AE MQF
HQ AMC/A3 establishes, in coordination with the AMC Surgeon General (AMC/SG), AFRC, NGB and other MAJCOMs, the standards for system-wide organization, equipage and training of the AE force. A. True B. False
A. True
The adult/child (A/C) LPU is the preferred LPU for AECMs and patient/passengers during ditching situations. The LPU can be used on children greater than _____ old. a. 18 months b. 14 years c. 36 months d. 7 years
a. 18 months
KC-135 SLS -1 normally provides _____ litters, _____ total web seats for patients and AE crew. a. 6, 31 b. 9, 31 c. 12, 27 d. 12, 21
a. 6, 31
When tasked, units shall posture an aircrew as an _____ able to launch within 1 hour (1+30 for C-5) a. ALFA (or ALPHA) Standby Force b. BRAVO Standby Force c. CHARLIE Standby Force d. DELTA Standby Force
a. ALFA (or ALPHA) Standby Force
____ maintains directive guidance for documentation within the AF AE ERC system (paper/EHR). a. AMC/SG b. AES CNE c. AMC/A3VM d. AES/CC
a. AMC/SG
Which of the following describes a tension pneumothorax? a. Air enters the pleural space and is unable to escape. b. Multiple rib fractures resulting in loss of chest wall stability. c. Oxygen deficiency in the tissues sufficient enough to cause impairment of function. d. Air enters the chest via an open wound.
a. Air enters the pleural space and is unable to escape.
If an LSAS (Litter Station Augmentation Set) is required for an operational AE mission, the storage box is normally loaded on the _____ in the aerial delivery system (ADS) rails IAW T.O. 1C-17A-9 (Position 10 or 11). a. Aircraft ramp b. Right Row pallet position c. Left Row pallet position d. Logistic rail system
a. Aircraft ramp
Which document is used to facilitate the timely communication of AE focused clinical information and lessons learned from AMC/SG to the global AE community. a. COPSA b. FCIF c. ASAP d. 2852
a. COPSA
When securing the Unitron to the aircraft floor _____. a. Center Unitron over a selected aircraft tie down "D" ring, wrap strap once around unit's handle, run strap over the top of the unit, wrap once around second handle. b. Center over a selected aircraft tie down "D" ring, run straps under handles, run straps over the top of the unit and under the second handle. c. Tighten cargo straps as tight as possible, breaking handles is acceptable. d. Tighten cargo straps as tight as possible around the unit, a slight bend of the unit is acceptable.
a. Center Unitron over a selected aircraft tie down "D" ring, wrap strap once around unit's handle, run strap over the top of the unit, wrap once around second handle.
When documenting in the patient record, Dates will be documented using which format? a. DD MMM YY b. Julian Date (JDXXX) c. MMM DD, YYYY d. All of the above
a. DD MMM YY
_____'s gas law states the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of each gas within the mixture. a. Dalton b. Charles c. Henry d. Boyle
a. Dalton
When should AECMs ensure the restraint key opens the locking device on the leather restraints? a. During pre-flight b. Immediately prior to application c. Immediately after application d. This step is not necessary
a. During pre-flight
Minimum of a four person carry is required for all of the following, EXCEPT _____. a. Enplaning/deplaning a litter patient with a backrest. b. Lifting a litter patient above waist level. c. Litter patients of excessive weight or those required to be carried for long distances. d. Transport incubators with infants.
a. Enplaning/deplaning a litter patient with a backrest.
LPU-6/P infant cot may be used for infants up to 18 months old. To use the LPU-6/P, place the infant _____ first into the cot with _____ towards open end of hood. a. Feet/head b. Head/feet c. Feet/arms d. Head/legs
a. Feet/head
_____ will provide clinical oversight, guidance and materials for fatigue CM education and mitigation. a. MTF/SGP b. AMC/A3 c. SQ/CC d. CNE
a. MTF/SGP
_____ are responsible for anti-hijacking inspection of patients. a. Medical facility commanders b. SQ/CC c. AEOT d. 2FN
a. Medical facility commanders
All of the following are the responsibility of the MTFs/ERPs EXCEPT: a. Monitor TRAC2ES weekly to identify only outbound patients regulated to their facility. b. Verify information on the mission manifest, including patient information, load data, special equipment requirements, meals, and AE mission information with appropriate agencies. c. Update ITV events, and document in TRAC2ES, to assist with patient tracking and clinical updates. d. Coordinate patient and mission changes with appropriate PMRC and C2 agencies.
a. Monitor TRAC2ES weekly to identify only outbound patients regulated to their facility.
