anatomy booster questions KOFI

Which terms below are mismatched? a.pseudostratified columnar epithelium / trachea b.stratified columnar epithelium / small intestine c.simple squamous / endothelium d.simple cuboidal / thyroid follicle

.stratified columnar epithelium / small intestine

As cells age, what part of a chromosome shortens, eventually signaling the end of cell division? a.centromere b.telomere c.kinetochore supercoiled

.telomere

Epithelial tissue has several distinctive properties. Which correctly lists these properties? 1.Avascular and cellularity 2.Polarity and regeneration 3.Contractility and excitability 4.1 and 2

1 and 2

Why is it important to study each level of structural organization? 1. The organization at each level determines structural characteristics of higher levels 2. The organization at each level determines functions of higher levels 3. 1 and 2 are correct 4. It is not relevant to study all levels of organization

1 and 2 are correct

Why do the pharynx, esophagus, anus, and vagina have the same epithelial organization? 1.All are subject to mechanical trauma. 2.All are subject to abrasion. 3.All must be able to expand. 4.1 and 2 are correct.

1 and 2 are correct.

How are many anatomical terms derived? 1. Latin and Greek 2. Spanish and French 3. Eponyms 4. 1 and 3 are correct

1 and 3 are correct

What is/are goals and functions of a positive feedback system? 1. An initial stimulus produces a response that exaggerates the original change in conditions 2. Keeping conditions within a normal range 3. A stressful process must be completed before homeostasis can be restored 4. 1 and 3 are correct

1 and 3 are correct

Which of these examples describe extrinsic regulation? 1. Results from activities of the nervous or endocrine system 2. Adjusts its activities automatically in response to environmental change 3. Oxygen levels decline in a tissue and cells release chemicals to dilate local blood vessels 4. 2 and 3

1. Results from activities of the nervous or endocrine system

Corpses usually exhibit rigor mortis because __________. 1.ATP hydrolysis is stimulating myosin head attachment to actin 2.a lack of ATP hydrolysis prevents myosin head detachment from actin 3.calcium stores become deficient 4.sodium stores become deficient

1.ATP hydrolysis is stimulating myosin head attachment to actin

The head of the femur articulates at the __. 1.Acetabulum 2.Glenoid fossa 3.Fovea capitis 4.Ilium

1.Acetabulum

What is calcium's function during muscle contraction? 1.Calcium binds to troponin, changing its shape and removing the blocking action of tropomyosin. 2.Calcium binds to troponin to prevent myosin from attaching to actin. 3.Calcium depolarizes the muscle fiber. 4.Calcium flows down the T tubules to stimulate the influx of sodium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

1.Calcium binds to troponin, changing its shape and removing the blocking action of tropomyosin.

How would a drug that blocks acetylcholine release affect muscle contraction? 1.Contraction would be prevented. 2.Contraction would be slowed. 3.The speed of contraction would increase. 4.The strength of contraction would increase.

1.Contraction would be prevented.

What is a consequence of early closure of one or more sutures? 1.Distorted skull shape 2.Brain stops growing 3.Early death 4.Parents cannot see if their infant is dehydrated

1.Distorted skull shape

Which of the following describes osteoprogenitor cells? 1.Divide to produce daughter cells that differentiate into osteoblasts 2.Assist in elevating local concentrations of calcium phosphate 3.Multinucleate and derive from same stem cells that produce monocytes 4.Maintain protein and mineral content of surrounding matrix

1.Divide to produce daughter cells that differentiate into osteoblasts

Why are women usually shorter than men at maturity? 1.Estrogens cause faster epiphyseal plate closure. 2.Androgens cause faster epiphyseal plate closure. 3.Thyroxine increases the rate of osteoblast activity in boys before puberty. 4.Men have more growth hormone.

1.Estrogens cause faster epiphyseal plate closure.

Why does a muscle that has been overstretched produce less tension? 1.Few cross-bridges form, causing weak contraction. 2.Cross-bridges cannot be formed. 3.Actin and myosin cease to be stimulated by acetylcholine. 4.The increased amount of Ca2+ in the sarcoplasm causes the muscle to relax completely.

1.Few cross-bridges form, causing weak contraction.

You are studying the sagittal and lambdoid sutures of the skull. These are considered what classification of joint? 1.Fibrous synarthroses 2.Cartilaginous synchondroses 3.Fibrous synostoses 4.Cartilaginous syndesmoses

1.Fibrous synarthroses

Which movements are associated with hinge joints? 1.Flexion and extension 2.Abduction and adduction 3.Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion 4.Circumduction

1.Flexion and extension

What effect would increased PTH secretion have on blood calcium levels? 1.Higher level of calcium 2.Lower level of calcium 3.Uncontrolled level of calcium 4.No effect on blood calcium, PTH affects calcium in the bones

1.Higher level of calcium

Where would you find the following ligaments: iliofemoral ligament, pubofemoral ligament, and ischiofemoral ligament? 1.Hip joint 2.Knee joint 3.Shoulder joint 4.Ankle joint

1.Hip joint

If you were looking at a synchondrosis in an adult skeleton, you'd be looking at the ___? 1.Joint between the first rib and manubrium 2.Epiphyseal cartilage between epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone 3.Pubic symphysis 4.1 and 2

1.Joint between the first rib and manubrium

Paranasal sinuses serve what purposes? 1.Lightening the skull bones and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium 2.Pulling mucus back toward the throat 3.Providing the superior and posterior boundary of the nasal complex 4.Providing the lateral and inferior boundaries of the orbital complex

1.Lightening the skull bones and providing an extensive area of mucous epithelium

The rounded projections on either side of the elbow are the _____ and ____ and are parts of which bone? 1.Medial and lateral epicondyles/humerus 2.Trochlea and capitulum/humerus 3.Olecranon and head of radius/radius 4.both 1 and 2

1.Medial and lateral epicondyles/humerus

The only direct articulation of the pectoral girdle to the axial skeleton is at the articulation of the ______. 1.Medial end of the clavicle and manubrium 2.Head of the femur to the acetabulum 3.Lateral end of the clavicle to the head of the humerus 4.None of these

1.Medial end of the clavicle and manubrium

Which fontanelles disappear within a month or two after birth? 1.Occipital, sphenoid, and mastoid 2.Metopic, frontal, and sagittal 3.Anterior, parietal, and occipital 4.Sphenoid, lambdoid, and mastoid

1.Occipital, sphenoid, and mastoid

Which of the following bone cell types is primarily responsible for initiating ossification of bone? 1.Osteoblasts 2.Osteoclasts 3.Osteocytes 4.Chondroblasts

1.Osteoblasts

A person standing on her toes is ____, while a person trying to kick his own gluteal region is _____? 1.Plantar flexing/flexing his leg 2.Dorsiflexing/extending his leg 3.Everting her feet/flexing his thigh 4.Inverting her feet/pronating his leg

1.Plantar flexing/flexing his leg

Pointing your toes downward is described as which type of movement? 1.Plantar flexion 2.Dorsiflexion 3.Pronation 4.Supination

1.Plantar flexion

What type of exercise can convert fast oxidative fibers to fast glycolytic fibers? 1.Resistance exercise 2.Aerobic exercise 3.Both a and b 4.Muscle fibers cannot change type

1.Resistance exercise

Joe suffered a hairline fracture at the base of the dens. Which bone is fractured, and where is it located? 1.Second cervical vertebra; posterior neck 2.First cervical vertebra; posterior neck 3.Occipital bone; posterior base of skull 4.Sacrum; posterior pelvis

1.Second cervical vertebra; posterior neck

Two cardiologist are talking about functional characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue. Which of the following descriptions would they use? 1.Special gap junctions, no wave summation, contracts without neural stimulation 2.Spindle-shaped, non-striated, thick filaments scattered, involuntary 3.Ca2+ from SR, rapid fatigue, functional syncytium 4.Cardiologists would not use any of this terminology

1.Special gap junctions, no wave summation, contracts without neural stimulation

Which bone contains the depression called the sella turcica? What is located in this depression? 1.Sphenoid bone; pituitary gland 2.Ethmoid; olfactory epithelium 3.Temporal bone; inner ear 4.Lacrimal bone; tear apparatus

1.Sphenoid bone; pituitary gland

What are functional relationships between compact and spongy bone? 1.Spongy bone resists stress from many directions/compact bone is extremely strong when stressed along the axis of alignment 2.Spongy bone is strong along its main axis/compact bone resists stress from many directions 3.Both spongy and compact bone resist stresses from all angles except a sudden force to the side of the bone 4.None of these is correct

1.Spongy bone resists stress from many directions/compact bone is extremely strong when stressed along the axis of alignment

Of the following types of joints, which type occurs only in the skull? 1.Suture 2.Ball and socket 3.Hinge 4.Symphysis

1.Suture

Why would improper circulation of synovial fluid lead to the degeneration of articular cartilages in the affected joint? 1.Synovial fluid nourishes articular cartilage. 2.Blood flow follows synovial fluid circulation. 3.Articular cartilage is composed of synovial fluid. 4.Both 1 and 2.

1.Synovial fluid nourishes articular cartilage.

How could X-rays of the femur be used to determine whether a person has reached full height? 1.The epiphyseal plates can be identified. 2.The epiphyseal lines can be measured. 3.The width of the shaft can be correlated to height. 4.The extent of osteoporosis can be seen.

1.The epiphyseal plates can be identified.

The significance of the petrous part of the temporal bone is that it serves as ___? 1.The housing for the auditory ossicles 2.A passageway for the jugular vein 3.Sites of attachment for muscles that move the mandible 4.The housing for the temporal sinuses

1.The housing for the auditory ossicles

A seven-year-old child has a pituitary tumor involving the cells that secrete growth hormone (GH), resulting in increased levels of GH. How will this condition affect the child's growth? 1.The individual will be taller. 2.The individual will be shorter. 3.Growth of the individual will be erratic and slow. 4.Excessive growth will be limited to axial skeleton.

1.The individual will be taller.

Why would a second fracture to a particular bone be more likely to occur at a different site along that bone than the first fracture? 1.The newly formed bone is slightly thicker and stronger at the original fracture site. 2.During healing of the first fracture, calcium was removed making the site of the second fracture weaker. 3.The person is older when the second fracture occurs, so their bones are weaker. 4.None of these is correct.

1.The newly formed bone is slightly thicker and stronger at the original fracture site.

The patellar ligament attaches to which structure? 1.The tibial tuberosity 2.The lateral malleolus 3.The intercondylar eminence 4.The hamstring muscles

1.The tibial tuberosity

What would be the first response of a muscle fiber treated with an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor? 1.There would be a continued muscle fiber contraction in the absence of additional nervous system stimulation. 2.The muscle fiber would be nonresponsive to acetylcholine. 3.Acetylcholine would be retained in the axon ending. 4.The muscle fiber would continuously contract for a prolonged period of time.

1.There would be a continued muscle fiber contraction in the absence of additional nervous system stimulation.

What are the structural and functional distinctions of fast fibers (white muscle fibers)? 1.They contract in 0.01 sec, are large in diameter, and use anaerobic metabolism. 2.They use aerobic metabolism, have numerous mitochondria, and have high myoglobin content. 3.They are capable of mitotic division and their contractions use ATP in small amounts. 4.They are the least abundant fiber type and use aerobic metabolism.

