Applied Anatomy II - Questions

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

B (Tensor Fascia Lata)

A 16-year-old ballerina dancer arrived to your PT clinic with complaints of muscular pain in her leg. You noted she has trouble with hip abduction, flexion, and internal rotation. Which muscle is most likely affected? a. Sartorius b. Tensor Fascia Lata c. Rectus Femoris d. Semitendinosus

C (Patient prone with Goniometer Fulcrum: Anterior aspect of Patella, Proximal Arm: Perpendicular to floor, Distal Arm: Tibial crest midway between two malleoli)

A patient comes in and appears to have limited external rotation of the hip. You decide to take goniometric measurements but your patient is unable to sit due to a sacral ulcer. How would you take the measurement? a. Pt. seated on a cushion with Goniometer Fulcrum: Anterior aspect of Patella, Proximal Arm: Perpendicular to floor, Distal Arm: Tibial crest midway between two malleoli b. Patient supine with Goniometer. Fulcrum: Anterior aspect of Patella, Proximal Arm: Perpendicular to floor, Distal Arm: Tibial crest midway between two malleoli c. Patient prone with Goniometer Fulcrum: Anterior aspect of Patella, Proximal Arm: Perpendicular to floor, Distal Arm: Tibial crest midway between two malleoli d. Patient prone with Goniometer Fulcrum: Tibial Tuberosity, Proximal Arm: Parallel to floor, Distal Arm: 1st Metatarsal

B (Semitendinosus--because the question describes the insertion of the semitendinosus {pes anserine} and the SLR confirms a problem in the hamstrings versus the adductor muscles)

A patient comes to see you for pain in their leg. When asked exactly where, they said "my pain is right below my knee cap and on the front/inner side, as well as spreading to the back of my leg". You do a SLR test during your examination and find that the hamstrings muscle length is short (the hamstrings are tight). Which hamstring muscle is mostly affected? a. Semimembranosus b. Semitendinosus c. Biceps Femoris d. Gracilis

D (Anterior Talofibular Ligament)

A patient comes to see you three days after spraining their ankle during a soccer game. During the examination you find edema in the area slightly anterior to the lateral malleolus, on the superolateral side of the dorsum of the foot. The patient reports pain when you invert and plantarflex the ankle/foot. Which ligament has most likely been injured? a. Calcaneofibular Ligament b. Posterior Talofibular Ligament c. Deltoid Ligament d. Anterior Talofibular Ligament

C (Able to complete 10-19 repetitions.... Grade 5 = 20+ reps; Grade 4 = 10-19 reps; Grade 3 = 1-9 reps)

A patient performs a standing MMT of the ankle plantar flexors. The therapist observes the patient's performance and gives it a Grade of 4. What indicates a Grade 4 for this MMT? a. Able to complete more than 20 repetitions b. Able to complete 20 repetitions c. Able to complete 10-19 repetitions d. Able to complete 1-9 repetitions

A (active hip flexion, hip adduction, hip extension)

A patient presents to the clinic complaining of pain on the medial aspect of the knee. The patient claims they felt a "pull" on posteromedial side on the knee while sprinting. You suspect a strain in one of the pes anserine muscles. After palpating the common insertion at the pes anserine, what actions do you perform to differentiate between the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus? (Reichert p. 153) A. active hip flexion, hip adduction, hip extension B. passive hip flexion, hip adduction, hip extension C. active hip flexion, passive hip adduction and hip extension D. passive hip flexion, active hip adduction and hip extension

E (A & C -- Swimming & Running)

A patient presents with tight hip flexors and you decide stretch them out by performing a Thomas test stretch. What activity/activities is this most likely to help with? (Lab Manual page 10) a. Swimming b. Doing sit ups at the gym c. Running d. Performing a stoop lift to get luggage out of a car e. A and C

B (Prone, knee flexed at 90)

A patient that comes into the clinic with a 2/5 strength in the tibialis anterior. Which of these positions would be best to check their ROM in gravity eliminated for this muscle? (NW p. .272) a. Supine, leg on table with knee extended b. Prone, knee flexed at 90 c. Sidelying with knee extended d. Seated with knee flexed at 90

