ADH Exam I

what are the 6 key processes of mourning that allow people to accommodate loss in a healthy way?

1.) Recognition of the loss 2.) Reaction to the separation, and experiencing and expressing the pain of the loss 3.) Recollection and re-experiencing the deceased, the relationship, and the associated feelings 4.) Relinquishing old attachments to the deceased 5.) Readjustment to adapt to the new world without forgetting the old 6.) Reinvestment

A nurse is reviewing a patient's laboratory test results. Which serum albumin level would lead the nurse to suspect that the patient is at risk for pressure ulcers? 2.5 g/mL 3.1 g/mL 3.5 g/mL 4.0 g/mL

2.5

The nurse is performing an initial assessment of a client with a disability. The nurse should assess for which condition? Select all that apply. Abuse Depression Psychosis Bipolar disorder

Abuse Depression

A nurse is completing an assessment of a client who has just been transferred to the rehabilitation facility. During the health history, the nurse asks about the client's activities of daily living (ADLs). About which areas would the nurse gather information? Select all that apply. Bathing Cleaning Cooking Toileting Eating

Bathing Toileting Eating

The nurse is planning health education for a patient who has experienced a vaginal infection. What guidelines should the nurse include in this program regarding prevention? A) Wear tight-fitting synthetic underwear. B) Use bubble bath to eradicate perineal bacteria. C) Avoid feminine hygiene products, such as sprays. D) Restrict daily bathing.

C Feedback: Instead of tight-fitting synthetic, nonabsorbent, heat-retaining underwear, cotton underwear is recommended to prevent vaginal infections. Douching is generally discouraged, as is the use of feminine hygiene products. Daily bathing is not restricted.

The rehabilitation team has reaffirmed the need to maximize the independence of a patient in rehabilitation. When working toward this goal, what action should the nurse prioritize? A) Encourage families to become paraprofessionals in rehabilitation. B) Delegate care planning to the patient and family. C) Recognize the importance of informal caregivers. D) Make patients and families to work together.

C In working toward maximizing independence, nurses affirm the patient as an active participant and recognize the importance of informal caregivers in the rehabilitation process. Nurses do not encourage families to become paraprofessionals in rehabilitation. The patient and family are central, but care planning is not their responsibility. Nurses do not make patients and families work together.

Which aspect of a healthy lifestyle can the nurse encourage a patient to improve that can significantly enhance quality of life with a chronic condition? Diet Exercise Hydration Rest

Exercise Health-promoting behaviors, such as exercise, are essential to quality of life even in people who have chronic illnesses or disabilities, because they help to maintain functional status (Lubkin & Larsen, 2013).

Which disability model is most appropriate for the nurse to use as a guide for planning care? Biopsychosocial Model Interface Model Medical and Rehabilitation Model Social Model

Interface Model Several models of disability have been used to address or explain the issues encountered by people with disabilities (Drum, 2009; Phelan, 2011; Smeltzer, 2007a). These include the medical and rehabilitation models, the social model, the biopsychosocial model, and the interface model. Chart 9-4 briefly describes these models of disability. Of these, the interface model (Goodall, 1995) may be one of the most appropriate for use by nurses to provide care that is empowering rather than care that promotes dependency.

Which statement provides accurate information related to chronic illness? Most people with chronic conditions take on a sick role identity. Chronic conditions do not result from injury. Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill. Most chronic conditions are easily controlled.

Most people with chronic conditions do not consider themselves sick or ill.

The nurse is planning a community education program on disabilities. The nurse plans to include which statement? Fifty percent of people with disabilities are employed. Less than 5% of people in the United States have a disability. People with disabilities are most likely to work part time. Greater than 10% of children have a disability.

People with disabilities are most likely to work part time.

The client had a cerebrovascular accident with drooping of the face. Speech is slurred. The nurse is obtaining the admission assessment data. It would be best for the nurse to Ask a family member the questions. Chart that the nurse is unable to obtain information. Repeat back what the client states. Wait until past medical records can be obtained.

Repeat back what the client states.

The nurse forms a nursing diagnosis during which phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness? Pre-trajectory Trajectory onset Stable phase Phase of crisis

Trajectory onset During the trajectory onset phase, a diagnosis is formulated and the patient begins to cope with the implications of the diagnosis.

Which phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness is characterized by reactivation of an illness? Stable Acute Unstable Comeback

unstable The unstable phase is characterized by development of complications or reactivation of the illness. The stable phase indicates that the symptoms and disability are under control or managed. The acute phase is characterized by sudden onset of severe or unrelieved symptoms or complications that may necessitate hospitalization for their management. The comeback phase is the period in the trajectory marked by recovery after an acute period.

What percentage of deaths due to chronic disease occur in low- and middle-income countries? 60 70 80 90

80

A patient with GERD has undergone diagnostic testing and it has been determined that increasing the pace of gastric emptying may help alleviate symptoms. The nurse should anticipate that the patient may be prescribed what drug? A) Metoclopramide (Reglan) B) Omeprazole (Prilosec) C) Lansoprazole (Prevacid) D) Famotidine (Pepcid)

A Feedback: Metoclopramide (Reglan) is useful in promoting gastric motility. Omeprazole and lansoprozole are proton pump inhibitors that reduce gastric acid secretion. Famotidine (Pepcid) is an H2receptor antagonist, which has a similar effect.

Falls, which are a major health problem in the elderly population, occur from multifactorial causes. When implementing a comprehensive plan to reduce the incidence of falls on a geriatric unit, what risk factors should nurses identify? Select all that apply. A) Medication effects B) Overdependence on assistive devices C) Poor lighting D) Sensory impairment E) Ineffective use of coping strategies

A, C, D Feedback: Causes of falls are multifactorial. Both extrinsic factors, such as changes in the environment or poor lighting, and intrinsic factors, such as physical illness, neurologic changes, or sensory impairment, play a role. Mobility difficulties, medication effects, foot problems or unsafe footwear, postural hypotension, visual problems, and tripping hazards are common, treatable causes. Overdependence on assistive devices and ineffective use of coping strategies have not been shown to be factors in the rate of falls in the elderly population.

A community health nurse serves a diverse population. What individual would likely face the highest risk for parotitis? A) A patient who is receiving intravenous antibiotic therapy in the home setting B) A patient who has a chronic venous ulcer C) An older adult whose medication regimen includes an anticholinergic D) A patient with poorly controlled diabetes who receives weekly wound care

C Elderly, acutely ill, or debilitated people with decreased salivary flow from general dehydration or medications are at high risk for parotitis. Anticholinergic medications inhibit saliva production. Antibiotics, diabetes, and wounds are not risk factors for parotitis

A nurse is assessing a client who will be discharged home after rehabilitation for a stroke. The nurse is questioning the client about his instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs). Which of the following would the nurse address? Bathing Grooming Dressing Cooking

Cooking Instrumental activities of daily living (IADLs) include cooking, cleaning, shopping, doing laundry, managing personal finances, developing social and recreational skills, and handling emergencies. Bathing, grooming, and dressing are activities of daily living (ADLs).

A client had a previous myocardial infarction and has been experiencing angina from occluded coronary arteries. He received rehabilitative therapy following the myocardial infarction. In the unstable phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness, the nurse Encourages the client to quit smoking Discusses aortocoronary bypass surgery Provides bedrest and oxygen therapy Assesses the client's cardiac rhythm

Encourages the client to quit smoking In the unstable phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness, the nurse reinforces previous teaching. The nurse has to know what the client is taught in rehabilitation, which includes cessation of smoking and tobacco products.

Which of the following describes the crisis phase of the trajectory model of chronic illness? The course of the illness and symptoms are under control. The client may require more diagnostic tests. The client is experiencing a critical or life-threatening situation requiring emergency treatment. The client is in the final days or weeks before death characterized by gradual or rapid shutting down of body processes.

The client is experiencing a critical or life-threatening situation requiring emergency treatment. The crisis phase is characterized by a critical or life-threatening situation requiring emergency treatment or care and suspension of everyday life activities until the crisis has passed. The stable phase is when the illness course and symptoms are under control. The unstable phase may require more diagnostic tests. The dying phase is the period in the trajectory marked by the final days or weeeks before death and characterized by gradual or rapid shutting down of body processes.

The number of people with disabilities is expected to increase over time. What is a major contributor to this prediction? The decrease in the number of people with early-onset disabilities The ability to cure chronic disorders that are acquired The decrease in risk factors for early-onset disabilities that are genetic in cause The survival of people with severe trauma, chronic disorders, and early-onset disabilites

The survival of people with severe trauma, chronic disorders, and early-onset disabilites The number of people with disabilities is expected to increase over time as people with early-onset disabilities, chronic disorders, and severe trauma survive and have normal or near-normal lifespans. There has not been a decrease in the number of people with early-onset disabilities. Acquired chronic disorders still cannot be cured. Genetic risk factors for early-onset disabilities have not decreased.

A nurse is caring for a client with multiple chronic conditions and some physical disabilities. The nurse is using "people-first" language with the following statement during end-of-shift report: "Mr. Rudd is a 44-year-old diabetic patient who was admitted last evening." "Last evening, Mr. Rudd, a 44-year-old patient with diabetes was admitted to the unit." "I admitted another diabetic patient last evening; his name is Mr. Rudd." "A new diabetic admit came to the floor last night during my shift. He is 44 and his name is Mr. Rudd."

"Last evening, Mr. Rudd, a 44-year-old patient with diabetes was admitted to the unit." It is important to all people, both those with and those without disabilities, that they not be equated with their illness or physical condition. Therefore, it is important to refer to all people using "people-first" language.

A family will be providing care at home to an immobilized patient at risk for impaired skin integrity. After teaching the family about reducing the patient's risk for skin breakdown, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the family states which of the following? "We need to make sure that the patient drinks enough fluids." "We need to use an antibacterial soap on the skin when bathing." "We need to remove any tape or bandages from the skin quickly" "We need to massage any reddened areas that may appear."

"We need to make sure that the patient drinks enough fluids." Keeping the patient well hydrated helps prevent skin cracking and infection because intact healthy skin is the body's first line of defense. To help a patient maintain healthy skin, strong or harsh detergents and soaps such as antibacterial soap should be avoided. Mild soap should be used for bathing. Tape or bandages should not be removed quickly, because this action can strip or scrape the skin. Massaging any reddened areas is to be avoided, because this may increase the damage to already traumatized skin and tissue.

A 60-year-old patient with a diagnosis of prostate cancer is scheduled to have an interstitial implant for high-dose radiation (HDR). What safety measure should the nurse include in this patients subsequent plan of care? A) Limit the time that visitors spend at the patients bedside. B) Teach the patient to perform all aspects of basic care independently. C) Assign male nurses to the patients care whenever possible. D) Situate the patient in a shared room with other patients receiving brachytherapy.

A Feedback: To limit radiation exposure, visitors should generally not spend more than 30 minutes with the patient. Pregnant nurses or visitors should not be near the patient, but there is no reason to limit care to nurses who are male. All necessary care should be provided to the patient and a single room should be used.

The rehabilitation nurse is working closely with a patient who has a new orthosis following a knee injury. What are the nurses responsibilities to this patient? Select all that apply. A) Help the patient learn to apply and remove the orthosis. B) Teach the patient how to care for the skin that comes in contact with the orthosis. C) Assist in the initial fitting of the orthosis. D) Assist the patient in learning how to move the affected body part correctly. E) Collaborate with the physical therapist to set goals for care.

A, B, D, E Feedback: In addition to learning how to apply and remove the orthosis and maneuver the affected body part correctly, patients must learn how to properly care for the skin that comes in contact with the appliance. Skin problems or pressure ulcers may develop if the device is applied too tightly or too loosely or if it is adjusted improperly. Nurses do not perform the initial fitting of orthoses.

The nurse is working with a client with a chronic condition. The nurse includes which elements in the plan of care? Select all that apply. Assessment for identity changes Assessment for spontaneous resolution Interventions to manage symptoms Interventions to prevent complications

Assessment for identity changes Interventions to manage symptoms Interventions to prevent complications The nurse should assess for identity changes, plan interventions to manage the client's symptoms, and prevent complications of the chronic condition. Chronic conditions do not resolve spontaneously.

A patient returns to the unit after a neck dissection. The surgeon placed a Jackson Pratt drain in the wound. When assessing the wound drainage over the first 24 postoperative hours the nurse would notify the physician immediately for what? A) Presence of small blood clots in the drainage B) 60 mL of milky or cloudy drainage C) Spots of drainage on the dressings surrounding the drain D) 120 mL of serosanguinous drainage

B Between 80 and 120 mL of serosanguineous secretions may drain over the first 24 hours. Milky drainage is indicative of a chyle fistula, which requires prompt treatment.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone neck resection with a radial forearm free flap. The nurses most recent assessment of the graft reveals that it has a bluish color and that mottling is visible. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Document the findings as being consistent with a viable graft. B) Promptly report these indications of venous congestion. C) Closely monitor the patient and reassess in 30 minutes. D) Reposition the patient to promote peripheral circulation.

B Feedback: A graft that is blue with mottling may indicate venous congestion. This finding constitutes a risk for tissue ischemia and necrosis; prompt referral is necessary

A 47-year-old patient who has come to the physicians office for his annual physical is being assessed by the office nurse. The nurse who is performing routine health screening for this patient should be aware that one of the first physical signs of aging is what? A) Having more frequent aches and pains B) Failing eyesight, especially close vision C) Increasing loss of muscle tone D) Accepting limitations while developing assets

B Feedback: Failing eyesight, especially close vision, is one of the first signs of aging in middle life. More frequent aches and pains begin in the early late years (between ages 65 and 79). Increase in loss of muscle tone occurs in later years (ages 80 and older). Accepting limitations while developing assets is socialization development that occurs in adulthood.

A nurse is providing care for a patient whose recent colostomy has contributed to a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image Related to Colostomy. What intervention best addresses this diagnosis? A) Encourage the patient to conduct online research into colostomies. B) Engage the patient in the care of the ostomy to the extent that the patient is willing. C) Emphasize the fact that the colostomy was needed to alleviate a much more serious health problem. D) Emphasize the fact that the colostomy is temporary measure and is not permanent.

B Feedback: For some patients, becoming involved in the care of the ostomy helps to normalize it and enhance familiarity. Emphasizing the benefits of the intervention is unlikely to improve the patients body image, since the benefits are likely already known. Online research is not likely to enhance the patients body image and some ostomies are permanent.

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been diagnosed with renal failure, which the nurse recognizes as being a chronic condition. Which of the following descriptors apply to chronic conditions? Select all that apply. A) Diseases that resolve slowly B) Diseases where complete cures are rare C) Diseases that have a short, unpredictable course D) Diseases that do not resolve spontaneously E) Diseases that have a prolonged course

B, D, E Feedback: Chronic conditions can also be defined as illnesses or diseases that have a prolonged course, that do not resolve spontaneously, and for which complete cures are unlikely or rare.

The school nurse is teaching a nutrition class in the local high school. One student states that he has heard that certain foods can increase the incidence of cancer. The nurse responds, Research has shown that certain foods indeed appear to increase the risk of cancer. Which of the following menu selections would be the best choice for potentially reducing the risks of cancer? A) Smoked salmon and green beans B) Pork chops and fried green tomatoes C) Baked apricot chicken and steamed broccoli D) Liver, onions, and steamed peas

C Feedback: Fruits and vegetables appear to reduce cancer risk. Salt-cured foods, such as ham and processed meats, as well as red meats, should be limited.

You are the nurse caring for a young mother who has a longstanding diagnosis of multiple sclerosis (MS). She was admitted to your unit with a postpartum infection 3 days ago. You are planning to discharge her home when she has finished 5 days of IV antibiotic therapy. With what information would it be most important for you to provide this patient? A) A succinct overview of postpartum infections B) How the response to infection differs in patients with multiple sclerosis C) The same information you would provide to a patient without a chronic condition D) Information on effective management of multiple sclerosis in the home setting

C Feedback: In general, patients with disabilities are in need of the same information as other patients. Information on home management of MS has likely been already provided to the patient. The immune response does not greatly differ in this patient.

A home health nurse makes a home visit to a 90-year-old patient who has cardiovascular disease. During the visit the nurse observes that the patient has begun exhibiting subtle and unprecedented signs of confusion and agitation. What should the home health nurse do? A) Increase the frequency of the patients home care. B) Have a family member check in on the patient in the evening. C) Arrange for the patient to see his primary care physician. D) Refer the patient to an adult day program.

C Feedback: In more than half of the cases, sudden confusion and hallucinations are evident in multi-infarct dementia. This condition is also associated with cardiovascular disease. Having the patients home care increased does not address the problem, neither does having a family member check on the patient in the evening. Referring the patient to an adult day program may be beneficial to the patient, but it does not address the acute problem the patient is having, the nurse should arrange for the patient to see his primary care physician.

An elderly patient is brought to the emergency department with a fractured tibia. The patient appears malnourished, and the nurse is concerned about the patients healing process related to insufficient protein levels. What laboratory finding would the floor nurse prioritize when assessing for protein deficiency? A) Hemoglobin B) Bilirubin C) Albumin D) Cortisol

C Feedback: Serum albumin is a sensitive indicator of protein deficiency. Albumin levels of less than 3 g/mL are indicative of hypoalbuminemia. Altered hemoglobin levels, cortisol levels, and bilirubin levels are not indicators of protein deficiency.