1.They contract in 0.01 sec, are large in diameter, and use anaerobic metabolism.

Bill accidentally fractures his first distal phalanx with a hammer. Which finger is broken? 1.Thumb 2.Small finger 3.Ring finger 4.Index finger

1.Thumb

Which of the distal carpals has/have a distal articulation with metacarpal I and a proximal articulation with the scaphoid? 1.Trapezium 2.Trapezoid and hamate 3.Capitate and lunate 4.Triquetrum

1.Trapezium

How could you distinguish between true ribs and false ribs? 1.True ribs attach directly to the sternum by their own costal cartilage. 2.True ribs are entirely bony. 3.False ribs are not part of the thoracic cage. 4.True ribs are attached only to the sternum.

1.True ribs attach directly to the sternum by their own costal cartilage

Which of these bony markings would become more pronounced with weight-bearing exercise? 1.Tuberosities 2.Condyles 3.Processes 4.Heads

1.Tuberosities

Why does skeletal muscle appear striated when viewed through a microscope? 1.Z. Lines and myosin filaments align within the tissue. 2.Glycogen reserves are linearly arranged. 3.Capillaries regularly intersect the myofibers. 4.Actin filaments repel stain, appearing banded.

1.Z. Lines and myosin filaments align within the tissue.

A sprinter is likely to depend on __________ respiration to generate ATP, and a Tour de France cyclist is likely to rely on __________ respiration. 1.anaerobic; aerobic 2.aerobic; anaerobic 3.aerobic; aerobic 4.anaerobic; anaerobic

1.anaerobic; aerobic

In a patient whose parathyroid glands have been removed, you would expect that person's blood calcium levels to _______. 1.decrease 2.increase 3.stay the same 4.increase twofold

1.decrease

All synovial joints are ______. 1.diarthrotic 2.amphiarthrotic 3.synarthrotic 4.none of the above

1.diarthrotic

Muscles of the shoulder can be divided into three separate groups based on _____________ relationships. 1.distribution and functional 2.size and leverage 3.posterior and anterior 4.superior and inferior

1.distribution and functional

Depressions on bones include ___________. 1.fossae 2.trochanters 3.tubercles 4.tuberosities

1.fossae

The principal component of bone that contributes to its hardness is __________. 1.hydroxyapatite 2.collagen 3.osteoid 4.organic

1.hydroxyapatite

The time period between action potential initiation and mechanical activity of a muscle fiber is called the __________. 1.latent period 2.refractory period 3.action potential 4.excitation period

1.latent period

One consequence of aging is a decrease in diameter of skeletal muscle fibers. What factors contribute to the decrease in size of muscle fibers? 1.less myoglobin and smaller reserves of glycogen and ATP 2.decreasing elasticity and increasing fibrosis 3.rapid fatigue and decline in thermoregulatory ability 4.decrease in number of satellite cells and a decrease of 30% in aerobic performance

1.less myoglobin and smaller reserves of glycogen and ATP

The ______ the ligament fibers of a syndesmosis, the ______ the degreeof movement. 1.longer; greater 2.longer; smaller 3.shorter; greater 4.wider; smaller

1.longer; greater

The most common form of chronic arthritis is ______. 1.osteoarthritis 2.rheumatoid arthritis 3.gouty arthritis 4.subluxation

1.osteoarthritis

Injured cardiac muscle is repaired mostly as: 1.scar tissue 2.smooth muscle 3.cardiac muscle 4.satellite cells

1.scar tissue

An injury common to baseball players is a torn rotator cuff. This collection of muscles and tendons is associated with the________ joint. 1.shoulder 2.elbow 3.hip 4.knee

1.shoulder

Small precise movements are controlled by __________ motor units. 1.small 2.large 3.many 4.few

1.small

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is an elaborated __________. 1.smooth endoplasmic reticulum 2.Golgi apparatus 3.rough endoplasmic reticulum 4.vesicle

1.smooth endoplasmic reticulum

During depolarization, the sarcolemma is most permeable to __________. 1.sodium ions 2.potassium ions 3.calcium ions 4.chloride ions

1.sodium ions

A muscle that assists another in a movement is a ____ and an example is the relationship between the ___ and ___. 1.synergist/latissimus dorsi/teres major 2.antagonist/gracilis/sartorius 3.prime mover/brachioradialis/biceps brachii 4.fixator/gastrocnemius/tibialis anterior

1.synergist/latissimus dorsi/teres major

What is the usual length of time it takes for a cell to move from the stratum germinativum to the stratum corneum? 1.2 to 5 years 2.3 to 4 months 3.15 to 30 days 4.4 to 6 weeks

15 to 30 days

Many allergy sufferers take antihistamines to relieve their allergy symptoms. Which type of cell produces the molecule that this medication blocks? 1.eosinophils 2.mast cells 3.basophils 4.2 and 3

2 and 3

What is/are the major difference(s) between cytosol and extracellular fluid? 1. Cytosol has a higher concentration of sodium ions 2. ECF is a transport medium only, whereas cytosol has some carbohydrates and amino acids 3. Cytosol has a higher concentration of potassium ions 4. 2 and 3

2 and 3

What is so special about osmosis, compared with diffusion? 1. Osmosis allows free passage of alcohol, fatty acids, and steroids through the plasma membrane. 2. Osmosis is the movement of water rather than solute. 3. In osmosis, water flows across a membrane toward the solution that has a higher concentration of solutes, because that is where water concentration is lower. 4. 2 and 3 are correct.

2 and 3 are correct.

Which of these lists the six categories for classifying bone by shape? 1.Intramembranous; periosteal; diaphysis mesenchymal; endochondral; interstitial 2.Flat; irregular; short; long; sesamoid; sutural 3.Long; short; mesenchymal; intramembranous; endochondral; epiphyseal 4.Femur; sternum; wormian; pelvis; patella; vertebra

2. Flat; irregular; short; long; sesamoid; sutural

The axial skeleton contains approximately __ bones, which include bones of the ___? 1.126/pelvic girdle and limb bones 2.80/skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage 3.80/pelvic girdle and pectoral girdle 4.2 and 3

2.80/skull, vertebral column, and thoracic cage

When you do jumping jacks, which lower limb movements are necessary? 1.Flexion and extension 2.Abduction and adduction 3.Flexion and abduction 4.Plantar flexion and eversion

2.Abduction and adduction

Smooth muscle can contract over a wider range of resting lengths than skeletal muscle can. Why? 1.Smooth muscle sarcomeres are longer. 2.Actin and myosin filament arrangement is less organized in smooth muscle. 3.Smooth muscle cells are shorter. 4.Smooth muscle actin is longer.

2.Actin and myosin filament arrangement is less organized in smooth muscle.

While jumping off the back steps at his house, 10-year-old Joey lands on his right heel and breaks his foot. Which foot bone is most likely broken? 1.Talus 2.Calcaneus 3.Navicular bone 4.First metatarsal bone

2.Calcaneus

Which characteristic of cartilage enhances its job as the precursor to endochondral bone? 1.Cartilage can decay easily. 2.Cartilage can accommodate mitosis. 3.Cartilage is a weak tissue. 4.Cartilage is retained as part of the skeletal system.

2.Cartilage can accommodate mitosis.

Joints are classified structurally as _____, based upon _____? 1.Sutures, gomphoses, or synchondroses/location 2.Cartilaginous, fibrous or synovial/material binding the joint 3.Synarthroses, amphiarthroses, or diarthroses/amount of movement 4.Monaxial, biaxial, or triaxial/number of planes of movement

2.Cartilaginous, fibrous or synovial/material binding the joint

Secondary curves of the spine are also called ______? The cervical curve ____ and the lumbar curve ______? 1.Accommodation curves/is present at birth/accommodates abdominal viscera 2.Compensation curves/helps balance weight of head/balances weight over lower limbs 3.Compensation curves/decreases flexibility/allows for development of larger vertebrae 4.None of these is correct

2.Compensation curves/helps balance weight of head/balances weight over lower limbs

What structural characteristics distinguish cardiac muscle tissue from skeletal muscle tissue? Cardiac muscle cells ___. 1.Are larger and usually have one nucleus 2.Have intercalated discs, short T tubules and no triads 3.Are dependent on anaerobic metabolism 4.Contact each other at tight junctions

2.Have intercalated discs, short T tubules and no triads

Which bone articulates with the scapula at the glenoid cavity? 1.Acromial end of the clavicle 2.Head of the humerus 3.Condyle of the humerus 4.Olecranon of the ulna

2.Head of the humerus

This type of synovial joint is used when you bend your fingertips to hang onto a cliff. 1.Plane 2.Hinge 3.Pivot 4.Condyloid

2.Hinge

Which three bones make up a coxal bone? 1.Ilium, ischium, and femur 2.Ilium, ischium, and pubis 3.Ilium, acetabulum, and pubis 4.Ilium, femur, and pubis

2.Ilium, ischium, and pubis

Which of these bones are paired bones of the face? 1.Temporal bones 2.Inferior nasal conchae 3.Parietal bones 4.1 and 3

2.Inferior nasal conchae

Which of the following is not a fatigue-producing factor in moderate exercise? 1.Potassium imbalances 2.Lack of ATP 3.Inorganic phosphate accumulation 4.Damage to the SR

2.Lack of ATP

Why would you expect the arm bones of a weight lifter to be thicker and heavier than those of a jogger? 1.Joggers are naturally thin. 2.Larger muscles apply more mechanical stress to the bones. 3.Aerobic exercise reduces bone mass. 4.Anaerobic exercise reduces bone mass.

2.Larger muscles apply more mechanical stress to the bones.

Which of the following is NOT a major function of skeletal muscle? 1.Maintaining body temperature 2.Lining hollow organs 3.Maintaining posture 4.Storing nutrient reserves

2.Lining hollow organs

The A band is comprised of which of the following subunits? 1.I-Band, terminal cisternae, and the Z-Line 2.M-Line, H-Zone, and zone of overlap 3.Thin filaments, titin, and the Z-Line 4.Sarcoplasmic reticulum and T-Tubules

2.M-Line, H-Zone, and zone of overlap

The greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus are important sites for ____? 1.Red bone marrow production 2.Muscle attachment 3.A large tendon 4.Forming the lateral contour of the shoulder

2.Muscle attachment

What is a motor unit? Why would you need a small motor unit to control movements of the fingers? 1.The resting tension in a muscle/so it would not involve muscle fibers of adjoining fingers 2.Muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron/need precise control 3.The addition of one twitch to another/need twitches to cover a large area 4.None of these is correct

2.Muscle fibers controlled by a single motor neuron/need precise control

In which bone is the foramen magnum located? 1.Sphenoid 2.Occipital bone 3.Ethmoid 4.Parietal bone

2.Occipital bone

Why would you expect that all people lose some height as they age? 1.Osteomalacia causes the bones to soften. 2.Osteopenia causes a reduction in bone mass. 3.Osteoporosis causes a reduction in bone mass. 4.Growth hormone is no longer available.

2.Osteopenia causes a reduction in bone mass.