C (120 degrees)

According to AAOS, what is the normal range for hip flexion? a. 100 degrees b. 110 degrees c. 120 degrees d. 130 degrees

A (Soleus)

According to Kendall, which of these muscles is a one-joint plantar flexor? (Kendall p. 375) a. Soleus b. Plantaris c. Tibialis Anterior d. Gastrocnemius

D (The weight bearing position will provide relevant information for performance of functional activities)

According to Norkin & White, why would a physical therapist measure a patient's dorsiflexion in a weight-bearing position such as standing? (NW p. 354) a. The patient cannot lie down long enough for the physical therapist to measure his/her ankle. b. Standing is the best way to control substitute motions of the hindfoot and forefoot. c. The physical therapist wants a larger measurement to report in the reassessment. d. The weight bearing position will provide relevant information for performance of functional activities.

B (Sartorius)

After completion of a Thomas test, the patient's femur is externally rotated, flexed off the table, and abducted. What muscle is shortened? (Lab manual p.17 MLT of Hip and Knee) A) rectus femoris B) sartorius C) biceps femoris D) illiopsoas

D (Anterior Talofibular ligament)

An 18-year-old soccer player arrived to the clinic with a possibly sprained ankle. During the game, his ankle was injured with inversion and planter flexion. Which ligament was most likely injured? a. Deltoid ligament b. ACL c. Fibularis Brevis d. Anterior Talofibular ligament

A (plantarflexion and inversion)

As a therapist when completing a MMT for peroneus tertis what direction are you applying resistance? a. plantarflexion and inversion b. plantarflexion and eversion c. dorsiflexion and inversion d. dorsiflexion and eversion

C (Dorsalis Pedis artery)

At which artery on the anterior ankle can you detect a pulse? A) Femoral artery B) Arcuate artery C) Dorsalis Pedis artery D) Lateral Plantar artery

B (Frontal plane; anterior-posterior axis)

Because of the uniaxial limitations of the goniometer, eversion of the foot (tarsal joint) is measured in the ____ around a(n) ____. (NW p. 360) a. Sagittal plane; medial-lateral axis b. Frontal plane; anterior-posterior axis c. Transverse plane; vertical axis d. Frontal plane; medial-lateral axis

A (Flexor hallucis longus)

Contracture at which of these muscles would result in claw-toe deformity of the great toe? (Kendall p. 402) a. Flexor hallucis longus b. Extensor hallucis longus c. Extensor hallucis brevis d. Flexor digitorum longus

C (passive insufficiency of the gastrocnemius)

Dorsiflexion ROM measured with the knee extended is usually less than that with the knee flexed due to which of the following components? a.) passive insufficiency of the tibialis anterior b.) active insufficiency of the tibialis anterior c.) passive insufficiency of the gastrocnemius d.) active insufficiency of the gastrocnemius

C (During a straight leg raise)

During MLT's when is it appropriate to use a pillow? a. It is never appropriate b. During an ober test c. During a straight leg raise d. During a Thomas test

C (medially rotate at the hip--allowing them to substitute using the TFL)

During the quadricep MMT how will a patient compensate if the quads are weak? (421, Kendal) a. lean the trunk back b. flex at the hip c. medially rotate at the hip d. side bend to the same side

B (Anterior shoulder)

For ilipsoas MMT where does the therapist apply counterpressure? a. the scapula b. anterior shoulder c. opposite leg d. the humerus

D (20 reps)

How many reps need to be completed to receive an MMT grade of 5 for a functional MMT of the plantar flexors (gastrocnemius and soleus)? A) 5 reps B) 10 reps C) 15 reps D) 20 reps

C (47-66 degrees-----Depends on dimensions of stairs but approximately 47-66 degrees)

How much hip flexion is necessary for ascending the stairs? (NW p. 294) a. 111-120 degrees b. 102-112 degrees c. 47-66 degrees d. 32-45 degrees