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with cancer of the liver who has chosen to remain in his home as long as he is able. The nurse reviews the care plan for the patient and notes that it focuses on palliative measures. The nurse also notes that over the last 3 weeks, the patients condition has continued to deteriorate. What is the nurses best response to this clinical information? A) Recognize that death will most likely occur in the next week. B) Recognize that the patient is in the trajectory phase of chronic illness and should be kept pain-free. C) Recognize that the patient is in the downward phase of chronic illness and should be reassessed. D) Recognize that the patient should immediately be admitted into the hospital.

C Feedback: The downward phase occurs when symptoms of chronic illness worsen despite attempts to control the course through proper regimen management. A downward turn does not necessarily lead to death. A downward trend can be arrested and the trajectory reestablished at any point, depending on the condition and the treatment. A patient who is palliative may not desire hospitalization and aggressive treatment.

The hospice nurse is caring for a patient with cancer in her home. The nurse has explained to the patient and the family that the patient is at risk for hypercalcemia and has educated them on that signs and symptoms of this health problem. What else should the nurse teach this patient and family to do to reduce the patients risk of hypercalcemia? A) Stool softeners are contraindicated. B) Laxatives should be taken daily. C) Consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily. D) Restrict calcium intake.

C Feedback: The nurse should identify patients at risk for hypercalcemia, assess for signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia, and educate the patient and family. The nurse should teach at-risk patients to recognize and report signs and symptoms of hypercalcemia and encourage patients to consume 2 to 4 L of fluid daily unless contraindicated by existing renal or cardiac disease. Also, the nurse should explain the use of dietary and pharmacologic interventions, such as stool softeners and laxatives for constipation, and advise patients to maintain nutritional intake without restricting normal calcium intake.

An 83-year-old woman was diagnosed with Alzheimers disease 2 years ago and the disease has progressed at an increasing pace in recent months. The patient has lost 16 pounds over the past 3 months, leading to a nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements. What intervention should the nurse include in this patients plan of care? A) Offer the patient rewards for finishing all the food on her tray. B) Offer the patient bland, low-salt foods to limit offensiveness. C) Offer the patient only one food item at a time to promote focused eating. D) Arrange for insertion of a gastrostomy tube and initiate enteral feeding.

C Feedback: To avoid any playing with food, one dish should be offered at a time. Foods should be familiar and appealing, not bland. Tube feeding is not likely necessary at this time and a reward system is unlikely to be beneficial.

A nurse is caring for a patient undergoing rehabilitation following a snowboarding accident. Within the interdisciplinary team, the nurse has been given the responsibility for coordinating the patients total rehabilitative plan of care. What nursing role is this nurse performing? A) Patient educator B) Caregiver C) Case manager D) Patient advocate

C Feedback: When the nurse coordinates the patients total rehabilitative plan of care, the nurse is functioning as a case manager. The nurse must coordinate services provided by all of the team members. The other answers are incorrect.

The nurse is performing an initial assessment of an older adult resident who has just relocated to the long-term care facility. During the nurses interview with the patient, she admits that she drinks around 20 ounces of vodka every evening. What types of cancer does this put her at risk for? Select all that apply. A) Malignant melanoma B) Brain cancer C) Breast cancer D) Esophageal cancer E) Liver cancer

C, D, E Feedback: Dietary substances that appear to increase the risk of cancer include fats, alcohol, salt-cured or smoked meats, nitrate- and nitrite-containing foods, and red and processed meats. Alcohol increases the risk of cancers of the mouth, pharynx, larynx, esophagus, liver, colorectum, and breast.

One of the functions of nursing care of the terminally ill is to support the patient and his or her family as they come to terms with the diagnosis and progression of the disease process. How should nurses support patients and their families during this process? Select all that apply. A) Describe their personal experiences in dealing with end-of-life issues. B) Encourage the patient and family to keep fighting as a cure may come. C) Try to appreciate and understand the illness from the patients perspective. D) Assist patients with performing a life review. E) Provide interventions that facilitate end-of-life closure.

C, D, E Feedback: Nurses are responsible for educating patients about their illness and for supporting them as they adapt to life with the illness. Nurses can assist patients and families with life review, values clarification, treatment decision making, and end-of-life closure. The only way to do this effectively is to try to appreciate and understand the illness from the patients perspective. The nurses personal experiences should not normally be included and a cure is often not a realistic hope.

An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means? A) Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes B) Focusing the patients immune system exclusively on the tumor C) Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy D) Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient

D Feedback: BRFs alter the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the cancer patient (host) to provide a therapeutic benefit. They do not necessarily increase white cell production or focus the immune system solely on the tumor. BRFs do not potentiate radiotherapy and chemotherapy.

The nurse is orienting a new nurse to the oncology unit. When reviewing the safe administration of antineoplastic agents, what action should the nurse emphasize? A) Adjust the dose to the patients present symptoms. B) Wash hands with an alcohol-based cleanser following administration. C) Use gloves and a lab coat when preparing the medication. D) Dispose of the antineoplastic wastes in the hazardous waste receptacle.

D Feedback: The nurse should use surgical gloves and disposable long-sleeved gowns when administering antineoplastic agents. The antineoplastic wastes are disposed of as hazardous materials. Dosages are not adjusted on a short-term basis. Hand and arm hygiene must be performed before and after administering the medication.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is to begin receiving external radiation for a malignant tumor of the neck. While providing patient education, what potential adverse effects should the nurse discuss with the patient? A) Impaired nutritional status B) Cognitive changes C) Diarrhea D) Alopecia

A Feedback: Alterations in oral mucosa, change and loss of taste, pain, and dysphasia often occur as a result of radiotherapy to the head and neck. The patient is at an increased risk of impaired nutritional status. Radiotherapy does not cause cognitive changes. Diarrhea is not a likely concern for this patient. Radiation only results in alopecia when targeted at the whole brain; radiation of other parts of the body does not lead to hair loss.

A 35-year-old male patient presents at the emergency department with symptoms of a small bowel obstruction. In collaboration with the primary care provider, what intervention should the nurse prioritize? A) Insertion of a nasogastric tube B) Insertion of a central venous catheter C) Administration of a mineral oil enema D) Administration of a glycerin suppository and an oral laxative

A Feedback: Decompression of the bowel through a nasogastric tube is necessary for all patients with small bowel obstruction. Peripheral IV access is normally sufficient. Enemas, suppositories, and laxatives are not indicated if an obstruction is present.

A patients neck dissection surgery resulted in damage to the patients superior laryngeal nerve. What area of assessment should the nurse consequently prioritize? A) The patients swallowing ability B) The patients ability to speak C) The patients management of secretions D) The patients airway patency

A Feedback: If the superior laryngeal nerve is damaged, the patient may have difficulty swallowing liquids and food because of the partial lack of sensation of the glottis. Damage to this particular nerve does not inhibit speech and only affects management of secretions and airway patency indirectly

An international nurse has noted that a trend in developing countries is a decrease in mortality from some acute conditions. This has corresponded with an increase in the incidence and prevalence of chronic diseases. What has contributed to this decrease in mortality from some acute conditions? A) Improved nutrition B) Integration of alternative health practices C) Stronger international security measures D) Decrease in obesity

A Feedback: In developing countries, chronic conditions have become the major cause of health-related problems due to improved nutrition, immunizations, and prompt and aggressive management of acute conditions. The integration of alternative health practices has not contributed to a decrease in mortality. Stronger

A school nurse is providing health promotion teaching to a group of high school seniors. The nurse should highlight what salient risk factor for traumatic brain injury? A) Substance abuse B) Sports participation C) Anger mismanagement D) Lack of community resources

A Feedback: Of spinal cord injuries, 50% are related to substance abuse, and approximately 50% of all patients with traumatic brain injury were intoxicated at the time of injury. This association exceeds the significance of sports participation, anger mismanagement, or lack of community resources.

A patient has had an ileostomy created for the treatment of irritable bowel disease and the patient is now preparing for discharge. What should the patient be taught about changing this device in the home setting? A) Apply antibiotic ointment as ordered after cleaning the stoma. B) Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. C) Dispose of the clamp with each bag change. D) Cleanse the area surrounding the stoma with alcohol or chlorhexidine.

B Feedback: Guidelines for changing an ileostomy appliance are as follows. Skin should be washed with soap and water, and dried. A skin barrier should be applied to the peristomal skin prior to applying the pouch. Clamps are supplied one per box and should be reused with each bag change. Topical antibiotics are not utilized, but an antifungal spray or powder may be used.

During a patients scheduled home visit, an older adult patient has stated to the community health nurse that she has been experiencing hemorrhoids of increasing severity in recent months. The nurse should recommend which of the following? A) Regular application of an OTC antibiotic ointment B) Increased fluid and fiber intake C) Daily use of OTC glycerin suppositories D) Use of an NSAID to reduce inflammation

B Feedback: Hemorrhoid symptoms and discomfort can be relieved by good personal hygiene and by avoiding excessive straining during defecation. A high-residue diet that contains fruit and bran along with an increased fluid intake may be all the treatment that is necessary to promote the passage of soft, bulky stools to prevent straining. Antibiotics, regular use of suppositories, and NSAIDs are not recommended, as they do not address the etiology of the health problem.

A patient with a diagnosis of gastric cancer has been unable to tolerate oral food and fluid intake and her tumor location precludes the use of enteral feeding. What intervention should the nurse identify as best meeting this patients nutritional needs? A) Administration of parenteral feeds via a peripheral IV B) TPN administered via a peripherally inserted central catheter C) Insertion of an NG tube for administration of feeds D) Maintaining NPO status and IV hydration until treatment completion

B Feedback: If malabsorption is severe, or the cancer involves the upper GI tract, parenteral nutrition may be necessary. TPN is administered by way of a central line, not a peripheral IV. An NG would be contraindicated for this patient. Long-term NPO status would result in malnutrition.

The nurse is providing care for an older adult man whose diagnosis of dementia has recently led to urinary incontinence. When planning this patients care, what intervention should the nurse avoid? A) Scheduled toileting B) Indwelling catheter C) External condom catheter D) Incontinence pads

B Feedback: Indwelling catheters are avoided if at all possible because of the high incidence of urinary tract infections with their use. Intermittent self-catheterization is an appropriate alternative for managing reflex incontinence, urinary retention, and overflow incontinence related to an overdistended bladder. External catheters (condom catheters) and leg bags to collect spontaneous voiding are useful for male patients with reflex or total incontinence. Incontinence pads should be used as a last resort because they only manage, rather than solve, the incontinence.

The clinic nurse is caring for a patient whose grandmother and sister have both had breast cancer. She requested a screening test to determine her risk of developing breast cancer and it has come back positive. The patient asks you what she can do to help prevent breast cancer from occurring. What would be your best response? A) Research has shown that eating a healthy diet can provide all the protection you need against breast cancer. B) Research has shown that taking the drug tamoxifen can reduce your chance of breast cancer. C) Research has shown that exercising at least 30 minutes every day can reduce your chance of breast cancer. D) Research has shown that there is little you can do to reduce your risk of breast cancer if you have a genetic predisposition.

B Feedback: Large-scale breast cancer prevention studies supported by the National Cancer Institute (NCI) indicated that chemoprevention with the medication tamoxifen can reduce the incidence of breast cancer by 50% in women at high risk for breast cancer. A healthy diet and regular exercise are important, but not wholly sufficient preventive measures.

Research has corroborated an experienced nurses observation that the incidence and prevalence of chronic conditions is increasing in the United States. What health promotion initiative most directly addresses the factor that has been shown to contribute to this increase? A) A program to link residents with primary care providers B) A community-based weight-loss program C) A stress management workshop D) A cancer screening campaign

B Feedback: Lifestyle factors, such as smoking, chronic stress, and sedentary lifestyle, that increase the risk of chronic health problems such as respiratory disease, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and obesity are all thought to be factors for the increasing incidence of chronic conditions. Obesity is paramount among these, exceeding the significance of lack of access to primary care, inadequate cancer screening, and inadequate stress management.

A patients most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patients cancer cells spread? A) Hematologic spread B) Lymphatic circulation C) Invasion D) Angiogenesis

B Feedback: Lymph and blood are key mechanisms by which cancer cells spread. Lymphatic spread (the transport of tumor cells through the lymphatic circulation) is the most common mechanism of metastasis.

A nurse is creating a plan of care for an oncology patient and one of the identified nursing diagnoses is risk for infection related to myelosuppression. What intervention addresses the leading cause of infection-related death in oncology patients? A) Encourage several small meals daily. B) Provide skin care to maintain skin integrity. C) Assist the patient with hygiene, as needed. D) Assess the integrity of the patients oral mucosa regularly.

B Feedback: Nursing care for patients with skin reactions includes maintaining skin integrity, cleansing the skin, promoting comfort, reducing pain, preventing additional trauma, and preventing and managing infection. Malnutrition in oncology patients may be present, but it is not the leading cause of infection-related death. Poor hygiene does not normally cause events that result in death. Broken oral mucosa may be an avenue for infection, but it is not the leading cause of death in an oncology patient.

While taking a health history on a 20-year-old female patient, the nurse ascertains that this patient is taking miconazole (Monistat). The nurse is justified in presuming that this patient has what medical condition? A) Bacterial vaginosis B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Candidiasis D) Toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

C Feedback: Candidiasis is a fungal or yeast infection caused by strains of Candida. Miconazole (Monistat) is an antifungal medication used in the treatment of candidiasis. This agent is inserted into the vagina with an applicator at bedtime and may be applied to the vulvar area for pruritus. HPV, bacterial vaginosis, and TSS are not treated by Monistat

An oncology nurse is caring for a patient who has developed erythema following radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do? A) Periodically apply ice to the area. B) Keep the area cleanly shaven. C) Apply petroleum jelly to the affected area. D) Avoid using soap on the treatment area.

D Feedback: Care to the affected area must focus on preventing further skin irritation, drying, and damage. Soaps, petroleum ointment, and shaving the area could worsen the erythema. Ice is also contraindicated.

The nurse is teaching a patient preventative measures regarding vaginal infections. The nurse should include which of the following as an important risk factor? A) High estrogen levels B) Late menarche C) Nonpregnant state D) Frequent douching

D Feedback: Risk factors associated with vulvovaginal infections include pregnancy, premenarche, low estrogen levels, and frequent douching.

Which of the following is the most plausible nursing diagnosis for a patient whose treatment for colon cancer has necessitated a colonostomy? A) Risk for Unstable Blood Glucose Due to Changes in Digestion and Absorption B) Unilateral Neglect Related to Decreased Physical Mobility C) Risk for Excess Fluid Volume Related to Dietary Changes and Changes In Absorption D) Ineffective Sexuality Patterns Related to Changes in Self-Concept

D Feedback: The presence of an ostomy frequently has an effect on sexuality; this should be addressed thoughtfully in nursing care. None of the other listed diagnoses reflects the physiologic changes that result from colorectal surgery.

A female client reports to a nurse that she experiences a loss of urine when she jogs. The nurse's assessment reveals no nocturia, burning, discomfort when voiding, or urine leakage before reaching the bathroom. The nurse explains to the client that this type of problem is called: functional incontinence. reflex incontinence. stress incontinence. total incontinence.

stress incontinence. Stress incontinence is a small loss of urine with activities that increase intra-abdominal pressure, such as running, laughing, sneezing, jumping, coughing, and bending. These symptoms occur only in the daytime. Functional incontinence is the inability of a usually continent client to reach the toilet in time to avoid unintentional loss of urine. Reflex incontinence is an involuntary loss of urine at predictable intervals when a specific bladder volume is reached. Total incontinence occurs when a client experiences a continuous and unpredictable loss of urine.

A nurse is caring for a client with a chronic disease. What statement made by the client indicates that additional teaching is necessary? "Certain chronic diseases only affect men." "Chronic disease does not typically cause sudden death." "Most chronic disease can be traced to modifiable risk factors." "The majority of chronic diseases are known."

"Certain chronic diseases only affect men." A common misconception about chronic disease is that most chronic disease only effect men. In reality, chronic disease almost always impacts women at the same rate as men.

A nurse who sits on the hospitals ethics committee is reviewing a complex case that has many of the hallmarks of assisted suicide. Which of the following would be an example of assisted suicide? A) Administering a lethal dose of medication to a patient whose death is imminent B) Administering a morphine infusion without assessing for respiratory depression C) Granting a patients request not to initiate enteral feeding when the patient is unable to eat D) Neglecting to resuscitate a patient with a do not resuscitate order

A Feedback: Assisted suicide refers to providing another person the means to end his or her own life. This is not to be confused with the ethically and legally supported practices of withholding or withdrawing medical treatment in accordance with the wishes of the terminally ill individual. The other listed options do not fit this accepted definition of assisted suicide.