Menisci are not found in every synovial joint. What are menisci and what is their function? 1.Another name for bursae/reducing friction 2.Pads of fibrocartilage/subdivides a synovial cavity and allow for variations in shape of articular surfaces. 3.Fat pads/protect articular cartilage 4.Specialized intracapsular ligaments/reducing undesirable movements

2.Pads of fibrocartilage/subdivides a synovial cavity and allow for variations in shape of articular surfaces.

What is the mechanism by which ATP is continuously synthesized in muscle cells? 1.Through the reaction of ADP with creatine 2.Primarily aerobic metabolism in mitochondria 3.Primarily glycolysis in the cytoplasm 4.2 and 3 are correct

2.Primarily aerobic metabolism in mitochondria

Which bone of the forearm is lateral in the anatomical position? 1.Ulna 2.Radius 3.Scaphoid 4.Depends on hand position

2.Radius

You have a young adult patient complaining of joint pain and inflammation. Her uric acid levels are normal. Your diagnosis is ___ and the cause is ____? 1.Gouty arthritis/uric acid crystals in synovial fluid 2.Rheumatoid arthritis/autoimmune 3.Osteoarthritis/wear and tear on joints 4.Herniated disc/rupture of the anulus fibrosus

2.Rheumatoid arthritis/autoimmune

Of the following muscle types, which is the only one subject to conscious control? 1.Smooth 2.Skeletal 3.Cardiac 4.All of these muscle types are subject to conscious control.

2.Skeletal

An amphiarthrotic joint exhibits which levelof movement? 1.Immovable 2.Slightly movable 3.Freely movable 4.Slightly immovable

2.Slightly movable

Which type of muscle fibers would predominate in the large leg muscles of someone who excels at endurance activities, such as cycling and why? 1.Fast fibers/because they have large glycogen reserves 2.Slow fibers/because they have extensive capillary networks 3.Nonvascular fibers/because they use both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism 4.Intermediate fibers/because they have more neuromuscular junctions

2.Slow fibers/because they have extensive capillary networks

Which type of muscle fibers would you expect to predominate in the large leg muscles of someone who excels at endurance activities, such as cycling or long-distance running and why? 1.Fast fibers/large glycogen reserves 2.Slow fibers/extensive capillary networks 3.Nonvascular fibers/use both aerobic and anaerobic metabolism 4.Intermediate fibers/more neuromuscular junctions

2.Slow fibers/extensive capillary networks

Which of these describes the neuromuscular junction? 1.The surface containing membrane receptors that bind acetylcholine 2.Special intercellular connection between axon branches and a skeletal muscle fiber 3.The link between generation of an action potential and the start of muscle contraction 4.A propagated change in membrane potential that travels the length of an axon

2.Special intercellular connection between axon branches and a skeletal muscle fiber

Which suture is not paired with the bones it separates? 1.Lambdoidal/occipital and parietal bones 2.Squamous/temporal bone and sphenoid bone 3.Coronal/frontal from two parietal bones 4.Sagittal/parietal bones

2.Squamous/temporal bone and sphenoid bone

Which of the following forms of exercise is best for joints? 1.Jogging 2.Swimming 3.Weight lifting 4.Aerobics

2.Swimming

What would long bone growth look like in an individual whose cartilage in the epiphyseal disc stopped dividing? 1.The long bones would grow excessively. 2.The long bones would cease growth in length. 3.The long bones would cease growth in width. 4.The long bones would appear normal.

2.The long bones would cease growth in length.

Contrasting the pelvis with the pelvic girdle, reveals that ____. 1.The pelvic girdle includes the femurs, whereas the pelvis only includes hip bones and sacrum 2.The pelvis includes the hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx and the pelvic girdle refers only to the hip bones 3.They refer to exactly the same structures 4.None of these is correct

2.The pelvis includes the hip bones, sacrum, and coccyx and the pelvic girdle refers only to the hip bones

The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments of the knee are distinctive in what way? 1.They tighten only when the knee is fully extended 2.They are inside the joint capsule and prevent anterior and posterior movement of the femur 3.They reinforce the joint's posterior surface 4.They work with the patellar ligament to support the anterior surface of the joint

2.They are inside the joint capsule and prevent anterior and posterior movement of the femur

Why is "clergyman's knee" (a type of bursitis) common among carpet layers and roofers? 1.Their jobs demand locked knees for long periods of time. 2.They kneel often. 3.Bursitis is caused by skin abrasion as happens in their jobs. 4.There is lateral stress on the knee in these occupations.

2.They kneel often.

The thin filaments are not comprised of which of the following components? 1.Actin 2.Titin 3.Troponin 4.Tropomyosin

2.Titin

The trochlea of the humerus articulates with the _____ and the capitulum articulates with the ______. 1.Coronoid process of the ulna/olecranon fossa of the humerus 2.Trochlear notch of the ulna/head of the radius 3.Olecranon process of the ulna/radial notch 4.Head of the radius/trochlear notch of the ulna

2.Trochlear notch of the ulna/head of the radius

Why were some people sickened by radioactivity years after the Chernobyl accident? 1.Osteoclasts do not differentiate between heavy metals and calcium 2.Turnover of bone matrix caused release of stored radiation into circulation 3.Osteoblasts are a type of memory cell and recall the poisons that enter them 4.Heavy metal ions are stored in the bloodstream

2.Turnover of bone matrix caused release of stored radiation into circulation

Adding new bony matrix to injury sites is known as _________. 1.bone sizing 2.bone deposition 3.bone resorption 4.bone addition

2.bone deposition

In a muscle fiber, the key intracellular event that stimulates muscle contraction is known as __________. 1.polarization 2.depolarization 3.repolarization 4.potential

2.depolarization

A major cellular feature in smooth muscle that contributes to its rhythmicity and ability to participate in peristalsis is the presence of _________. 1.troponin complex 2.gap junctions 3.varicosities 4.caveolae

2.gap junctions

The knee joint is most susceptible to injury when ______ blows are applied to the knee. 1.vertical 2.lateral 3.posterior 4.inferior

2.lateral

Which activity would be more likely to create an oxygen debt: swimming laps or lifting weights? 1.swimming laps 2.lifting weights 3.both 1 and 2 4.neither 1 nor 2

2.lifting weights

In order to receive a signal to contract, each skeletal muscle must be served by a(n) __________. 1.artery 2.nerve 3.vein 4.ligament

2.nerve

A group of concentric rings of bone matrix, comprising the functional unit of long bones, is called a(n) __________. 1.lamella 2.osteon 3.pillar system 4.Sharpey's system

2.osteon

A muscle contraction increases in strength up to a point because __________. 1.stronger stimuli inhibit motor unit activation 2.recruitment occurs and more motor units respond to stronger stimuli 3.more calcium is available in the sarcoplasm 4.additional neurons begin stimulating each muscle fiber

2.recruitment occurs and more motor units respond to stronger stimuli

Would a tennis player or a jogger be more likely to develop inflammation of the subscapular bursa? Why? 1.tennis player; stronger muscles in the back 2.tennis player; repetitive shoulder motion 3.jogger; excessive pectoral swinging motion 4.jogger; bursitis develops from running

2.tennis player; repetitive shoulder motion

Calcium's homeostatic importance to the body is primarily _____________. 1.to strengthen bone 2.to function in numerous metabolic activities (muscle contraction, blood coagulation) 3.to whiten our teeth 4.both a and c

2.to function in numerous metabolic activities (muscle contraction, blood coagulation)

At what age are nearly all bones completely ossified and skeletal growth ended? 1.18 2.21 3.25 4.28

3.25

After Terry injured his elbow, he noticed a large degree of motion between the radius and the ulna at the elbow. Which ligament did Terry damage? 1.Radial collateral ligaments 2.Ulnar collateral ligaments 3.Annular ligament 4.Interosseus membrane

3.Annular ligament

Why does a child who has rickets have difficulty walking? 1.Joints become fused, preventing movement. 2.Bones are brittle and break under body weight. 3.Bones are flexible and bend under body weight. 4.Motor skills are impaired.

3.Bones are flexible and bend under body weight.

What characteristics do typical synarthrotic and amphiarthrotic joints share? 1.Joint capsules filled with fluids 2.Non-restricted movement of bony regions 3.Bony regions separated by fibrous connective tissue 4.Articular cartilages and bursae

3.Bony regions separated by fibrous connective tissue

The fibula neither participates in the knee joint nor bears weight. When it is fractured, however, walking becomes difficult. Why? 1.Fibula helps stabilize the ankle joint. 2.Fibula attaches many leg muscles. 3.Both 1 and 2. 4.None of the above.

3.Both 1 and 2.

Theoretically, contraction would not occur if: 1.Z discs contact the thick myofilaments 2.Actin and myosin filaments do not overlap 3.Both a and b 4.Neither a or b

3.Both a and b

How is the pelvis of females adapted for childbearing? 1.Narrow pubic angle 2.Greater curvature on sacrum 3.Broad, low pelvis 4.Oval pelvic inlet

3.Broad, low pelvis

Which of the following is not a factor that stabilizes joints? 1.Articular surfaces 2.Muscle tone 3.Bursae 4.Ligaments

3.Bursae

A balance between which two hormones is essential for maintaining calcium homeostasis? 1.Calcitrol and parathyroid hormone 2.Calcitrol and thyroxine 3.Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone 4.Growth hormone and sex hormones

3.Calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

In endochondral ossification, what is the original source of osteoblasts? 1.De novo synthesis 2.Cells brought via the nutrient artery 3.Cells of the inner layer of the perichondrium 4.Chondrocytes from the original model

3.Cells of the inner layer of the perichondrium

The pectoral girdle consists of the ___ and ____? 1.Scapulae and humerus 2.Clavicles, humerus, and sternum 3.Clavicles and scapulae 4.Only the scapulae

3.Clavicles and scapulae

Bones of the axial skeleton have all of the following functions except _____? 1.Protect brain and spinal cord 2.Provide surface area for attachment of respiratory muscles 3.Contain medullary cavities with yellow bone marrow 4.Protect organs of the ventral body cavity

3.Contain medullary cavities with yellow bone marrow

Why is osteoporosis more common in older women than in older men? 1.Testosterone levels decline in post-menopausal women. 2.Older women tend to be more sedentary than older men. 3.Declining estrogen levels lead to decreased calcium deposition. 4.In males, androgens increase with age.

3.Declining estrogen levels lead to decreased calcium deposition.

The sphenoid bone contains all of the following openings except? 1.Optic canals 2.Superior orbital fissures 3.External auditory meatus 4.Foramen ovale

3.External auditory meatus

Which of the following correctly lists the three structural types of joints? 1.Bony, cartilaginous, immovable 2.Synarthrotic, diarthrotic, amphiarthrotic 3.Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial 4.Sutures, syndesmoses, gomphoses

3.Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial

Inflammation of connective tissue between the _____ and carpal bones causes what condition? 1.Deltoid tuberosity/congenital talipes equinovarus 2.Interosseous membrane/flat feet 3.Flexor retinaculum/carpal tunnel syndrome 4.Extensor retinaculum/carpal tunnel syndrome

3.Flexor retinaculum/carpal tunnel syndrome

When you are seated, which part of the pelvis bears your body's weight? 1.Obturator foramen 2.Posterior inferior iliac spines 3.Ischial tuberosities 4.Pubic tubercle

3.Ischial tuberosities

Which of the following functions of the skeletal system would be considered a "metabolic function"? 1.Protection 2.Support 3.Mineral storage 4.Movement

3.Mineral storage

The proximal radioulnar joint and the atlas/axis joint are similar in that they are both ______? 1.Biaxial saddle joints 2.Biaxial ellipsoidal joints 3.Monaxial pivot joints 4.Non-axial gliding joints

3.Monaxial pivot joints

Predict what would happen to muscles if a pesticide that inhibits acetylcholinesterase were present at the motor end plate. 1.Muscle would lose strength. 2.Muscle would be unable to contract. 3.Muscle would lock in a state of contraction. 4.Muscle would contract repeatedly.