B (Tibialis Anterior)

If a patient walks in with comes in with a drop foot gait and is showing a tendency towards eversion of the foot, which MMT would you administer to rule in weakness? (Kendall P. 410) A) Extensor digiti minimi B) Tibialis Anterior C) Tibialis Posterior D) Peroneus brevis

C (Numbness between the first and second toes)

If someone receives a cut on the dorsum of the foot severing the dorsalis pedis artery and neighboring nerve, what sensory loss will accompany that? A) numbness of the dorsum of the foot B) Numbness of the 5th toe C) Numbness between the first and second toes D) Numbess between the second and third toes

D (Foot drop)

If the anterior compartment structures of the leg are compressed, what findings will likely occur? A)Decreased Hip extension B) Decreased sensation of heel C) Increased dorsiflexion D) Foot Drop

B (Foot drop)

If there was damage to the sciatic nerve, what could occur? a. Loss of knee extension b. Foot drop c. Loss of hip flexion d. Loss of blood flow to the knee

D (Achilles Tendon rupture)

If you squeeze the posterior part of the leg, and there is no dorsiflexion, what is that indicative of? a. Anterior Tibialis rupture b. Pinson sign c. Thomas sign d. Achilles Tendon rupture

B (Tibial external rotation)

In full knee extension, what rotation is referred to as the screw-home mechanism? (NW p. 316) a. Tibial internal rotation b. Tibial external rotation c. Femoral abduction d. Femoral external rotation

C (Internal rotation and flexion)

In non-weight bearing, the popliteus muscle does what movements of the tibia? (Kendall p. 416) a. flexion and external rotation b. External rotation and extension c. Internal rotation and flexion d. extension and internal rotation

C (Gastrocnemius and Plantaris; they are two-joint plantar flexors)

MLT of the ________ muscles is performed with the patient's knees in extension because _________. a. Soleus and Popliteus; they are two-joint dorsiflexors b. Soleus and Popliteus; they are one-joint plantar flexors c. Gastrocnemius and Plantaris; they are two-joint plantar flexors d. Gastrocnemius and Plantaris; they are one-joint plantar flexors

A (posterior talofibular ligament)

P/t comes in complaining of p! of lateral ankle. Patient claims to have sprained foot and has bruising over lateral malleolus. Testing concludes normal movement with some pain when INV of foot, as well as INV & PF of foot are performed. When testing INV & DF, there is a considerable increase in pain and excessive movement. Which ligament could be affected? (Reichert p. 172) a. Posterior Talofibular Ligament b. Anterior Tibiotalar Ligament c. Calcaneofibular Ligament d. Anterior Talofibular Ligament

B (Sartorius, Gracilis, SemiTendinosis---SGT)

Place the following muscle tendons in order from superficial to deep. a. Gracilis, Semitendinosis, Sartorius b. Sartorius, Gracilis, Semitendinosis c. Semitendinosus, Gracilis, Sartorius d. Sartorius, semitendinosis, Gracilis

D (93 degrees--It requires a mean range of 90-95 degrees, D is within this range)

Rising from a chair requires approximately how much knee flexion? (NW p. 333) a. 80 Degrees b. 120 Degrees c. 73 Degrees d. 93 Degrees

D (Eversion)

Someone would be likely to injure their deltoid ligament due to excessive... A) Plantarflexion B) Dorsiflexion C) Inversion D) Eversion

B (Extensor Hallucis Longus and Anterior Tibialis)

The Dorsalis Pedal Artery is located between what two tendons? a. Extensor Digitorum Longus and Anterior Tibialis b. Extensor Hallucis Longus and Anterior Tibialis c. Extensor Digitorum Longus and Extensor Hallucis Longus d. Achilles and Extensor Hallucis Longus

B (Good 4/5)

The ability to perform 10 repetitions of single leg calf raises before fatigue indicates what muscle strength grade for the plantarflexor muscles? a) Normal 5/5 b) Good 4/5 c) Fair 3/5 d) Poor 2/5

C (Distal Hamstring length test)