A patient has just returned to the floor following a transurethral resection of the prostate. A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter has been inserted for continuous bladder irrigation. What, in addition to balloon inflation, are the functions of the three lumens? A) Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution B) Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution C) Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution D) Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage

A Feedback: For continuous bladder irrigation, a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. The three lumens provide for balloon inflation and continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

A patient comes to the free clinic complaining of a gray-white discharge that clings to her external vulva and vaginal walls. A nurse practitioner assesses the patient and diagnoses Gardnerella vaginalis. What would be the most appropriate nursing action at this time? A) Advise the patient that this is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. B) Discuss the effect of this diagnosis on the patients fertility. C) Document the vaginal discharge as normal. D) Administer acyclovir as ordered.

A Feedback: Gray-white discharge that clings to the external vulva and vaginal walls is indicative of an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. The patients discharge is not a normal assessment finding. Antiviral medications are ineffective because of the bacterial etiology. This diagnosis is unlikely to have a longterm bearing on the patients fertility.

A female patient with HIV has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is most appropriate for the nurse to tell this patient? A) This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) test annually. B) The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. C) The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. D) The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, cannot be transmitted during oral sex.

A Feedback: HIV-positive women have a higher rate of HPV. Infections with HPV and HIV together increase the risk of malignant transformation and cervical cancer. Thus, women with HIV infection should have frequent Pap smears. Because condylomata acuminata is a virus, there is no permanent cure. Because condylomata acuminata can occur on the vulva, a condom will not protect sexual partners. HPV can be transmitted to other parts of the body, such as the mouth, oropharynx, and larynx.

One aspect of the nurses comprehensive assessment when caring for the terminally ill is the assessment of hope. The nurse is assessing a patient with liver failure for the presence of hope. What would the nurse identify as a hope-fostering category? A) Uplifting memories B) Ignoring negative outcomes C) Envisioning one specific outcome D) Avoiding an actual or potential threat

A Feedback: Hope is a multidimensional construct that provides comfort as a person endures life threats and personal challenges. Uplifting memories are noted as a hope-fostering category, whereas the other listed options are not identified as such.

The nurse is caring for a 65-year-old patient who has previously been diagnosed with hypertension. Which of the following blood pressure readings represents the threshold between high-normal blood pressure and hypertension? A) 140/90 mm Hg B) 145/95 mm Hg C) 150/100 mm Hg D) 160/100 mm Hg

A Feedback: Hypertension is the diagnosis given when the blood pressure is greater than 140/90 mm Hg. This makes the other options incorrect.

You are caring for a patient with a history of chronic angina. The patient tells you that after breakfast he usually takes a shower and shaves. It is at this time, the patient says, that he tends to experience chest pain. What might you counsel the patient to do to decrease the likelihood of angina in the morning? A) Shower in the evening and shave before breakfast. B) Skip breakfast and eat an early lunch. C) Take a nitro tab prior to breakfast. D) Shower once a week and shave prior to breakfast.

A Feedback: If the nurse determines that one of the situations most likely to precipitate angina is to shower and shave after breakfast, the nurse might counsel the patient to break these activities into different times during the day. Skipping breakfast and eating an early lunch would not decrease the likelihood of angina in the morning. Taking a nitro tablet before breakfast is inappropriate because the event requiring the medication has not yet occurred. Also, suggesting that the patient shower once a week and shave prior to breakfast is an incorrect suggestion because showering and shaving can both be done every day if they are spread out over the course of the day.

A patient with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has a diagnosis of Barretts esophagus with minor cell changes. Which of the following principles should be integrated into the patients subsequent care? A) The patient will require an upper endoscopy every 6 months to detect malignant changes. B) Liver enzymes must be checked regularly, as H2 receptor antagonists may cause hepatic damage. C) Small amounts of blood are likely to be present in the stools and are not cause for concern. D) Antacids may be discontinued when symptoms of heartburn subside.

A Feedback: In the patient with Barretts esophagus, the cells lining the lower esophagus have undergone change and are no longer squamous cells. The altered cells are considered precancerous and are a precursor to esophageal cancer. In order to facilitate early detection of malignant cells, an upper endoscopy is recommended every 6 months. H2 receptor antagonists are commonly prescribed for patients with GERD; however, monitoring of liver enzymes is not routine. Stools that contain evidence of frank bleeding or that are tarry are not expected and should be reported immediately. When antacids are prescribed for patients with GERD, they should be taken as ordered whether or not the patient is symptomatic. 6. The school nurse

A patient on the medical unit is dying and the nurse has determined that the familys psychosocial needs during the dying process need to be addressed. What is a cause of many patient care dilemmas at the end of life? A) Poor communication between the family and the care team B) Denial of imminent death on the part of the family or the patient C) Limited visitation opportunities for friends and family D) Conflict between family members

A Feedback: Many dilemmas in patient care at the end of life are related to poor communication between team members and the patient and family, as well as to failure of team members to communicate with each other effectively. Regardless of the care setting, the nurse can ensure a proactive approach to the psychosocial care of the patient and family. Denial of death may be a response to the situation, but it is not classified as a need. Visitation should accommodate wishes of the family member as long as patient care is not compromised.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been recently diagnosed with late stage pancreatic cancer. The patient refuses to accept the diagnosis and refuses to adhere to treatment. What is the most likely psychosocial purpose of this patients strategy? A) The patient may be trying to protect loved ones from the emotional effects of the illness. B) The patient is being noncompliant in order to assert power over caregivers. C) The patient may be skeptical of the benefits of the Western biomedical model of health. D) The patient thinks that treatment does not provide him comfort.

A Feedback: Patients who are characterized as being in denial may be using this strategy to preserve important interpersonal relationships, to protect others from the emotional effects of their illness, and to protect themselves because of fears of abandonment. Each of the other listed options is plausible, but less likely.

A teenage patient with a pilonidal cyst has been brought for care by her mother. The nurse who is contributing to the patients care knows that treatment will be chosen based on what risk? A) Risk for infection B) Risk for bowel incontinence C) Risk for constipation D) Risk for impaired tissue perfusion

A Feedback: Pilonidal cysts frequently develop into an abscess, necessitating surgical repair. These cysts do not contribute to bowel incontinence, constipation, or impaired tissue perfusion.

A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic because he is experiencing recurring episodes of urinary frequency, dysuria, and fever. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what health problem? A) Chronic bacterial prostatitis B) Orchitis C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia D) Urolithiasis

A Feedback: Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland that is often associated with lower urinary tract symptoms and symptoms of sexual discomfort and dysfunction. Symptoms are usually mild, consisting of frequency, dysuria, and occasionally urethral discharge. Urinary incontinence and retention occur with benign prostatic hyperplasia or hypertrophy. The patient may experience nocturia, urgency, decrease in volume and force of urinary stream. Urolithiasis is characterized by excruciating pain. Orchitis does not cause urinary symptoms.

A patient who is receiving rehabilitation following a spinal cord injury has been diagnosed with reflex incontinence. The nurse caring for the patient should include which intervention in this patients plan of care? A) Regular perineal care to prevent skin breakdown B) Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor C) Administration of hypotonic IV fluid D) Limited fluid intake to prevent incontinence

A Feedback: Reflex incontinence is associated with a spinal cord lesion that interrupts cerebral control, resulting in no sensory awareness of the need to void. Total incontinence occurs in patients with a psychological impairment when they cannot control excreta. A patient who is paralyzed cannot perform Kegel exercises. Intravenous fluids would make no difference in reflex incontinence. Limited fluid intake would make no impact on a patients inability to sense the need to void.

A man with a physical disability uses a wheelchair. The individual wants to attend a support group for the parents of autistic children, which is being held in the basement of a church. When the individual arrives at the church, he realizes there are no ramps or elevators to the basement so he will not be able to attend the support group. What type of barrier did this patient encounter? A) A structural barrier B) A barrier to health care C) An institutional barrier D) A transportation barrier

A Feedback: Structural barriers make certain facilities inaccessible. Examples of structural barriers include stairs, lack of ramps, narrow doorways that do not permit entry of a wheelchair, and restroom facilities that cannot be used by people with disabilities. This individual did not experience a barrier to health care, an institutional barrier, or a transportation barrier.

After contributing to the care of several patients who died in the hospital, the nurse has identified some lapses in the care that many of these patients received toward the end of their lives. What have research studies identified as a potential deficiency in the care of the dying in hospital settings? A) Families needs for information and support often go unmet. B) Patients are too sedated to achieve adequate pain control. C) Patients are not given opportunities to communicate with caregivers. D) Patients are ignored by the care team toward the end of life.

A Feedback: Studies have demonstrated that the health care system continues to be challenged when meeting seriously ill patients needs for pain and symptom management and their families needs for information and support. Oversedation, lack of communication, and lack of care are not noted to be deficiencies to the same degree.

The home health nurse is performing a home visit for an oncology patient discharged 3 days ago after completing treatment for non-Hodgkin lymphoma. The nurses assessment should include examination for the signs and symptoms of what complication? A) Tumor lysis syndrome (TLS) B) Syndrome of inappropriate antiduretic hormone (SIADH) C) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D) Hypercalcemia

A Feedback: TLS is a potentially fatal complication that occurs spontaneously or more commonly following radiation, biotherapy, or chemotherapy-induced cell destruction of large or rapidly growing cancers such as leukemia, lymphoma, and small cell lung cancer. DIC, SIADH and hypercalcemia are less likely complications following this treatment and diagnosis.

A female patient tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection because she has noted inflammation of her vulva and the presence of a frothy, yellow-green discharge. The nurse recognizes that the clinical manifestations described are typical of what vaginal infection? A) Trichomonas vaginalis B) Candidiasis C) Gardnerella D) Gonorrhea

A Feedback: The clinical manifestations indicate T. vaginalis, which is treated with metronidazole in the form of oral tablets. Candidiasis produces a white, cheese-like discharge. Gardnerella is characterized by gray-white to yellow-white discharge clinging to external vulva and vaginal walls. Gonorrhea often produces no symptoms.

The hospice nurse has just admitted a new patient to the program. What principle guides hospice care? A) Care addresses the needs of the patient as well as the needs of the family. B) Care is focused on the patient centrally and the family peripherally. C) The focus of all aspects of care is solely on the patient. D) The care team prioritizes the patients physical needs and the family is responsible for the patients emotional needs.

A Feedback: The focus of hospice care is on the family as well as the patient. The family is not solely responsible for the patients emotional well-being

A patient with a spinal cord injury is being assessed by the nurse prior to his discharge home from the rehabilitation facility. The nurse is planning care through the lens of the interface model of disability. Within this model, the nurse will plan care based on what belief? A) The patient has the potential to function effectively despite his disability. B) The patients disabling condition does not have to affect his lifestyle. C) The patient will not require care from professional caregivers in the home setting. D) The patients disability is the most salient aspect of his personal identity.

A Feedback: The interface model does not ignore the disabling condition or its disabling effects; instead, it promotes the view that people with disabilities are capable, responsible people who are able to function effectively despite having a disability. This does not mean that the patient will not require care, however, or that it will not affect his lifestyle. The persons disability is not his identity.

You are the nurse creating the care plan for a patient newly admitted to your rehabilitation unit. The patient is an 82-year-old patient who has had a stroke but who lived independently until this event. What is a goal that you should include in this patients nursing care plan? A) Maintain joint mobility. B) Refer to social services. C) Ambulate three times every day. D) Perform passive range of motion twice daily.

A Feedback: The major goals may include absence of contracture and deformity, maintenance of muscle strength and joint mobility, independent mobility, increased activity tolerance, and prevention of further disability. The other listed actions are interventions, not goals.

A patient with trichomoniasis comes to the walk-in clinic. In developing a care plan for this patient the nurse would know to include what as an important aspect of treating this patient? A) Both partners will be treated with metronidazole (Flagyl). B) Constipation and menstrual difficulties may occur. C) The patient should perform Kegel exercises 30 to 80 times daily. D) Care will involve hormone therapy to control the pain.

A Feedback: The most effective treatment for trichomoniasis is metronidazole (Flagyl). Both partners receive a onetime loading dose or a smaller dose three times a day for 1 week. In pelvic inflammatory disease, menstrual difficulties and constipation may occur. Kegel exercises are prescribed to help strengthen weakened muscles associated with cystocele and other structural deficits. Hormone therapy does not address the etiology of trichomoniasis.

The nurse is providing care for a patient whose inflammatory bowel disease has necessitated hospital treatment. Which of the following would most likely be included in the patients medication regimen? A) Anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal B) Antiemetics on a PRN basis C) Vitamin B12 injections to prevent pernicious anemia D) Beta adrenergic blockers to reduce bowel motility

A Feedback: The nurse administers anticholinergic medications 30 minutes before a meal as prescribed to decrease intestinal motility and administers analgesics as prescribed for pain. Antiemetics, vitamin B12 injections and beta blockers do not address the signs, symptoms, or etiology of inflammatory bowel disease.

The nurse notes that a patient who has undergone skin, tissue, and muscle grafting following a modified radical neck dissection requires suctioning. What is the most important consideration for the nurse when suctioning this patient? A) Avoid applying suction on or near the suture line. B) Position patient on the non operative side with the head of the bed down. C) Assess the patients ability to perform self-suctioning. D) Evaluate the patients ability to swallow saliva and clear fluids.

A Feedback: The nurse should avoid positioning the suction catheter on or near the graft suture lines. Application of suction in these areas could damage the graft. Self-sectioning may be unsafe because the patient may damage the suture line. Following a modified radical neck dissection with graft, the patient is usually positioned with the head of the bed elevated to promote drainage and reduce edema. Assessing viability of the graft is important but is not part of the suctioning procedure and may delay initiating suctioning. Maintenance of a patent airway is a nursing priority. Similarly, the patients ability to swallow is an important assessment for the nurse to make; however, it is not directly linked to the patients need for suctioning. 5. A patient with

A nurse is preparing to provide care for a patient whose exacerbation of ulcerative colitis has required hospital admission. During an exacerbation of this health problem, the nurse would anticipate that the patients stools will have what characteristics? A) Watery with blood and mucus B) Hard and black or tarry C) Dry and streaked with blood D) Loose with visible fatty streaks

A Feedback: The predominant symptoms of ulcerative colitis are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Stools may be bloody and contain mucus. Stools are not hard, dry, tarry, black or fatty in patients who have ulcerative colitis.

You are caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with genital herpes. When preparing a teaching plan for this patient, what general guidelines should be taught? A) Thorough handwashing is essential. B) Sun bathing assists in eradicating the virus. C) Lesions should be massaged with ointment. D) Self-infection cannot occur from touching lesions during a breakout.

A Feedback: The risk of reinfection and spread of infection to others or to other structures of the body can be reduced by handwashing, use of barrier methods with sexual contact, and adherence to prescribed medication regimens. The lesions should be allowed to dry. Touching of lesions during an outbreak should be avoided; if touched, appropriate hygiene practices must be followed.

The nurse is providing patient teaching to a patient with early stage Alzheimers disease (AD) and her family. The patient has been prescribed donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept). What should the nurse explain to the patient and family about this drug? A) It slows the progression of AD. B) It cures AD in a small minority of patients. C) It removes the patients insight that he or she has AD. D) It limits the physical effects of AD and other dementias.

A Feedback: There is no cure for AD, but several medications have been introduced to slow the progression of the disease, including donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept). These medications do not remove the patients insight or address physical symptoms of AD.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has had surgery for oral cancer. When addressing the patients longterm needs, the nurse should prioritize interventions and referrals with what goal? A) Enhancement of verbal communication B) Enhancement of immune function C) Maintenance of adequate social support D) Maintenance of fluid balance

A Feedback: Verbal communication may be impaired by radical surgery for oral cancer. Addressing this impairment often requires a long-term commitment. Immune function, social support, and fluid balance are all necessary, but communication is a priority issue for patients recovering from this type of surgery.

A public health nurse is participating in a campaign aimed at preventing cervical cancer. What strategies should the nurse include is this campaign? Select all that apply. A) Promotion of HPV immunization B) Encouraging young women to delay first intercourse C) Smoking cessation D) Vitamin D and calcium supplementation E) Using safer sex practices

A, B, C, E Feedback: Preventive measures relevant to cervical cancer include regular pelvic examinations and Pap tests for all women, especially older women past childbearing age. Preventive counseling should encourage delaying first intercourse, avoiding HPV infection, participating in safer sex only, smoking cessation, and receiving HPV immunization. Calcium and vitamin D supplementation are not relevant.

A nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted to the hospital with diverticulitis. Which of the following would be appropriate nursing diagnoses for this patient? Select all that apply. A) Acute Pain Related to Increased Peristalsis and GI Inflammation B) Activity Intolerance Related to Generalized Weakness C) Bowel Incontinence Related to Increased Intestinal Peristalsis D) Deficient Fluid Volume Related to Anorexia, Nausea, and Diarrhea E) Impaired Urinary Elimination Related to GI Pressure on the Bladder

A, B, D Feedback: Patients with diverticulitis are likely to experience pain and decreased activity levels, and are at risk of fluid volume deficit. The patient is unlikely to experience fecal incontinence and urinary function is not directly influenced

A nurse who provides care on an acute medical unit has observed that physicians are frequently reluctant to refer patients to hospice care. What are contributing factors that are known to underlie this tendency? Select all that apply. A) Financial pressures on health care providers B) Patient reluctance to accept this type of care C) Strong association of hospice care with prolonging death D) Advances in curative treatment in late-stage illness E) Ease of making a terminal diagnosis

A, B, D Feedback: Physicians are reluctant to refer patients to hospice, and patients are reluctant to accept this form of care. Reasons include the difficulties in making a terminal prognosis (especially for those patients with noncancer diagnoses), the strong association of hospice with death, advances in curative treatment options in late-stage illness, and financial pressures on health care providers that may cause them to retain rather than refer hospice-eligible patients.

