple planes. d) The transverse plane.

A male client is 45-years-old and has high-density lipoprotein of 35 mg·dL-1. He spends 30 minutes a day walking to and from work. Based on this profile, how many total risk factors does he have? a) 0 b) -1 c) 2 d) 1

A market area is defined as: a) The geographic region of focus in a marketing campaign. b) The focused area of a demographic analysis. c) A geographic region defining the primary business service demand. d) The area of greatest competition for services.

A muscle that produces a low force and has a high contractile rate is classified as a __________ muscle. a) Unipennate b) Bipennate c) Longitudinal d) Multipennate

A new, sedentary client has come to you and wants to lose weight. What would be the ideal type of periodization? a) Linear periodization b) Reverse linear periodization c) Flexible nonlinear periodization d) American-style periodization

A novice client who is here for the summer plans to work with you to get fit and lose weight. The MOST effective way to help her to become regularly active and work toward her goal would be to: a) Inform her about different types of exercise, and invite her to attend a group strength class. b) Lead her through a challenging workout to tap into her intrinsic motivation. c) Provide an initial positive exercise experience focusing on various modes. d) Design a challenging program so she can experience the positive benefits of exercise.

A proper cool-down allows the body to help remove ________. a) Creatine b) Pyruvate c) Lactate d) Carbon dioxide

A proper cool-down, allowing for a gradual return toward baseline will help the client avoid which of the following? a) Postexercise hypertension b) Blood pooling in the arms c) Postexercise hypotension d) Blood pooling in the heart

A standing pendulum leg swing is considered what type of stretch? a) Ballistic b) Passive c) Dynamic d) Static

ACSM and most Personal Trainer certifications require which of the following training? a) Lifeguard training b) Advanced cardiac life support c) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation d) Accreditation standards

ACSM's risk classification was recently updated to include exposure to environmental tobacco smoke, prediabetes, and: a) Obesity. b) Sedentary lifestyle. c) Age. d) Family history.

ADA Dietary Guidelines recommend that daily sodium intake for diabetics, hypertensives, African Americans, individuals with chronic kidney disease, or persons age 51 and older should be no more than: a) 2,500 mg. b) 3,000 mg. c) 1,500 mg. d) Under 1,000 mg.

According to Goal Setting Theory research, the most effective type of health goals are: a) Factored in the client's exercise history. b) Long-term. c) Self-selected by the client. d) Provided for the client by the Personal Trainer.

An appropriate warm-up for a brisk walk would be? a) Lateral shuffles b) Jogging c) A light walk d) Skipping

An improper cool-down may cause which of the following? a) Increased oxygen consumption b) Blood pooling in the heart c) Blood pooling in the legs d) Increased hypertension

Anatomical position of the human body is when the body is in which of the following positions? a) Body is erect, feet shoulder width apart, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing backwards, thumbs facing the body, fingers extended b) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing the body, thumbs facing forward of the body, fingers extended c) Body is erect, feet together, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing forward, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended d) Body is erect, feet shoulder width apart, upper limbs positioned at the side of the body, palms of the hands facing the body, thumbs facing away from the body, fingers extended

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by: a) Repeated cycles of overeating followed by compensatory behaviors like fasting or excessive exercising. b) Restrictive eating by normal weight individuals who view themselves as overweight. c) Restrictive eating by individuals 15% or more below expected weight who view themselves as overweight. d) Individuals 15% or more below expected weight who repeat cycles of binge-eating followed by excessive exercise.

Approximately what percent of cardiac output is distributed to skeletal muscles during exercise? a) 35%-40% b) 55%-60% c) 85%-90% d) 15%-20%

Based on the ACSM Code of Ethics, Personal Trainers are prohibited from: a) Advertising services for which they are not specifically trained to deliver. b) Malpractice lawsuits, if they maintain their certification. c) Providing services that may only be carried out by licenced health care professionals. d) Conducting business without a state license.

Before fitness testing and training, initial client assessment should include health issues, exercise history, and: a) Sit-and-reach and straight leg raise test. b) Self-assessment results performed by the client. c) Intended time frame for achieving desired goals. d) Client's knowledge of basic anatomy and physiology.

Before you design an abdominal exercise program for a client you should FIRST: a) Stretch the erector spinae muscles to minimize lumbar spine stress. b) Determine how many full sit-ups can be performed. c) Determine and establish neutral pelvic position. d) Ask if the client wants to emphasize the upper or lower abs.

Bilateral ankle edema is a characteristic sign of: a) Venous thrombosis or lymphatic blockage in the limb. b) A slight ankle sprain in both ankles. c) Heart failure or bilateral chronic venous insufficiency. d) Improper footwear during exercise.

Certain amino acids used to build protein are "essential" because: a) They are found in all forms of protein. b) They are only found in supplements. c) The body is not capable of manufacturing them. d) They can be synthesized in the body.

Compounding issues of liability around supplementation, manufacturers rarely carry any insurance coverage, and: a) Vitamin and supplementation products are not regulated. b) Ingredient lists on supplements often misrepresent quantities. c) Fitness professional insurance doesn't usually offer product liability protection. d) Research on supplementation is rarely unbiased.

During a back-loaded squat, what position should the head be in? a) Tuck the chin with the eyes looking down b) Look up about 2 feet c) Keep the head forward with the chin level d) Pull the head back and slightly tuck the chin.

During a treadmill workout at 2.5 mph, your 45-year-old male client who exercises on a regular basis, starts to have abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing. You should: a) Reduce the speed to 1 mph, and have him continue walking. b) Check his pulse and blood pressure, and resume the workout if they are normal. c) Stop the exercise session, and refer him to his physician. d) Continue to increase the speed as this is a normal response to exercise.

During an outdoor training session, your client begins to complain about fatigue and muscle cramping. You should: a) Ask the client to consume eight glasses of water before the next workout. b) Have the client consume a mineral drink and reduce exercise intensity. c) Stop the exercise, and have the client rest in a cool place. d) suggest that the client take potassium supplements and drink as much water as possible.

During gait, you notice that your client tends to put weight on the lateral edge of the feet. This is mostly because the client cannot __________ the foot properly. a) Plantar flex b) Supinate c) Dorsi-flex d) Pronate

During resistance training, pain is a sign that ________. a) The client has drank too much water b) The muscles are working properly c) The client needs to stop the exercise d) The client is reaching the right rep range

During the initial client-contact process, you find that your potential client would rather work with a trainer of another gender. You should: a) Provide a complimentary session to demonstrate your professional competence. b) Discuss your experience, training style, and educational background to make the client more comfortable with you. c) Refer the client to another personal trainer who would be more compatible. d) Ask the client to sign up for an initial block of training sessions first.

During the weight-bearing phase of gait, the ________ acts like a spring to store mechanical energy that is then released during foot push-off. a) Medial malleolus b) Lateral malleolus c) Plantar fascia d) Achilles tendon

Dyspnea that occurs at rest in a recumbent position and is relieved upon sitting upright or standing is called: a) Syncope. b) Obstructive pulmonary disease. c) Orthopnea. d) Edema.

Energy nutrients do all of the following EXCEPT: a) Contract muscles to perform work. b) Maintain core body temperature at 98.6° F. c) Provide lubrication for joint capsules. d) Transfer electrical energy between nerve cells.

Exchange of blood gases and other nutrients within various tissues occur in the ____________. a) Veins b) Arteries c) Capillaries d) Arterioles

Exercise prescription parameters for clients with osteoporosis include which respective recommendations for frequency, intensity, and duration? a) 3 to 5 days, 75%-85% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes b) 4 to 7 days, 65%-75% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes c) 3 to 5 days, 40%-59% VO2max, for 30 to 60 minutes d) 2 to 3 days, 40%-59% VO2max, for 20 minutes

Failure of a Personal Trainer to follow the generally accepted standards when working with clients is defined as: a) Risk. b) Liability. c) Negligence. d) Standard avoidance.

Female Client Age: 38 Weight: 75 kg Height: 175 cm % Body fat: 30% Activity level: Sedentary Lean body mass: 50 kg Anita wants to feel good for her 20th high school reunion in several months. Her goal is to lower her body fat to 18%. You recommend that she: a) Boost basal metabolic activity by high-intensity strength training. b) Divide her target goal into equal weekly objectives. c) Reassess her target percent fat goal, and reduce it by half. d) Increase her metabolism with aerobic activity.

Fluid intake guidelines suggest which of the following for optimal performance? a) Consuming large volumes of fluids to quickly rehydrate b) Drinking enough fluids to match your sweat rates during exercise c) Consuming fluids with 6% to 8% carbohydrate solution, as it is ideal for gastric emptying d) Ensuring that urine color is dark yellow before rehydration

For a beginning client who displays some minor errors in performing an exercise, what type of cueing is MOST appropriate? a) Motivate the client to continue practicing and improving. b) Tell the client to stop, and demonstrate the entire movement from the start position. c) Provide encouragement for what was done well, and proceed to correct faulty movements. d) Demonstrate the movement again once the client has completed the current exercise set.

For any equipment used with clients, Personal Trainers should learn about equipment safety inspections, maintenance, and record-keeping policies as well as: a) Facility protocol for post-workout cleaning of the equipment. b) The age of the equipment. c) How to report equipment issues and request repairs. d) Whether the equipment is contraindicated for any special populations.

For men, a 3-site skinfold assessment is taken on the ________ side of the body at the ________. a) Left; triceps, suprailium, and thigh b) Left; chest, abdomen, and thigh c) Right; chest, abdomen, and thigh d) Right; triceps, suprailium, and thigh

For most clients, a positive effect of consistent energy deficits is: a) Reduced muscle mass. b) Lower metabolic rate. c) Decreased body weight. d) Increased carbohydrate stores.

Given the following complete health and medical history, which client has one risk factor? a) A 21-year-old female who has slight scoliosis with tightness on left hip abductors b) A 32-year-old male with family history of heart disease and pre-diabetes c) A physically active 55-year-old female d) A 46-year-old male with cholesterol of 208 mg·dL-1 that desires to begin training for his first marathon.