Which of the following steps is NOT correct when performing the preflight (PRICE check) of the MA-1 walk around bottle? a. P- Pressure: Ensure portable walk-around bottle indicates 275 psi +/- 30 psi. b. R- Regulator: Ensure there are no signs of visible damage to the regulator gauge, and view inside of the fill nozzle to identify if bottle is modified or unmodified. c. I- Inspection: Ensure Quick-don Mask and goggles are properly secured and clean. Check for holes, tears, cuts or abrasions. Inspect bottle for signs of damage. d. C- Connections: Ensure Quick-don Mask is connected to O2 bottle. Adjust harness to expedite donning in emergency. If connected to aircraft communication system, confirm communication capability.
a. P- Pressure: Ensure portable walk-around bottle indicates 275 psi +/- 30 psi.
When enplaning multiple litters, what do THUMBS UP signal indicate? a. Signs to the litter bearers the aircrew is prepared for litter enplaning/deplaning. b. Signs to the litter bearer to prepare to raise the litter to the shoulder of the shorter person. c. Signs to the CMT to slow the pace of the litter bearers d. AECMs do not use the THUMBS UP signal
a. Signs to the litter bearers the aircrew is prepared for litter enplaning/deplaning.
Which of the following is NOT correct, regarding securing a child/infant on the aircraft? a. The use of booster seats, harness and vest child restraints are approved. b. When a parent or attendant holds a child/infant, the seat belt is never placed around both the parent/attendant and the child/infant. c. When a small child occupies a seat, a pillow (if available) or some type of padding (i.e., blanket) should be placed between the child and the seat belt securing mechanism. d. If the aircraft is equipped with airline type seats, seat children/infants in child/infant seats/restraints by the fuselage with an adult in the aisle or middle seat.
a. The use of booster seats, harness and vest child restraints are approved.
The airflow direction on a C-130 is: a. Top to bottom/aft to forward, air is mixed circularly b. Aft to forward c. Top to bottom, no recirculation d. Top to bottom/forward to aft
a. Top to bottom/aft to forward, air is mixed circularly
"P" Precedence (stabilizing/stabilized) requires expedient PM and prompt medical intervention when care is unavailable locally and medical condition could deteriorate; PM is required sooner than the next scheduled channel AE mission. a. True b. False
a. True
AECMs will have emergency oxygen available. NOTE: The EPOS is not an acceptable source of emergency oxygen while performing crew duties. a. True b. False
a. True
CCAT crew performs an Operational Preflight on all medical equipment that accompanies patients to the aircraft and prior to mission launch. a. True b. False
a. True
For paper documentation, when an error is made, line through content, insert "void", and annotate with date, time and initials or signature. a. True b. False
a. True
If a medication is missed, licensed clinicians will contact the appropriate privileged provider as soon as possible and document the notification in the record. a. True b. False
a. True
Normal fuel servicing may be accomplished with patients onboard the C-17, C-130 and KC-135. a. True b. False
a. True
Providing AE medical support for detainee mission will not normally be practiced unless detainees require inflight medical care. a. True b. False
a. True
The 'Rule of 10s' offers a simplified method of estimating initial fluid rate for thermal injuries and provides values generally between those calculated by the Modified Brooke Formula and Parkland formula. a. True b. False
a. True
The Chief Nurse (CN) and/or Squadron CC is the final authority to determine which increment best meets patient care requirements and can increase or decrease medication and supply quantities to meet mission requirements, however notification to theater C2 must be communicated. Written justification to AMC Surgeon General Operations Branch (SGK) and HQ AMC/A3VM within 60 days. a. True b. False
a. True
The NICU team is a non-UTC ERCC capability that provides advanced respiratory and critical care transport expertise specific to the physiology and pathophysiology of the neonate and young infant, which are outside the scope of CCATT. a. True b. False
a. True
The Propaq Encore monitor does not have automated arrhythmia analysis. Therefore, some ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation may not be interpreted. a. True b. False
a. True
The minilator can be used with ventilators on low flow rate to provide more capability to the ERCC team. Coordination with ERCC team is imperative. a. True b. False
a. True
Verbal waivers from A3VM are authorized for non-certified/non-standard equipment. a. True b. False
a. True
When assessing respirations, a GCS score of less than 8 may suggest concurrent findings of hypoxia and require intubation. a. True b. False
a. True