The nurse is describing some of the major characteristics of cancer to a patient who has recently received a diagnosis of malignant melanoma. When differentiating between benign and malignant cancer cells, the nurse should explain differences in which of the following aspects? Select all that apply. A) Rate of growth B) Ability to cause death C) Size of cells D) Cell contents E) Ability to spread

A, B, E Feedback: Benign and malignant cells differ in many cellular growth characteristics, including the method and rate of growth, ability to metastasize or spread, general effects, destruction of tissue, and ability to cause death. Cells come in many sizes, both benign and malignant. Cell contents are basically the same, but they behave differently.

A nurse is caring for a patient in the late stages of esophageal cancer. The nurse should plan to prevent or address what characteristics of this stage of the disease? Select all that apply. A) Perforation into the mediastinum B) Development of an esophageal lesion C) Erosion into the great vessels D) Painful swallowing E) Obstruction of the esophagus

A, C, E Feedback: In the later stages of esophageal cancer, obstruction of the esophagus is noted, with possible perforation into the mediastinum and erosion into the great vessels. Painful swallowing and the emergence of a lesion are early signs of esophageal cancer.

A client is a paraplegic, lives alone, and just had a total shoulder arthroplasty. In planning for discharge, the nurse arranges for A home health nurse to assess the client's living situation Physical therapy to provide exercises for the client three times each week Admittance to a rehabilitation unit A nursing assistant who provides care every day during the day

Admittance to a rehabilitation unit It is important for the nurse to consider how a disability will affect the client who needs to adhere to a new treatment regimen. This client needs constant care because she cannot lift herself into a wheelchair with one arm. She would either need someone to provide care 24 hours each day in her home or be admitted to a rehabilitation unit.

A client has a tentative diagnosis of lung cancer following computed tomography (CT) scanning. He is scheduled for a fiberoptic bronchoscopy with biopsy. In the trajectory phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness, the nurse Obtains the signature of the client on the consent form Answers the client's questions about the bronchoscopy procedure Administers the preoperative medication for the bronchoscopy Provides postprocedure care following the bronchoscopy

Answers the client's questions about the bronchoscopy procedure

A client has been hospitalized with heart failure multiple times. The home health nurse is visiting the client with the overall goal of decreasing the frequency of hospitalizations. Using the nursing process, outline the steps the nurse would do in the correct order from 1 to 5. 1 Assesses the client's weight as 88 kg, 117% of ideal body weight 2 Establishes the nursing diagnosis as Excess Fluid Volume 3 Identifies a goal for the client to weigh 86 kg within 1 week 4 Intervenes by teaching the client about weighing self every day 5 Evaluates the client's weight as 86 kg 1 week later

Assesses the client's weight as 88 kg, 117% of ideal body weight Establishes the nursing diagnosis as Excess Fluid Volume Identifies a goal for the client to weigh 86 kg within 1 week Intervenes by teaching the client about weighing self every day Evaluates the client's weight as 86 kg 1 week later The nurse uses the nursing process when providing care for clients, including clients with chronic health problems such as heart failure. The order of the nursing process is assessment, diagnosis, planning, implementation, and evaluation.

The nurse is working with a client with a chronic condition. The nurse includes which elements in the plan of care? Select all that apply. Assessment for identity changes Assessment for spontaneous resolution Interventions to manage symptoms Interventions to prevent complications

Assessment for identity changes Interventions to manage symptoms Interventions to prevent complications The nurse should assess for identity changes, plan interventions to manage the client's symptoms, and prevent complications of the chronic condition. Chronic conditions do not resolve spontaneously.

An occupational health nurse overhears an employee talking to his manager about a 65-year-old coworker. What phenomenon would the nurse identify when hearing the employee state, He should just retire and make way for some new blood.? A) Intolerance B) Ageism C) Dependence D) Nonspecific prejudice

B Feedback: Ageism refers to prejudice against the aged. Intolerance is implied by the employees statement, but the intolerance is aimed at the coworkers age. The employees statement does not raise concern about dependence. The prejudice exhibited in the statement is very specific.

A patient has been diagnosed with an esophageal diverticulum after undergoing diagnostic imaging. When taking the health history, the nurse should expect the patient to describe what sign or symptom? A) Burning pain on swallowing B) Regurgitation of undigested food C) Symptoms mimicking a heart attack D) Chronic parotid abscesses

B Feedback: An esophageal diverticulum is an outpouching of mucosa and submucosa that protrudes through the esophageal musculature. Food becomes trapped in the pouch and is frequently regurgitated when the patient assumes a recumbent position. The patient may experience difficulty swallowing; however, burning pain is not a typical finding. Symptoms mimicking a heart attack are characteristic of GERD. Chronic parotid abscesses are not associated with a diagnosis of esophageal diverticulum.

A nurse caring for a patient with colorectal cancer is preparing the patient for upcoming surgery. The nurse administers cephalexin (Keflex) to the patient and explains what rationale? A) To treat any undiagnosed infections B) To reduce intestinal bacteria levels C) To reduce bowel motility D) To reduce abdominal distention postoperatively

B Feedback: Antibiotics such a kanamycin (Kantrex), neomycin (Mycifradin), and cephalexin (Keflex) are administered orally the day before surgery to reduce intestinal bacterial. Preoperative antibiotics are not given to treat undiagnosed infections, reduce motility, or prevent abdominal distention.

Patients who are enrolled in hospice care through Medicare are often felt to suffer unnecessarily because they do not receive adequate attention for their symptoms of the underlying illness. What factor most contributes to this phenomenon? A) Unwillingness to overmedicate the dying patient B) Rules concerning completion of all cure-focused medical treatment C) Unwillingness of patients and families to acknowledge the patient is terminal D) Lack of knowledge of patients and families regarding availability of care

B Feedback: Because of Medicare rules concerning completion of all cure-focused medical treatment before the Medicare hospice benefit may be accessed, many patients delay enrollment in hospice programs until very close to the end of life. Hospice care does not include an unwillingness to medicate the patient to keep him or her from suffering. Patients must accept that they are terminal before being admitted to hospice care. Lack of knowledge is common; however, this is not why some Medicare patients do not receive adequate attention for the symptoms of their underlying illness.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of vulvar cancer who has returned from the PACU after undergoing a wide excision of the vulva. How should this patients analgesic regimen be best managed? A) Analgesia should be withheld unless the patients pain becomes unbearable. B) Scheduled analgesia should be administered around-the-clock to prevent pain. C) All analgesics should be given on a PRN, rather than scheduled, basis. D) Opioid analgesics should be avoided and NSAIDs exclusively provided.

B Feedback: Because of the wide excision, the patient may experience severe pain and discomfort even with minimal movement. Therefore, analgesic agents are administered preventively (i.e., around the clock at designated times) to relieve pain, increase the patients comfort level, and allow mobility. Opioids are usually required.

A middle-aged female patient has been offered testing for HIV/AIDS upon admission to the hospital for an unrelated health problem. The nurse observes that the patient is visibly surprised and embarrassed by this offer. How should the nurse best respond? A) Most women with HIV dont know they have the disease. If you have it, its important we catch it early. B) This testing is offered to every adolescent and adult regardless of their lifestyle, appearance or history. C) The rationale for this testing is so that you can begin treatment as soon as testing comes back, if its positive. D) Youre being offered this testing because you are actually in the prime demographic for HIV infection.

B Feedback: Because patients may be reluctant to discuss risk-taking behavior, routine screening should be offered to all women between the ages of 13 to 64 years in all health care settings. Assuring a woman that the offer of testing is not related to a heightened risk may alleviate her anxiety. Middle-aged women are not the prime demographic for HIV infection. The nurse should avoid causing fear by immediately discussing treatment or the fact that many patients are unaware of their diagnosis.

A gerontologic nurse is making an effort to address some of the misconceptions about older adults that exist among health care providers. The nurse has made the point that most people aged 75 years remains functionally independent. The nurse should attribute this trend to what factor? A) Early detection of disease and increased advocacy by older adults B) Application of health-promotion and disease-prevention activities C) Changes in the medical treatment of hypertension and hyperlipidemia D) Genetic changes that have resulted in increased resiliency to acute infection

B Feedback: Even among people 75 years of age and over, most remain functionally independent, and the proportion of older Americans with limitations in activities is declining. These declines in limitations reflect recent trends in health-promotion and disease-prevention activities, such as improved nutrition, decreased smoking, increased exercise, and early detection and treatment of risk factors such as hypertension and elevated serum cholesterol levels. This phenomenon is not attributed to genetics, medical treatment, or increased advocacy.

A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patients history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction? A) The patient has been treated for a UTI twice in the past year. B) The patient has a history of hypertension. C) The patient is 66 years old. D) The patient leads a sedentary lifestyle.

B Feedback: Past history of infection and lack of exercise do not contribute to impotence. With advancing age, sexual function and libido and potency decrease somewhat, but this is not the primary reason for impotence. Vascular problems cause about half the cases of impotence in men older than 50 years; hypertension is a major cause of such problems.

A 39-year-old patient with paraplegia has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of a sacral ulcer. The nurse is aware that the patient normally lives alone in an apartment and manages his ADLs independently. Before creating the patients plan of care, how should the nurse best identify the level of assistance that the patient will require in the hospital? A) Make referrals for assessment to occupational therapy and physical therapy. B) Talk with the patient about the type and level of assistance that he desires. C) Obtain the patients previous medical record and note what was done during his most recent admission. D) Apply a standardized care plan that addresses the needs of a patient with paraplegia.

B Feedback: Patients should be asked preferences about approaches to carrying out their ADLs, and assistive devices they require should be readily available. The other listed actions may be necessary in some cases, but the ultimate resource should be the patient himself.

A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patients history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)? A) Cataracts B) Retinopathy C) Hypotension D) Diabetic nephropathy

B Feedback: Patients with cataracts, hypotension, or nephropathy will be allowed to take tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) if needed. However, tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) are usually contraindicated with diabetic retinopathy.

You are admitting a patient into your rehabilitation unit after an industrial accident. The patients nursing diagnoses include disturbed sensory perception and you assess that he has decreased strength and dexterity. You know that this patient may need what to accomplish self-care? A) Advice from his family B) Appropriate assistive devices C) A personal health care aide D) An assisted-living environment

B Feedback: Patients with impaired mobility, sensation, strength, or dexterity may need to use assistive devices to accomplish self-care. An assisted-living environment is less common than the use of assistive devices. Family involvement is imperative, but this may or may not take the form of advice. A healthcare aide is not needed by most patients.

You are caring for a patient who has just been told that his illness is progressing and nothing more can be done for him. After the physician leaves, the patient asks you to stay with him for a while. The patient becomes tearful and tries several times to say something, but cannot get the words out. What would be an appropriate response for you to make at this time? A) Can I give you some advice? B) Do you need more time to think about this? C) Is there anything you want to say? D) I have cared for lots of patients in your position. It will get easier.

B Feedback: Prompt gently: Do you need more time to think about this? Giving advice is inappropriate and it is obvious from the scenario that the patient has something to say. Referring to other patients negates the patients feelings at this time.

As the American population ages, nurses expect see more patients admitted to long-term care facilities in need of palliative care. Regulations now in place that govern how the care in these facilities is both organized and reimbursed emphasize what aspect of care? A) Ongoing acute care B) Restorative measures C) Mobility and socialization D) Incentives to palliative care

B Feedback: Regulations that govern how care in these facilities is organized and reimbursed tend to emphasize restorative measures and serve as a disincentive to palliative care. Long-term care facilities do not normally provide acute care for their patients. Regulations for long-term care facilities do not primarily emphasize mobility and socialization.

The nurse is caring for a patient with an advanced stage of breast cancer and the patient has recently learned that her cancer has metastasized. The nurse enters the room and finds the patient struggling to breath and the nurses rapid assessment reveals that the patients jugular veins are distended. The nurse should suspect the development of what oncologic emergency? A) Increased intracranial pressure B) Superior vena cava syndrome (SVCS) C) Spinal cord compression D) Metastatic tumor of the neck

B Feedback: SVCS occurs when there is gradual or sudden impaired venous drainage giving rise to progressive shortness of breath (dyspnea), cough, hoarseness, chest pain, and facial swelling; edema of the neck, arms, hands, and thorax and reported sensation of skin tightness and difficulty swallowing; as well as possibly engorged and distended jugular, temporal, and arm veins. Increased intracranial pressure may be a part of SVCS, but it is not what is causing the patients symptoms. The scenario does not mention a problem with the patients spinal cord. The scenario says that the cancer has metastasized, but not that it has metastasized to the neck.

A 35-year-old father of three tells the nurse that he wants information on a vasectomy. What would the nurse tell him about ejaculate after a vasectomy? A) There will be no ejaculate after a vasectomy, though the patients potential for orgasm is unaffected. B) There is no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate even though it contains no sperm. C) There is a marked decrease in the amount of ejaculate after vasectomy, though this does not affect sexual satisfaction. D) There is no change in the quantity of ejaculate after vasectomy, but the viscosity is somewhat increased.

B Feedback: Seminal fluid is manufactured predominantly in the seminal vesicles and prostate gland, which are unaffected by vasectomy, thus no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate occurs (volume decreases approximately 3%), even though it contains no spermatozoa. The viscosity of ejaculate does not change.

A patient has been diagnosed with endometriosis. When planning this patients care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis? A) Anxiety related to risk of transmission B) Acute pain related to misplaced endometrial tissue C) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage D) Excess fluid volume related to abdominal distention

B Feedback: Symptoms of endometriosis vary but include dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, and pelvic discomfort or pain. Dyschezia (pain with bowel movements) and radiation of pain to the back or leg may occur. Ineffective tissue perfusion is not associated with endometriosis and there is no plausible risk of fluid overload. Endometriosis is not transmittable.

A patients daughter has asked the nurse about helping him end his terrible suffering. The nurse is aware of the ANA Position Statement on Assisted Suicide, which clearly states that nursing participation in assisted suicide is a violation of the Code for Nurses. What does the Position Statement further stress? A) Educating families about the moral implications of assisted suicide B) Identifying patient and family concerns and fears C) Identifying resources that meet the patients desire to die D) Supporting effective means to honor the patients desire to die

B Feedback: The ANA Position Statement further stresses the important role of the nurse in supporting effective symptom management, contributing to the creation of environments for care that honor the patients and familys wishes, as well as identifying their concerns and fears. Discussion of moral implications would normally be beyond the purview of the nurse.

A nurse has been asked to become involved in the care of an adult patient in his fifties who has experienced a new onset of urinary incontinence. During what aspect of the assessment should the nurse explore physiologic risk factors for elimination problems? A) Physical assessment B) Health history C) Genetic history D) Initial assessment

B Feedback: The health history is used to explore bladder and bowel function, symptoms associated with dysfunction, physiologic risk factors for elimination problems, perception of micturition (urination or voiding) and defecation cues, and functional toileting abilities. Elimination problems are not explored in the other listed aspects of assessment.

During the care conference for a patient who has multiple chronic conditions, the case manager has alluded to the principles of the interface model of disability. What statement is most characteristic of this model? A) This patient should be free to plan his care without our interference. B) This patient can be empowered and doesnt have to be dependent. C) This patient was a very different person before the emergence of these health problems. D) This patients physiological problems are the priority over his psychosocial status.

B Feedback: The interface model focuses on care that is empowering rather than care that promotes dependency. The Test Bank - Brunner & Suddarth's Textbook of Medical-Surgical Nursing 14e (Hinkle 2017) 174 other listed statements are inconsistent with the principles of the interface model.

A staff educator is reviewing the causes of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) with new staff nurses. What area of the GI tract should the educator identify as the cause of reduced pressure associated with GERD? A) Pyloric sphincter B) Lower esophageal sphincter C) Hypopharyngeal sphincter D) Upper esophageal sphincter

B Feedback: The lower esophageal sphincter, also called the gastroesophageal sphincter or cardiac sphincter, is located at the junction of the esophagus and the stomach. An incompetent lower esophageal sphincter allows reflux (backward flow) of gastric contents. The upper esophageal sphincter and the hypopharyngeal sphincter are synonymous and are not responsible for the manifestations of GERD. The pyloric sphincter exists between the stomach and the duodenum.

A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication? A) Sexual stimulation is not needed to obtain an erection. B) The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse. C) Facial flushing or headache should be reported to the physician immediately. D) The drug has the potential to cause permanent visual changes.

B Feedback: The patient must have sexual stimulation to create the erection, and the drug should be taken 1 hour before intercourse. Facial flushing, mild headache, indigestion, and running nose are common side effects of Viagra and do not normally warrant reporting to the physician. Some visual disturbances may occur, but these are transient.

Results of a patient barium swallow suggest that the patient has GERD. The nurse is planning health education to address the patients knowledge of this new diagnosis. Which of the following should the nurse encourage? A) Eating several small meals daily rather than 3 larger meals B) Keeping the head of the bed slightly elevated C) Drinking carbonated mineral water rather than soft drinks D) Avoiding food or fluid intake after 6:00 p.m.