Greater amounts of physical activity are likely to be needed to achieve weight loss and prevent weight regain in adults and thus requires ________ minutes of moderate physical activity per week. a) 100 to 150 b) 45 to 60 c) 200 to 300 d) 20 to 30

Hormones that cause new protein production are referred to as ________, while those that influence protein breakdown are ________. a) Catabolic; metabolic b) Catabolic; anabolic c) Anabolic; catabolic d) Metabolic; anabolic

How many people can form a business partnership? a) Four or more b) A minimum of three c) Two or more d) A minimum of five

How many sets per exercise should a client perform for advanced resistance training benefits? a) 1 to 2 b) 6 to 8 c) 3 to 6 d) 2 to 3

If CEC documentation cannot be provided in the required timeframe: a) Your certification is terminated. b) You can petition for an additional 30 days to provide documentation. c) Your certification is considered "inactive." d) You must obtain new CECs.

If a client is overtraining, which of the following could happen during a vertical jump that will most likely lead to injury? a) Poor arm extension b) Poor lift off c) Poor landing d) Poor core flexion

If an activity requires a functional capacity of 6 METs, what is the total oxygen consumption of someone performing that activity? a) 0.6 mL·kg-1·min b) 10.5 mL·kg-1·min c) 21 mL·kg-1·min d) 6 mL·kg-1·min

If you have two or more ACSM certifications, how many CECs are required to renew? a) Twice the number of CECs as the highest level certification. b) The amount of CECs for each certification added together. c) The number of CECs for the highest level of certification held. d) Twice the number of CECs as the lowest level certification.

In a gym or fitness facility, the main source of business for a Personal Trainer is: a) Potential new members. b) Individuals with previous Personal Trainer experience. c) The membership base. d) Client referrals.

In the event of a lawsuit, incident/accident forms completed by a Personal Trainer are generally not made available to the plaintiff as they care covered under: a) Liability insurance. b) The good Samaritan law. c) The "work product" rule. d) Discovery.

In which environmental condition is it MOST important to replace body fluids?? a) Exercising in both heat and cold b) Exercising in humidity c) Exercising in heat d) Exercising in the cold

Inadequate carbohydrate intake is most associated with: a) Low blood pressure. b) Body composition changes. c) Reduced exercise performance. d) Weight gain.

Individuals reporting ________ following resistance training should significatnly reduce the overload and volume and increase the amount of rest. a) Joint tightness b) Transient hypertrophy c) Moderate soreness d) Minor soreness

Kettlebell exercises designed to mimic a sport-related movement is an example of: a) Structural exercises b) Proper progression c) Specificity training d) Muscle endurance training

Kyphosis is defined as: a) The convexity of the spinal curve is lateral. b) The convexity of the spinal curve is anterior. c) The convexity of the spinal curve is posterior. d) The convexity of the spinal curve is medial.

Laws and industry standards and guidelines exist to: a) Provide a defense in a lawsuit. b) Prohibit injuries. c) Avoid preventable accidents. d) Allow for shared responsibility between a Personal Trainer and the facility.

Many Personal Trainers use ________ as it gives clients concrete plans for change. a) Small Changes Model b) Social Cognitive Theory c) Goal Setting Theory d) SMART Theory

Multidisciplinary treatment for disorders associated with the Female Athlete Triad should include a health care professional, a registered dietitian, and likely: a) An endocrinologist. b) A Personal Trainer. c) A mental health practitioner. d) A physical therapist.

Obtaining medical clearance means the Personal Trainer: a) Can discuss medical information with any co-worker. b) Should refer the client to a specialist. c) Will not allow the client to exercise without physician approval. d) Is not legally liable for the exercise-induced medical issues.

One of the lead emerging areas for Personal Trainer liability is failure to: a) Appropriately document sessions. b) Safeguard client credit card information. c) Protect client confidentiality. d) Request approval to put client information in advertising materials.

One of the ways therapeutic massage aids in stress management is by: a) Repairing the stretch reflex. b) Improving muscle tone. c) Slowing secretion of stress hormones. d) Quieting mind chatter.

Overcoming a shoulder impingement can be done by strengthening and improving the function of the ________, and stretching the ________. a) Medial deltoid; subscapularis b) Posterior deltoids; supraspinatus c) External shoulder rotators; internal shoulder rotators d) Internal shoulder rotators; external shoulder rotators

Personal Trainers should share fitness assessment results positively and emphasize: a) How often the assessment will be repeated. b) The client's ability to improve with focused and continual effort. c) The baseline results that provide progress measurement over time. d) The benefits of training to improve test results in the future.

Regarding anatomy of the central nervous system, which of the following is TRUE? a) Initial strength gains are primarily due to muscle tissue changes. b) Spinal nerves exit the spinal cord to innervate only skeletal muscle. c) The CNS is represented by the brain and spinal cord. d) The CNS does not demonstrate plasticity with chronic training.

Regarding nutrient supplements, providing more nutrients than the body can use is: a) Beneficial because the body will use additional nutrients to improve health. b) Irrelevant because the body will excrete any extra quantities. c) Ineffective because it forces cells into using valuable energy resources to excrete surplus. d) Dangerous because excess nutrients will lead to toxicity and negatively impact health.

Respectively, lateral flexion and axial rotation are produced by which of the following muscles during unilateral contraction? a) Piriformis; semispinalis b) Iliopsoas; erector spinae c) Erector spinae; multifidus d) Rectus abdominis; mid-trapezius

Sending a reminder of a training session via an e-mail to your client may help with: a) Social barriers. b) Self-monitoring. c) Avoiding relapse. d) Goal setting.

Sharing program information with another Personal Trainer is appropriate provided that: a) The client has signed the Informed Consent. b) The client records are available to the training staff. c) More than one Personal Trainer will be working with the client. d) The other Personal Trainer is also a credentialed professional.

Tai chi is considered which type of exercise? a) Strength b) Flexibility c) Neuromotor d) Power

Target exercise intensity for clients with cardiovascular disease should fall ________ below a heart rate that has previously elicited abnormal clinical symptoms. a) 20 to 30 beats per minute b) 5 to 10 beats per minute c) 10 to 15 beats per minute d) 15 to 20 beats per minute

Tests for muscular strength, muscular endurance, cardiorespiratory fitness, and measurement of flexibility provide the Personal Trainer with information on the client's: a) Desire for change. b) Health history. c) Current fitness status. d) Interest in physical activity.

The ADA Dietary Guidelines recommend no more than 10% calories from: a) Monounsaturated fat. b) Polyunsaturated fat. c) Saturated fat. d) Alcohol.

The SAID (Specific Adaptations to Imposed Demands) Principle indicates that: a) The number of muscle spindles will increase according to the motor unit recruitment. b) The load and the volume of exercise must be specific to client goals. c) The adaptation will be specific to the demands that the exercise places upon the individual. d) Hypertrophy can only occur if the specific reps are within a 12-20 range.

The best cardiovascular training routine for someone with diabetes is: a) 10 minutes most days of the week. b) 3 to 5 times per week for 10 to 20 minutes. c) Daily for 20 to 60 minutes. d) 2 to 3 times per week for 30-60 minutes.

The best exercise progression for a sedentary client who wants to begin downhill skiing again would be: a) Stepping exercise, walking, downhill skiing, and skating b) Jogging, downhill skiing, running,and cross country skiing c) Walking, jogging, cross country skiing, and downhill skiing d) Jogging, running, aqua aerobics, and downhill skiing

The best strategy for maintaining a nutrient balance is to: a) Focus on daily ingestion of foods rich in vitamins and minerals. b) Minimize consumption of red meat. c) Consume a wide variety of foods. d) Eat organic fruits and vegetables each day.

The best types of stretches to include in a warm-up for walking or cycling are: a) Static b) Ballistic c) Dynamic d) PNF

The client screening process can be broken down into the three phases of risk classification, health-history, and assessments, and: a) Body composition measurement. b) Informed Consent. c) Medical clearance or referral. d) Prior exercise history.

The difference between an independent contractor and a sole proprietorship is that: a) A sole proprietor accesses health club equipment. b) The sole proprietor operates the business within a health club. c) The independent contractor operates the business within a health club. d) An independent contractor sets the percentage of training fees the health club pays.

The facet joints of the lumbar spine are oriented in the __________ which primarily allows ____________ motions. a) Sagittal plane; rotation b) Frontal plane; flexion/extension c) Sagittal plane; flexion/extension d) Transverse plane; side bending

The first line of defense in risk-management is to: a) Implement use of the PAR-Q for new clients. b) Purchase insurance against potential slip and fall occurrences. c) Create written policies and procedures. d) Form a limited liability corporation to protect personal assets.

The first thing you should do to establish and administer a personal training business is: a) Select the type of clientele you want to serve. b) Obtain certification. c) Develop a business plan. d) Register your company with local or state government.

The mnemonic HIPAA stands for: a) Health Information Privacy and Accountability Act. b) Health Insurance Private Activity Account. c) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. d) Health Information Personal Assurance Act.

The most common dietary fats are: a) Solid at room temperature b) Short-chain fatty acids c) Triglycerides d) Polyunsaturated fats

The most toxic of all vitamins if taken in high amounts, causing cardiovascular and renal damage and high blood calcium, is: a) Vitamin K b) Vitamin B c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin C

The serving of cheese you are consuming has 9 grams of protein. How many calories from protein is this? a) 81 kcal b) 56 kcal c) 36 kcal d) 4 kcal

The signs and symptoms of cardiovascular, pulmonary, and metabolic diseases that require a more thorough medical history or health care examination include edema, orthopnea, and: a) Dizziness. b) Unusual fatigue. c) Heart murmur. d) Shortness of breath at rest.

The skill-related components of physical fitness include: a) Speed, flexibility, coordination, balance, power, and strength b) Agility, flexibility, coordination, balance, power, and endurance c) Speed, agility, coordination, balance, power, and reaction-time d) Agility, speed, coordination, balance, reaction-time, and endurance

The term for low bone mineral density is: a) Osteoporosis. b) Osteocompromise. c) Osteopenia. d) Eumenorrhea.

To best protect your business, you should: a) Purchase the best general liability insurance. b) Patent all program designs and handouts. c) Register your intellectual property. d) Copyright your exercise prescriptions.

To create an optimal training environment, the Personal Trainer should: a) Position the client's body as needed to promote kinesthetic awareness. b) Encourage the client to finish the last few repetitions of a difficult exercise. c) Provide immediate corrective feedback to ensure client safety. d) Provide as much positive feedback during initial sessions.