When documenting the trip segment on a mission legs 45 minutes or less, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) codes for enplaning / deplaning stations may be used. a. True b. False
a. True
When transporting both cargo and litter patients, litters will be transported forward of the cargo pallets, if possible. a. True b. False
a. True
When wearing EPOS ensure hair, jewelry, shirt collars, etc. are not caught between the neck seal and the neck. Reduced effectiveness of the EPOS may occur increasing the likelihood of injury. a. True b. False
a. True
When enplaning/deplaning litters through the paratroop doors/crew entrance door on the C-130, at least _____ people must be employed on the ground with an additional _____ to _____ people inside the aircraft. a. four, two - three b. six, four - six c. four, three - four d. six, two - four
a. four, two - three
On the C-130 H/J aircraft, CCATT vented patients require _____ litter tier ( _____ litter spaces). a. one/5 b. one/3 c. two/6 d. two/10
a. one/5
The KC-135 Patriot® Cargo Light System connects to the _____ power connector at flight station 740 and draws _____ Amps. a. 115 VAC/60 Hz; 10 Amps b. 115 VAC/400 Hz; 3.4 Amps c. 100 VAC/400 Hz; 3.4 Amps d. 115 VAC/60 Hz; 2 Amps
b. 115 VAC/400 Hz; 3.4 Amps
Do not exceed a _____ lb max load on the NATO litter. a. 200 b. 250 c. 275 d. 300
b. 250
Which AF Form is the Patient Movement Physician Orders? a. 3899A b. 3899B c. 3899C d. 3899D
b. 3899B
On the C-17, a total of _____ litter patients can be floor-loaded. An additional ______ litter patients can be placed on the ramp for a maximum utilization of the aircraft. a. 30/15 b. 48/12 c. 48/15 d. 30/12
b. 48/12
_____ are standing orders signed by En-route Care Medical Director in AMC/SGK. a. COPSA b. AE Clinical Protocols c. EMT Protocols d. All of the above
b. AE Clinical Protocols
The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System (EPOS) is the preferred oxygen, smoke, and fume protection for _____. a. AECM b. AE Patients c. AE Crew d. CMT
b. AE Patients
_____ serves as the AE program medical director, responsible for the overall supervision, safety, and quality of medical care provided worldwide by the AE system, ERCC, and patient staging personnel. a. AMC/A3 b. AMC/SG c. AF/SG d. AF/A3
b. AMC/SG
If debris is found in the outlet of the NPTLOX ______. a. Notify the CMT and MCD, after consensus, the unit may be used for patient care. b. Contact the Biomedical maintenance equipment technician as soon as possible and report. Do not use this unit! Replace it. c. Remove the debris and finish pre-flight or function check. d. No action is required.
b. Contact the Biomedical maintenance equipment technician as soon as possible and report. Do not use this unit! Replace it.
_____ provides care for a maximum patient load of up to three high-acuity patients, or up to six lower-acuity stabilized patients; loads are dependent on patient acuity levels. a. Tactical Critical Care Transport Capabilities b. Critical Care Air Transport Team (CCATT) c. Lung Team d. Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) Team
b. Critical Care Air Transport Team (CCATT)
All of the following are treatment and management for compartment syndrome EXCEPT _____. a. Remove constrictive dressings. b. Ensure cast is bi-valved prior to leaving the MTF if cast is less than 72 hours old. c. Maintain extremity at heart level. d. Administer pain medication after assessment.
b. Ensure cast is bi-valved prior to leaving the MTF if cast is less than 72 hours old.
A 2 person carry will be used when enplaning/deplaning a litter patient with a NATO backrest in place. a. True b. False
b. False
If the patient's condition improves in flight, the MCD may downgrade patient classification. a. True b. False
b. False
When litter loading, AECMs will always secure the inside litter bracket immediately after loading a litter into a litter position. a. True b. False
b. False
On the C-130 H/J aircraft, medical equipment rated at 115 Volt/400 Hz can be operated from either the _____ or _____ utilizing an approved C-130 pigtail adaptor located in the Electrical Cord Assembly Set (ECAS). a. Missile Support System/Crew cannon plug b. Galley/Missile Support System c. Galley/Crew cannon plug d. None of the above
b. Galley/Missile Support System
Which of the following is NOT acceptable when securing oxygen and electrical lines? a. Lines may be run together (parallel) throughout the aircraft cabin. b. Secure any oxygen and/or electrical lines on the floor, across aisles or areas where they will be walked on. c. AECMs will wear gloves when making electrical connections, during configuration and patient loading to prevent personal injury. d. Attach/secure oxygen and electrical lines to litter clamps, or secure with hook and loop fasteners (Velcro), or on procured/ developed equipment securing devices located in the inflight kit.
b. Secure any oxygen and/or electrical lines on the floor, across aisles or areas where they will be walked on.