The common name for Popliteal Angle test is: (NW p. 326) a. Thomas test b. Obers test c. Distal Hamstring length test d. IR/ER hip test

A (TIbial nerve)

The lateral plantar nerve is a branch from which nerve? a. TIbial nerve b. Deep FIbular c. Superficial Fibular d. Femoral

B (Substitution by the tibialis posterior and toe flexors)

The therapist performs a prone MMT of the soleus muscle. The therapist was unable to move the patient into plantar flexion. The therapist observes that the patient attempted to invert their foot during the test. What does this observation indicate? (Kendall p. 414) a. Substitution by the gastrocnemius b. Substitution by the tibialis posterior and toe flexors c. Substitution by the peroneus longus d. Substitution by the peroneus tertius

C (1. Gracilis; 2. Medial Hamstrings)

This muscles orgin is on the pubis (1); This muscles orgin arises from the ischium (2). (Kendall p. 417) a. 1. Sartorius; 2. Gracilis b. 1. Adductor longus; 2. Quadriceps femoris c. 1. Gracilis; 2. Medial Hamstrings d. 1. Gluteus Max; 2. Pectinus

A (Ipsilateral pelvis; imaginary line extending from one ASIS to the other)

To accurately measure hip adduction, placement of the stabilizing hand and proximal arm of goniometer should be where? a. Ipsilateral pelvis; imaginary line extending from one ASIS to the other b. Contralateral pelvis; imaginary line extending from one ASIS to the other c. Ipsilateral pelvis; midline of the patella d. Contralateral pelvis; midline of the patella

C (evert & PF the foot)

To ensure you're palpating the Peroneus Brevis tendon, you can _______. (Reichert p. 185) a. Invert and DF the foot b. Pronate the foot c. Evert & PF the foot d. Supinate the foot

A (Deep Peroneal)

Weakness with dorsiflexion and inversion, as well as, sensory loss in the web space between the hallucis and second toe would involve the damage to which nerve? a) Deep Peroneal b) Common Peroneal c) Tibial nerve d) Femoral nerve

D (fulcrum at lateral malleolus, distal arm at 5th metatarsal)

What are the anatomical landmarks for the fulcrum and distal arm when measuring goniometry of ankle dorsiflexion? a. fulcrum at medial malleolus, distal arm at 1st metatarsal b. fulcrum at medial malleolus, distal arm at 5th metatarsal c. fulcrum at lateral malleolus, distal arm at 1st metatarsal d. fulcrum at lateral malleolus, distal arm at 5th metatarsal

B (supine and <90 degrees at the knees)

What are two differences seen when measuring talocrural dorsiflexion in the alternate position vs. the recommended position? a. supine and >90 degrees at the knees b. supine and <90 degrees at the knees c. seated and 90 degrees at the knees d. seated and >90 degrees at the knees

C (IT Band)

What attaches at the Gerdy's tubercle? a. Popliteus muscle b.. Semimembranosus c. IT Band d. Patella ligament

A (one foot going on toes 20x)

What determines a grade 5 for gastrocnemius MMT? a. one foot going on toes 20x b. jumping one hop on one foot c. squatting on one foot 10x d. sitting down with feet planted while going up and down on toes 20x

C (20 degrees)

What is normal hip extension ROM according to the AAOS? a. 30 degrees b. 40 degrees c. 20 degrees d. 10 degrees

D (Side-lying)

What is one way to make the MMT test for peroneous longus more anti-gravity? (Kendall p. 412) a. Supine b. Prone c. Seated d. Side-lying

A (Fingertip-to-thigh)

What is the best measurement to take of thoracolumbar lateral flexion that is relative to person's body structure? a. Fingertip-to-thigh b. Goniometer c. Inclinometer d. Fingertip-to-floor

A (Anterior Talofibular ligament)

What is the most commonly injured ligament associated with an ankle sprain? a. Anterior Talofibular Ligament b. Posterior Talofibular Ligament c. Anterior Talotibial Ligament d. Tibionavicular Ligament