To fully stretch the quadriceps, the hip joint must be ________ and the knee joint ________. a) flexed; flexed b) flexed; extended c) extended; flexed d) extended; extended

To get the most out of a butterfly stretch, you should: a) Stand on the client's legs to increase range of motion. b) Have the client bounce the knees up and down. c) Have the client push the knees toward the floor with their elbows. d) Have the client round the back forward.

To make the most personal training sales, it's best to: a) Compete with other Personal Ttrainers in the gym for new sales. b) Be a visual role model for clients. c) Ask for the sale from as many prospects as possible. d) Keep track of advertising efforts in a log book.

To properly perform static stretching, the muscles should: a) Incorporate movements that are specific to sport movement. b) Move with upper extremity motions and then progress toward lower extremity motions. c) Be held in a stationary position for several seconds at peak tension. d) Use momentum of the moving body segment to produce peak muscle tension.

To reinforce what was done well by the client, you should: a) Remind the client of accomplishments at the beginning of each month. b) Contact the client after each training session with a personal follow-up call. c) Immediately recognize when the client performs well or reaches significant milestones. d) Send a brief text message or e-mail weekly when significant progress has been made.

To stretch the latissimus dorsi, the position of the arm should be placed in maximal ________ in the frontal plane with slight trunk lateral flexion to the opposite side. a) External rotation b) Extension c) Abduction d) Adduction

What are the five stages of appreciative inquiry? a) Determine, delegate, divide, direct, and deliver b) Discover, delegate, design, direct, and deliver c) Define, discover, dream, design, and deliver d) Define, date, divide, dream, deliver

What does a partial squat create when done prior to a vertical jump? a) Post-stretch b) PNF-stretch c) Pre-stretch d) Ballistic-stretch

What is considered proper qualifications to perform the job of Personal Training will vary based on local jurisdiction and/or: a) Quality of certifications held. b) Personal Trainer area of specialization. c) Facility employment policies. d) State licensing law.

What is the best way to teach a squat to a client who you have identified as a kinesthetic learner? a) Demonstrate the squat with verbal cues. b) Have the client watch you squat. c) Have the client perform the squat as you cue them. d) Show the client pictures of proper squat technique.

What is the most important strategy when working with a client who is at risk for relapse? a) Enhancing the client's assertiveness b) Planning ahead and being prepared c) Developing a system of social support d) Signing behavioral contracts

What is the primary advantage of the increase in blood volume that results from chronic aerobic exercise? a) Reduced work environment for the heart b) Improved VO2max c) Enhanced oxygen delivery to working muscles d) Decreased cardiac stress

What is the proper exercise sequence for these advanced exercises? a) Tricep Extension, bicep curl, bench press, squat, lunge, abdominal crunch b) Abdominal crunch, tricep extension, bench press, lunge, bicep curl, squat c) Squat, lunge, bench press, tricep extension, bicep curl, abdominal crunch d) Lunge, squat, tricep extension, bench press, bicep curl, abdominal crunch

What joint action of the shoulder is performed during a reverse cable fly or a reverse dumbbell fly? a) Horizontal adduction b) Retraction c) Horizontal abduction d) Protraction

What work-to-recovery ratio would be MOST appropriate to include in a resistance training circuit for small group personal training sessions with clients who have primary goals that require enhanced muscular endurance? a) 90 second work interval: 75 second recovery b) 90 second work interval: 2 to 3 minute recovery c) 75 second work interval: 20 second recovery d) 75 second interval: 3 to 5 minute recovery

What would be a good target heart rate for a deconditioned 40-year-old female? a) 126 to 144 bpm b) 108 to 126 bpm c) 81 to 99 bpm d) 135 to 153 bpm

What would be a good target heart rate range for a moderately trained female, age 42, with a resting heart rate of 60? a) 120 to 130 bpm b) 160 to 170 bpm c) 143 to 154 bpm d) 125 to 142 bpm

What would be a good target heart rate range for a moderately trained man, age 35, with a resting heart rate of 65? a) 125 to 137 bpm b) 129 to 148 bpm c) 149 to 161 bpm d) 84 to 96 bpm

When Personal Trainer legal requirements are minimal, maintaining professionalism and minimizing liability is accomplished by professional certifications and: a) Advertisement in facility materials. b) Continuing education. c) Adhering to industry-recognized standards. d) Local publication of Personal Trainer qualifications.

When a client has a "winging" scapula at the end of the push phase of a push-up, the ________ muscle is probably weak. a) Subscapularis b) Supraspinatus c) Serratus anterior d) Sartorius

When a client's muscle or joint problem is brought on or aggravated by exercise, the Personal Trainer should: a) Complete a new physical assessment of the client. b) Send the client home for the day. c) Refer the client to a health care professional. d) Follow appropriate first aid techniques.

When demonstrating a bicep curl for your client using dumbbells, which of the following cues should you give? a) It is important that the elbows remain at least 5 inches from your sides in order to get the most contraction. b) When lowering the weight, make sure you take your elbow to full extension before curling the weight again. c) Be sure not to swing your arms and throw your back into the exercise. d) Make sure you curl your wrists as you reach the end range to maximize the bicep's contraction.

When documenting a client's training session, which of the following must be included? a) Targeted muscle groups b) Signs of increased respiration c) Exercises, weights, sets, and repetitions d) 24-hour diet recall

When focusing on a client performing exercises on the floor, the Personal Trainer should: a) Allow the client to perform activities uninterrupted in this safe position. b) Keep a watchful eye from a distance, and count repetitions. c) Be nearby on the floor in a sitting or kneeling position. d) Stand over the client and provide cues as appropriate.

When performing a dumbbell press on a stability ball that is load rated to safely support the weight and the client's body weight, the resistance should be ________ relative to performing the exercise on a flat bench. a) Increased b) No weight should be used c) Decreased d) Be unchanged

When spotting the elbow extension exercise, where is the best place to spot? a) Hold the client's torso upright. b) Place your hands on the client's shoulders c) Assist by pressing the bar with the client. d) Place your hands on the client's elbows

When stepping up and down on a device for cardiovascular training, you should: a) Lean forward, and try to stay on the balls of the feet. b) Look down at your feet the entire time. c) Keep your body upright and push through the heels. d) Use the arm rests as much as possible.

When walking on a treadmill, it is important to: a) Hold onto the treadmill with both hands at all times. b) Grab the handles every 2 to 3 minutes to steady your gait. c) Use your arms in a natural walking pattern. d) Hold onto the treadmill with one hand at all times.

Which exercise gives an example of dynamic constant exercise resistance? a) Leg extension b) Knee flexion c) Kettle bell swing d) Cable upright row

Which exercise will require a stronger core component? a) Standing barbell bicep curl with a barbell with feet close together b) Bench press from the floor c) Push up on a stability ball with feet close together d) Machine hamstring curl

Which group of muscles function to extend the hip joint? a) Gluteus medius and hamstrings b) Piriformis and gluteus maximus c) Gluteus maxmimus and hamstrings d) Gluteus maximus and gluteus medius

Which heart rate range would be ideal for a 65-year-old male on high blood pressure medication who needs to lose 30 pounds and has been cleared for exercise? a) 69 to 85 bpm b) 101 to 116 bpm c) 12 to 13 RPE on the 6-20 scale d) 8 to 10 RPE on the 6-20 scale

Which law of motion states that an object at rest will stay at rest and an object in motion stays in motion? a) Law of reaction b) Law of acceleration c) Law of inertia d) Law of gravity

Which motor skill should you focus on most when working with an older adult who has issues with falling? a) Power b) Agility c) Balance d) Flexibility

Which muscle is responsible for protraction of the scapula? a) Pec major b) Rhomboids c) Serratus anterior d) Teres minor

Which muscles function to elevate the shoulder girdle? a) Pectoralis minor and serratus anterior b) Teres major and latissimus dorsi c) Levator scapulae and upper trapezius d) Rhomboid major and rhomboid minor

Which of the following BEST describes shoulder impingement? a) Increased shoulder pain when moving into shoulder horizontal abduction b) Increased shoulder pressure on the superior aspect of the acromion process c) Compression of the tendons in the subacromial space with shoulder joint motion d) Crushing of only the supraspinatus tendon and bursa in the suprahumeral space

Which of the following BEST describes the physiological principle associated with the Valsalva maneuver? a) It increases intra-thoracic pressure, which results in increased stroke volume. b) It decreases intra-thoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume. c) It increases intra-thoracic pressure, which results in decreased stroke volume. d) It decreases intra-thoracic pressure, which results in increased stroke volume.

Which of the following BEST describes the primary difference between standing and seated calf raises? a) The seated calf raise targets the soleus, while the standing calf raise targets the gastrocnemius and invertors. b) The seated calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for power in the lower leg, while the standing calf raise targets the muscle primarily responsible for endurance. c) Seated calf raises emphasize the soleus muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the gastrocnemius muscle. d) Seated calf raises emphasize the gastrocnemius muscle, while the standing calf raise emphasizes the soleus muscle.

Which of the following BEST fosters exercise adherence and progression toward the client's goal? a) Helping clients focus on never missing a session b) Setting several progressive goals on a weekly basis c) Setting a few attainable short-term goals d) Keeping clients focused on their primary long-term goals

Which of the following actions takes place in the sagittal plane? a) Pronation of the forearm b) Depression of the scapulae c) Dorsiflexion of the ankle d) Opposition of the thumb

Which of the following are the alcohol consumption recommendations per the ADA Dietary Guidelines? a) Avoid alcohol b) No more than three drinks per day c) Moderation, up to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men d) No more than three drinks per week

Which of the following assesses anaerobic capacity? a) 800-meter run b) Pro-agility test c) 300-yard shuttle run d) Vertical jump test

Which of the following assesses lower-body muscular strength? a) Health-risk appraisal b) Movement screening c) One-repetition maximum squat d) Static posture assessment

Which of the following benefits of neuromotor exercise will have the GREATEST impact on self-esteem? a) Improved muscular strength b) Enhanced flexibility c) Enhanced balance d) Increased self-efficacy

Which of the following best defines the precontemplation stage? a) A smoker is considering stopping given her recent health issues b) A female with prediabetes is aware of her need to control her blood glucose levels c) An overweight individual does not value the benefits of exercise d) An individual who has just been diagnosed with hypertension begins to research fitness facilities in her neighborhood

Which of the following best describes the scapular or caption plane? a) In line with the sagittal plane b) 30° lateral to the sagittal plane c) 30° anterior to the frontal plane d) In line with the frontal plane

Which of the following cardiorespiratory variables requires the most attention during the early stages of an exercise program? a) Frequency b) Duration c) Intensity d) Type

Which of the following drills would be good for clients who want to improve their agility? a) Standing box jumps from one box to the next b) Standing on a bosu ball while performing a bicep curl c) Lateral box cone drill, moving quickly from one cone to the next in a diagonal pattern d) 100-meter dash progression, starting with 50 meters

Which of the following exercise variations would be the most challenging? a) Push-up from the knees b) Push up with hands holding dumbbells c) Push-up with feet up suspended in the air in straps d) Push up with the feet close together

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding Goal Setting Theory? a) Goals actually provide little intrinsic and extrinsic motivation b) Goals provide guidance to trainers on the type of expert guidance required c) Goals bring focus and energy toward the desired behavior d) Goals become secondary to the process of reaching them

Which of the following is MOST accurate regarding Personal Trainers recommending supplements to their clients? a) Personal Trainers should recommend only natural supplements due to potential complications with other medications. b) Personal Trainers should only recommend those supplements covered under their professional liability insurance. c) Personal Trainers do not possess the qualifications to recommend supplements unless they have the appropriate licenses. d) Personal Trainers should become educated about the specific supplements before making any recommendations.