Latrine capacity in the KC-135 is limited. If not equipped with the Improved Toilet Assembly (TCTO 1C-135-1596), the aircraft will depart home station with an operable latrine and a minimum of _____ and _____ . a. Two rolls of toilet paper; two hand sanitizer dispensers b. Two urine tubes; two latrine cartridges c. Two extra flight suits; two sets of undergarments d. Two urinals; two bedpans
b. Two urine tubes; two latrine cartridges
For mission legs exceeding _____ hours in length; a minimum of _____ litters should be set up for ambulatory patient use. a. two, two b. four, two c. six, three d. eight, three
b. four, two
When communicating to TACC regarding changes in patient status, be ready to communicate all of the following EXCEPT _____. a. allergies b. name c. gender d. subject and objective data
b. name
When AE crew are supplemented for patient acuity; primary crew and those added to supplement for patient acuity will log _____ time. a. secondary b. primary c. instructor d. All of the above
b. primary
A total of_____ litter patients can be floor-loaded on the C-130. An additional two pallet positions are available on the C-130J-30 model that can accommodate an additional _____ litter patients. a. 8, 6 b. 8, 2 c. 15, 6 d. 15, 13
c. 15, 6
To increase C-17 electrical amp capability, an Avionics/Unitron® Frequency converter may be plugged directly into one of the 115-200V/400 Hz AC outlets located on the six aeromedical electrical outlet panels. Do not exceed 20 amps per aircraft left side and 20 amps per aircraft right side to the _____ Hz system for a total of _____ amps when using the Avionics/Unitron Frequency converter. a. 200/20 b. 400/20 c. 400/40 d. 200/40
c. 400/40
There are _____ HALO oxygen outlets located on the cargo compartment sidewalls that can be utilized with the adaptor assembly located in the in-flight kits. a. 50 b. 42 c. 54 d. 64
c. 54
The AWIS transceiver battery life should be _____ depending on battery type and usage. a. 4-6 hours b. 6-8 hours c. 6-10 hours d. 8-12 hours
c. 6-10 hours
A minimum quantity of _____ liters of LOX is required for scheduled aeromedical evacuation missions on a C-17 originating from staged/home station. a. 30 b. 45 c. 75 d. 100
c. 75
Who is responsible for ensuring there are enough EPOS units for each AECM, patient and attendants? a. 3AET b. CMT c. AE Crew d. MCD
c. AE Crew
On the AWIS, what is the recommended channel for 3AET with an Instructor? a. Channel 1 b. Channel 3 c. Channel 5 d. Channel 7
c. Channel 5
AE SQ/CCs shall designate a MCD on a _____ , IAW AFI 11-401, and applicable supplements. a. ORM Worksheet b. MAR c. Flight Authorization d. 3899I
c. Flight Authorization
_____ shock may result from hemorrhage-induced blunt or penetrating trauma, GI bleeding, hemorrhagic pancreatitis, fractures, ruptured aorta, abdominal or left ventricular free wall aneurysm. a. Cardiogenic b. Distributive (vasodilator) c. Hypovolemic d. obstructive
c. Hypovolemic
Which does NOT describe physiological stressors of flight related to decreased humidity? a. Resulting dehydration and thickened secretions can affect pulmonary patients. b. Patients with fluid balance problems are at significant risk and should have strict intake and outputs ordered. c. Increased oxygen or delivery pressures may be required when at altitude. d. Nothing by mouth (NPO) patients must have more attention paid to hydration status via IVF.
c. Increased oxygen or delivery pressures may be required when at altitude.