3.Muscle would lock in a state of contraction.

Which of the following components accounts for the bulk of muscle fiber volume (up to 80%)? 1.Glycosomes 2.Mitochondria 3.Myofibrils 4.Sarcoplasm

3.Myofibrils

How would severing the tendon attached to a muscle affect the muscle's ability to move a body part? 1.Uncontrolled movement would result from a severed tendon. 2.Movement would be greatly exaggerated with no tendon. 3.No movement is possible without a muscle to bone connection. 4.Limited movement would result.

3.No movement is possible without a muscle to bone connection.

Tomás suffers a blow to the skull that fractures the right superior lateral surface of his cranium. Which bone is fractured? 1.Frontal bone 2.Right temporal bone 3.Right parietal bone 4.Ethmoid

3.Right parietal bone

Myofibrils are organized into repeating subunits called ____? 1.T-Tubules 2.Z lines 3.Sarcomeres 4.Sarcoplasmic reticulum

3.Sarcomeres

What structure of the scapula divides its posterior surface into two regions? 1.Acromion process 2.Coracoid process 3.Scapular spine 4.Supraspinous fossa

3.Scapular spine

Why would a sprinter experience muscle fatigue before a marathon runner? 1.Marathon running uses ATP for only a short time, while sprinting uses ATP indefinitely. 2.Marathon runners muscles depend on stored glycogen, therefore they do not fatigue. 3.Sprinting involves anaerobic endurance, whereas running a marathon depends more upon availability of substrates for aerobic respiration. 4.None of these is correct.

3.Sprinting involves anaerobic endurance, whereas running a marathon depends more upon availability of substrates for aerobic respiration.

Which of the nasal conchae are part of the ethmoid bone? 1.Superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae 2.Lateral and medial nasal conchae 3.Superior and middle nasal conchae 4.None of these is correct

3.Superior and middle nasal conchae

When someone has "slipped a disc" of the vertebral column, which type of joint is disrupted? 1.Synchondrosis 2.Suture 3.Symphysis 4.The connections between the vertebrae are not examples of joints.

3.Symphysis

Joints are classified functionally as _____, based upon _____? 1.Sutures, gomphoses, or synchondroses/location 2.Cartilaginous, fibrous or synovial/material binding the joint 3.Synarthroses, amphiarthroses, or diarthroses/amount of movement 4.Monaxial, biaxial, or triaxial/number of planes of movement

3.Synarthroses, amphiarthroses, or diarthroses/amount of movement

Which of these characteristics is NOT a component of synovial joints ___? 1.Ends of opposing bones covered by articular cartilage 2.Joint cavity enclosed by an articular capsule 3.Synovial membrane made of dense regular connective tissue 4.Synovial fluid

3.Synovial membrane made of dense regular connective tissue

Why does the vertebral column of an adult have fewer vertebrae than that of a newborn? 1.Vertebrae are absorbed as adult stature is reached. 2.Newborns require more support in the cervical region. 3.The sacrum and coccyx fuse post-puberty. 4.Vertebrae are formed that later become ribs.

3.The sacrum and coccyx fuse post-puberty.

On which bone would you find a medial malleolus? 1.The talus 2.The fibula 3.The tibia 4.The femur

3.The tibia

Why are the bodies of the lumbar vertebrae so large? 1.They develop first and therefore have longer to grow. 2.To provide more flexibility. 3.To distribute weight over a larger area. 4.To provide greater protection to the lumbar spinal nerves.

3.To distribute weight over a larger area.

Which structures form the vertebral arch of vertebrae? 1.Superior and inferior articular processes 2.Pedicles and laminae 3.Transverse and spinous processes 4.Vertebral bodies and transverse foramina

3.Transverse and spinous processes

Which bony marking is correctly paired with its description? 1.Fissure; depression 2.Facet; opening 3.Tuberosity; process formed where tendons or ligaments attach 4.Spine; process formed for articulation with adjacent bones

3.Tuberosity; process formed where tendons or ligaments attach

Electrical coupling by gap junctions is present in: 1.Multi unit smooth muscle 2.Skeletal muscle 3.Unitary smooth muscle 4.Bi-unit smooth muscle

3.Unitary smooth muscle

In what ways does the appearance of a sarcomere change during contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber? 1.Zones of overlap get larger; H. Zone gets wider; A bands shorten 2.Titin molecules are relaxed; M. Line disappears 3.Z. Lines move closer together; I bands and 4.H. Zones get smaller 5.None of these is correct

3.Z. Lines move closer together; I bands and

At the neuromuscular junction, the muscle contraction initiation event is __________. 1.a release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum 2.conduction of an electrical impulse down the T tubules 3.binding of acetylcholine to membrane receptors on the sarcolemma 4.sliding of actin and myosin filaments past each other

3.binding of acetylcholine to membrane receptors on the sarcolemma

Much of the friction associated with synovial joints is reduced by the presence of ______. 1.tendons 2.fatty pads 3.bursae 4.fibrous capsules

3.bursae

A major difference between smooth muscle fibers and skeletal muscle fibers in terms of calcium influx is that __________. 1.smooth muscle fibers have a sarcoplasmic reticulum 2.calcium ions are stored in the sarcoplasm of smooth muscle 3.calcium ion influx occurs mostly from the extracellular fluid in smooth muscle 4.smooth muscle contraction does not involve calcium

3.calcium ion influx occurs mostly from the extracellular fluid in smooth muscle

Lyme disease is ______. 1.due to the accumulation of urate crystals 2.a chronic inflammatory disease with an insidious onset 3.caused by a bacterium 4.a chronic degenerative condition

3.caused by a bacterium

All bones formed via intramembranous ossification are ________ bones. 1.long 2.short 3.flat 4.irregular

3.flat

What feature of cardiac muscle tissue allows the heart to act as a functional syncytium? 1.striations 2.intercalated discs 3.gap junctions 4.short T tubules without triads

3.gap junctions

A disease caused by vitamin D deficiency in children is termed ________. 1.Paget's disease 2.osteoporosis 3.rickets 4.osteomalacia

3.rickets

An adult male is donating red bone marrow to determine if he is a match to a leukemia patient. Most likely, the doctor will collect the bone marrow from his ____________. 1.femoral diaphysis 2.humeral diaphysis 3.sternum 4.skull

3.sternum

During a muscle contraction, the sliding filament theory would be apparent in a sarcomere because __________. 1.the I bands get longer 2.the A bands get shorter 3.the H zone becomes less obvious and the Z discs move closer together 4.the Z discs get pulled closer to the I bands and the H zone becomes more obvious

3.the H zone becomes less obvious and the Z discs move closer together

.The following is a list of several levels of organization that make up the human body. Put them in order from smallest to largest. 1) tissue 3) organ 5) system 2) cell 4) organelle a.1, 3, 4, 2, 5 b.4, 1, 2, 5, 3 c.5, 3, 1, 2, 4 d.4, 2, 1, 3, 5

4, 2, 1, 3, 5

Which vertebral movements are involved in (a) bending forward, (b) bending to the side, and (c) moving the head to signify "no"? 1.(a) flexion; (b) rotation; (c) lateral flexion 2.(a) lateral flexion; (b) flexion; (c) rotation 3.(a) rotation; (b) lateral flexion; (c) flexion 4.(a) flexion; (b) lateral flexion; (c) rotation

4.(a) flexion; (b) lateral flexion; (c) rotation

How does calcitonin help lower the calcium ion concentration of blood? 1.By inhibiting osteoclast activity 2.By increasing the rate of calcium excretion at the kidneys 3.By increasing the rate of calcium uptake by intestinal cells 4.1 and 2

4.1 and 2

How is bone remodeling accomplished? 1.Osteoblasts form new bone matrix. 2.Osteocytes remove and replace calcium salts. 3.Osteoclasts are not active, thus producing stronger bone. 4.1 and 2.

4.1 and 2.

How is it possible for a skeletal muscle to contract without shortening? 1.Through eccentric contractions, the muscle lengthens 2.Through concentric contractions, the muscle does not change length 3.Through isometric contraction, the muscle remains the same length 4.1 and 3 are correct

4.1 and 3 are correct

What feature distinguishes cervical vertebrae 2-6 from a thoracic or lumbar vertebra? 1.Bifid spinous processes 2.Spinous processes point inferiorly 3.Transverse foramina 4.1 and 3 are correct.

4.1 and 3 are correct.

What does the name flexor carpi radialis longus tell you about this muscle? 1.its size 2.its action 3.its location 4.1, 2, and 3 are correct

4.1, 2, and 3 are correct

An anatomy student says to you, "Sam likes to push the toy car hard." She is referring to the ____. 1.Damage that occurred at last night's party 2.Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform, trapezium, trapezoid, capitate and hamate 3.Way to remember the names of the eight carpal bones 4.2 and 3

4.2 and 3

Another student comes to you and says, "Tom can control not much in life". What are they talking about? 1.Tom must live with his parents next semester 2.The memory tool for remembering the tarsals 3.Talus, calcaneus, cuboid, navicular, and medial, intermediate and lateral cuneiform bones 4.2 and 3

4.2 and 3

During intramembranous ossification, which type(s) of tissue is/are replaced by bone? 1.Hyaline cartilage 2.Fibrous connective tissue 3.Mesenchymal connective tissue 4.2 and 3

4.2 and 3

Types of angular motion include which of these movements? 1.Pronation and supination 2.Circumduction 3.Adduction and abduction 4.2 and 3

4.2 and 3

What symptoms would you expect to see in an individual who has damaged the menisci of the knee joint? 1.Difficulty in locking the knee 2.Inability to stabilize the joint 3.Pain in the knee area 4.All of the above

4.All of the above

Which of the following is/are correct concerning the periosteum? 1.It has a fibrous outer layer and cellular inner layer. 2.It provides a route for nerves and blood vessels into bone. 3.It actively participates in bone growth and repair. 4.All of the above are correct

4.All of the above are correct

Which regions of the vertebral column do not contain intervertebral discs? Why is the absence of discs significant? 1.Between sacral vertebrae; these vertebrae are fused. 2.Between coccygeal vertebrae; these vertebrae are fused. 3.Between the atlas and the axis; a disc would prevent rotation. 4.All of the above are correct.

4.All of the above are correct.

What are the main differences between vertebrosternal and vertebrochondral ribs? 1.Vertebrosternal ribs attach to the sternum by their own costal cartilages. 2.Vertebrochondral ribs' costal cartilage fuse and merge with cartilages from rib 7 3.Vertebrosternal ribs increase in curvature and length from 1-7. 4.All of the above are true.

4.All of the above are true.

A child who enters puberty several years later than the average age is generally taller than average as an adult. Why? 1.Epiphyseal plates fuse during puberty. 2.Bone growth continues throughout childhood. 3.Growth spurts usually occur at the onset of puberty. 4.All of the above.