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for a novice athlete starting plyometric training? a) Hops and bounds b) Multiple linear hops c) Jumps in place d) Single linear jumps

Which of the following is a fallacy regarding dietary fiber? a) Fiber assists with control of blood sugar. b) Fiber may reduce risk of heart disease. c) Fiber is found mainly in simple carbohydrates. d) Fiber can lower fat and cholesterol absorption.

Which of the following is a medical emergency that requires immediate cooling with ice baths or any other means to lower body temperature? a) Heat exhaustion b) Dehydration c) Heat stroke d) Muscle cramps

Which of the following is a positive risk factor? a) Low-density lipoprotein 120 mg·dL-1 b) Sudden death of mother at 70 years of age c) Walking to and from work 3 days a week, for 20 minutes, for the past 2 months d) Fasting plasma glucose 80 mg·dL-1

Which of the following is a positive risk factor? a) Women >50 years b) High-density lipoprotein 55 mg·dL-1 c) Regular exposure to tobacco smoke d) Men >40 years

Which of the following is a self-guided screening questionnaire that focuses on symptoms of heart disease and possible musculoskeletal problems needing evaluation before beginning an exercise program? a) Health History Evaluation b) Exercise Readiness Inventory c) Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q) d) AHA/ACSM Pre-Participation Screening Questionnaire

Which of the following is a standardized skinfold measurement site? a) Lateral calf b) Deltoid c) Abdominal d) Anterior tibialis

Which of the following is an ADVANTAGE of working as an independent contractor? a) The facility provides health insurance and other benefits. b) The facility provides opportunities for promotion. c) The facility allows the Personal Trainer to utilize the facilities' equipment. d) The facility covers the cost of marketing for new facility members.

Which of the following is an acute response to cardiorespiratory exercise? a) Increase in resting heart rate b) Decrease in cardiac output c) Increase in stroke volume d) Decrease in blood pressure

Which of the following is an example of appraisal support? a) A group fitness instructor encouraging your client's attendance in more classes b) Handouts from a Personal Trainer on new exercise routines c) A spouse who praises your client on the progress that has been made d) A family member who offers to watch the client's kids so your client can work out

Which of the following is an example of informational support? a) Co-workers who give feedback on the changes they have seen in your client b) A spouse taking a walk with the client c) E-mails from health Web sites about how to incorporate exercise into your client's life d) A spouse offering to cook dinner while your client works out

Which of the following is the MOST important safety consideration when working with children? a) Maintain a very structured warm-up, conditioning, and cool down. b) Minimize jumping and bounding drills. c) Maintain proper hydration to avoid heat injuries. d) Limit strength to five repetition-maximum for strength training.

Which of the following is the MOST powerful method of marketing to potential clients? a) Direct mailers b) Complimentary consultations c) Word of mouth d) Website

Which of the following is used the least in energy production? a) Carbohydrate b) Protein c) Fiber d) Fat

Which of the following joints favors mobility over stability? a) Ankle b) Thoracic spine c) Glenohumeral d) Knee

Which of the following motor skills are ideal to promote neuromotor training? a) Agility, flexibility, and balance b) Power, speed, and agility c) Balance, agility, and coordination d) Power, coordination, and flexibility

Which of the following muscles are involved in protraction of the scapulothoracic joint? a) Rhomboids and serratus anterior b) Trapezius and pectoralis minor c) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor d) Trapezius and rhomboids

Which of the following muscles may be weak if a client has a "winging" scapula during a push-up? a) Pec major b) Pec minor c) Serratus anterior d) Rhomboids

Which of the following profiles is considered a risk factor with respect to obesity? a) Body fat percent of 25% for females b) Waist of 38 inches for males c) Waist of 36 inches for females d) Body fat percent of 25% for males

Which of the following routines is an example of specificity training for a runner? a) Resistance training most days of the week for the entire body using 6 to 8 reps b) Resistance training for the lower body, 3 times a week, using 4 to 8 reps c) Resistance training for the entire body, 3 times a week, using 15 to 20 reps d) Resistance training for the upper body, 3 times a week, using 8 to 12 reps

Which of the following statements about flexibility is the MOST accurate? a) Flexibility naturally increases due to a decrease collagen levels. b) Males typically have more flexibility in the lower extremity than females. c) With age, collagen fibers become more rigid and more resistant to stretching. d) Any build-up of scar tissue after injury often causes flexibility to plateau.

Which of the following statements is ideal for cueing a client as he performs a squat? a) "No, exhale as you straighten your legs." b) "One, bring your glutes back; two, flex your knees; and three, don't look down." c) "Be sure to push through your heels." d) "Don't lock out your knees."

Which of the following statements is the MOST accurate regarding strength training in the lumbo-pelvic region? a) Supine double leg raises should be avoided, but prone double leg raises are beneficial for clients who have low-back pain. b) Full ROM spinal movements with an external load are best performed shortly after rising from bed. c) Pelvic stabilization forces the lumbar muscles to be the primary trunk extensors, thereby providing the overload stimulus for strengthening. d) Low-back exercises have the most beneficial effect when in the transverse plane.

Which of the following strategies is LEAST effective in promoting client ownership of the exercise program? a) Empower the client through education in determining the program outcomes. b) Reinforce the client's behavior by teaching how to self-regulate. c) Educate the client about the risks of being inactive and the associated increase in morbidity and mortality. d) Have the client document their thoughts, experiences, and emotions in a journal.

Which of the following techniques helps facilitate intrinsically motivated goals from a collaborative discussion? a) Active inquiry b) SMART goal setting c) Motivational interviewing d) Advanced client intake assessment

Which of the following would MOST likely lead to impingement syndrome? a) Over-developed lower trapezius b) Over-developed mid-trapezius c) Over-developed anterior deltoid d) Over-developed posterior deltoid

Which of the followings signs indicates you should not let your client exercise that day and refer them to a physician? a) A resting heart rate of 72 beats per minute b) A resting blood pressure of 130/84 mm Hg c) Abnormally uncomfortable awareness of breathing d) Feelings of depression

Which stretch is best for stretching the iliopsoas? a) Seated hamstring stretch b) Supine knee to chest c) Kneeling hip flexor stretch d) Prone quadriceps stretch

Which stretch is most effective for stretching the abdominal wall? a) Arm hug b) Supine rotation stretch c) Modified cobra d) Arm across the chest

Which stretching technique involves holding each stretch to the point of tension for 15 to 60 seconds? a) Dynamic stretching b) Ballistic stretching c) Static stretching d) Active isolated stretching

You client has an acute hamstring strain. You should AVOID: a) Modifying the workout, focusing on the non-injured points of the body. b) Recommending that the client see a physician if pain persists. c) Stretching the hamstring for up to 60 seconds per stretch. d) Educating the client about RICE principles as an early intervention strategy.

You client states that she is sore and experiencing some minor swelling in her joints following a weekend squash tournament. You should: a) Recommend the use of over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medications. b) Provide deep tissue massage to help relieve the soreness. c) Discuss the proper technique for icing affected areas. d) Recommend the use of a creatine supplement prior to her next tournament.

Your 220-pound client should consume how many grams of carbohydrate each day? a) 22 to 36 grams b) 220 grams c) 600 to 1000 grams d) 120 to 200 grams

Your client is a 30-year-old male who has not been active in the last few months. He has completed all the forms, and you observe that he does not have any risk factors. He reports that he experienced some shortness of breath while playing a pick-up basketball game this weekend, something he hasn't done in a year. You should: a) Require that he undergo fitness assessments with medical supervision. b) Ask him to obtain medical clearance before you begin training. c) Perform the appropriate assessments and plan on an exercise program that gradually increases in intensity. d) Refer him to a respiratory therapist for testing and exercise guidelines.

Your client is a self-motivated teenager who focuses on achieving her goals; however, she does not like sports or exercise and has come to you for help losing weight. The best way to motivate her in order to build self-efficacy would be to: a) Encourage her to weight train with you 3 times a week to her favorite music so she is self-motivated. b) Challenge her by encouraging her to sign up for girls track so she is motivated to exercise with her peers. c) Allow her to choose her own activities in order to give her ownership of something she previously "did not like." d) Write out specific activities for her to do on a daily basis, but keep the duration short so she has time to adapt.

Your client is performing a dumbbell lunge with the weight in her right hand and right leg forward. You notice that during the concentric phase, she drops her pelvis on the contralateral side. Which muscle is MOST likely weak? a) Left gluteus medius b) Left biceps femoris c) Right gluteus medius d) Right erector spinae

Your client needs to strengthen her scapular retractors to enhance her scapulothoracic stability. Given this need, you should strengthen which of the following muscles? a) Pectoralis minor and trapezius b) Latissimus dorsi and subscapularis c) Rhomboids and mid-trapezius d) Posterior deltoid and triceps brachii

Your client sets a goal of losing 25 pounds before her high school reunion in a month. An appropriate response would be: a) "That's a great goal, but let's break it down into smaller weekly goals." b) "It is unrealistic to think you can lose 25 pounds in a month." c) "That's a specific and time-oriented goal. Let's talk about how realistic that goal is with such a short time frame." d) "Tell me how you plan to accomplish that."