Should EHR system failure(s) occur or the MCD determines electronic documentation of clinical care will impede mission times, the _____ will direct the use of paper documentation by AECM. a. CMT b. C2 c. MCD d. 2FN
c. MCD
Ensure the pigtail adapter with _____ is attached and secured to the ZOLL Propaq M. a. Mounting hooks b. Mounting hinges c. Mounting bracket d. Mounting post
c. Mounting bracket
Which of the following may NOT be rolled up/down the ramp of a C-130 and C-17? a. Occupied neonatal transport system (NTS). b. Unoccupied transport incubators, securely attached to a wheeled frame or containing integral wheels. c. Occupied ambulance-type stretchers/gurneys. d. Pressurized gas cylinders secured to wheeled dollies.
c. Occupied ambulance-type stretchers/gurneys.
Who may fill and conduct maintenance on the NPTLOX? a. Qualified AECM b. Unqualified AECM with an instructor present c. Qualified LOX personnel d. BMET
c. Qualified LOX personnel
_____ shall form aircrews based on fragmentation order/mission directive, Crew Duty Time (CDT) and Flight Duty Period (FDP) requirements, aircrew member qualifications, and other constraints to safely accomplish the mission tasking. a. CNE b. MCD c. SQ/CC d. DO/DO
c. SQ/CC
The Onyx II has no audible alarms and is intended only for _____ checking. a. 4 hours b. 2 hours c. Spot d. 30 minutes
c. Spot
The DEATH acronym is used to remember human system factors which may lead to stress/fatigue. Which of the following is NOT a correct meaning in the DEATH acronym? a. D=Drugs b. E=Exhaustion c. T=Time d. H=Hypoglycemia
c. T=Time
As soon as possible after a "Time Out" has been called, the aircrew will take the following actions EXCEPT _____. a. Safety permitting, the flight crew will stabilize the aircraft and ensure terrain clearance. b. The initiating crewmember will voice their concerns to the crew. c. The PIC/MCD will be the sole voice of the crew and voice their inputs relative to the stated concerns. d. After considering all inputs, the PIC/MCD will direct the aircrew to continue the current course of action or direct a new course of action.
c. The PIC/MCD will be the sole voice of the crew and voice their inputs relative to the stated concerns.
Which is NOT an appropriate action regarding vehicle operation in and around the aircraft? a. All vehicular movement around the aircraft must maintain the 10-foot circle of safety from the nose, tail and wingtips of the aircraft. b. The spotter pre-positions wheel chocks between the aircraft and vehicle within the 10 foot circle of safety, to prevent vehicles from damaging the aircraft. Additional vehicles can be parked without chocks (no closer than 10 feet to the aircraft) providing a chocked vehicle is between the un-chocked vehicle and the aircraft. Chocks will remain in position until the vehicle(s) are ready for movement. c. Vehicles parked on the flight-line will remain locked and driver within 20 feet of the vehicle. d. Only vehicles required to enplane/deplane patients or passengers or service the aircraft are permitted to approach the aircraft after it has blocked in.
c. Vehicles parked on the flight-line will remain locked and driver within 20 feet of the vehicle.
If crew rest is interrupted, individuals will immediately inform the PIC or mission execution authority and will either _____ a new crest period or not perform flight duties. a. cancel b. renew c. begin d. deny
c. begin
How many ventilated patients can the NPTLOX support? a. one b. two c. three d. four
c. three
The PBE/EEBD is a _____ minute self-contained, completely disposable breathing unit, with a solid state oxygen supply source. a. 60 b. 30 c. 17 d. 15
d. 15
49. On the C-130 J aircraft, six 3-pin "household type" service outlets can be used with AE equipment that operates on 115 Volt/400 Hz. Each outlet will provide _____ amps for a total of _____ amps. a. 20/60 b. 15/60 c. 30/90 d. 15/90
d. 15/90
Aircrew members will not fly within _____ after donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow. a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours
d. 72 hours
Upon receipt of the ICD from AMC/A3VM and equipment training plan document from AMC/A3TM, RegAF and deployed units have _____ days and ARC units have _____ days to implement use of the equipment. a. 30 days, 60 days b. 60 days, 90 days c. 90 days, 120 days d. 90 days, 180 days
d. 90 days, 180 days
According to the medical attendant duty list, which of the following is the responsibility of a medical attendant ____. a. Review assigned patients medical history prior to mission b. Documentation on 3899 c. Medication administration & documentation d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The "V" brown electrode can be placed in _____ position on the chest during a 5-lead. a. V1-4th intercostal space at right sternal margin b. V3-midway between V2 and V4 leads c. V4-5th intercostal space at mid-clavicular line d. All of the above
d. All of the above
The 3AET will also distribute the border clearance forms to the _____, ensure completion prior to landing and deliver completed forms to LM/BO. a. AEC b. attendants c. patients d. All of the above