B Feedback: The patient with GERD is encouraged to elevate the head of the bed on 6- to 8-inch (15- to 20-cm) blocks. Frequent meals are not specifically encouraged and the patient should avoid food and fluid within 2 hours of bedtime. All carbonated beverages should be avoided.

A 16-year-old presents at the emergency department complaining of right lower quadrant pain and is subsequently diagnosed with appendicitis. When planning this patients nursing care, the nurse should prioritize what nursing diagnosis? A) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements Related to Decreased Oral Intake B) Risk for Infection Related to Possible Rupture of Appendix C) Constipation Related to Decreased Bowel Motility and Decreased Fluid Intake D) Chronic Pain Related to Appendicitis

B Feedback: The patient with a diagnosis of appendicitis has an acute risk of infection related to the possibility of rupture. This immediate physiologic risk is a priority over nutrition and constipation, though each of these concerns should be addressed by the nurse. The pain associated with appendicitis is acute, not chronic.

A patient admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and complains of a sudden onset of exquisite abdominal tenderness. The nurses rapid assessment reveals that the patients abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurses best response? A) Administer a Fleet enema as ordered and remain with the patient. B) Contact the primary care provider promptly and report these signs of perforation. C) Position the patient supine and insert an NG tube. D) Page the primary care provider and report that the patient may be obstructed.

B Feedback: The patients change in status is suggestive of perforation, which is a surgical emergency. Obstruction does not have this presentation involving fever and abdominal rigidity. An enema would be strongly contraindicated. An order is needed for NG insertion and repositioning is not a priority.

A nurse is giving a talk to a local community group whose members advocate for disabled members of the community. The group is interested in emerging trends that are impacting the care of people who are disabled in the community. The nurse should describe an increasing focus on what aspect of care? A) Extended rehabilitation care B) Independent living C) Acute-care center treatment D) State institutions that provide care for life

B Feedback: There is a growing trend toward independent living for patients who are severely disabled, either alone or in groups. The goal is integration into the community. The nurse would be sure to mention this fact when talking to a local community group. The nurse would not describe extended rehabilitation care, acute-care center treatment, or state institutions because these are not increasing in importance.

A 14-year-old is brought to the clinic by her mother. The mother explains to the nurse that her daughter has just started using tampons, but is not yet sexually active. The mother states I am very concerned because my daughter is having a lot of stabbing pain and burning. What might the nurse suspect is the problem with the 14-year-old? A) Vulvitis B) Vulvodynia C) Vaginitis D) Bartholins cyst

B Feedback: Vulvodynia is a chronic vulvar pain syndrome. Symptoms may include burning, stinging, irritation, or stabbing pain and may follow the initial use of tampons or first sexual experience. Vulvitis is an inflammation of the vulva that is normally infectious. Bartholins cyst results from the obstruction of a duct in one of the paired vestibular glands located in the posterior third of the vulva, near the vestibule.

A gerontologic nurse has been working hard to change the perceptions of the elderly, many of which are negative, by other segments of the population. What negative perceptions of older people have been identified in the literature? Select all that apply. A) As being the cause of social problems B) As not contributing to society C) As draining economic resources D) As competing with children for resources E) As dominating health care research

B, C, D Feedback: Retirement and perceived nonproductivity are responsible for negative feelings because a younger working person may falsely see older people as not contributing to society and as draining economic resources. Younger working people may actually feel that older people are in competition with children for resources. However, the older population is generally not seen as dominating health care research or causing social problems.

An adult patient has been diagnosed with diverticular disease after ongoing challenges with constipation. The patient will be treated on an outpatient basis. What components of treatment should the nurse anticipate? Select all that apply. A) Anticholinergic medications B) Increased fiber intake C) Enemas on alternating days D) Reduced fat intake E) Fluid reduction

B, D Feedback: Patients whose diverticular disease does not warrant hospital treatment often benefit from a high-fiber, low-fat diet. Neither enemas nor anticholinergics are indicated, and fluid intake is encouraged

A patient has undergone surgery for oral cancer and has just been extubated in postanesthetic recovery. What nursing action best promotes comfort and facilitates spontaneous breathing for this patient? A) Placing the patient in a left lateral position B) Administering opioids as ordered C) Placing the patient in Fowlers position D) Teaching the patient to use the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) system

C Feedback: After the endotracheal tube or airway has been removed and the effects of the anesthesia have worn off, the patient may be placed in Fowlers position to facilitate breathing and promote comfort. Lateral positioning does not facilitate oxygenation or comfort. Medications do not facilitate spontaneous breathing.

You are the nurse caring for patients in the urology clinic. A new patient, 78 years old, presents with complaints of urinary incontinence. An anticholinergic is prescribed. Why might this type of medication be an inappropriate choice in the elderly population? A) Gastrointestinal hypermotility can be an adverse effect of this medication. B) Detrusor instability can be an adverse effect of this medication. C) Confusion can be an adverse effect of this medication. D) Increased symptoms of urge incontinence can be an adverse effect of this medication.

C Feedback: Although medications such as anticholinergics may decrease some of the symptoms of urge incontinence (detrusor instability), the adverse effects of these medications (dry mouth, slowed gastrointestinal motility, and confusion) may make them inappropriate choices for the elderly.

A patients screening colonoscopy revealed the presence of numerous polyps in the large bowel. What principle should guide the subsequent treatment of this patients health problem? A) Adherence to a high-fiber diet will help the polyps resolve. B) The patient should be assured that these are a normal, age-related physiologic change. C) The patients polyps constitute a risk factor for cancer. D) The presence of polyps is associated with an increased risk of bowel obstruction.

C Feedback: Although most polyps do not develop into invasive neoplasms, they must be identified and followed closely. They are very common, but are not classified as a normal, age-related physiologic change. Diet will not help them resolve and they do not typically lead to obstructions.

A patient has been transferred to a rehabilitative setting from an acute care unit. What is the most important reason for the nurse to begin a program for activities of daily living (ADLs) as soon as the patient is admitted to a rehabilitation facility? A) The ability to perform ADLs may be the key to dependence. B) The ability to perform ADLs is essential to living in a group home. C) The ability to perform ADLs may be the key to reentry into the community. D) The ability to perform ADLs is necessary to function in an assisted-living situation.

C Feedback: An ADL program is started as soon as the rehabilitation process begins because the ability to perform ADLs is frequently the key to independence, return to the home, and reentry into the community. ADLs are frequently the key to independence, not dependence. The ability to perform ADLs is not always a criterion for admission to a group home or assisted-living facility.

An older adult has a diagnosis of Alzheimers disease and has recently been experiencing fecal incontinence. However, the nurse has observed no recent change in the character of the patients stools. What is the nurses most appropriate intervention? A) Keep a food diary to determine the foods that exacerbate the patients symptoms. B) Provide the patient with a bland, low-residue diet. C) Toilet the patient on a frequent, scheduled basis. D) Liaise with the primary care provider to obtain an order for loperamide.

C Feedback: Because the patients fecal incontinence is most likely attributable to cognitive decline, frequent toileting is an appropriate intervention. Loperamide is unnecessary in the absence of diarrhea. Specific foods are not likely to be a cause of, or solution to, this patients health problem.

After a sudden decline in cognition, a 77-year-old man who has been diagnosed with vascular dementia is receiving care in his home. To reduce this mans risk of future infarcts, what action should the nurse most strongly encourage? A) Activity limitation and falls reduction efforts B) Adequate nutrition and fluid intake C) Rigorous control of the patients blood pressure and serum lipid levels D) Use of mobility aids to promote independence

C Feedback: Because vascular dementia is associated with hypertension and cardiovascular disease, risk factors (e.g., hypercholesterolemia, history of smoking, diabetes) are similar. Prevention and management are also similar. Therefore, measures to decrease blood pressure and lower cholesterol levels may prevent future infarcts. Activity limitation is unnecessary and infarcts are not prevented by nutrition or the use of mobility aids.

suggest Crohns disease, rather that ulcerative colitis, as the cause of the patients signs and symptoms? A) A pattern of distinct exacerbations and remissions B) Severe diarrhea C) An absence of blood in stool D) Involvement of the rectal mucosa

C Feedback: Bloody stool is far more common in cases of UC than in Crohns. Rectal involvement is nearly 100% in cases of UC (versus 20% in Crohns) and patients with UC typically experience severe diarrhea. UC is also characterized by a pattern of remissions and exacerbations, while Crohns often has a more prolonged and variable course. 27. During a patients scheduled home vis

The nurse is providing care for a 90-year-old patient whose severe cognitive and mobility deficits result in the nursing diagnosis of risk for impaired skin integrity due to lack of mobility. When planning relevant assessments, the nurse should prioritize inspection of what area? A) The patients elbows B) The soles of the patients feet C) The patients heels D) The patients knees

C Feedback: Full inspection of the patients skin is necessary, but the coccyx and the heels are the most susceptible areas for skin breakdown due to shear and friction.

A nurse is caring for an 87-year-old Mexican-American female patient who is in end-stage renal disease. The physician has just been in to see the patient and her family to tell them that nothing more can be done for the patient and that death is not far. The physician offers to discharge the patient home to hospice care, but the patient and family refuse. After the physician leaves, the patients daughter approaches you and asks what hospice care is. What would this lack of knowledge about hospice care be perceived as? A) Lack of an American education of the patient and her family B) A language barrier to hospice care for this patient C) A barrier to hospice care for this patient D) Inability to grasp American concepts of health care

C Feedback: Historical mistrust of the health care system and unequal access to even basic medical care may underlie the beliefs and attitudes among ethnically diverse populations. In addition, lack of education or knowledge about end-of-life care treatment options and language barriers influence decisions among many socioeconomically disadvantaged groups. The scenario does not indicate whether the patients family has an American education, whether they are unable to grasp American concepts of health care, or whether they can speak or understand English.

A hospice nurse is caring for a 22-year-old with a terminal diagnosis of leukemia. When updating this patients plan of nursing care, what should the nurse prioritize? A) Interventions aimed at maximizing quantity of life B) Providing financial advice to pay for care C) Providing realistic emotional preparation for death D) Making suggestions to maximize family social interactions after the patients death

C Feedback: Hospice care focuses on quality of life, but, by necessity, it usually includes realistic emotional, social, spiritual, and financial preparation for death. Financial advice and actions aimed at post-death interaction would not be appropriate priorities.

When reviewing the electronic health record of a female patient, the nurse reads that the patient has a history of adenomyosis. The nurse should be aware that this patient experiences symptoms resulting from what pathophysiologic process? A) Loss of muscle tone in the vaginal wall B) Excessive synthesis and release of unopposed estrogen C) Invasion of the uterine wall by endometrial tissue D) Proliferation of tumors in the uterine wall

C Feedback: In adenomyosis, the tissue that lines the endometrium invades the uterine wall. This disease is not characterized by loss of muscle tone, the presence of tumors, or excessive estrogen.

The nurse has observed that an older adult patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal failure seems to prefer to have his eldest son make all of his health care decisions. While the family is visiting, the patient explains to you that this is a cultural practice and very important to him. How should you respond? A) Privately ask the son to allow the patient to make his own health care decisions. B) Explain to the patient that he is responsible for his own decisions. C) Work with the team to negotiate informed consent. D) Avoid divulging information to the eldest son.

C Feedback: In this case of a patient who wishes to defer decisions to his son, the nurse can work with the team to negotiate informed consent, respecting the patients right not to participate in decision making and honoring his familys cultural practices.

A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility? A) Kegel exercises B) Increased fluid intake C) Weight loss D) Topical antibiotics as ordered

C Feedback: Lifestyle modification is critical in the treatment of PCOS, and weight management is part of the treatment plan. As little as a weight loss of 5% of total body weight can help with hormone imbalance and infertility. Antibiotics are irrelevant, as PCOS does not have an infectious etiology. Fluid intake and Kegel exercises do not influence the course of the disease.

A 30-year-old patient has come to the clinic for her yearly examination. The patient asks the nurse about ovarian cancer. What should the nurse state when describing risk factors for ovarian cancer? A) Use of oral contraceptives increases the risk of ovarian cancer. B) Most cases of ovarian cancer are attributed to tobacco use. C) Most cases of ovarian cancer are considered to be random, with no obvious causation. D) The majority of women who get ovarian cancer have a family history of the disease.

C Feedback: Most cases of ovarian cancer are random, with only 5% to 10% of ovarian cancers having a familial connection. Contraceptives and tobacco have not been identified as major risk factors.

A patient on the oncology unit is receiving carmustine, a chemotherapy agent, and the nurse is aware that a significant side effect of this medication is thrombocytopenia. Which symptom should the nurse assess for in patients at risk for thrombocytopenia? A) Interrupted sleep pattern B) Hot flashes C) Epistaxis (nose bleed) D) Increased weight

C Feedback: Patients with thrombocytopenia are at risk for bleeding due to decreased platelet counts. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not exhibit interrupted sleep pattern, hot flashes, or increased weight.

An uncircumcised 78-year-old male has presented at the clinic complaining that he cannot retract his foreskin over his glans. On examination, it is noted that the foreskin is very constricted. The nurse should recognize the presence of what health problem? A) Bowens disease B) Peyronies disease C) Phimosis D) Priapism

C Feedback: Phimosis is the term used to describe a condition in which the foreskin is constricted so that it cannot be retracted over the glans. Bowens disease is an in situ carcinoma of the penis. Peyronies disease is an acquired, benign condition that involves the buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus

An oncology patient has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patients plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following? A) Assess the patient hourly for signs of compartment syndrome. B) Assess the patients fine motor skills once per shift. C) Assess the patients wound for dehiscence every 4 hours. D) Maintain the patients head of bed at 45 degrees or more at all times.

C Feedback: Postoperatively, the nurse assesses the patients responses to the surgery and monitors the patient for possible complications, such as infection, bleeding, thrombophlebitis, wound dehiscence, fluid and electrolyte imbalance, and organ dysfunction. Fine motor skills are unlikely to be affected by surgery and compartment syndrome is a complication of fracture casting, not abdominal surgery. There is no need to maintain a high head of bed.

A patient with cancer of the tongue has had a radical neck dissection. What nursing assessment would be a priority for this patient? A) Presence of acute pain and anxiety B) Tissue integrity and color of the operative site C) Respiratory status and airway clearance D) Self-esteem and body image

C Feedback: Postoperatively, the patient is assessed for complications such as altered respiratory status, wound infection, and hemorrhage. The other assessments are part of the plan of care for a patient who has had a radical neck dissection, but are not the nurses chief priority.

The nurse is caring for a 39-year-old woman with a family history of breast cancer. She requested a breast tumor marking test and the results have come back positive. As a result, the patient is requesting a bilateral mastectomy. This surgery is an example of what type of oncologic surgery? A) Salvage surgery B) Palliative surgery C) Prophylactic surgery D) Reconstructive surgery

C Feedback: Prophylactic surgery is used when there is an extensive family history and nonvital tissues are removed. Salvage surgery is an additional treatment option that uses an extensive surgical approach to treat the local recurrence of a cancer after the use of a less extensive primary approach. Palliative surgery is performed in an attempt to relieve complications of cancer, such as ulceration, obstruction, hemorrhage, pain, and malignant effusion. Reconstructive surgery may follow curative or radical surgery in an attempt to improve function or obtain a more desirable cosmetic effect.

A 45-year-old woman has just undergone a radical hysterectomy for invasive cervical cancer. Prior to the surgery the physician explained to the patient that after the surgery a source of radiation would be placed near the tumor site to aid in reducing recurrence. What is the placement of the source of radiation called? A) Internal beam radiation B) Trachelectomy C) Brachytherapy D) External radiation

C Feedback: Radiation, which is often part of the treatment to reduce recurrent disease, may be delivered by an external beam or by brachytherapy (method by which the radiation source is placed near the tumor) or both.

The nurse is working with a rehabilitation patient who has a deficit in mobility following a skiing accident. The nurse knows that preparation for ambulation is extremely important. What nursing action will best provide the foundation of preparation for ambulation? A) Stimulating the patients desire to ambulate B) Assessing the patients understanding of ambulation C) Helping the patient perform frequent exercise D) Setting realistic expectations

C Feedback: Regaining the ability to walk is a prime morale builder. However, to be prepared for ambulationwhether with brace, walker, cane, or crutchesthe patient must strengthen the muscles required. Therefore, exercise is the foundation of preparation.

A patient who has had a radical neck dissection is being prepared for discharge. The discharge plan includes referral to an outpatient rehabilitation center for physical therapy. What would the goals of physical therapy for this patient include? A) Muscle training to relieve dysphagia B) Relieving nerve paralysis in the cervical plexus C) Promoting maximum shoulder function D) Alleviating achalasia by decreasing esophageal peristalsis

C Feedback: Shoulder drop occurs as a result of radical neck dissection. Shoulder function can be improved by rehabilitation exercises. Rehabilitation would not be initiated until the patients neck incision and graft, if present, were sufficiently healed. Nerve paralysis in the cervical plexus and other variables affecting swallowing would be managed by a speech therapist rather than a physical therapist.