A key method for minimizing liability for client injury from use of free weights is to: a) Only use free weights with highly experienced clients. b) Teach your client how to tell you they are fatigued. c) Make sure you follow correct spotting techniques. d) Keep detailed and specific records of each session.

A measure of cardiorespiratory fitness improvement includes: a) Increased respiration rate at maximal workload. b) Increased heart rate at a given submaximal workload. c) Increased VO at a given submaximal workloads. d) Increased maximal oxygen consumption.

A new client tells you that he was an avid tennis player before he hurt his back a year ago. He often thought about it when he would bring his son to tennis lessons. Now that he no longer has symptoms, he is ready to get in shape for tennis. Based on the sequence of these events, what was the progression for the stages of change? a) Maintenance, contemplation, preparation b) Maintenance, contemplation, action c) Action, maintenance, preparation d) Action, precontemplation, action

A provoking factor of non-ischemic cardiac disease symptoms is: a) Aerboic exercise. b) Cold weather. c) After meals. d) The completion of exercise.

A solid business plan starts with a comprehensive: a) Assessment of competition. b) Clearly established budget. c) Marketing campaign. d) Demographic analysis.

A strategy that will help increase physical activity levels in novice clients would be to encourage them to: a) Perform moderate-intensity exercise walking daily. b) Plan on vigorous-intensity exercise for 30 minutes, 3 times a week. c) Learn about perceived exertion. d) Take the stairs instead of the elevator.

A typical chronic response to improved cardiorespiratory fitness is an increase in: a) Resting heart rate b) Diastolic blood pressure c) Maximal heart rate d) Maximal oxygen consumption

ACSM awards CECs for courses EXCEPT for: a) Teaching academic courses. b) Writing journal articles. c) Distance education. d) CPR training.

ACSM weight loss and weight loss maintenance strategy for clients calls for a weekly activity increase of: a) 420 minutes b) 150 to 200 minutes c) 360 minutes d) 250 to 300 minutes

AED stands for: a) Anterior external defibrillator. b) Anterior exercise defibrillator. c) Automatic external defibrillator. d) Automated external defibrillator.

Abruptly stopping exercise can cause: a) Reduce muscle soreness. b) Removal of metabolic waste. c) Hypertension. d) Excessive drop in blood pressure.

According to the 2013 ACSM Guidelines, significant health benefits can be achieved with ________. a) An accumulation of at least 30 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity on most days of the week. b) Strength training and cardio respiratory exercise using small and large muscle groups, 20 to 30 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days a week. c) Performing moderate-to-vigorous cardio respiratory exercise using large muscle groups, 10 to 20 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days a week. d) A combination of moderate to vigorous exercise involving major muscle groups, 30 to 60 minutes per session, 3 to 5 days per week.

Active listening allows a Personal Trainer to do which of the following effectively? a) Plan out the client's initial exercise program while expressing genuineness b) Record detailed notes about the client's exercise history and preferences c) Formulate responses and counterpoints to the client's beliefs and concerns d) Gain a better understanding of the client in order to facilitate rapport and program design

Active listening involves ________ and ________. a) Empathy; rapport b) Paraphrasing; head nodding c) Clarification; eye contact d) Verbal; nonverbal skills

Almost all adults will encounter which of the following at some time during their participation in exercise? a) Decreased HDL b) Goal attainment c) Normalized blood pressure d) Return to sedentary behavior

An ACSM Certified Personal Trainer is deemed proficient in writing exercise recommendations, leading and demonstrating safe and effective exercise, and: a) Working with low-, moderate-, and high-risk clients b) The prevention and management of metabolic disease. c) Conducting fitness assessments for diagnostic purposes. d) Motivating individuals to start and maintain healthy behaviors.

An advanced client is training with the goal of increasing strength. He has been performing 3 sets, using a 8 to 12 repetition maximum for the past 8 weeks. Which modification will result in the GREATEST strength gains? a) 2 to 4 sets, 1 to 3 reps maximum, for 2 weeks b) 1 to 2 sets, 8 to 12 reps maximum, weekly c) 3 sets, 15 to 20 reps maximum, utilizing negative and assisted work d) 3 to 5 sets, 5 to 6 reps maximum, for 6 to 12 weeks

An example of variety in training is: a) Progressive overload. b) Specific adaptations to imposed demands. c) Prioritized training. d) Periodized training.

An experienced client has good flexibility and would like to address functional flexibility during his post-exercise stretching routine. He should incorporate: a) Active isolated stretching and ballistic stretching. b) Myofascial release and active isolated stretchin.g c) Dynamic stretching and ballistic stretching. d) Static stretching and proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation.

An ideal exercise to improve the activities of daily living for a client who has back pain would be: a) The leg extension machine. b) Bosu ball squat holding dumbbells at chest level. c) The supine leg press. d) A squat against the wall with a stability ball behind the back.

An overweight individual expresses motivation to lose weight after the birth of his son. He is in which stage of change? a) Preparation b) Precontemplation c) Action d) Contemplation

Another term for an Informed Consent document is: a) Waiver. b) Designation of Liability. c) Negligence release. d) Assumption of the Risk.

As part of a risk management, Personal Trainers should have written policies, procedures, and forms, to ensure that they: a) Create limited liability. b) Prevent ethical misconduct. c) Disclose possible danger to clients. d) Exercise reasonable care.

Based on the ADA 2010 Dietary Guidelines for Americans, MyPlate recommends how much of your plate should be fruits and vegetables at each meal? a) One-quarter b) One-third c) Three-quarters d) Half

Basketball would be a good sport choice for which of the following populations? a) An adult with a blood pressure of at least 130/80 mm Hg b) Any client with a BMI of 30 or higher c) All adults d) Adults with a regular exercise program and at least average physical fitness

Before establishing pricing for your personal training business it is essential to consider: a) Tax implications. b) Business location. c) Equipment needs. d) General business objectives.

Beginning and ending sessions on time is important because: a) It ensures all Personal Trainers provide the same service value. b) It allows the Personal Trainer to book sessions back to back. c) Clients pay for an hour, a full hour, and no more. d) It demonstrates respect for the client's time and schedule.

Carbohydrates contain how many kilocalories per gram? a) 2 kcal per gram b) 9 kcal per gram c) 7 kcal per gram d) 4 kcal per gram

Child athletes tend to be at greater risk of developing serious heat illness because: a) Child athletes are not as adept at assessing their exertion level. b) Drinking large amounts of fluid after exercise is more difficult for child athletes. c) Exercise heart rates are higher for young athletes than adult exercisers at the same intensity. d) Young athletes produce less sweat per gland.

Clients will have an understanding of their risk factors based on what theory of behavior change? a) Theory of planned behavior b) Transtheoretical model of change c) Social cognitive theory d) Health belief model

Concentric contraction of the triceps brachii muscle causes ____________ in the _____________plane. a) Flexion; frontal b) Flexion; sagittal c) Extension; frontal d) Extension; sagittal

Designing a stretching and strengthening program to help "straighten" a client's lordotic posture is: a) Allowed if the client was referred by chiropractor. b) Not allowed as it is outside the scope of practice. c) Inappropriate as Personal Trainers should focus on strengthening. d) Within the scope of practice.

Distribution of non-original work as educational material is acceptable according to copyright law if: a) Distribution of the material is limited to paying personal training clients only. b) Express written permission for distribution is obtained in written from the original author. c) It is rewritten prior to distribution. d) Original authorship is credited on the distribution source (handout or Web site).

During a lat pull down, the bar should be pulled to the? a) Upper traps b) Thighs c) Chin d) Upper chest

During an appointment with a Personal Trainer, an obese client says, "I'm here because I want to be healthier." A good response would be: a) "I can put you on a great weight-loss program." b) "Do you prefer to lose weight with cardiovascular exercise or diet restriction?" c) "Let's start with a diet plan for you." d) "Help me understand what being healthy means to you."

During the concentric phase of a hamstring curl, the hamstrings are __________. a) Abducted b) Extended c) Adducted d) Flexed

Flexion, extension, adduction, abduction, internal rotation, and external rotation are possible joint actions found in the: a) Carpal-metacarpal joint b) Wrist joint c) Saddle joint d) Hip joint

Following the initial client contact, what are the next steps after the client has completed and returned all forms to you? a) Recommend appropriate personal training packages. b) Discuss expectations. c) Conduct client consultation. d) Review paperwork and clarify goals.

For ACSM to accept CECs for certification renewal: a) Documentation should be submitted on CECs to ACSM. b) The provider agency should use an hourly CEC determination system versus the decimal system. c) The CEC provider must be listed on the ACSM Approved Provider list. d) Educational events by organizations will generally be approved if directly related to the certification.

For a client who appears to be ready to work with a personal trainer and make other necessary changes, which of the following tools can be utilized to help a client move toward the next stage of change? a) Process of change b) Operant conditioning c) Self-efficacy d) Decisional balance

Functional isometric strength training is effective when performed near the sticking point or ________ of the exercise. a) Shortened muscle contraction b) Strong point c) Lengthened muscle contraction d) Weak point

Hypertension is often clustered with other risk factors associated with cardiovascular disease, including: a) Insomnia. b) Osteoporosis. c) Chronic edema. d) Diabetes.

In a market analysis, demand projections are key to tell you about the: a) What other Personal Trainers charge for their services. b) How many prospects there are in the geographical area. c) Perceived needs of the prospect base. d) Size of the market for services.

In general, behaviors are so difficult to change because the client: a) Usually lacks will power to engage in exercise. b) Is not fully committed to modifying the required behaviors. c) Lacks the knowledge on how to start an exercise program. d) Has maintained this behavior over time and has reinforced it in his or her environment.

In order for the body to adapt to exercise efficiently, how much rest time should someone allow in between resistance training programs with any given muscle groups? a) 12 hours b) 72 hours c) 24 hours d) 48 hours

In preparation for the initial consultation, which of the following will demonstrate genuineness toward and provide motivation for the upcoming visit? a) Sending an email reminder on appropriate attire and scheduled time b) Having the front desk call the client as a reminder of the time and location c) Mailing a postcard to remind the client of the time and hydration principles d) Calling the client as a reminder and expressing that you are looking forward to helping the client meet his or her goals

Joseph has reached his strength and body composition goals by strength training three days per week for an hour the last few months. He now wants to focus on maintaining his strength while on summer vacation for a month. Which program would be MOST appropriate? a) Decrease weight load and total sets, and utilize primarily free weight exercises. b) Decrease the time spent strength training to 30 minutes, and train five days per week. c) Use a three day split routine using a sets and repetition range of 3 x 4-6. d) Decrease exercise to two days per week, training the total body a least one set.