B (20 º)

What is the normal ROM according to the AAOS for dorsiflexion of the talocrural joint? A. 45 º B. 20 º C. 30 º D. 10 º

B (20 º)

What is the normal ROM according to the AAOS for dorsiflexion of the talocrural joint? a. 45 º b. 20 º c. 30 º d. 10 º

B (Firm, Posterior Joint capsule)

What is the normal end-feel for knee extension? a. Hard, Patella on Femur b. Firm, Posterior Joint capsule c. Soft, Quadriceps Femoris blocking patella d. Firm, Hamstring tightness

A (20 degrees)

What is the normal range for ankle dorsiflexion? a. 20 degrees b. 50 degrees c. 70 degrees d. 90 degrees

C (Medial Rotation)

What motion has significant marked restriction in the hip when a capsular pattern is developed? a. Lateral Rotation b. Adduction c. Medial Rotation d. Both A and B

B (Plantarflex, inversion, adduction)

What motions occur with supination? a. Dorsiflex, inversion, abduction b. Plantarflex, inversion, adduction c. Plantarflex, eversion, adduction d. Plantarflex, inversion, abduction

A (Fibularis Brevis)

What muscle attaches to the base of the 5th metatarsal? a. Fibularis Brevis b. Fibularis Longis c. Posterior Tibialis d. Anterior Tibialis

D (Deep fibular)

What nerve is damaged when a patient is experiencing "foot drop"? A) Sural B) Common fibular C) Tibial D) Deep fibular

B (Gracilis, Semitendinosus, Sartorius)

What three structures' insertions are located at the pes anserine? a. Biceps femoris, Iliotibial band, Rectus Femoris b. Gracilis, Semitendinosus, Sartorius c. Semimembranosus, Gracilis, Sartorius d. Adductor Longus, Semitendinosus, Sartorius

A (prone and sitting)

What two positions are likely when measuring hip external rotation? a. prone and sitting b. prone and supine c. supine and sitting d. on side of plinth and sitting

A (TFL tightness)

When completing a Thomas test and you observe hip abduction, hip IR, and lateral patella glide, this would suggest what? a. TFL tightness b. Sartorius Tightness c. Tight Soleus d. Tight Adductor longus

C (Inversion / Dorsiflexion)

When doing MMT for the peroneus longus, in which direction if pressure applied? (Kendal p. 412) a. Inversion/plantarflexion b. Eversion/dorsiflexion c. Inversion/dorsiflexion d. Eversion/plantarflexion

A (Dorsiflexion & eversion)

When doing a MMT for tibialis posterior you would apply pressure in what direction? a. dorsiflexion and eversion b. dorsiflexion and inversion c. plantarflexion and eversion d. plantarflexion and inversion

B (sartorius)

When doing the Thomas Test, you observe that the patient's hip is slightly flexed, externally rotated, and abducted with the knee in slight flexion. Which muscle is tight? a. Rectus Femoris b. Sartorius c. Tensor Fascia Latae d. Biceps Femori

A (dorsal midline of second metatarsal)

When measuring ankle eversion, the distal (moving) arm is aligned with what structure? (Reference: Ankle eversion video on BB) A) dorsal midline of second metatarsal B) dorsal midline of third metatarsal C) 2nd cuniform D) cuboid

C (Midline of 2nd metatarsal)

When measuring ankle inversion ROM, where is the distal arm aligned? (NW p. 359) a. Midline of foot b. Great toe c. Midline of 2nd metatarsal d. Midline of the lower leg

B (Gastrocnemius)

When measuring dorsiflexion of the talocrural joint, which muscle might limit the amount of ROM a patient presents with in that specific joint? (NW p. 352) a. Plantaris b. Gastrocnemius c. Fibularis Longus d. Soleus

C (in line with and on top of the 2nd metatarsal)

When measuring inversion of the talocrural joint where is the moving arm of the goniometer? a. lined up parallel with 5th metatarsal b. along the fibula c. in line with and on top of the 2nd metatarsal d. along the medial side of the 1st metatarsal