4.All of the above.

How are epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium interrelated? 1.All three surround skeletal muscle fibers 2.All three contain capillaries and nerves 3.All three contain satellite cells that function in the repair of muscle tissue 4.All three unite at the ends of skeletal muscles to form tendons

4.All three unite at the ends of skeletal muscles to form tendons

Several openings occur within the temporal bone for the passage of structures. Which of the following is correct? 1.Foramen magnum/medulla oblongata and hypoglossal canals/hypoglossal nerves 2.Hypoglossal canals/hypoglossal nerve and jugular foramen/glossopharyngeal, vagus and accessory nerves 3.Foramen lacerum/small arteries and jugular foramen/jugular vein 4.Carotid canal/internal carotid artery and stylomastoid foramen/facial nerve

4.Carotid canal/internal carotid artery and stylomastoid foramen/facial nerve

Why would a broken clavicle affect the mobility of the scapula? 1.Muscles attach the clavicle to the scapula. 2.Clavicle is attached to the sternum which is attached to the scapula. 3.Clavicle attaches the scapula to the humerus. 4.Clavicle articulates with the scapula, restricting its movement.

4.Clavicle articulates with the scapula, restricting its movement.

Which of the following muscular functions serves a metabolic function? 1.Movement 2.Posture maintenance 3.Joint stabilization 4.Heat generation

4.Heat generation

Where would you expect the greatest concentration of Ca2+ in resting skeletal muscle to be? 1.In T. Tubules 2.Surrounding the mitochondria 3.Within sarcomeres 4.In cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

4.In cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A sample of bone has lamellae, which are not arranged in osteons. Is this sample from the epiphysis or diaphysis? 1.It is from the diaphysis. 2.It is from the medullary cavity of a long bone. 3.It could be from either epiphysis or diaphysis. 4.It is from the epiphysis.

4.It is from the epiphysis.

Which of the following is not a prefix used to refer to muscle? 1.Mys 2.Myo 3.Sarco 4.Lemma

4.Lemma

If the activity of osteoclasts exceeds the activity of osteoblasts in a bone, how will the mass of the bone be affected? 1.Stable mass, but re-positioned matrix 2.Mass will not be affected 3.More mass 4.Less mass

4.Less mass

Which tissues or structures provide most of the stability for the shoulder joint? 1.Bone and adipose 2.Tendons and bones 3.Joint capsules and muscles 4.Ligaments and muscles

4.Ligaments and muscles

Which bone contains the mental foramen and what structures use that passageway? 1.Parietal/none 2.Occipital/hypoglossal nerves 3.Temporal/internal carotid artery 4.Mandible/mental nerves

4.Mandible/mental nerves

Which of these bones form parts of the orbital complex and also contain paranasal sinuses? 1.Sphenoid, frontal, maxillary and lacrimal bones 2.Zygomatic, lacrimal, frontal and palatine bones 3.Palatine, temporal, ethmoid and zygomatic bones 4.Maxillary, sphenoid, frontal, and ethmoid bones

4.Maxillary, sphenoid, frontal, and ethmoid bones

Which structures participate in the knee joint? 1.Medial and lateral epicondyles 2.Fibula and tibia 3.Patella and gluteal tuberosity 4.Medial and lateral condyles of the femur

4.Medial and lateral condyles of the femur

Why are cardiac and smooth muscle contractions more affected by changes in extracellular Ca2+ than are skeletal muscle contractions? 1.Extracellular Ca2+ inhibits actin. 2.Cross-bridges are formed extracellularly. 3.Most calcium for contractions comes from SR stores. 4.Most calcium for contractions comes from extracellular fluid.

4.Most calcium for contractions comes from extracellular fluid.

Which of the following correctly describes differences between the male and female pelvis? 1.The female pelvis is heart shaped and deeper 2.The acetabulum of the male faces slightly anteriorly 3.The pubic angle of the male pelvis is >100o 4.None of these is correct

4.None of these is correct

Which of the following is not a type of bone cell? 1.Osteoblast 2.Osteoclast 3.Osteocyte 4.Osteoclasp

4.Osteoclasp

When you run your finger along a person's spine, what part of the vertebrae are you feeling just beneath the skin? 1.Superior articular processes 2.Pedicles 3.Transverse processes 4.Spinous processes

4.Spinous processes

Improper administration of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) can result in a fracture of which bone(s)? 1.Cervical vertebra and ribs 2.Thoracic vertebra and ribs 3.Sternum and thoracic vertebra 4.Sternum and ribs

4.Sternum and ribs

How would the strength of a bone be affected if the ratio of collagen to hydroxyapatite increased? 1.Strength increases, flexibility increases. 2.Strength increases, flexibility decreases. 3.Strength decreases, flexibility decreases. 4.Strength decreases, flexibility increases.

4.Strength decreases, flexibility increases.

Which of the following joints is a site of long bone growth? 1.Symphysis 2.Ball and socket 3.Gomphosis 4.Synchondrosis

4.Synchondrosis

In a newborn infant, the large bones of the skull are joined by fibrous connective tissue. Which type of joints are these? The bones later grow, interlock, and form immovable joints. Which type of joints are these? 1.Synarthrosis; gomphosis 2.Symphysis; sutural 3.Synchondrosis; synostosis 4.Syndesmosis; sutural

4.Syndesmosis; sutural

Which of the following synovial joint components is responsible for secreting synovial fluid? 1.Articular cartilage 2.Synovial cavity 3.Articular capsule 4.Synovial membrane

4.Synovial membrane

Which foot bone transmits the weight of the body from the tibia toward the toes? 1.Calcaneus 2.Navicular bone 3.Cuboid bone 4.Talus

4.Talus

The elastic components of muscle consist of which elements? 1.Tendon, epimysium, muscle fiber 2.Bone, perimysium, blood vessel 3.Fascicle, bone, blood vessel 4.Tendon, epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

4.Tendon, epimysium, perimysium, endomysium

What is the significance of the muscle fiber triad relationship? 1.The terminal cisternae subdivide the sarcolemma. 2.The T tubules bring calcium to the sarcoplasmic reticulum. 3.The sarcoplasmic reticulum transfers calcium to the T tubules. 4.The T tubules conduct electrical impulses that stimulate calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

4.The T tubules conduct electrical impulses that stimulate calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

What is excitation-contraction coupling and where does it occur? 1.The same as rigor mortis/in the SR 2.Pivoting of myosin heads/cross-bridges 3.The release of ACh/at motor end plates 4.The link between generation of an action potential and the start of muscle contraction/at triads

4.The link between generation of an action potential and the start of muscle contraction/at triads

Which hormone is correctly paired with its function? 1.Calcitonin/stimulates osteoclast activity 2.PTH/reduces calcium ion concentration of body fluids 3.Calcitrol/inhibits calcium and phosphate ion absorption along the digestive tract 4.Thyroxine/stimulates osteoblast activity

4.Thyroxine/stimulates osteoblast activity

A local coroner determined that the unidentified skeleton found last week was that of a weight lifter because the muscle attachment sites were much thicker than in a normal person. This phenomenon is known as _______. 1.calcitonin metabolism 2.the weight lifter law 3.bone resorption 4.Wolff's law

4.Wolff's law

The principal neurotransmitter of skeletal muscle is acetylcholine. The major neurotransmitter(s) of smooth muscle is (are) _______. 1.acetylcholine 2.epinephrine 3.norepinephrine 4.all of the above

4.all of the above

The site where two or more bones meet is called a(n) ______. 1.cartilage connection site 2.alignment site 3.auriculation site 4.articulation site

4.articulation site

What would you expect to happen to a resting skeletal muscle if the sarcolemma suddenly became very permeable to Ca2+? 1.increased strength of contraction 2.decreased cross bridge formation 3.decreased ability to relax 4.both 1 and 3

4.both 1 and 3

The most common joint injuries include ________. 1.sprains 2.dislocations 3.cartilage injuries 4.both a and b

4.both a and b

Adjacent osteocytes communicate via gap junctions found within ________. 1.lacunae 2.Volkmann's canals 3.Haversian canals 4.canaliculi

4.canaliculi

Sprinters typically possess more __________ muscle fibers. 1.slow glycolytic 2.fast glycolytic 3.slow oxidative 4.fast oxidative

4.fast oxidative

Isometric contractions come into play when an individual is __________. 1.jumping 2.walking uphill 3.moving a heavy object 4.maintaining an upright posture

4.maintaining an upright posture

The greatest degree of motion that synovial joints display is described as ______. 1.nonaxial movement 2.uniaxial movement 3.biaxial movement 4.multiaxial movement

4.multiaxial movement

An example of a projection on a bone that is a site of muscle or ligament attachment is a ___________. 1.meatus 2.head 3.condyle 4.trochanter

4.trochanter

What are structural and functional similarities of phospholipids and glycolipids? 1.Their hydrocarbon tails are hydrophobic. 2.They help form and maintain intracellular structures. 3.They are primarily composed of phosphate and glycogen, respectively. 4.A and B are correct

A and B are correct

What is a mole and why is it useful to describe elements in terms of moles? 1.6.023 x 1023/easier to keep track of relative numbers of atoms in chemical samples 2.Is a quantity with a weight in grams equal to that element's atomic weight/because one mole of a given element always contains the same number of atoms as one mole of any other element 3.The total number of neutrons and protons in the nucleus/nuclei sometimes emit subatomic particles or radiation in measurable amounts 4.A and B are correct

A and B are correct

Where is hyaline cartilage located in the human body? a.It forms part of the nasal system. b.It reinforces the trachea. c.It is found as a pad of cartilage within the knee joint. d.A and B are correct.

A and B are correct.

Why is it significant that keratin and collagen are fibrous proteins and myoglobin and hemoglobin are globular proteins? 1.Fibrous proteins are tough and insoluble in water; they play structural roles 2.Fibrous proteins are only functional when they are in solution 3.Globular proteins readily enter aqueous solutions and function only when they are in solution 4.A and C are correct

A and C are correct

What does the presence of many mitochondria imply about a cell's energy requirements? 1. A high demand for energy 2. A low demand for energy 3. Fluctuating energy needs requiring flexibility 4. Number of mitochondria provides no implication of energy needs

A high demand for energy

A receptor, a control center and an effector are the three parts of a homeostatic regulatory mechanism. Which of these describes the respective functions of each component? 1. Receives and processes information; a cell or organ that responds to commands; a sensor receptive to stimulus 2. A sensor receptive to stimulus; receives and processes information; a cell or organ that responds to commands 3. Activity that opposes or enhances a stimulus; receives information; keeps characteristics of internal environment within certain limits 4. all of the above

A sensor receptive to stimulus; receives and processes information; a cell or organ that responds to commands

Which of these notations describes dehydration synthesis and why? 1.A-B-C-H + HO-DE à A-B-C-D-E + H2O; formation of a complex molecule by removal of a water molecule 2.A-B-C-D-E + H2O à A-B-C-H + HO-D-E; a chemical bond was broken through the addition of a water molecule 3.AB à A + B; a molecule is broken into smaller fragments 4.AB + CD à AD + CB; molecules are shuffled around to produce a new product

A-B-C-H + HO-DE à A-B-C-D-E + H2O; formation of a complex molecule by removal of a water molecule

What molecule is produced by the phosphorylation of ADP? 1.ATPase 2.ATP 3.Adenosine Diphosphate 4.Uridine Triphosphate

ATP

Which of the following is NOT a function of merocrine (eccrine) sweat glands? 1.Activate at puberty, secrete sticky, cloudy, potentially odorous secretion 2.Cooling of skin's surface 3.Protects skin through action of dermicidin 4.Diluting harmful chemicals in contact with the skin

Activate at puberty, secrete sticky, cloudy, potentially odorous secretion

During digestion in the stomach, the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) rises to many times that of cells in the stomach. Which transport process must be operating? 1. Facilitated diffusion 2. Osmosis 3. Active transport 4. Endocytosis

Active transport

Why is liposuction a temporary fix for getting rid of excess adipose tissue? a.Skeletal muscle will convert to adipose tissue. b.Adipose tissue regenerates through differentiation of osseous tissue. c.Adipose tissue regenerates through differentiation of mesenchymal tissue. d.Adipose tissue does not regenerate.