Legally, and according to the IRS, in a sole proprietorship the business and the individual: a) Can divide profits or losses between them for tax purposes. b) Are equally responsible for incurred debt. c) Are considered distinct entities. d) Are considered one and the same.

Low energy availability directly impairs bone health and development in female athletes by: a) Inducing amenorrhea. b) Restraining bone resorption. c) Increasing estrogen production. d) Suppressing the hormones that promote bone formation.

Movement toward the midline in the transverse plane describes which term? a) Adduction b) Abduction c) Horizontal abduction d) Horizontal adduction

One of the benefits of the S corporation is: a) It is particularly well suited for large businesses. b) Partners must collectively distribute dividends. c) Taxes are paid on both salary and business income. d) Limited risk and exposure of personal assets.

One of the roles of protein is maintaining fluid balance between the blood and surrounding tissues. During exercise this: a) Ensures heart rate increases are gradual. b) Helps avoid edema. c) Stabilizes production of stress hormones. d) Helps maintenance of blood volume and sweat rates.

Palpitations are BEST defined as: a) A slowing down of heart rate that occurs during cool down. b) A sudden increase of heart rate during exertion. c) A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute. d) An uncomfortable rhythm of heart beats or forceful heart beats.

Personal Trainers should calculate a client's desired body weight for: a) Identifying potential disordered eating. b) Use in calculating percent body fat. c) Motivating the client. d) Use in weight loss goal setting and weight maintenance.

Personal Trainers who provide training to individuals or groups in clients' homes or outdoor settings may need to add a ________ policy to their existing insurance. a) Umbrella insurance b) Specific insurance rider c) Professional liability d) Premises liability

Personal training facilities operate as a business/invitee relationship, where the obligations and duties of the business to the invitee are: a) Dependent on trainer qualifications. b) Varied based on state law. c) Limited by insurance coverage. d) Heightened.

Please refer to client profile below: 45-year-old male Mother has hypertension Father had coronary bypass surgery at age 59 Quit smoking 20 years ago Walks dog 1 to 2 times per day, for 10 minutes per walk BMI: 29 kg/m2 Blood Pressure: 132/86 mm Hg Total serum cholesterol: 216 mg·dL-1 LDL cholesterol: 138 mg·dL-1 HDL cholesterol: 48 mg·dL-1 Fasting plasma glucose: 94 mg·dL-1 Goals: Lose 20 lb; increase muscle strength and cardiorespiratory fitness What is this client's "total score" for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease using the ACSM risk factor thresholds? a) 2 b) 4 c) 1 d) 3

Prior to spotting a client for a strength exercise, you must first: a) Place your hands under the client's elbow joint. b) Place your hands proximal to the wrists. c) Position your body to take over the exercise. d) Ask for permission.

Professional liability insurance can provide for a variety of claim types including sexual harassment, negligence, personal or property injury, or: a) Certification lapses. b) Liable of character. c) Ethics violations. d) Breach of contract.

Pronation of the wrist joint occurs in: a) The frontal plane. b) Multiple planes. c) The sagittal plane. d) The transverse plane.

Proper hydration during exercise ensures: a) Less sweating. b) An increase in muscle glycogen usage. c) A rapid increase in heart rate. d) Improved cardiac output.

Protein consumed beyond ________ is either stored as fat or metabolized as an energy source. a) Protein is never stored as fat or used as an energy source b) 100 grams per day c) 30% of daily caloric intake d) 1.5 grams per kg of body weight

Providing professional services to a client that are legal and appropriate is defined as: a) Professional conduct. b) Bounds of competence. c) Code of ethics. d) Scope of practice.

Psychological problems associated with eating disorders include low self-esteem, depression, and: a) Acute hyperactivity. b) Attention deficit disorder. c) Suicide risk. d) Anxiety disorders.

Regarding the goal setting theory, a client that has more ________ selected goals will have greater _________ motivation. a) Self-directed, extrinsic b) Trainer, intrinsic c) Trainer, extrinsic d) Self-directed, intrinsic

Resistance training exercise prescription requires continual planning, assessing, and changing. Sound decisions must factor in the needs of the sport or activity, individual training response, and: a) Body composition. b) Client motivation. c) Exercise history. d) Available testing data.

Scope of practice for Personal Trainers in the area of nutrition includes: a) Counseling clients on disordered eating patterns. b) Providing diet plans for your clients. c) Recommending supplements for clients to assist them in meeting their goals. d) Teaching nutrition fundamentals and assisting clients with weight loss programs.

Sean is performing barbell squats with the intent of building up his quadriceps muscles. To make the quadriceps perform MORE work and INCREASE the efficiency of the exercise, he should: a) Push up, utilizing the muscles around the hip joint. b) Utilize the proper size weightlifting belt. c) Maintain a cervical extension posture throughout the movement. d) Minimize the amount of trunk flexion at the start of the concentric phase.

Seeking client feedback demonstrates which of the following to the client? a) The client is being challenged by the current program. b) The client is properly engaged in the training session activities. c) You are open to modifying training parameters while still working toward established goals. d) You are attentive to the client's needs and well-being.

Self-administered questionnaires are less useful for Personal Trainers because: a) These forms promote underestimation of risk factors. b) Clients are more likely to be dishonest on a self-guided form. c) Necessity for physician clearance is not evident from self-guided forms. d) Personal Trainers typically desire a more extensive health profile for their clients.

Sexual harassment claims of inappropriate touching by a client can best be protected against by: a) Only train in group settings where others are present during sessions. b) Having a conversation with the client as part of the new client screening and intake process. c) Designing your practice to never directly touch clients. d) Always asking permission to spot the client with direct touching.

So that clients do not call at the last minute to let you know they will not be able to make a session, the Personal Trainer-Client Agreement must include clear language with respect to the: a) Scheduling. b) Payment policy. c) Refund policy. d) Cancellation policy.

Social Cognitive Theory states that the most important factors in behavior change are self-efficacy and: a) Self-control. b) Social support. c) Reward system. d) Outcome expectations.

Special consideration is needed for hypertensive clients when screening for exercise testing or training because their condition may be aggravated by: a) High blood pressure. b) Long duration exercise. c) High-intensity exercise like sprinting. d) Short-term exercise like weight training.

Syncope during exercise may result from cardiac disorders that prevent the normal rise in: a) Heart rate. b) Respiration rate. c) Blood pressure. d) Cardiac output.

The MOST important reasons for maintaining collaborative relationships with health care professionals is to optimize client outcomes and: a) Stay current on relevant research. b) Treat for chronic conditions. c) Formulate a treatment plan. d) Identify risk factors.

The anaerobic system uses which substrate as its primary source for creating ATP? a) Fat b) Protein c) Oxygen d) Carbohydrates

The best progression for a balance training exercise with an older adult would be? a) Standing on the floor single leg, seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on a bosu ball. b) Standing on a bosu ball, standing on the floor single leg, seated on a physioball, seated arms crossed, seated closed eyes c) Seated on a physioball, seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a bosu ball. d) Seated closed eyes, seated arms crossed, seated on a physioball, standing on the floor single leg, standing on a bosu ball.

The business/invitee relationship of operating a personal training facility is described in which of the following ways? a) The facility is invited to legally operate as a business. b) The client invites the business to provide service. c) The business invites the Personal Trainer to provide services to clients. d) The client has been invited onto the premises for the financial gain of the business.

The degree to which a reasonable or prudent Personal Trainer would follow the same actions in similar circumstances is: a) Code of ethics. b) Scope of practice. c) Professional standards. d) Standard of care.

The feeling of chronic muscular fatigue is a sign of: a) Increased VO2 max b) Lactic acid accumulation. c) Increased oxygen uptake. d) Overuse.

The intensity of work is represented by ________, amount of force is represented by ________, and displacement is represented by ________. a) Torque; velocity of motion; acceleration of motion b) Torque; acceleration; exercise selected c) RPE; resistance; exercise selected d) RPE; resistance; ROM

The key to determining optimal rest period lengths is to: a) Perform a VO2 test b) Perform the step test c) Use a percentage of 1 RM d) Observe the client

The key to optimal nutrition is: a) Proper hydration. b) Taking a multivitamin daily. c) A diet of less than 30% fat per day. d) Nutrient balance.

The minimum number of minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic activity needed five days each week is: a) 10 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 30 minutes d) 20 minutes

The mnemonic RICE stands for: a) Raise injury, call emergency. b) Raise injury, cease exercise. c) Rest, induce compression, elevate. d) Rest, ice, compression, elevation.

The most common manifestation of muscle injury is ________. a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy c) Dyspnea d) Delayed onset muscle soreness

The muscles that depress the scapulothoracic joint are the: a) Upper trapezius and rhomboids b) Serratus anterior and pectoralis minor c) Rhomboids and serratus anterior d) Lower trapezius and pectoralis minor

The posterior deltoid performs ________ of the shoulder joint at approximately ________. a) Extension, 70° to 90° b) Adduction, 0° c) Abduction; 90° d) Extension; 40° to 60°

The posterior muscles of the hip include: a) Vastus lateralis, rectus femoris, piriformis, and sartorius. b) Adductor longus, brevis, magnus, and hamstrings. c) Quadriceps, Iliopsoas; six deep medial rotators, and gracilis. d) Gluteus maximus, medius, and minimus; six deep lateral rotators, and hamstrings.

The risk factor for obesity is a BMI at or greater than: a) 45 kg · m2. b) 15 kg · m2. c) 60kg · m2. d) 30 kg · m2.

The side-lying quadriceps stretch would be most appropriate for which client? a) Female b) Male c) Athlete d) Obese client

The term "metabolic rate" is defined as: a) The rate at which muscles store energy. b) The rate at which food is converted into energy. c) The rate at which fat is converted to energy. d) The rate at which calories are burned.

The training principle that describes the need to swim if you want to get better at swimming, cycle to improve at cycling, run to gain skill at running, is: a) Overload. b) Overtraining. c) Periodization. d) SAID.

The ultimate purpose of liability is to: a) Promote ethical business practices. b) Identify criminals. c) Establish standards of care. d) Protect individuals.