A patient who is recovering from a stroke expresses frustration about his care to the nurse, stating, It seems like everyone sees me as just a problem that needs fixing. This patients statement is suggestive of what model of disability? A) Biopsychosocial model B) Social model C) Rehabilitation model D) Interface model

C Feedback: The rehabilitation model regards disability as a deficiency that requires a rehabilitation specialist or other helping professional to fix the problem. This is not characteristic of the biopsychosocial, social, or interface models.

The presence of a gerontologic advanced practice nurse in a long-term care facility has proved beneficial to both the patients and the larger community in which they live. Nurses in this advanced practice role have been shown to cause what outcome? A) Greater interaction between younger adults and older adults occurs. B) The elderly recover more quickly from acute illnesses. C) Less deterioration takes place in the overall health of patients. D) The elderly are happier in long-term care facilities than at home.

C Feedback: The use of advanced practice nurses who have been educated in geriatric nursing concepts has proved to be very effective when dealing with the complex care needs of an older patient. When best practices are used and current scientific knowledge applied to clinical problems, significantly less deterioration occurs in the overall health of aging patients. This does not necessarily mean that patients are happier in longterm care than at home, that they recover more quickly from acute illnesses, or greater interaction occurs between younger and older adults.

A nurse is addressing the prevention of esophageal cancer in response to a question posed by a participant in a health promotion workshop. What action has the greatest potential to prevent esophageal cancer? A) Promotion of a nutrient-dense, low-fat diet B) Annual screening endoscopy for patients over 50 with a family history of esophageal cancer C) Early diagnosis and treatment of gastroesophageal reflux disease D) Adequate fluid intake and avoidance of spicy foods

C Feedback: There are numerous risk factors for esophageal cancer but chronic esophageal irritation or GERD is among the most significant. This is a more significant risk factor than dietary habits. Screening endoscopies are not recommended solely on the basis of family history.

A nurse is working with a patient who is learning to care for a continent ileostomy (Kock pouch). Following the initial period of healing, the nurse is teaching the patient how to independently empty the ileostomy. The nurse should teach the patient to do which of the following actions? A) Aim to eventually empty the pouch every 90 minutes. B) Avoid emptying the pouch until it is visibly full. C) Insert the catheter approximately 5 cm into the pouch. D) Aspirate the contents of the pouch using a 60 mL piston syringe.

C Feedback: To empty a Kock pouch, the catheter is gently inserted approximately 5 cm to the point of the valve or nipple. The length of time between drainage periods is gradually increased until the reservoir needs to be drained only every 4 to 6 hours and irrigated once each day. It is not appropriate to wait until the pouch is full, and this would not be visible. The contents of the pouch are not aspirated.

A hospice nurse is well aware of how difficult it is to deal with others pain on a daily basis. This nurse should put healthy practices into place to guard against what outcome? A) Inefficiency in the provision of care B) Excessive weight gain C) Emotional exhaustion D) Social withdrawal

C Feedback: Well before the nurse exhibits symptoms of stress or burnout, he or she should acknowledge the difficulty of coping with others pain on a daily basis and put healthy practices in place that guard against emotional exhaustion. Emotional exhaustion is more likely to have deleterious effects than inefficiency, social withdrawal, or weight gain, though these may signal emotional exhaustion.

A patient with end-stage heart failure has participated in a family meeting with the interdisciplinary team and opted for hospice care. On what belief should the patients care in this setting be based? A) Meaningful living during terminal illness requires technologic interventions. B) Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in designated facilities. C) Meaningful living during terminal illness is best supported in the home. D) Meaningful living during terminal illness is best achieved by prolonging physiologic dying.

C The hospice movement in the United States is based on the belief that meaningful living is achievable during terminal illness and that it is best supported in the home, free from technologic interventions to prolong physiologic dying.

The nurse notes that a patient has a history of fibroids and is aware that this term refers to a benign tumor of the uterus. What is a more appropriate term for a fibroid? A) Bartholins cyst B) Dermoid cyst C) Hydatidiform mole D) Leiomyoma

D Feedback: A leiomyoma is a usually benign tumor of the uterus, commonly referred to as a fibroid. A Bartholins cyst is a cyst in a paired vestibular band in the vulva, whereas a dermoid cyst is a benign tumor that is thought to arise from parts of the ovum and normally disappears with maturation. A hydatidiform mole is a type of gestational neoplasm.

A patient with genital herpes is having an acute exacerbation. What medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to suppress the symptoms and shorten the course of the infection? A) Clotrimazole (Gyne-Lotrimin) B) Metronidazole (Flagyl) C) Podophyllin (Podofin) D) Acyclovir (Zovirax)

D Feedback: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is an antiviral agent that can suppress the symptoms of genital herpes and shorten the course of the infection. It is effective at reducing the duration of lesions and preventing recurrences. Clotrimazole is used in the treatment of yeast infections. Metronidazole is the most effective treatment for trichomoniasis. Posophyllin is used to treat external genital warts. Acyclovir is used in the treatment of genital herpes.

A patient is undergoing rehabilitation following a stroke that left him with severe motor and sensory deficits. The patient has been unable to ambulate since his accident, but has recently achieved the goals of sitting and standing balance. What is the patient now able to use? A) A cane B) Crutches C) A two-wheeled walker D) Parallel bars

D Feedback: After sitting and standing balance is achieved, the patient is able to use parallel bars. The patient must be able to use the parallel bars before he can safely use devices like a cane, crutches, or a walker.

A patient has been diagnosed with a small bowel obstruction and has been admitted to the medical unit. The nurses care should prioritize which of the following outcomes? A) Preventing infection B) Maintaining skin and tissue integrity C) Preventing nausea and vomiting D) Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

D Feedback: All of the listed focuses of care are important for the patient with a small bowel obstruction. However, the patients risk of fluid and electrolyte imbalances is an immediate threat to safety, and is a priority in nursing assessment and interventions.

A student nurse is doing clinical hours at an OB/GYN clinic. The student is helping to develop a plan of care for a patient with gonorrhea who has presented at the clinic. The student should include which of the following in the care plan for this patient? A) The patient may benefit from oral contraceptives. B) The patient must avoid use of tampons. C) The patient is susceptible to urinary incontinence. D) The patient should also be treated for chlamydia.

D Feedback: Because of the high incidence of coinfection with chlamydia and gonorrhea, the patient should also be treated for chlamydia. Avoiding the use of tampons is part of the self-care management of a patient with possible toxic shock syndrome (TSS). The patient is not susceptible to incontinence and there is no indication for the use of oral contraceptives.

You have admitted a new patient to your unit with a diagnosis of stage IV breast cancer. This woman has a comorbidity of myasthenia gravis. While you are doing the initial assessment, the patient tells you that she felt the lump in her breast about 9 months ago. You ask the patient why she did not see her health care provider when she first found the lump in her breast. What would be a factor that is known to influence the patient in seeking health care services? A) Lack of insight due to the success of self-managing a chronic condition B) Lack of knowledge about treatment options C) Overly sensitive patient reactions to health care services D) Unfavorable interactions with health care providers

D Feedback: Because of unfavorable interactions with health care providers, including negative attitudes, insensitivity, and lack of knowledge, people with disabilities may avoid seeking medical intervention. The population of people who are disabled is not overly sensitive to the reactions of those providing health care services. This is more likely than lack of insight or knowledge on the part of the patient.

A nurse provides care on a bone marrow transplant unit and is preparing a female patient for a hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) the following day. What information should the nurse emphasize to the patients family and friends? A) Your family should likely gather at the bedside in case theres a negative outcome. B) Make sure she doesnt eat any food in the 24 hours before the procedure. C) Wear a hospital gown when you go into the patients room. D) Do not visit if youve had a recent infection.

D Feedback: Before HSCT, patients are at a high risk for infection, sepsis, and bleeding. Visitors should not visit if they have had a recent illness or vaccination. Gowns should indeed be worn, but this is secondary in importance to avoiding the patients contact with ill visitors. Prolonged fasting is unnecessary. Negative outcomes are possible, but the procedure would not normally be so risky as to require the family to gather at the bedside.

A patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is scheduled for brachytherapy next week. The patient and his wife are unsure of having the procedure because their daughter is 3 months pregnant. What is the most appropriate teaching the nurse should provide to this family? A) The patient should not be in contact with the baby after delivery. B) The patients treatment poses no risk to his daughter or her infant. C) The patients brachytherapy may be contraindicated for safety reasons. D) The patient should avoid close contact with his daughter for 2 months.

D Feedback: Brachytherapy involves the implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia. The surgeon uses ultrasound guidance to place about 80 to 100 seeds, and the patient returns home after the procedure. Exposure of others to radiation is minimal, but the patient should avoid close contact with pregnant women and infants for up to 2 months.

A major cause of health-related problems is the increase in the incidence of chronic conditions. This is the case not only in developed countries like the United States but also in developing countries. What factor has contributed to the increased incidence of chronic diseases in developing countries? A) Developing countries are experiencing an increase in average life span. B) Increasing amounts of health research are taking place in developing countries. C) Developing countries lack the health infrastructure to manage illness. D) Developing countries are simultaneously coping with emerging infectious diseases.

D Feedback: Chronic conditions have become the major cause of health-related problems in developed countries as well as in the developing countries, which are also trying to cope with new and emerging infectious diseases. There is indeed a lack of health infrastructure in many countries, but this is not cited as the cause of the increased incidence of chronic diseases. In many countries, increased life span and health research are not occurring.

You are caring for an 82-year-old man who was recently admitted to the geriatric medical unit in which you work. Since admission, he has spoken frequently of becoming a burden to his children and staying afloat financially. When planning this patients care, you should recognize his heightened risk of what nursing diagnosis? A) Disturbed thought processes B) Impaired social interaction C) Decisional conflict D) Anxiety

D Feedback: Economic concerns and fear of becoming a burden to families often lead to high anxiety in older people. There is no clear indication that the patient has disturbed thought processes, impaired social interaction, or decisional conflict.

A nurse is planning the postoperative care of a patient who is scheduled for radical prostatectomy. What intraoperative position will place the patient at particular risk for the development of deep vein thrombosis postoperatively? A) Fowlers position B) Prone position C) Supine position D) Lithotomy position

D Feedback: Elastic compression stockings are applied before surgery and are particularly important for prevention of deep vein thrombosis if the patient is placed in a lithotomy position during surgery. During a prostatectomy, the patient is not placed in the supine, prone, or Fowlers position.

An emergency department nurse is admitting a 3-year-old brought in after swallowing a piece from a wooden puzzle. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication in order to relax the esophagus to facilitate removal of the foreign body? A) Haloperidol B) Prostigmine C) Epinephrine D) Glucagon

D Feedback: Glucagon is administered prior to removal of a foreign body because it relaxes the smooth muscle of the esophagus, facilitating insertion of the endoscope. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug and is not indicated. Prostigmine is prescribed for patients with myastheniagravis. It increases muscular contraction, an effect opposite that which is desired to facilitate removal of the foreign body. Epinephrine is indicated in asthma attack and bronchospasm.

A nurse is providing care for a patient whose neck dissection surgery involved the use of a graft. When assessing the graft, the nurse should prioritize data related to what nursing diagnosis? A) Risk for Disuse Syndrome B) Unilateral Neglect C) Risk for Trauma D) Ineffective Tissue Perfusion

D Feedback: Grafted skin is highly vulnerable to inadequate perfusion and subsequent ischemia and necrosis. This is a priority over chronic pain, which is unlikely to be a long-term challenge. Neglect and disuse are not risks related to the graft site.

A patient has herpes simplex 2 viral infection (HSV2). The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient? A) The virus causes cold sores of the lips. B) The virus may be cured with antibiotics. C) The virus, when active, may not be contracted during intercourse. D) Treatment is aimed at relieving symptoms.

D Feedback: HSV-2 causes genital herpes and is known to ascend the peripheral sensory nerves and remain inactive after infection, becoming active in times of stress. The virus is not curable, but treatment is aimed at controlling symptoms. HSV1 causes cold sores, and varicella zoster causes shingles.

A community health nurse has drafted a program that will address the health promotion needs of members of the community who live with one or more disabilities. Which of the following areas of health promotion education is known to be neglected among adults with disabilities? A) Blood pressure screening B) Diabetes testing C) Nutrition D) Sexual health

D Feedback: Health promotion interventions addressing sexual health in disabled individuals are necessary but rare. Blood pressure testing, diabetes testing, and nutrition are not known to constitute such a gap in health promotion teaching.

A patient has presented at the clinic with symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia. What diagnostic findings would suggest that this patient has chronic urinary retention? A) Hypertension B) Peripheral edema C) Tachycardia and other dysrhythmias D) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

D Feedback: Hypertension, edema, and tachycardia would not normally be associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Azotemia is an accumulation of nitrogenous waste products, and renal failure can occur with chronic urinary retention and large residual volumes.

A radial graft is planned in the treatment of a patients oropharyngeal cancer. In order to ensure that the surgery will be successful, the care team must perform what assessment prior to surgery? A) Assessing function of cranial nerves V, VI, and IX B) Assessing for a history of GERD C) Assessing for signs or symptoms of atherosclerosis D) Assessing the patency of the ulnar artery

D Feedback: If a radial graft is to be performed, an Allen test on the donor arm must be performed to ensure that the ulnar artery is patent and can provide blood flow to the hand after removal of the radial artery. The success of this surgery is not primarily dependent on CN function or the absence of GERD and atherosclerosis.

A nurse is caring for an older adult who has been experiencing severe Clostridium difficile-related diarrhea. When reviewing the patients most recent laboratory tests, the nurse should prioritize which of the following? A) White blood cell level B) Creatinine level C) Hemoglobin level D) Potassium level

D Feedback: In elderly patients, it is important to monitor the patients serum electrolyte levels closely. Diarrhea is less likely to cause an alteration in white blood cell, creatinine, and hemoglobin levels.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is postoperative day 1 following neck dissection surgery. The nurse is performing an assessment of the patient and notes the presence of high-pitched adventitious sounds over the patients trachea on auscultation. The patients oxygen saturation is 90% by pulse oximetry with a respiratory rate of 31 breaths per minute. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Encourage the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises hourly. B) Reposition the patient into a prone or semi-Fowlers position and apply supplementary oxygen by nasal cannula. C) Activate the emergency response system. D) Report this finding promptly to the physician and remain with the patient.

D Feedback: In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse assesses for stridor (coarse, high-pitched sound on inspiration) by listening frequently over the trachea with a stethoscope. This finding must be reported immediately because it indicates obstruction of the airway. The patients current status does not warrant activation of the emergency response system, and encouraging deep breathing and repositioning the patient are inadequate responses.

Nurses and members of other health disciplines at a states public health division are planning programs for the next 5 years. The group has made the decision to focus on diseases that are experiencing the sharpest increases in their contributions to the overall death rate in the state. This team should plan health promotion and disease prevention activities to address what health problem? A) Stroke B) Cancer C) Respiratory infections D) Alzheimers disease

D Feedback: In the past 60 years, overall deaths, and specifically, deaths from heart disease, have declined. Recently, deaths from cancer and cerebrovascular disease have declined. However, deaths from Alzheimers disease have risen more than 50% between 1999 and 2007.

A patient seeking care because of recurrent heartburn and regurgitation is subsequently diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. Which of the following should the nurse include in health education? A) Drinking beverages after your meal, rather than with your meal, may bring some relief. B) Its best to avoid dry foods, such as rice and chicken, because theyre harder to swallow. C) Many patients obtain relief by taking over-the-counter antacids 30 minutes before eating. D) Instead of eating three meals a day, try eating smaller amounts more often.

D Feedback: Management for a hiatal hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. Avoiding beverages and particular foods or taking OTC antacids are not noted to be beneficial.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is acutely ill and has included vigilant oral care in the patients plan of care. Why are patients who are ill at increased risk for developing dental caries? A) Hormonal changes brought on by the stress response cause an acidic oral environment B) Systemic infections frequently migrate to the teeth C) Hydration that is received intravenously lacks fluoride D) Inadequate nutrition and decreased saliva production can cause cavities

D Feedback: Many ill patients do not eat adequate amounts of food and therefore produce less saliva, which in turn reduces the natural cleaning of the teeth. Stress response is not a factor, infections generally do not attack the enamel of the teeth, and the fluoride level of the patient is not significant in the development of dental caries in the ill patient.

A patient has been experiencing occasional episodes of constipation and has been unable to achieve consistent relief by increasing physical activity and improving his diet. What pharmacologic intervention should the nurse recommend to the patient for ongoing use? A) Mineral oil enemas B) Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) C) Senna (Senokot) D) Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil)

D Feedback: Psyllium hydrophilic mucilloid (Metamucil) is a bulk-forming laxative that is safe for ongoing use. None of the other listed laxatives should be used on an ongoing basis because of the risk of dependence.

A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with breast cancer is scheduled for a partial mastectomy. The oncology nurse explained that the surgeon will want to take tissue samples to ensure the disease has not spread to adjacent axillary lymph nodes. The patient has asked if she will have her lymph nodes dissected, like her mother did several years ago. What alternative to lymph node dissection will this patient most likely undergo? A) Lymphadenectomy B) Needle biopsy C) Open biopsy D) Sentinel node biopsy

D Feedback: Sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB), also known as sentinel lymph node mapping, is a minimally invasive surgical approach that, in some instances, has replaced more invasive lymph node dissections (lymphadenectomy) and their associated complications such as lymphedema and delayed healing. SLNB has been widely adopted for regional lymph node staging in selected cases of melanoma and breast cancer.