Adipose tissue regenerates through differentiation of mesenchymal tissue.

Mesenchyme connective tissue gives rise to which tissue type(s)? 1.Stratified epithelial tissues 2.Smooth and cardiac muscle tissues 3.All nervous tissue 4.All connective tissues

All connective tissues

How might a change in an enzyme's active site affect its functions? 1.Increased activity due to a better fit with the substrate 2.Decreased activity due to a poor substrate fit 3.Inhibited activity due to no substrate fit 4.All of the above

All of the above

What are the functions of sebaceous secretions? 1. Inhibits the growth of bacteria 2. Lubricates and conditions the surrounding skin 3. Lubricates and protects the keratin of the hair shaft 4. All of the above

All of the above

Which lipids would you find in human cell membranes? 1.Cholesterol 2.Glycolipids 3.Phospholipids 4.All of the above

All of the above

Why are enzymes needed in our cells? 1.To promote chemical reactions 2.For chemical reactions to proceed under conditions compatible with life 3.To lower activation energy requirements 4.All of the above

All of the above

Brown fat is functionally and structurally different from white fat in which ways? 1.It is highly vascularized and contains numerous mitochondria 2.It does not capture energy that is released 3.It generates heat, which warms blood 4.All of the above are correct

All of the above are correct

During the S phase, which of the following occur(s)? 1. DNA polymerase binds to exposed nitrogenous bases 2. DNA replication 3. Synthesis of histone proteins in the nucleus 4. All of the above are correct

All of the above are correct

Each type of cell has a characteristic resting potential. Which is correct? 1. Fat cells (−40 mV) 2. Neurons (−70 mV) 3. Cardiac muscle cells (−90 mV) 4. All of the above are correct

All of the above are correct

Why is the study of human anatomy and physiology critical to your everyday life? 1. Developing understanding of how the body works under normal conditions 2. It serves as a foundation for other life sciences 3. Useful in knowing what is happening when you or a friend is ill 4. All of the above are correct

All of the above are correct

During DNA replication, a nucleotide is deleted from a sequence that normally codes for a polypeptide. What effect will this deletion have on the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide? 1. No effect, deletion will be skipped 2. No effect, deletion will be automatically repaired 3. Amino acid sequence will disintegrate 4. Amino acid sequence would be altered

Amino acid sequence would be altered

Proteins are chains of which small organic molecules? 1.Saccharides 2.Fatty acids 3.Amino acids 4.Nucleic acids

Amino acids

Which of the following stages of mitosis is correctly paired with the events of that stage? 1. Anaphase/centromeres of chromatid pairs separate and daughter chromosomes are pulled to opposite ends of the cell 2. Prophase/chromatids are aligned along center of the cell 3. Telophase/chromosomes condense and nuclear membrane fragments 4. All of the above are correct

Anaphase/centromeres of chromatid pairs separate and daughter chromosomes are pulled to opposite ends of the cell

Which of these sciences is considered "the oldest medical science"? 1. Egyptology 2. Molecular biology 3. Anatomy 4. Prostitution

Anatomy

Milk production in mammary glands involves a combination of which two types of secretion? 1.Apocrine and serous 2.Holocrine and merocrine 3.Mucous and exocrine 4.Apocrine and merocrine

Apocrine and merocrine

Deodorants are used to mask the effects of secretions from which type of skin gland? 1. Ceruminous glands 2. Apocrine sweat glands 3. Merocrine sweat glands 4. Mammary glands

Apocrine sweat glands

In cells, glucose, a six-carbon molecule, is converted into two three-carbon molecules by a reaction that releases energy. How would you classify this reaction? 1.Endergonic 2.Exergonic 3.Decomposition 4.B and C are correct

B and C are correct

Which types of connective tissue are classified as supporting connective tissue and why? 1.Adipose and dense regular connective tissue/they are connective tissue proper 2.Muscle and blood/they have the highest need for oxygen 3.Bone and cartilage/form framework of body 4.2 and 3

Bone and cartilage/form framework of body

How does an antacid help decrease stomach discomfort? 1.By reducing buffering capacity of the stomach 2.By decreasing pH of stomach contents 3.By reacting a weak acid with a stronger one 4.By neutralizing acid using a weak base

By neutralizing acid using a weak base

A food contains organic molecules with the elements C, H, and O in a ratio of 1:2:1. What class of compounds do these molecules belong to, and what are their major functions in the body? 1.Lipids; energy source 2.Proteins; support and movement 3.Nucleic acids; determining inherited characteristics 4.Carbohydrates; energy source

Carbohydrates; energy source

What process would be affected by the lack of the enzyme RNA polymerase? 1. Nothing would be affected; DNA polymerase would take over 2. Cell's ability to duplicate DNA 3. Cell's ability to translate DNA 4. Cell's ability to transcribe RNA

Cell's ability to transcribe RNA

Why is cholesterol important in the human body? 1.It transforms into prostaglandins, which are released by damaged tissues causing pain. 2.Cells need it to maintain their membranes and for growth and division. 3.It is an essential component of eicosanoids 4.It is the only site of storage for lipid soluble vitamins.

Cells need it to maintain their membranes and for growth and division.

Some Pediatricians recommend the use of a 10% salt solution to relieve congestion for infants with stuffy noses. What effect would such a solution have on the cells lining the nasal cavity, and why? 1. Cells will lose water because this is a hypertonic solution. 2. Cells will lose water because this is a hypotonic solution. 3. Cells will gain water because this is a hypertonic solution. 4. Cells will gain water because this is a hypotonic solution.

Cells will lose water because this is a hypertonic solution.

Which type of integral protein allows water and small ions to pass through the cell membrane? 1. Receptor proteins 2. Carrier proteins 3. Channel proteins 4. Recognition proteins

Channel proteins

The chemical shorthand used to describe chemical compounds and reactions effectively is known as__. 1.Molecular formula 2.Chemical notation 3.Molecular weight Mass number

Chemical notation

Which of these indicates the levels of organization from simplest to most complex? 1. Electrical; chemical; neurotransmitter; response 2. Chemical; cellular; tissue; organ; organ system; organismal 3. Skeletal; muscular; cardiovascular; endocrine; nervous 4. Tissue; chemical; cellular; organismal; organ system; organ

Chemical; cellular; tissue; organ; organ system; organismal

What would happen if spindle fibers failed to form in a cell during mitosis? 1. Centromeres would not appear 2. Nuclear membrane would not disintegrate 3. Chromosomes would not separate 4. Chromatin would not condense

Chromosomes would not separate

Metabolic turnover refers to ____. The rate at which this happens to glycogen in the liver is about ___. 1.The conversion of diglycerides to triglycerides/once in a lifetime 2.The method by which a disaccharide becomes a polysaccharide/every few minutes 3.Continuous removal and replacement of organic molecules/every 1-2 days 4.The rate at which ATP is synthesized/every 1-2 weeks

Continuous removal and replacement of organic molecules/every 1-2 days

Which of the following is NOT a role of epidermal growth factor? 1.Promotes division of germinative cells in stratum germinativum 2.Accelerates production of keratin 3.Converts a cholesterol-related steroid to cholecalciferol (vitamin D3) 4.Stimulating synthetic activity and secretion by epithelial glands

Converts a cholesterol-related steroid to cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)

How do you effectively distinguish cytology from histology? 1. Cytology studies structures of tissues/histology studies functions of tissues 2. Cytology analyzes internal structures of individual cells/histology studies groups of specialized cells that work together 3. Cytology uses light microscopy/histology uses electron microscopy 4. Cytology studies disease states/histology studies only healthy tissues

Cytology analyzes internal structures of individual cells/histology studies groups of specialized cells that work together

Which statement(s) correctly distinguish between cytoplasm and cytosol? 1. Cytosol has a higher concentration of suspended proteins than cytoplasm. 2. Cytosol is the intracellular fluid and is composed of nutrients, ions, proteins, and wastes and cytoplasm is the term for all material located between the cell membrane and nucleus. 3. Potassium ion concentration is higher in cytoplasm than in cytosol. 4. Cytosol and cytoplasm refer to the same substance.

Cytosol is the intracellular fluid and is composed of nutrients, ions, proteins, and wastes and cytoplasm is the term for all material located between the cell membrane and nucleus.

What are two reasons that mRNA transcription so vital? 1. Protein synthesis occurs through transcription/it occurs very quickly 2. DNA cannot leave the nucleus/transcription ensures that mRNA exactly matches the coding strand of the gene 3. It allows formation of chains of amino acids/the same information is presented in a different language 4. None of these is correct

DNA cannot leave the nucleus/transcription ensures that mRNA exactly matches the coding strand of the gene

How would a decrease in the concentration of oxygen in the lungs affect the diffusion of oxygen into the blood? 1.Decrease in molecule size results in decreased diffusion 2.Decrease in distance results in increased diffusion 3.Increase in electrical forces results in increased diffusion 4.Decrease in gradient size results in decreased speed of diffusion

Decrease in gradient size results in decreased speed of diffusion

When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis reaction, which type of molecule is formed? 1.Polypeptide 2.Disaccharide 3.Eicosanoid 4.Polysaccharide

Disaccharide

What accounts for the ability of the dermis to undergo repeated stretching? 1. Elastic fibers and skin turgor resilience 2. Reticular fibers and fluids 3. Adipocytes and elastic fibers 4. Sebaceous gland secretions

Elastic fibers and skin turgor resilience

Why does a solution of table salt conduct electricity, but a sugar solution does not? 1.Electrical conductivity requires ions. 2.Sugar forms a colloid, salt forms a suspension. 3.Electricity is absorbed by glucose molecules. 4.Table salt is hydrophobic, sugar is hydrophilic.

Electrical conductivity requires ions.

Which of these statements describe(s) extrinsic regulation? a.Extrinsic regulation results from the activities of the nervous system or endocrine system. b.Extrinsic regulation adjusts activities automatically in response to some environmental change. c.Extrinsic regulatory mechanisms involve oxygen levels declining in a tissue that would promote local vasodilation. d.Statements B and C are correct.

Extrinsic regulation results from the activities of the nervous system or endocrine system.