To avoid underhydration during activity, make sure your clients: a) Coordinate drinking fluids with heart rate increases. b) Consume electrolyte beverages. c) Rely on thirst cues. d) Consume fluids on a fixed time interval.

To demonstrate outstanding customer service during your initial client contact, you should: a) Be prepared for the appointment. b) Dress appropriately and professionally. c) Speak respectfully to the client. d) Arrive early or on time.

To develop and maintain flexibility, ACSM recommends inclusion of general stretching exercises for all major muscle groups at least: a) Every other exercise session. b) 4 times a week. c) Once a week. d) 2 to 3 days a week.

To effectively minimize risk, Personal Trainers should obtain proper qualifications, use appropriate screening tools, and: a) Complete thorough fitness testing. b) Refer appropriately to health care professionals. c) Keep up-to-date on medications. d) Maintain appropriate documentation.

To identify clients who should undergo a medical exam and exercise testing before starting a moderate or vigorous exercise program, use the ACSM: a) Screening process. b) Fitness assessment protocols. c) Exercise guidelines. d) Risk classification process.

To maximize work, resistance exercises should be executed utilizing ________ in order to maximize ________. a) A constant repetition speed; acceleration throughout the exercise b) A ballistic style of movement; muscle tension throughout the exercise c) Ballistic style of movement; overall functional strength d) A constant repetition speed; muscle tension throughout the exercise

To properly perform dynamic stretching, the muscles should: a) Use the momentum of the moving body segment to produce peak muscle tension. b) Be held in a stationary position for several seconds at peak tension. c) Be placed in peak tension for several seconds followed by an active contraction of the same muscles. d) Incorporate movements that are specific to sport movement.

Tort law that regulates issues around the professional liability for incidents caused due to conditions where training activity takes place is referred to as: a) Service location negligence. b) Facility standards. c) Fitness setting guidelines. d) Premises liability.

What are the four phases of traditional linear periodization? a) Strength/power phase, hypertrophy phase, peak phase, and recovery phase b) Strength/power phase, hypertrophy phase, recovery phase, and peak phase c) Hypertrophy phase, recovery phase, strength/power phase, and peak phase d) Hypertrophy phase, strength/power phase, peak phase, and recovery phase

What are the muscles and joint action required for a dumbbell front raise? a) Short head of the biceps brachii and flexion b) Coracobrachialis and abduction c) Anterior deltoid and abduction d) Pectoralis major and flexion

What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training? a) Blood pressure, resting heart rate, body composition, and waist to hip ratio b) Cardio-respiratory fitness using the submaximal talk test to determine HR at VT1 c) Health-history data to identify contraindications for exercise and the need for referral d) Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance

What assessments are MOST important to complete before beginning resistance training? a) Health-history data to identify contraindications for exercise and the need for referral b) Cardio-respiratory fitness using the submaximal talk test to determine HR at VT1 c) Blood pressure, resting heart rate, body composition, and waist to hip ratio d) Posture, functional movement, muscular strength, and endurance

What exercise frequency is best for an apparently healthy senior adult? a) Very low-intensity exercise, performed 6 or more days per week. b) Vigorous-intensity exercise, performed 5 or more days per week. c) Moderate-intensity exercise, performed 2 or more days per week d) Moderate-intensity exercise, performed 5 or more days per week

What is MOST critical for a client as it relates to safety and effectiveness during a training session? a) Client Education b) Nueromotor Training c) Spotting d) Cueing

What is a potential outcome of maintaining a professional presence and disposition when training clients? a) Staff will be more willing to refer potential clients to you. b) Staff will be more willing to ask for feedback regarding training. c) Earnings may increase as clients and managers see the value of your skills. d) Maintaining a professional presence may also help generate clients, as this is also a form of advertising.

What is the MOST influential source of self-efficacy information related to exercise? a) Persuasive verbal feedback b) Vicarious exercise experiences c) Emotional state of mind d) Past exercise performance

What is the ideal aerobic intensity for individuals with cardiac disease who have been cleared for exercise? a) 75% to 85% of HRR b) 40% to 59% of HRR c) 60% to 80% of HRR d) 40% to 80% of HRR

What is the late fee for a late certification renewal? a) $25 per month delayed b) $10 per month delayed c) $50 d) $25

What is the most influential source of self-efficacy? a) Vicarious experience b) Emotional state c) Imagined experience d) Past performance experience

What muscle group is strengthened when a client performs side-lying leg lifts? a) Internal rotation b) Adductors c) External rotation d) Abductors

What personal barrier is the MOST cited as a barrier for exercise? a) Lack of social support b) Culturally inappropriate activities c) Limited access to the exercise facility d) A lack of time

What should you do FIRST with a person who suddenly falls to the floor while exercising? a) Ask the client what led to the injury. b) Check for any medical jewelry to determine the cause of the condition. c) Assess the person's pulse and blood pressure. d) Assess if the person is conscious.

What type of blood pressure response to acute exercise is seen in children when compared with adults? a) SBP increases and DBP increases. b) SBP increases and DBP decreases. c) SBP decreases and DBP increases. d) SBP decreases and DBP decreases.

When a Personal Trainer determines that a desired small gain would require too much time to achieve, it may be necessary to proceed with: a) Clarifying goals with the client. b) Increasing the number of repetitions of key exercises. c) Lengthening session time. d) Capping a training session.

When a client takes the PAR-Q test, they should be referred to their doctor if they answer: a) Yes to two or more questions. b) Yes to three or more questions. c) No to any questions. d) Yes to one or more questions.

When attempting to establish effective communication, which of the following non-verbal elements is MOST important to the client? a) Confidence and strength b) Warmth and sympathy c) Advising and counseling d) Visual and kinesthetic

When describing cardiorespiratory fitness, the central oxygen delivery processes refers to: a) Chemical reactions in muscle cells. b) Oxygen exchange in the lungs. c) Metabolic creation of ATP. d) Activity of the heart and circulatory system.

When employing active listening skills, you should avoid: a) Nodding your head. b) Restating important information. c) Making eye contact. d) Using metaphors.

When working with a child with asthma, the Personal Trainer should consult with the child's medical team and and become familiar with the specific exercise recommendations for which of the following conditions? a) Genu valgum b) Overactive trapezius c) Type 2 diabetes d) Asthma

When working with a special-population client, you should: a) Reach the stage of resistance training during which external loads are introduced to improve performance of activities of daily living. b) Teach them the importance of daily exercise and continue with their programs even during times of illness or discomfort. c) Move them through the various phases of the training with the ultimate goal of improving fitness and performance. d) Provide them with initial positive experiences to promote adherence and lower mortality risk.

Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve? a) Left ventricle b) Left atrium c) Right atrium d) Right ventricle

Which energy system is utilized for a 100-meter sprint? a) Anaerobic glycolysis b) Aerobic oxidation c) ATP d) ATP and creatine phosphate

Which exercise results in the greatest amount of torque from the muscles of the shoulder joint? a) Shoulder shrugs, using 50 lb dumbbells, elbows extended b) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows flexed 90° c) Shoulder shrugs, using 85 lb dumbbells, with elbows extended d) Lateral raises in the frontal plane to 90°, humeral abduction with 30 lb dumbbells, elbows extended

Which method can be very effective for clients who are having difficulty with proper positioning? a) Tactile/righting b) Visual/tactile c) Visual/auditory d) Right/wrong

Which muscle group is responsible for knee extension? a) Erector spinae b) Hip adductors c) Hamstrings d) Quadriceps

Which of the following MUST be included as part of every client's screening? a) Postural assessment b) Body-composition assessment c) Movement screen d) Health-risk appraisal

Which of the following activities are contraindicated for pregnant women? a) Strength training in supine positions b) Vigorous-intensity walking c) Jogging d) Scuba diving

Which of the following assessments assesses muscular endurance? a) Sit-and-reach b) One-repetition maximum c) Rockport One-Mile Fitness Walking Test d) Push-up test

Which of the following best defines the purpose of certification for Personal Trainers? a) Obtain additional education to enhance knowledge, skills. and abilities b) Enhance a professional's resume for employment or higher compensation c) Confirm a candidate's understanding of key concepts following the completion of a Bachelor's degree d) Protect the public from harm by assessing if candidates meet established levels of minimum competence

Which of the following best summarizes the effect of regular exercise on dyslipidemia? a) Triglyceride levels are reduced for up to 36 hours following exercise. b) Exercise may have a favorable result in increasing the total cholesterol to HDL-C ratios c) Exercises increases LDL-C levels d) Regular exercise can increase HDL cholesterol levels.

Which of the following can help promote exercise adherence? a) Online testimonials b) Online advertising c) Promotional training packages d) Online and print newsletters

Which of the following cardiac variables will increase as a result of regular aerobic training at a submaximal effort? a) Blood lactate b) Exercise heart rate c) Systolic blood pressure d) Arteriovenous oxygen difference

Which of the following conveys encouragement to a client? a) Reminding the client to remain task oriented b) Providing correct cues during exercise c) Performing the workout with the client d) Affirming client strengths you have noted

Which of the following describes the requirements for continuing education units (CECs) and the time frame required for recertification? a) 15 CECs over 3 years b) 30 CECs over 3 years c) 60 CECs over 3 years d) 45 CECs over 3 years

Which of the following does NOT require an exercise test or a medical supervised test? a) An individual with renal disease wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise b) An individual with metabolic disease wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise c) An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in vigorous-intensity exercise d) An individual with two risk factors wishing to participate in moderate-intensity exercise

Which of the following exercises is LEAST likely to cause injury during pregnancy? a) PNF stretching b) Resistance training on a flat bench c) Low intensity plyometrics d) Holding a light stretch for approximately 15 seconds

Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for Personal Trainers? a) Recommending effective supplements for clients who skip meals b) Evaluating client injuries while designing rehabilitative exercise programs c) Counseling clients through life experiences that negatively impact program adherence d) Screening clients for exercise limitations to facilitate exercise program design

Which of the following is a SMART goal? a) Lose 10 pounds within the next few months. b) Increase strength through weightlifting twice a week. c) Buy new workout shoes for regular participation in group fitness classes. d) Walk the dog twice a day, for at least 15 minutes, for two weeks.