A nurse providing prenatal care to a pregnant woman is addressing measures to reduce her postpartum risk of cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse. What action should the nurse recommend? A) Maintenance of good perineal hygiene B) Prevention of constipation C) Increased fluid intake for 2 weeks postpartum D) Performance of pelvic muscle exercises

D Feedback: Some disorders related to relaxed pelvic muscles (cystocele, rectocele, and uterine prolapse) may be prevented. During pregnancy, early visits to the primary provider permit early detection of problems. During the postpartum period, the woman can be taught to perform pelvic muscle exercises, commonly known as Kegel exercises, to increase muscle mass and strengthen the muscles that support the uterus and then to continue them as a preventive action. Fluid intake, prevention of constipation, and hygiene do not reduce this risk.

A gerontologic nurse is basing the therapeutic programs at a long-term care facility on Millers Functional Consequences Theory. To actualize this theory of aging, the nurse should prioritize what task? A) Attempting to control age-related physiological changes B) Lowering expectations for recovery from acute and chronic illnesses C) Helping older adults accept the inevitability of death D) Differentiating between age-related changes and modifiable risk factors

D Feedback: The Functional Consequences Theory requires the nurse to differentiate between normal, irreversible age-related changes and modifiable risk factors. This theory does not emphasize lowering expectations, controlling age-related changes, or helping adults accept the inevitability of death.

In the past three to four decades, nursing has moved into the forefront in providing care for the dying. Which phenomenon has most contributed to this increased focus of care of the dying? A) Increased incidence of infections and acute illnesses B) Increased focus of health care providers on disease prevention C) Larger numbers of people dying in hospital settings D) Demographic changes in the population

D Feedback: The focus on care of the dying has been motivated by the aging of the population, the prevalence of, and publicity surrounding, life-threatening illnesses (e.g., cancer and AIDS), and the increasing likelihood of a prolonged period of chronic illness prior to death. The salience of acute infections, prevention measures, and death in hospital settings are not noted to have had a major influence on this phenomenon.

A nurse is teaching a group of adults about screening and prevention of colorectal cancer. The nurse should describe which of the following as the most common sign of possible colon cancer? A) Development of new hemorrhoids B) Abdominal bloating and flank pain C) Unexplained weight gain D) Change in bowel habits

D Feedback: The most common presenting symptom associated with colorectal cancer is a change in bowel habits. The passage of blood is the second most common symptom. Symptoms may also include unexplained anemia, anorexia, weight loss, and fatigue. Hemorrhoids and bloating are atypical.

A nurse is aware that the number of people in the United States who are living with disabilities is expected to continue increasing. What is considered to be one of the factors contributing to this increase? A) The decrease in the number of people with early-onset disabilities B) The increased inability to cure chronic disorders C) Changes in infection patterns resulting from antibiotic resistance D) Increased survival rates among people who experience trauma

D Feedback: The number of people with disabilities is expected to increase over time as people with early-onset disabilities, chronic disorders, and severe trauma survive and have normal or near-normal lifespans. There has not been a decrease in the number of people with early-onset disabilities. Acquired chronic disorders still cannot be cured.

A female patient has been achieving significant improvements in her ADLs since beginning rehabilitation from the effects of a brain hemorrhage. The nurse must observe and assess the patients ability to perform ADLs to determine the patients level of independence in self-care and her need for nursing intervention. Which of the following additional considerations should the nurse prioritize? A) Liaising with the patients insurer to describe the patients successes. B) Teaching the patient about the pathophysiology of her functional deficits. C) Eliciting ways to get the patient to express a positive attitude. D) Appraising the familys involvement in the patients ADLs.

D Feedback: The nurse should also be aware of the patients medical conditions or other health problems, the effect that they have on the ability to perform ADLs, and the familys involvement in the patients ADLs. It is not normally necessary to teach the patient about the pathophysiology of her functional deficits. A positive attitude is beneficial, but creating this is not normally within the purview of the nurse. The nurse does not liaise with the insurance company.

A clinic nurse is providing patient education prior to a patients scheduled palliative radiotherapy to her spine. At the completion of the patient teaching, the patient continues to ask the same questions that the nurse has already addressed. What is the plausible conclusion that the nurse should draw from this? A) The patient is not listening effectively. B) The patient is noncompliant with the plan of care. C) The patient may have a low intelligence quotient or a cognitive deficit. D) The patient has not achieved the desired learning outcomes.

D Feedback: The nurse should be sensitive to patients ongoing needs and may need to repeat previously provided information or simply be present while the patient and family react emotionally. Telling a patient something is not teaching. If a patient continues to ask the same questions, teaching needs to be reinforced. The patients response is not necessarily suggestive of noncompliance, cognitive deficits, or not listening.

A patients large bowel obstruction has failed to resolve spontaneously and the patients worsening condition has warranted admission to the medical unit. Which of the following aspects of nursing care is most appropriate for this patient? A) Administering bowel stimulants as ordered B) Administering bulk-forming laxatives as ordered C) Performing deep palpation as ordered to promote peristalsis D) Preparing the patient for surgical bowel resection

D Feedback: The usual treatment for a large bowel obstruction is surgical resection to remove the obstructing lesion. Administration of laxatives or bowel stimulants are contraindicated if the bowel is obstructed. Palpation would be painful and has no therapeutic benefit.

The hospice nurse is caring for a 45-year-old mother of three young children in the patients home. During the most recent visit, the nurse has observed that the patient has a new onset of altered mental status, likely resulting from recently diagnosed brain metastases. What goal of nursing interventions should the nurse identify? A) Helping the family to understand why the patient needs to be sedated B) Making arrangements to promptly move the patient to an acute-care facility C) Explaining to the family that death is near and the patient needs around-the-clock nursing care D) Teaching family members how to interact with, and ensure safety for, the patient with impaired cognition

D Nursing interventions should be aimed at accommodating the change in the patients status and maintaining her safety. The scenario does not indicate the need either to sedate the patient or to move her to an acute-care facility. If the family has the resources, there is no need to bring in nurses to be with the patient around-the-clock, and the scenario does not indicate that death is imminent.

The nurse is caring for a client in the unstable phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness. The nurse should focus on providing which type of care? Emotional Direct Guidance Rehabilitation

Guidance During the unstable phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness, nursing care should focus on providing guidance and support, as this stage is characterized by exacerbation of symptoms. This may require additional testing and/or adjustment to a treatment regime requiring guidance by and support from the nurse.

A client who is an avid runner had an emergency below-the-knee amputation after a motor vehicle accident. The nurse hears a physical therapist tell the client that the client may have to stop running. The nurse considers this comment as an indication that the physical therapist has which frame of reference for caring for clients with disabilities? Biophysical model Interface model Medical model Rehabilitation model

Medical model In this example, the physical therapist's frame of reference, or approach to providing care, stems from the medical model. By telling the client that she would need to stop running, the therapist equated the client with her disability, acted as the authority figure, and promoted the client's dependence, rather than allowing the client to define the problem and seek/direct solutions. Equating the client with the disability, acting as the authority, and promoting passivity and dependence are hallmarks of the medical model of disability.

A client with paraplegia for the past 12 years is hospitalized with pneumonia. It would be best for the nurse to Place the client's wheelchair next to the bed for independent transfer. Move the wheelchair to a corner of the room to keep out of the way. Raise the bed slightly to ease the client's transferring to the wheelchair. Obtain the assistance of the nursing aide to lift the client to the wheelchair.

Place the client's wheelchair next to the bed for independent transfer. Clients with paraplegia may be able to independently transfer to a wheelchair. The nurse promotes activities that will encourage client independence, such as placing the wheelchair next to the bed. Moving the wheelchair away from the bed inhibits client independence. Raising the bed will not aid in independent transferring. The nurse should not lift the client if the client can transfer to the wheelchair independently. Facilities are now establishing "no lift" policies to prevent injuries to staff.

A rehabilitation nurse is preparing a presentation for clients and caregivers about issues that clients with disabilities may face. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the presentation? A loss of sexual functioning correlates with a loss of sexual feeling. Fatigue primarily results from physical demands. Most care tasks required after discharge focus on the physical care. Priority setting is helpful in dealing with the impact of the disability.

Priority setting is helpful in dealing with the impact of the disability. For clients with disabilities, the nurse would emphasize the use of coping strategies and teach the patient how to cope with the disability through priority setting. A loss of sexual functioning does not necessarily correspond to a loss of sexual feeling. Rather, the physical and emotional aspects of sexuality, despite the physical loss of function, continue to be important for people with disabilities. The fatigue associated with disabilities results from numerous factors, such as the physical and emotional demands, as well as the ineffective coping, unresolved grief, disordered sleep patterns, and depression. Although the most obvious care tasks after discharge involve physical care, other elements of the caregiving role include psychosocial support and a commitment to this supportive role.

A nursing student shares that he read that chronic conditions are costly to people, families, and society, and that one of the major goals of nursing today should be the prevention of chronic conditions and the care of people with them. The student asks the instructor what can nurses do to help. Which of the following is a correct answer given by the instructor? Promote wearing seat belts. Teach avoidance of immunizations. Promote dependence on health care professionals. Begin teaching prevention and promtion of health near mid-life.

Promote wearing seat belts. Prevention of chronic conditions and the care of people with them requires promoting healthy lifestyles and encouraging the use of safety and disease-prevention measures, such as wearing seat belts and obtaining immunizations. Prevention should also begin early in and continue throughout life.

A nursing student shares that he read that chronic conditions are costly to people, families, and society, and that one of the major goals of nursing today should be the prevention of chronic conditions and the care of people with them. The student asks the instructor what can nurses do to help. Which of the following is a correct answer given by the instructor? Promote wearing seat belts. Teach avoidance of immunizations. Promote dependence on health care professionals. Begin teaching prevention and promtion of health near mid-life.

Promote wearing seat belts. Prevention of chronic conditions and the care of people with them requires promoting healthy lifestyles and encouraging the use of safety and disease-prevention measures, such as wearing seat belts and obtaining immunizations. Prevention should also begin early in and continue throughout life.

The nurse working on a rehabilitation unit rotates a client's forearm so that the palm of the hand is facing down. The nurse documents this as which type of movement? Inversion Spination Pronation Eversion

Pronation Pronation is the rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand is down. Inversion is movement that runs the sole of the foot inward. Supination is rotation of the forearm so that the palm of the hand is up. Eversion is the return movement from flexion.

A nurse is teaching a client with a left fractured tibia how to walk with crutches. Which instruction is appropriate? "Use the axillae to help carry the weight." "All weight should be on the hands." "Keep feet 12 inches (30 cm) apart to provide stability and a wide base of support." "Take long strides to maintain maximum mobility."

"All weight should be on the hands." When using crutches, all weight should be on the hands. Constant pressure on the axillae from weight bearing can damage the brachial plexus nerve and produce crutch paralysis. Feet should be 6 to 8 inches (15 to 20 cm) apart to provide stability and support. Short strides — not long ones — provide safety and maximum mobility.

Chronic conditions occur in people of every age group, socioeconomic level, race, and culture. In 2000, an estimated 61 million people (21% of the population) had chronic illnesses. The prediction for 2050 is that what percent of the population will have a chronic illness? 30 50 60 75

50 By the year 2050, approximately 167 million people (50% of the population) is predicted to have a chronic illness, with 81 million (24%) having two or more chronic health conditions. In 2000, an estimated 125 million people in the United States had one or more chronic conditions, and 61 million people (21% of the population) had multiple chronic conditions.

A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response? A) A number of studies have identified an association of BRCA-2 mutation with an increased risk of prostate cancer. B) HNPCC is a mutation of two genes that causes prostate cancer in men and it is autosomal dominant. C) Studies have shown that the presence of the TP53 gene strongly influences the incidence of prostate cancer. D) Recent research has demonstrated that prostate cancer is the result of lifestyle factors and that genetics are unrelated.

A Feedback: A number of studies have identified an association of BRCA-2 mutation with an increased risk of prostate cancer. HPNCC is a form of colon cancer. The TP53 gene is associated with breast cancer.

A patient has been diagnosed with achalasia based on his history and diagnostic imaging results. The nurse should identify what risk diagnosis when planning the patients care? A) Risk for Aspiration Related to Inhalation of Gastric Contents B) Risk for Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements Related to Impaired Absorption C) Risk for Decreased Cardiac Output Related to Vasovagal Response D) Risk for Impaired Verbal Communication Related to Oral Trauma

A Feedback: Achalasia can result in the aspiration of gastric contents. It is not normally an acute risk to the patients nutritional status and does not affect cardiac output or communication.

A nurse is caring for a patient admitted with symptoms of an anorectal infection; cultures indicate that the patient has a viral infection. The nurse should anticipate the administration of what drug? A) Acyclovir (Zovirax) B) Doxycycline (Vibramycin) C) Penicillin (penicillin D) Metronidazole (Flagyl)

A Feedback: Acyclovir (Zovirax) is often given to patients with viral anorectal infections. Doxycycline (Vibramycin) and penicillin (penicillin G) are drugs of choice for bacterial infections. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is used for other infections with a bacterial etiology; it is ineffective against viruses.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has terminal lung cancer and is unconscious. Which assessment finding would most clearly indicate to the nurse that the patients death is imminent? A) Mottling of the lower limbs B) Slow, steady pulse C) Bowel incontinence D) Increased swallowing

A Feedback: The time of death is generally preceded by a period of gradual diminishment of bodily functions in which increasing intervals between respirations, weakened and irregular pulse, and skin color changes or mottling may be observed. The patient will not be able to swallow secretions, so suctioning, frequent and gentle mouth care, and, possibly, the administration of a transdermal anticholinergic drug. Bowel incontinence may or may not occur.

A public health nurse reviews data on chronic illness in the community over time and notes that chronic illness rates are climbing. Which factors may contribute to the increased chronic illness rates? Select all that apply. A decrease in mortality from infectious diseases An increase in infectious disease rates A decrease in client education regarding chronic illness An increase in obesity rates A decrease in global awareness of chronic illness

A decrease in mortality from infectious diseases An increase in obesity rates Chronic illness rates are climbing due in part that there is a decrease in mortality from infectious diseases and an increase in obesity rates. There is not an increase in infectious disease rates, a decrease in client education about chronic illness, or a decrease in global awareness of chronic illness.

Following a recent history of dyspareunia and lower abdominal pain, a patient has received a diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). When providing health education related to self-care, the nurse should address which of the following topics? Select all that apply. A) Use of condoms to prevent infecting others B) Appropriate use of antibiotics C) Taking measures to prevent pregnancy D) The need for a Pap smear every 3 months E) The importance of weight loss in preventing symptoms

A, B Feedback: Patients with PID need to take action to avoid infecting others. Antibiotics are frequently required. Pregnancy does not necessarily need to be avoided, but there is a heightened risk of ectopic pregnancy. Weight loss does not directly alleviate symptoms. Regular follow-up is necessary, but Pap smears do not need to be performed every 3 months.

A client is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client takes metformin and exenatide and reports adhering to a diet. The glycohemoglobin is 5.9%. According to the stable phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness, how should the nurse respond? Advises the client that changes must be made to the diet States, "The glycohemoglobin is too high" Acknowledges that the client is performing satisfactorily Responds, "There are some adjustments to your medications that need to be made"

Acknowledges that the client is performing satisfactorily

A client is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client takes metformin and exenatide and reports adhering to a diet. The glycohemoglobin is 5.9%. According to the stable phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness, how should the nurse respond? Advises the client that changes must be made to the diet States, "The glycohemoglobin is too high" Acknowledges that the client is performing satisfactorily Responds, "There are some adjustments to your medications that need to be made"

Acknowledges that the client is performing satisfactorily In the stable phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness, the nurse reinforces positive behaviors. The glycohemoglobin is at a level of good control for a client with diabetes. No adjustments need to be made to the diet or the medications.

Myocardial infarction is an example of which type of disability? Age-related Acute nontraumatic Acquired Developmental

Acute nontraumatic

A nurse practitioner would be applying the pre-trajectory model of chronic illness when she: Advised a woman, whose mother has Huntington's chorea, and who is considering pregnancy, to get genetic testing. Explained the significance of a serum glucose level of 160 mg/dL. Encouraged a post-fracture patient to continue physical therapy. Suggested home health care to a stroke victim.

Advised a woman, whose mother has Huntington's chorea, and who is considering pregnancy, to get genetic testing.

An 80-year-old client with osteoarthritis and osteoporosis has difficulty ambulating and is seeking a prescription for a walker. The nurse assesses the client's type of disability as Developmental Acquired Age-associated Sensory

Age-associated Age-associated disabilities in the elderly population result from the aging process. Acquired disabilities may be progression of a chronic disorder, such as multiple sclerosis. Developmental disabilities are those disabilities that occur any time from birth to 22 years and may result in impairment of physical or mental health, cognition, speech, language, or self-care. Sensory disabilities affect hearing or vision.