Which of the following methods of carrier-mediated transport is paired with its function? 1. Active transport/it is dependent on a concentration gradient 2. Facilitated diffusion/substances are bound to a receptor and passed across the cell membrane by carrier proteins 3. Sodium-potassium pump/moves Na outside the cell and K inside the cell 4. 2 and 3 are correct

Facilitated diffusion/substances are bound to a receptor and passed across the cell membrane by carrier proteins

What is the term used to describe a burn that destroys both the epidermis and dermis? Could this burned tissue repair itself? 1. Second-degree burn/yes 2. First-degree burn/yes 3. Partial-thickness burn/no 4. Full-thickness burn/no

Full-thickness burn/no

A cell is actively manufacturing enough organelles to serve two functional cells. This cell is probably in which phase of its life cycle? 1. S 2. G1 3. G2 4. M

G1

Simple branched tubular glands are characteristic of which examples of glands? 1.Sweat glands and mammary glands 2.Gastric glands and mucous glands of esophagus 3.Salivary glands and pancreas 4.Bulbourethral glands and seminiferous tubules

Gastric glands and mucous glands of esophagus

The singular example of a unicellular exocrine gland is the ________? 1.Sweat gland 2.Intestinal gland 3.Goblet cell 4.Not found in adult

Goblet cell

Which two events are possible results of the contraction of the arrector pili muscle? 1. Goose bumps/release of sebum 2. Sweating/contraction of underlying muscles 3. Goose bumps/localized increase in blood flow 4. Localized pallor/release of sebum

Goose bumps/release of sebum

When the body is in correct anatomical position, what does that look like? 1. The terms left and right refer to the left and right sides of the observer 2. Hands are at the sides, dorsum of the hand facing forward, legs apart, head slightly to one side 3. Hands are at the sides, palms facing forward, feet together, eyes straight ahead 4. Person must be lying down

Hands are at the sides, palms facing forward, feet together, eyes straight ahead

Contents of the thoracic cavity include the ___ and is further subdivided into the ____ cavities. 1. Brain and spinal cord/cranial and vertebral 2. Heart and lungs/pleural and pericardial 3. Liver and stomach/abdominal and pelvic 4. 2 and 3 are correct

Heart and lungs/pleural and pericardial

How does boiling a protein affect its structural and functional properties? 1.Heat denatures the protein, causing unfolding. 2.Heat causes the formation of additional quaternary structure. 3.Heating rearranges the primary structure of the protein. 4.Heat alters the radical groups on the amino acids.

Heat denatures the protein, causing unfolding.

Which property of water accounts for the cooling effect of perspiration? 1.Solubility; solutes easily break up in water 2.Reactivity; hydrolysis causes salt crystals to form on the skin 3.High heat capacity; water carries away heat when it changes from a liquid to a gas 4.Lubrication; there is little friction between molecules

High heat capacity; water carries away heat when it changes from a liquid to a gas

Two terms for the connective tissue below the dermis are ____, it is made of _____ and its functions include _____? 1. Subcutaneous layer and hypodermic layer/elastic tissue and collagen/stretching and recoil 2. Hypodermis and subcutaneous layer/areolar and adipose tissue/stabilizing position of the skin 3. Hypodermis and deep fascia/adipose and dense irregular tissue/heat production 4. 2 and 3

Hypodermis and subcutaneous layer/areolar and adipose tissue/stabilizing position of the skin

What statement below is FALSE with regard to the function of DNA? a.It encodes information needed to build proteins. b.It controls all physical characteristics of our bodies. c.It assembles a specific amino acid within a protein's structure. d.It regulates all aspects of cellular metabolism.

It assembles a specific amino acid within a protein's structure.

Define "selectively permeable" as it applies to the cell membrane. 1. It is a membrane through which nothing can pass. 2. It is a membrane that allows the free passage of some molecules, but restricts the passage of others. 3. It is a membrane through which any substance can pass without restriction. 4. It is a membrane that only allows substances through by active transport.

It is a membrane that allows the free passage of some molecules, but restricts the passage of others.

What is the genetic code? 1. It is the method by which proteins code for amino acids. 2. It is the "language" the cell uses in the form of triplet codons, which specify individual amino acids. 3. It is the portion of DNA that contains instructions for the synthesis of tRNA. 4. It is the strand of DNA containing complementary triplets used for mRNA production.

It is the "language" the cell uses in the form of triplet codons, which specify individual amino acids.

Why does cartilage heal so slowly? 1.It lacks a direct blood supply, necessary for proper healing. 2.Chondroitin sulfate prevents healing. 3.Matrix inhibits cellular regeneration. 4.Interstitial fluid, necessary for proper healing, is excluded.

It lacks a direct blood supply, necessary for proper healing.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue? 1.It is composed entirely of cells. 2.It stores energy reserves. 3.It is avascular. 4.It is capable of regeneration.

It stores energy reserves.

If the cell membrane were freely permeable to sodium ions (Na+), how would the transmembrane potential be affected? 1. It would not change 2. It would become more positive 3. It would become more negative 4. It would become unstable

It would become more positive

All of the following except __ are functions of DNA. 1.Encoding information needed to build proteins. 2.Controlling physical characteristics of our bodies. 3.Manufacturing specific proteins. 4.Regulating all aspects of cellular metabolism.

Manufacturing specific proteins.

Cells lining the small intestine have numerous fingerlike projections on their free surface. What are these structures, and what is their function? 1. Microvilli; move substances across cell surface 2. Microvilli; increase cell's surface area and absorptive ability 3. Cilia; increase cell's surface area and absorptive ability 4. Cilia; move substances across cell surface

Microvilli; increase cell's surface area and absorptive ability

Serous membranes contrast mucous membranes in what way? 1.Mucous membranes line passageways that open to the exterior/serous membranes line sealed internal subdivisions of the body cavity 2.Serous membranes line passageways that open to the exterior/mucous membranes line sealed internal subdivisions of the body cavity 3.Serous membranes are parietal/mucous membranes are visceral 4.Serous membranes secrete mucous/mucous membranes secrete transudate

Mucous membranes line passageways that open to the exterior/serous membranes line sealed internal subdivisions of the body cavity

Both oxygen and neon are gases at room temperature. Oxygen combines readily with other elements, but neon does not. Why? 1.Neon has 8 electrons in its valence shell, oxygen has only 6. 2.Neon cannot undergo bonding due to its polarity. 3.Neon is exergonic. 4.Neon's molecular weight is too low to allow bonding.

Neon has 8 electrons in its valence shell, oxygen has only 6.

Using a light microscope, you examine a tissue and see a simple squamous epithelium on the outer surface. Can this be a sample of the skin's surface? 1.Yes 2.No

No

How is it possible for two samples of hydrogen to contain the same number of atoms, yet one sample weighs more than the other? 1.One sample has more bonds. 2.One sample contains fewer electrons, decreasing weight. 3.One sample contains more of hydrogen's heavier isotope(s). 4.One sample includes more protons, increasing weight.

One sample contains more of hydrogen's heavier isotope(s).

Where are the capillaries and sensory neurons that supply the epidermis located? 1. Reticular layer of the dermis 2. Epidermis 3. Papillary layer of the dermis 4. Hypodermic layer

Papillary layer of the dermis

Which specialty of physiology would be the profession of someone studying effects of heart disease ? 1. Pathological physiology 2. Systemic physiology 3. Organ physiology 4. Cellular physiology

Pathological physiology

When they encounter bacteria, certain types of white blood cells engulf the bacteria and bring them into the cell. What is this process called? 1. Pseudocytosis 2. Exocytosis 3. Pinocytosis 4. Phagocytosis

Phagocytosis

Which component of the cell membrane is primarily responsible for the membrane's ability to form a physical barrier between the cell's internal and external environments? 1. Phospholipid bilayer 2. Glycocalyx 3. Peripheral proteins 4. Proteoglycans

Phospholipid bilayer

Why is homeostatic regulation important to an organism? 1. Regulation allows individual organ systems to gain total control of the body. 2. Individual cells tolerate large ranges of conditions when regulated properly. 3. Physiological systems can function normally only under carefully controlled conditions. 4. Regulation provides a good framework for studying human physiology.

Physiological systems can function normally only under carefully controlled conditions.

Which kind of bond holds atoms in a water molecule together? What attracts water molecules to one another? 1.Polar covalent bonds; hydrogen bonds 2.Ionic bonds; charge interactions 3.Hydrogen bonds; charge interactions 4.Covalent bonds; hydrogen bonds

Polar covalent bonds; hydrogen bonds

Why is positive feedback helpful in blood clotting, but unsuitable for the regulation of body temperature? 1. Positive feedback accelerates the clotting process, but would cause temperature to rise out of control 2. Positive feedback would cause temperature to decrease; negative feedback would cause dynamic equilibrium to occur in blood clotting 3. Positive feedback is not reliable 4. Positive feedback works only in life-threatening situations

Positive feedback accelerates the clotting process, but would cause temperature to rise out of control

The knee is ____ to the ankle and ___ to the thigh. 1. Proximal/distal 2. Medial/inferior 3. Medial/distal 4. Lateral/inferior

Proximal/distal

A large organic molecule composed of the sugar ribose, nitrogenous bases, and phosphate groups is which kind of nucleic acid? 1.DNA 2.ATP 3.tRNA 4.RNA

RNA

Which of the listed organelles is non-membranous and correctly paired with its function? 1. Microvilli/movement of materials over cell surface 2. Ribosomes/protein synthesis 3. Mitochondria/produces ATP required by cell 4. Microtubules/increase surface area for absorption

Ribosomes/protein synthesis

Bruce has gallbladder problems. Where does Bruce have pain? 1. Epigastric region 2. Umbilical region 3. Right lumbar region 4. Right upper quadrant

Right upper quadrant

Which type of skin glands are most affected by the hormonal changes that occur during puberty? 1. Ceruminous glands and anal glands 2. Sebaceous glands and apocrine sweat glands 3. Apocrine sweat glands and mammary glands 4. Merocrine sweat glands and sebaceous glands

Sebaceous glands and apocrine sweat glands

Connective tissues share three basic components. Which of the following lists these components? 1.Specialized cells, extracellular fibers, and ground substance 2.Mast cells, adipocytes, and mesenchymal cells 3.Macrophages, elastic fibers, and collagen fibers 4.None of these is correct

Specialized cells, extracellular fibers, and ground substance

All methods of carrier-mediated transport have the following characteristics ___. 1. Concentration gradients, transmembrane potential, and resting potential 2. Specificity, saturation limits, and regulation 3. Endocytosis, exocytosis, and pinocytosis 4. Isotonic, hypertonic, and hypotonic solutions

Specificity, saturation limits, and regulation

Anatomy is to ___ as physiology is to ___? 1. Cutting up : putting together 2. Structure : function 3. Function : structure 4. Medical terminology : medical tests

Structure : function

The head is ____ to the umbilicus and the skeletal muscles are ___ to the bones. 1. Posterior/lateral 2. Superior/superficial 3. Inferior/deep 4. Cranial/distal

Superior/superficial

Which of these forms of anatomy is NOT paired with its definition? 1. Regional anatomy/anatomical organization of specific areas of the body 2. Systemic anatomy/anatomical organization of specific areas of the body 3. Developmental anatomy/study from conception through maturity 4. Pathological anatomy/study of anatomical features during illness

Systemic anatomy/anatomical organization of specific areas of the body

Wine has a pH of 3. This means that compared to tomatoes that have a pH of 4.... 1.Wine is closer to neutral pH than tomatoes. 2.The concentration of hydrogen ions is 10 times as great in the wine as in a tomato and both are acidic. 3.The concentration of hydroxide ions is ten times as great in the tomato as in the wine and both are basic. 4.The concentration of hydrogen ions is 100 times as great in the wine as the tomato and both are acidic.