Which of the following is a chronic benefit of regular cardiovascular exercise? a) Decreased capillary density in skeletal muscle b) Increased heart rate and blood pressure at a given submaximal intensity c) Decreased maximal oxygen uptake resulting from both central and peripheral adaptations d) Increased exercise threshold for the onset of disease signs and symptoms

Which of the following is a critical aspect of proper risk management? a) Fitness testing b) Medical insurance c) Incident report forms d) Documentation

Which of the following is a negative risk factor? a) Body mass index >30 b) Blood pressure 135/80 mm Hg c) Women >45 years d) High-density lipoprotein 60 mg·dL-1

Which of the following is a risk factor for cardiovascular disease? a) An individual whose high density lipoprotein cholesterol is 40 mg·dL-1 b) An individual who smokes cigars twice year on special occasions c) An individual whose blood glucose is 125 mg·dL-1 following an oral glucose tolerance test d) An individual who quit smoking 4 months ago

Which of the following is a strategy for relapse prevention for a client? a) Providing the client with a positive exercise environment b) Being committed to exercising with friends on the weekend c) Learning about the benefits of exercise d) Scheduling workouts on a personal and work calendar

Which of the following is a symptom suggestive of pulmonary disease? a) Tightness in the ankles that occur after walking several blocks b) General feeling of fatigue after walking the dog c) An increase in heart rate with an increase in walking intensity d) Shortness of breath after quickly crossing the street in a residential area

Which of the following is an element of active listening? a) Listening carefully for contradictions b) Becoming familiar with the speaker's motive c) Understanding the client's personal disclosures d) Observing nonverbal cues

Which of the following is an example of a SMART goal? a) I will improve my cholesterol and blood pressure through better eating and exercise. b) I will try a new group exercise class each week to avoid boredom. c) I will lose 30 lbs for my trip to Hawaii in 2 months by exercising 7 days a week to maximize results. d) I will run 4 days per week, gradually progressing my run time from 10 to 40 minutes, to prepare for a 5K in four months.

Which of the following is an example of stimulus control? a) Charting completed exercise sessions b) Exercising with a partner c) Creating a back-up exercise plan d) Preparing a gym bag with workout clothes the night before

Which of the following is ideal for building rapport? a) Maintain a serious and professional facial expression. b) Discuss your credentials in detail. c) Explore the client's motivation for behavior change. d) Maintain good and appropriate eye contact.

Which of the following is inappropriate with respect to the scope of practice for Personal Trainers? a) Designing a post-rehab exercise programs for clients discharged from physical therapy b) Developing exercise programs for clients who have low back strain and medical clearance for exercise c) Empowering and motivating clients to adhere to their non-supervised exercise programs d) Conducting a maximal VO2max test to determine a client's need for referral to a physician

Which of the following is the MOST important rationale for a cool-down phase? a) Elevates plasma levels of β-endorphins b) Minimizes muscle adhesions and post-exercise soreness c) Prevents blood glucose levels from dropping below pre-exercise levels d) Prevents blood pooling in the extremities

Which of the following is the MOST important rationale for a cool-down phase? a) Prevents blood glucose levels from dropping below pre-exercise levels b) Minimizes muscle adhesions and post-exercise soreness c) Elevates plasma levels of β-endorphins d) Prevents blood pooling in the extremities

Which of the following is the MOST reliable predictor for exercise participation? a) Age b) Perceived time barriers c) Weight d) Previous and positive exercise experiences

Which of the following is/are a resilient, semi-rigid form of connective tissue that reduces the friction and absorbs some of the shock in synovial joints? a) Fascia b) Ligaments c) Tendons d) Cartilage

Which of the following may be part of an active warm-up that is similar to the actual training movements? a) Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation b) Myofascial release c) Active isolated stretching d) Dynamic stretching

Which of the following medications have no primary affect on heart rate, but can lower blood pressure? a) Diuretics b) Bronchodilators c) Calcium channel blockers d) ACE inhibitors

Which of the following predicts behavior change depending on the perceived threats to one's well-being? a) Stages-of-change model b) Self-efficacy model c) Transtheoretical model of behavioral change d) Health belief model

Which of the following predicts that people engage in a health behavior depending on the perceived threat they feel regarding a health problem? a) Transtheoretical model of behavioral change b) Self-efficacy model c) Stages-of-change model d) Health belief model

Which of the following statements provides the MOST specific feedback? a) "Well done. You have improved a lot." b) "Good tricep push-down. You're looking stronger." c) "That was excellent. Keep up the good work." d) "Your ankle joint is much more stable."

Which of the following strategies will BEST help generate clients? a) Hosting an open house event b) Email marketing c) Passing out business cards to potential clients d) Developing a professional network of allied health professionals

Which of the following terms is defined as the relative proportion of fat and fat-free tissue in the body? a) Lean body mass b) Bioelectrical impedance c) Body mass average d) Body composition

Which of the following will increase the likelihood that a new client will continue working with a Personal Trainer? a) Encouraging client ownership of the program b) Creating an exercise coaching style based on education c) Motivating the client through external rewards to enhance self-efficacy d) Designing a program so the client doesn't have to think much about the exercises

Which of the following would be considered a good nonverbal cue to build client rapport? a) Being sincere b) Sharing a story c) Affirm client strengths d) Good eye contact

Which of the following would help a Personal Trainer develop rapport with a client during the initial interview? a) Speaking in a soft, friendly voice while leaning against the chair armrest with forearms crossed calmly b) Speaking in a firm voice with confidence, using fluid hand gestures while speaking and quiet hands while listening c) Direct, friendly eye contact while always maintaining a smile and enthusiasm throughout the session d) Looking away from the client frequently to prevent staring while sitting with good posture and a slight forward lean

Which piece of equipment would be best for increasing power? a) Stability ball b) Bosu ball c) Resistance bands d) Medicine ball

Which plane of movement divides the body between the left and right? a) Horizontal b) Frontal c) Transverse d) Sagittal

Which rotator cuff muscle(s) externally rotate the shoulder joint? a) Subscapularis and teres minor b) Supraspinatus and infraspinatus c) Subscapularis and teres minor d) Teres minor and infraspinatus

Which statement would be best when describing why an older adult client needs a balance exercise? a) Balance is important to build strength in the lower legs and increase your leg stamina. b) If you do not balance, you will not be able to take care of yourself as you get older. c) Balance exercises improve diabetes and can help increase the power in your legs. d) Dynamic balance is essential to decrease your risk for falling. It is really simple; just walk on the floor as if you are on a tight rope.

Which strategy will help a client best understand joint positioning and how the muscles should feel when learning a new strength exercise? a) Placing your hands appropriately on the client for muscle contraction emphasis b) Receiving cues on joint movement and speed c) Being shown the exercise several times d) Applying both verbal instructions and demonstrations immediately

With a New Year's resolution to become more active, a 32-year-old male wants to get your feedback before he begins the exercise program he drafted for himself. He is in which stage of change? a) Action b) Contemplation c) Precontemplation d) Preparation

With respect to resistance training, the first issue that the client should be asked about is: a) The type of resistance training program that the client prefers. b) The amount of experience the client has using free weights c) The amount of experiencethe client has using open-chain exercises. d) The main goal of the client's exercise program.

You are working with a client who wants to train for a specific athletic competition. Before progressing this client to advanced training, you should ensure that the client: a) Successfully completed stability and mobility training of major joints. b) Demonstrates good postural stability and proper movement patterns. c) Regularly participates in resistance training for a least 3 consecutive years. d) Has had consistent progressive training for a least one year.

You client is a 57-year-old male with a history of low back issues. His blood pressure is under control with antihypertensive medication, and he walks daily for 30 minutes. Based on this data he has________ risk factors. a) 4 b) 3 c) 1 d) 2

You want to include a testimonial from one of your most successful clients on a marketing brochure, therefore you need to: a) Alert the client before distributing the brochures. b) Ask the client to give verbal consent to use the testimonial. c) Confirm acceptability under the ACSM Personal Trainer Code of Ethics. d) Obtain and store a signed release from the client.

Your 38-year-old female client wants to lose weight, but is a concerned that resistance training will make her "bulk-up." You should: a) Assure her that women do not produce enough testosterone to bulk-up. b) Design a program based on aerobic exercise with a light (40% 1 RM) circuit with high reps (15-25) per set. c) Show empathy and assure her that you will design a program that will help her to get toned without bulking up. d) Explain how resistance training can gain lean body mass and raise resting metabolism.

Your 38-year-old female client wants to lose weight, but is a concerned that resistance training will make her "bulk-up." You should: a) Show empathy and assure her that you will design a program that will help her to get toned without bulking up. b) Design a program based on aerobic exercise with a light (40% 1 RM) circuit with high reps (15-25) per set. c) Assure her that women do not produce enough testosterone to bulk-up. d) Explain how resistance training can gain lean body mass and raise resting metabolism.

Your client asks you to recommend a cardio machine for her home use. Helping your client in this way is considered: a) Allowed under product liability law. b) Outside your scope of practice and should not be done. c) An opportunity to promote equipment you find most useful. d) Acceptable if you work with reliable fitness equipment dealers to whom you refer the client.

Your client is convinced that a particular supplement will help his training goals. You should: a) Refer the client to the health club's sales team. b) Suspend training until he agrees to stop using these products. c) Ensure that insurance covers the sale of these products. d) Refer him to a registered dietitian or physician.

Your client is performing a strength exercise that is new to him. He states that he feels some discomfort in his right shoulder after the first set. You should: a) Refer the client to a physician to have his shoulders examined. b) Review the exercise, and correct his form and technique. c) Ask the client perform another set to smooth out movement patterns. d) Switch to another exercise that does not elicit any symptoms.

Your client notices that he is able to perform several resistance exercises with more weight and a few more repetitions after the first two weeks of training. Which of the following BEST explains these training effects? a) Muscle capillary density b) Aerobic enzyme changes c) Anaerobic enzyme changes d) Neural adaptations

Your client states she stretches daily but has just started to experience low back tightness the last few days. You should: a) Make her use a weightlifting belt during strength training b) Recommend that she seek medical attention as soon as possible. c) Reassess her medical history for signs indicative of cardiac disease d) Document her comment in the client's records, and monitor feedback, signs, and symptoms.

________ is performed by moderately forceful attempted exhalation against a closed airway, usually done by closing one's mouth and pinching one's nose shut while pressing out as if blowing up a balloon. a) Dyspnea b) Vasovagal syncope c) Ischemia d) Valsalva maneuver

________ resistance training features both a lifting phase and lowering phase during each repetition. a) Eccentric b) Isokinetic c) Concentric d) Dynamic constant external

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