An elderly patient comes into the emergency department complaining of an earache. The patient and has an oral temperature of 100.2F and otoscopic assessment of the ear reveals a pearly gray tympanic membrane with no evidence of discharge or inflammation. Which action should the triage nurse take next? A) Palpate the patients parotid glands to detect swelling and tenderness. B) Assess the temporomandibular joint for evidence of a malocclusion. C) Test the integrity of cranial nerve XII by asking the patient to protrude the tongue. D) Inspect the patients gums for bleeding and hyperpigmentation.

Ans: A Feedback: Older adults and debilitated patients of any age who are dehydrated or taking medications that reduce saliva production are at risk for parotitis. Symptoms include fever and tenderness, as well as swelling of the parotid glands. Pain radiates to the ear. Pain associated with malocclusion of the temporomandibular joint may also radiate to the ears; however, a temperature elevation would not be associated with malocclusion. The 12th cranial nerve is not associated with the auditory system. Bleeding and hyperpigmented gums may be caused by pyorrhea or gingivitis. These conditions do not cause earache; fever would not be present unless the teeth were abscessed.

A patient has just died following urosepsis that progressed to septic shock. The patients spouse says, I knew this was coming, but I feel so numb and hollow inside. The nurse should know that these statements are characteristic of what? A) Complicated grief and mourning B) Uncomplicated grief and mourning C) Depression stage of dying D) Acceptance stage of dying

B Uncomplicated grief and mourning are characterized by emotional feelings of sadness, anger, guilt, and numbness; physical sensations, such as hollowness in the stomach and tightness in the chest, weakness, and lack of energy; cognitions that include preoccupation with the loss and a sense of the deceased as still present; and behaviors such as crying, visiting places that are reminders of the deceased, social withdrawal, and restless overactivity. Complicated grief and mourning occur at a prolonged time after the death. The spouses statement does not clearly suggest depression or acceptance.

A nurse is assigned to work with a client who has a disability. The nurse believes that all people with disabilities have a poor quality of life and are dependent and nonproductive. What type of barrier will this client experience? Structural barrier Barrier to health care Attitudinal barrier Transportation barrier

Attitudinal barrier

The admissions department at a local hospital is registering an elderly man for an outpatient diagnostic test. The admissions nurse asks the man if he has an advanced directive. The man responds that he does not want to complete an advance directive because he does not want anyone controlling his finances. What would be appropriate information for the nurse to share with this patient? A) Advance directives are not legal documents, so you have nothing to worry about. B) Advance directives are limited only to health care instructions and directives. C) Your finances cannot be managed without an advance directive. D) Advance directives are implemented when you become incapacitated, and then you will use a living will to allow the state to manage your money.

B An advance directive is a formal, legally endorsed document that provides instructions for care (living will) or names a proxy decision maker (durable power of attorney for health care) and covers only issues related specifically to health care, not financial issues. They do not address financial issues. Advance directives are implemented when a patient becomes incapacitated, but financial issues are addressed with a durable power of attorney for finances, or financial power of attorney.

As a staff member in a local hospice, a nurse deals with death and dying on a frequent basis. Where would be the safe venue for the nurse to express her feelings of frustration and grief about a patient who has recently died? A) In the cafeteria B) At a staff meeting C) At a social gathering D) At a memorial service

B Feedback: In hospice settings, where death, grief, and loss are expected outcomes of patient care, interdisciplinary colleagues rely on each other for support, using meeting time to express frustration, sadness, anger, and other emotions; to learn coping skills from each other; and to speak about how they were affected by the lives of those patients who have died since the last meeting. Public settings are inappropriate places to express frustration about the death of a patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing diagnostic testing for suspected malabsorption. When taking this patients health history and performing the physical assessment, the nurse should recognize what finding as most consistent with this diagnosis? A) Recurrent constipation coupled with weight loss B) Foul-smelling diarrhea that contains fat C) Fever accompanied by a rigid, tender abdomen D) Bloody bowel movements accompanied by fecal incontinence

B Feedback: The hallmarks of malabsorption syndrome from any cause are diarrhea or frequent, loose, bulky, foulsmelling stools that have increased fat content and are often grayish (steatorrhea). Constipation and bloody bowel movements are not suggestive of malabsorption syndromes. Fever and a tender, rigid abdomen are associated with peritonitis.

A nursing instructor is discussing hemorrhoids with the nursing class. Which patients would the nursing instructor identify as most likely to develop hemorrhoids? A) A 45-year-old teacher who stands for 6 hours per day B) A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation C) A 37-year-old construction worker who does heavy lifting D) A 60-year-old professional who is under stress

B Feedback: Hemorrhoids commonly affect 50% of patients after the age of 50. Pregnancy may initiate hemorrhoids or aggravate existing ones. This is due to increased constipation during pregnancy. The significance of pregnancy is greater than that of standing, lifting, or stress in the development of hemorrhoids.

You are providing care for an 82-year-old man whose signs and symptoms of Parkinson disease have become more severe over the past several months. The man tells you that he can no longer do as many things for himself as he used to be able to do. What factor should you recognize as impacting your patients life most significantly? A) Neurologic deficits B) Loss of independence C) Age-related changes D) Tremors and decreased mobility

B Feedback: This patients statement places a priority on his loss of independence. This is undoubtedly a result of the neurologic changes associated with his disease, but this is not the focus of his statement. This is a disease process, not an age-related physiological change.

A patient with a genital herpes exacerbation has a nursing diagnosis of acute pain related to the genital lesions. What nursing intervention best addresses this diagnosis? A) Cover the lesions with a topical antibiotic. B) Keep the lesions clean and dry. C) Apply a topical NSAID to the lesions. D) Remain on bed rest until the lesions resolve.

B Feedback: To reduce pain, the lesions should be kept clean and proper hygiene practices maintained. Topical ointments are avoided and antibiotics are irrelevant due to the viral etiology. Activity should be maintained as tolerated.

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of a tender, inflamed vulva. Testing does not reveal the presence of any known causative microorganism. What aspect of this patients current health status may account for the patients symptoms of vulvitis? A) The patient is morbidly obese. B) The patient has type 1 diabetes. C) The patient has chronic kidney disease. D) The patient has numerous allergies.

B Feedback: Vulvitis, an inflammation of the vulva, may occur as a result of other disorders, such as diabetes, dermatologic problems, or poor hygiene. Obesity, kidney disease, and allergies are less likely causes than diabetes.

The nurse provides corrective instruction to the nursing assistant when the assistant refers to the client as the Blind diabetic patient Person who is disabled Man with a stroke Woman who has multiple sclerosis

Blind diabetic patient It is important to use "people-first" language, which means referring to the person first. Examples include person who is disabled, man with a stroke, and woman who has multiple sclerosis. Using "blind diabetic patient" conveys that the illness or disability is of greater importance than the person.

You are the nurse caring for a 91-year-old patient admitted to the hospital for a fall. The patient complains of urge incontinence and tells you he most often falls when he tries to get to the bathroom in his home. You identify the nursing diagnosis of risk for falls related to impaired mobility and urinary incontinence. The older adults risk for falls is considered to be which of the following? A) The result of impaired cognitive functioning B) The accumulation of environmental hazards C) A geriatric syndrome D) An age-related health deficit

C Feedback: A number of problems commonly experienced by the elderly are becoming recognized as geriatric syndromes. These conditions do not fit into discrete disease categories. Examples include frailty, delirium, falls, urinary incontinence, and pressure ulcers. Impaired cognitive functioning, environmental hazards in the home, and an age-related health deficit may all play a part in the episodes in this patients life that led to falls, but they are not diagnoses and are, therefore, incorrect.

A nurse practitioner is assessing a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, and frequency with urination. The patient states that he has pain with ejaculation. The nurse knows that the patient is exhibiting symptoms of what? A) Varicocele B) Epididymitis C) Prostatitis D) Hydrocele

C Feedback: Perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with ejaculation is indicative of prostatitis. A varicocele is an abnormal dilation of the pampiniform venous plexus and the internal spermatic vein in the scrotum (the network of veins from the testis and the epididymis that constitute part of the spermatic cord). Epididymitis is an infection of the epididymis that usually descends from an infected prostate or urinary tract; it also may develop as a complication of gonorrhea. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid, generally in the tunica vaginalis of the testis, although it also may collect within the spermatic cord.

A 25-year-old patient diagnosed with invasive cervical cancer expresses a desire to have children. What procedure might the physician offer as treatment? A) Radical hysterectomy B) Radical culposcopy C) Radical trabeculectomy D) Radical trachelectomy

D Feedback: A procedure called a radical trachelectomy is an alternative to hysterectomy in women with invasive cervical cancer who are young and want to have children. In this procedure, the cervix is gripped with retractors and pulled down into the vagina until it is visible. The affected tissue is excised while the rest of the cervix and uterus remain intact. A drawstring suture is used to close the cervix. For a woman who wants to have children, a radical hysterectomy would not provide the option of children. A radical culposcopy and a radical trabeculectomy are simple distracters for this question.

A 37-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis is married and has three children. The nurse has worked extensively with the woman and her family to plan appropriate care. What is the nurses most important role with this patient? A) Ensure the patient adheres to all treatments B) Provide the patient with advice on alternative treatment options C) Provide a detailed plan of activities of daily living (ADLs) for the patient D) Help the patient develop strategies to implement treatment regimens

D Feedback: The most important role of the nurse working with patients with chronic illness is to help patients develop the strategies needed to implement their treatment regimens and carry out activities of daily living. The nurse cannot ensure the patient adheres to all treatments. Providing information of treatment options is not the nurses most important role. The nurse does not provide the patient with a detailed plan of ADLs, though promotion of ADLs is a priority.

The nurse is working with a coalition that is creating a global strategy to prevent and control diabetes. The nurse suggests which strategies? Select all that apply. Focusing on healthy lifestyle programming Monitoring incidence and prevalence rates Creating policies for diabetes prevention Partnering with the American Diabetes Association

Focusing on healthy lifestyle programming Monitoring incidence and prevalence rates Creating policies for diabetes prevention Partnering with the American Diabetes Association Diabetes is a chronic condition. Global action plans for the prevention and control of chronic illness include interventions such as programs to promote healthy lifestyles to reduce modifiable risk factors for chronic illness. Global action plans should also include monitoring incidence and prevalence rates, creating policy for prevention of chronic illness, and developing partnerships to prevent and control chronic illness.

A nurse is assessing a patient's level of independent functioning. Which tool would the nurse most frequently use? Functional Independence Measure PULSES profile Barthel Index Patient Evaluation Conference System

Functional Independence Measure One of the most frequently used tools to assess the patient's level of independence is the Functional Independence Measure (trade marked- FIM), a minimum data set consisting of 18 items. The PULSES profile, Barthel Index, and Patient Evaluation Conference System also are used, but these are more generic measures.

A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He researches information on the internet about COPD, seeking out new treatments and medications. The client frequently asks his physician and nurse about the new ways of treating his disease. This type of client behavior is seen in which type of model of disability? Medical model Rehabilitation model Social model Interface model

Interface model In the interface model of disability the client seeks or directs solutions to the problem.

Which model of disability views disability as a problem of the person? Interface Medical Rehabilitation Social

Medical The medical model equates disabled people with their disability and views disability as a problem of the person, directly caused by disease or trauma that requires medical care. The interface model is based on the life experiences of the person with a disability and views disability at the intersection of the medical diagnosis of disability and environmental barriers. The rehabilitation model regards disability as a deficiency that requires a rehabilitation specialist or other helping professional to fix the problem. The social model views disability as socially constructed and as a political issue that is a result of social and physical barriers in the environment.

A nurse is performing passive range of motion to a client's upper extremeities. The nurse touches the client's thumb to each fingertip on the same hand. The nurse is performing which of the following? Adduction Pronation Opposition Dorsiflexion

Opposition Opposition involves touching the thumb to each fingertip on the same hand. Adduction would involve moving the arm away from the midline of the body. Pronation involves rotating the forearm so that the palm of the hand is down. Dorsiflexion involves movement that flexes or bends the hand back toward the body.

A graduate nurse is assigned to care for a client with an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. The client also has Down syndrome. During the shift, the nurse discovers that the client lives alone and holds a full-time job. Which type of disability would the nurse state the client has? Acquired Developmental Age-related Acute nontraumatic

People with disabilities are often considered by society to be dependent and in need of care from others; however, many people with disabilities are highly functioning, independent, productive, and capable of caring for themselves and others, having children and raising families, holding a full-time job, and making significant and major contributions to society. Developmental disabilities occur anytime from birth to 22 years and result in impairment of physical or mental health, cognition, speech, language, or self-care. Examples are spina bifida, cerebral palsy, and Down syndrome.

The nurse is assisting a patient in assuming a side-lying position. What intervention would be best for the nurse to provide? Align the lower extremities in a neutral position. Extend the legs with a firm support under the popliteal area. Place the uppermost hip slightly forward in a position of slight abduction. Position the trunk so that hip flexion is minimized.

Place the uppermost hip slightly forward in a position of slight abduction. Supporting the patient in a 30-degree side-lying position avoids pressure on the trochanter. In older adult patients, frequent small shifts of body weight may be effective. Placing a small rolled towel or sheepskin under a shoulder or hip allows a return of blood flow to the skin in the area on which the patient is sitting or lying. The towel or sheepskin is moved around the patient's pressure points in a clockwise fashion. A turning schedule can help the family keep track of the patient's turns.

The nurse is caring for a client with a spinal cord injury who has no awareness of the need to void. The nurse should document that the client has which type of incontinence? Reflex (neurogenic) incontinence Stress incontinence Toilet incontinence Functional incontinence

Reflex (neurogenic) incontinence Reflex incontinence is associated with a spinal cord lesion that interrupts cerebral control, resulting in no sensory awareness of the need to void. Stress incontinence is associated with weakened perineal muscles that permit leakage of urine when intra-abdominal pressure is increased. Toilet incontinence occurs in clients who cannot control excreta because of physiologic or psychological impairment. Functional incontinence occurs in clients with intact urinary physiology who experience mobility impairment, environmental barriers, or cognitive problems and cannot reach and use the toilet before soiling themselves.

The nurse is assessing a patient at risk for the development of a pressure ulcer. What laboratory test will assist the nurse in determining this risk? Serum albumin Serum glucose Prothrombin time Sedimentation rate

Serum albumin Serum albumin and prealbumin levels are sensitive indicators of protein deficiency. Serum albumin levels of less than 3 g per dL are associated with hypoalbuminemic tissue edema and increased risk of pressure ulcers. Serum glucose is used to assess for diabetes. Prothrombin time is used to assess clotting time and monitor therapeutic levels of anticoagulation medications. Sedimentation rate is used to detect inflammation in the body.

The nurse is preparing to provide discharge teaching for a hospitalized 19-year-old client who has had asthma for most of his life. The television is on, and several of the client's fraternity brothers are present. The client needs to have his intravenous catheter discontinued. The nurse determines that barriers to learning exist. Which of the following represent potential barriers? Select all answers that apply. Television in use Fraternity brothers Client's age Client's asthma Discontinuation of the intravenous catheter

Television in use Fraternity brothers

The nurse is caring for a client with COPD who was recently admitted to the hospital with an acute exacerbation of the illness. What indicates to the nurse that the client is in the comeback phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness? Unrelieved symptoms of the illness results in the interruption of the client's everyday life activities. The illness course and symptoms are under control and the client's everyday life activities are managed. The client begins to cope with implications of the illness. The client gradually returns back to an acceptable way of life within the limits imposed by the illness.

The client gradually returns back to an acceptable way of life within the limits imposed by the illness. In the comeback phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness, the client gradually returns back to an acceptable way of life within the limits imposed by the illness. The acute phase has unrelieved symptoms that result in the interruption of the client's everyday life activities. In the stable phase, the illness course and symptoms are under control and the client's everyday life activities are managed. In the trajectory onset phase, the client begins to cope with implications of the illness.

Evidence-based medical and nursing research (2009) has identified cardiovascular disease as the most prevalent chronic disease in the United States. Under this classification, one condition is the most common. Using this information, a nurse practitioner, treating a 50-year-old man, would do which of the following? Make certain that the patient was aware of the signs of coronary artery disease. Write a prescription for a serum cholesterol level. Teach the patient how to assess his blood pressure weekly. Suggest activity modifications and treatments to help minimize the physical limitations of dyspnea.

Write a prescription for a serum cholesterol level. Hypercholesterolemia is the most prevalent chronic disease in the United States, with 37.5% of all adults affected. Refer to Table 3-1 in the text.

A 65-year-old client was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 10 years ago. The client has difficulty ambulating and is seeking a prescription for a wheelchair. The nurse assesses the type of disability the client has is Developmental Acquired Age-associated Sensory

acquired

Which phase of the Trajectory Model of Chronic Illness is characterized by the gradual or rapid decline in the condition despite efforts to halt the disorder? Unstable Acute Downward Dying

dying

A type of therapeutic exercise, performed by a client, in which the muscle alternately contracts and relaxes is isometric. resistive. passive. active-assistive.

isometric. Isometric exercises consist of alternately contracting and relaxing a muscle while keeping the part in a fixed position. Resistive exercises are carried out by the client working against resistance produced by either manual or mechanical means. Passive exercises are carried out by the therapist or the nurse without assistance from the client. Active-assistive exercises are carried out by the client with the assistance of the therapist or the nurse.