The concentration of hydrogen ions is 10 times as great in the wine as in a tomato and both are acidic.

What is the clinical significance of a cut in the skin made parallel to lines of cleavage? 1. The cut will likely scar due to severed collagen and elastic fibers 2. The cut will heal with little scarring because collagen and elastic fibers are located in parallel bundles along lines of cleavage 3. The papillary and reticular layer of the dermis would become separated from each other 4. Melanin and carotene will dissipate from the epidermis leaving a scar

The cut will heal with little scarring because collagen and elastic fibers are located in parallel bundles along lines of cleavage

Which level of protein structure would be affected by an agent that breaks hydrogen bonds? 1.The primary level of protein structure 2.The secondary level of protein structure 3.The tertiary level of protein structure 4.The protein structure would NOT be affected by this agent

The secondary level of protein structure

Which of the following is NOT a serous membrane? a.pericardium b.pleura c.peritoneum d.They are all serous membranes.

They are all serous membranes.

What is the functional significance of gap junctions? 1.They maintain water-tight passages. 2.They resist stretching and twisting. 3.They share ions between adjacent cells 4.They attach cells to extracellular matrix.

They share ions between adjacent cells

Lack of vitamin C in the diet interferes with the ability of fibroblasts to produce collagen. What effect might this interference have on connective tissue? 1.Tissue is unable to phagocytize. 2.Tissue is unable to produce melanin. 3.Tissue is weak and prone to damage. 4.Tissue is unable to produce heparin.

Tissue is weak and prone to damage.

Certain cells in the ovaries and testes contain large amounts of smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER). Why? 1. To produce large amounts of proteins 2. To digest materials quickly 3. To store large amounts of hormones 4. To produce large amounts of steroid hormones

To produce large amounts of steroid hormones

Why was International Anatomical Terminology written? 1. We need to honor accomplishments of famous anatomists 2. A repository of antiquated eponymous terms 3. To serve as the universal standard of anatomical vocabulary 4. A catalogue of famous medical schools

To serve as the universal standard of anatomical vocabulary

The ___ peritoneum surrounds organs and the ___ peritoneum lines the ____. This membrane functions to ____. 1. Dural/parietal/cranial cavity/separate brain and spinal cord 2. Pleural/pericardial/thoracic cavity/protect internal structures 3. Visceral/parietal/abdominopelvic cavity/allow organs to slide across each other 4. Parietal/visceral/thoracic cavity/allow expansion of organs

Visceral/parietal/abdominopelvic cavity/allow organs to slide across each other

Growth of cartilage from within cartilage is termed ________. a)interstitial growth b)remodeling c)appositional growth d)endochondral growth

a)interstitial growth

The most important characteristic for designating a bone as a long bone is _________. a)its elongated shape b)its total length c)its length relative to other bones d)its location in the body

a)its elongated shape

An epithelial surface bears many microvilli. What is the probable function of this epithelium? 1.absorption 2.secretion 3.transportation 4.sensation

absorption

A football player received a blow to the upper surface of his shoulder, causing a shoulder separation. What does this mean? 1.breaking of the clavicle and scapula 2.partial dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint 3.complete dislocation of the acromioclavicular joint 4.2 and 3

acromioclavicular joint 4.2 and 3

Which type of connective tissue contains primarily triglycerides? 1.areolar 2.adipose 3.reticular 4.mesenchyme

adipose

Cancer may result after mutations in a.genes regulating cell growth b.genes regulating differentiation c.genes regulating cell division d.all of the above

all of the above

Epithelial tissue has several distinctive properties. Which correctly lists these properties? a.avascular and cellularity b.polarity and regeneration c.lines surfaces and attached to basement membrane d.all of the above

all of the above

True body cavities are ______ . a.closed b.lined by a serosa c.filled with fluid d.all of the above

all of the above

What happens to the body when homeostasis breaks down? 1. disease 2. organ systems malfunction 3. death 4. all of the above

all of the above

What is/are goals and functions of a negative feedback system? 1. Providing long-term control over the body's internal conditions 2. Keeping conditions within a normal range 3. Adjusting the "set point" for body temperature based upon level of activity 4. all of the above

all of the above

Fibrocartilage would be found at which location? a)Elbow b)Knee c)Larynx d)External ear

b)Knee

Most organic molecules in a cell are replaced at intervals ranging from hours to months. This average time is _______. a.catabolic rate b.turnover time c.rate of incorporation d.clotting time

b.turnover time

Which two types of connective tissue have a fluid matrix? 1.lymph and cartilage 2.cartilage and bone 3.blood and bone 4.blood and lymph

blood and lymph

Which pair of the following methods of carrier-mediated transport is paired with its function? a.active transport / it is dependent on a concentration gradient b.facilitated diffusion / substances are bound to a receptor and passed across the cell membrane by carrier proteins c.sodium-potassium pump / moves Na+ outside the cell and K+ inside the cell d.both B and C

both B and C

The terms "long," "short," "flat," and "irregular" are used to classify bones based on their ________. a)tissue content b)function c)shape d)weight

c)shape

The antiangiogenesis factor is found in a.bone b.skin c.heart d.cartilage

cartilage

Which type of anatomy listed below is NOT an example of gross anatomy? a.surface anatomy b.regional anatomy c.cellular anatomy d.systemic anatomy

cellular anatomy

What is the most abundant protein fiber in connective tissue? a.elastin b.collagen c.fibrinogen d.all of the above

collagen

Which of the following is not a type of cartilage? a)Hyaline b)Elastic c)Fibrocartilage d)Dense regular

d) Dense regular

Parkinson's disease is a neurodegenerative disease characterized by the loss of what type of neuron? a.sensory b.motor c.dopamine-producing d.photoreceptors

dopamine-producing

A gland has no ducts to carry the glandular secretions, and the gland's secretions are released directly into the extracellular fluid. Which type of gland is this? 1.exocrine gland 2.endocrine gland 3.acinar gland 4.tubular gland

endocrine gland

Which transport process involves the movement of a substance down a concentration gradient, without using ATP and utilizing a carrier protein? a.facilitated diffusion b.osmosis c.active transport d.endocytosis

facilitated diffusion

If a person has a herniated intervertebral disc, which type of cartilage has been damaged? 1.elastic cartilage 2.fibrocartilage 3.hyaline cartilage 4.areolar cartilage

fibrocartilage

The secretory cells of sebaceous glands fill with secretions and then rupture, releasing their contents. Which type of secretion is this? 1.acinar 2.apocrine 3.merocrine 4.holocrine

holocrine

What is NOT true of the lymphatic system? a.defends against infection b.includes the liver and the pancreas c.returns fluids to the bloodstream d.includes the tonsils and the thymus

includes the liver and the pancreas

The pleura is ______ to the pericardium and _______ to the diaphragm. a.posterior; lateral b.superior; superficial c.lateral; deep d.lateral; superior

lateral; superior

Auscultation is the process of a.palpation b.observing changes in superficial blood flow c.balancing an appendage d.listening to the sounds of internal organs

listening to the sounds of internal organs

Which type of section would separate/divide the body down the midline between the eyes? 1. transverse section 2. coronal section 3. parasagittal section 4. midsagittal section

midsagittal section

Amy complains of pain in a structure located in the superior and medial part of her body. Which structure fits this description? a.auris b.hallux c.nasus d.patella

nasus

Most examples of extrinsic regulation of organ systems in the human body will be controlled via ________. a.negative feedback b.positive feedback c.autoregulation d.homeostasis

negative feedback

Identify the cell type below that assists the function of neurons and has a supportive role within the nervous system. a.neuroglia b.interneurons c.adipocytes d.goblet cells

neuroglia

A tissue contains irregularly shaped cells with many fibrous projections, some several centimeters long. These are probably which type of cell? 1.neuroglia 2.neurons 3.myocytes 4.adipocytes

neurons

Which cavities in the body are lined by serous membranes? 1.cranial and abdominal 2.pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial 3.synovial and fascial 4.nasal, urinary and reproductive

pleural, peritoneal, and pericardial

Blood clotting is an example of ________. a.negative feedback b.insensible water loss c.positive feedback d.an electrolyte imbalance

positive feedback

What term below describes the cell membrane? a.semipermeable b.freely permeable c.impermeable d.nonpermeable

semipermeable

An adhesion develops inside the body when _______ membranes are damaged. a.mucous b.synovial c.cutaneous d.serous

serous

Germ cells are also known as a.somatic cells b.sex cells c.liver cells d.white blood cells

sex cells

The epithelia that line the body cavities and blood vessels is called _______. a.simple columnar b.simple cuboidal c.simple squamous d.transitional

simple squamous

Which type of muscle cell has multiple nuclei, sarcomeres, and multiple mitochondria? a.skeletal b.cardiac c.smooth d.all of the above

skeletal

Which type of muscle tissue has small, tapering cells with single nuclei and no obvious striations? 1.skeletal 2.cardiac 3.smooth 4.all of the above

smooth

Which terms below are mismatched? a.liver/abdominal cavity b.lungs/pleural cavity c.stomach/pelvic cavity d.bladder/pelvic cavity

stomach/pelvic cavity

During gene activation, histones are a.synthesized b.wrapped with DNA strands c.temporarily removed d.hydrolyzed

temporarily removed

If a surgeon makes an incision just inferior to the diaphragm, which body cavity will be opened? 1. the abdominopelvic cavity 2. the pleural cavity 3. the dorsal cavity 4. the pericardial cavity

the abdominopelvic cavity

If skeletal muscle cells in adults are incapable of dividing, how is new skeletal muscle formed? 1.through the enlarging and splitting of existing cells 2.through the atrophy of existing cells 3.through the addition of new striations 4.through the division and fusion of satellite cells

through the division and fusion of satellite cells

At which level of organization does a histologist investigate structures? 1. molecular 2. organ 3. tissue 4. cellular

tissue

Which of the following is NOT a function of membrane proteins? a.to bind specific ligands b.to anchor or stabilize the cell membrane c.to produce energy for the cell d.to regulate ion passage

to produce energy for the cell

Which epithelial tissue would be found lining the ureters and urinary bladder? a.simple columnar epithelial tissue b.stratified squamous epithelial tissue c.transitional epithelial tissue d.simple cuboidal epithelial tissue

transitional epithelial tissue

Which nitrogenous base is NOT found within the structure of DNA? a.thymine b.uracil c.cytosine d.guanine

uracil

Exfoliative cytology is the study of cells that shed or are removed from an epithelial surface. Which of the following would NOT be an example of exfoliative cytology? -when a doctor performs amniocentesis -when a sample of stomach fluid is analyzed -when a doctor performs a bone biopsy -when a pap smear is performed

when a doctor performs a bone biopsy

One advantage of a spiral CT scanner over a standard CT scanner is the lower _______. a.photon level b.resolution of images c.x-ray dosage d.acquisition speed

x-ray dosage