d. All of the above
What tasks must be completed by an AECM before an AE mission may be terminated? a. Disconnect all medical equipment and personal flying gear after patients have been deplaned. b. All aircraft systems discrepancies/malfunctions have been reported to the LM/BO for repair by maintenance personnel. c. Trash and all disposable medical supplies are collected for removal by aircraft services. d. All of the above
d. All of the above
When utilizing the Bag Valve Mask, _____. a. Connect oxygen tubing from the BVM to flow meter or oxygen flow regulator outlet and set the rate to "Flush" to achieve maximum oxygen percentage available based on BVM type. b. Connect the appropriate sized mask to the manual resuscitator. c. Place an airway adjunct if necessary to maintain a patent airway. d. All of the above
d. All of the above
Which of the following, describes the Aviation Safety Action Program (ASAP)? a. It is an anonymous, self-reporting system. b. It is designed to provide a non-punitive environment for the open reporting of safety concerns. c. The goal is to prevent mishaps by addressing those unintentional errors, hazardous situations and events, or high-risk activities not identified and/or correctable by other methods or through traditional safety reporting sources. d. All of the above are correct
d. All of the above are correct
During an emergency situation, it may be necessary to designate a recorder. The duties of the designated recorder should include: a. Document chronological events, procedures, interventions, patient response to interventions and frequency of care implemented. b. List all personnel and their designation/qualifications present during the emergency (for example registered nurse/physician). c. The designated recorder provide the documentation to the clinician assigned responsibility of patient care for review and/or co-signature. d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
In the event a crewmember becomes ill/injured during any type of AE mission _____. a. Notify your C2 agency who in turn will notify the governing PMRC. b. Remove them from the crew position and cover the duties as appropriate. c. Follow up with a FS. d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
Which statement below describes 1B psychiatric classifications? a. Must have standing and/or as needed (PRN) medication orders for agitation/anxiety/sleep. b. These patients will have a restraint order for applying restraints or restraints immediately available at the litter. c. Patients should travel in hospital garments, pajamas, or physical training (PT) gear. d. All of the above.
d. All of the above.
When connecting and disconnecting the power supply of the Zoll Aspirator _____. a. Firmly insert the power supply plug into the connection port with the triangles aligned for a secure connection. b. Give a firm tug to assure power supply plug has been connected correctly and is locked into control panel. c. Pinch the plug at the base and slide up to release the safety latches to remove the plug from the control panel. d. All the above.
d. All the above.
which of the following, is the correct procedure when connecting/disconnecting the Unitron to and from the aircraft? a. Rotate the entire cable until secured to the aircraft outlet b. Stabilize cannon plug with one hand while using the other hand to connect the twist lock collar, utilizing the push/spin method until connection is fully seated. c. Move each of the three output circuit breakers to the OFF position. d. B & C
d. B & C
The _____ is the final authority to determine which increments will best meet patient care requirements. a. CN b. Sq/CC c. MCD d. Both A and B
d. Both A and B
Which of the following is not criteria for a burn center referral? a. Partial thickness burns greater than 10% Total Body Surface Area (TBSA). b. Third degree burns of any size in any age group. c. Burns that involve the face, hands, feet, genitals, perineum, across major joints. d. Burned children in hospitals with qualified personnel and equipment for the care of the child.
d. Burned children in hospitals with qualified personnel and equipment for the care of the child.
The _____ may request "AIREVAC priority" for preferential Air Traffic Control handling due to inadequate temperature control during preflight and taxi. AIREVAC priority will only be used for that portion of the flight requiring expedited handling. (T-3) It is the _____ 's responsibility to use this option for bonafide medical situations that demand priority handling. a. MCD, PIC b. BO, MCD c. PIC, CMT d. PIC, PIC
d. PIC, PIC
Who will be notified if the crew complement has been reduced or increased based on the AECM Risk Management (RM) Worksheet? a. No one b. Medical Treatment Facility Commander c. MAJCOM A3 d. controlling C2
d. controlling C2
23. When litter loading, the AECM at the _____ of the litter will give the command to lift the litter into the litter brackets. a. back b. left c. aft d. forward
d. forward