B (Good (8/10))

When performing a lower abdominal leg lowering MMT, the patient's pelvis begins to tilt anteriorly at about 50 degrees from the vertical start position. What grade is appropriate? (Kendall p. 212) a. Normal (10/10) b. Good (8/10) c. Good - (7/10) d. Good + (9/10)

C (Apply pressure against the calcaneus only)

When performing an MMT for Peroneus Longus and Peroneus Brevis your patient cannot resist the normal location where pressure is applied, how would you adjust your pressure? (Kendall p. 413) a. Apply pressure against the forefoot and calcaneus b. Apply pressure against the medial surface of the foot c. Apply pressure against the calcaneus only d. Apply pressure against the lateral surface of the foot

C (Tight Sartorius muscle)

When performing the Thomas Test, a finding of the hip being externally rotated, abducted, and flexed would indicate what? a. Tight Tensor Fascia Latae muscle b. Tight Rectus Femoris muscle c. Tight Sartorius muscle d. Tight Iliotibial Band

C (iliopsoas)

When performing the Thomas Test, the patient's right knee is flexed and held in their arms, and their left hip is slightly flexed with their knee flexed to about 80 degrees. What muscle needs to be stretched to improve their test performance in the future based on this description? (Kendall p. 377-380) a. sartorius b. quadriceps femoris c. iliopsoas d. biceps femoris

A (Tibialis posterior and toe flexors)

When testing MMT for the soleus, contraction of what muscles might be present when the patient goes into inversion of the foot? (Kendall p. 414) a. Tibialis posterior and toe flexors b. Peroneals c. Gastrocenemius d. Hamstrings

A (Hip Extension, hip adduction, hip medial rotation, and knee extension)

When testing the strength of the sartorius what direction of resistance should be applied to the lower leg? a) Hip Extension, hip adduction, hip medial rotation, and knee extension b) Hip Flexion, Hip abduction, hip internal rotation, and knee flexion c) Hip extension, hip adduction, hip internal rotation, knee flexion d) Hip extension, hip abduction, hip medial rotation, knee extension

C (Navicular tuberosity)

Where does the tibialis posterior insert? (Kendall p. 411) a. Tubercle of the 5th metatarsal b. First phalanx c. Navicular tuberosity d. Neck of the talus

A (Dorsiflexion and eversion)

Where is the direction of pressure for an MMT of posterior tibialis? (Kendall p. 411) a. Dorsiflexion and eversion b. Plantar flexion and inversion c. Dorsiflexion and inversion d. Tibiocalcaneal ligament

B (Talipes equinovarus: Ankle joint plantarflexed & foot inverted)

Which of the below describes the congenital foot and ankle deformity, known as "clubfoot"? (Kendall p. 405) a. Talipes valgus: Foot everted & accompanied by flattening of the longitudinal arch b. Talipes equinovarus: Ankle joint plantarflexed & foot inverted c. Talipes cavus: Ankle joint dorsiflexed & forefoot plantarflexed, resulting in a high longitudinal arch (weight bearing on the calcaneus shifts posteriorly). d. Talipes equinovalgus: Ankle joint plantarflexed & foot everted.

A) Adduction

Which of the following actions cannot be performed by the gluteus medius muscle? a.) Adduction b.) Abduction c.) Internal rotation d.) Flexion

D (semimembranosus)

Which of the following does NOT attach at the pes anserine? a. semitendinosus b. sartorius c. gracilis d. semimembranosus

B (Reduced tension on the patella)

Which of the following is a benefit of the modified ober test? (NW p. 287) a. Increased tension on the medial aspect of the knee b. Reduced tension on the patella c. Involvement of the rectus femoris muscle d. Reduced strain on the lateral aspect of the knee

A (Long sitting)

Which of the following is an incorrect patient position when measuring dorsiflexion? a. Long sitting b. Prone with knee flexed to 90 degrees c. Seated with knee flexed to 90 degrees d. Standing

D (Tibiocalcaneal ligament)

Which of the following structures would NOT be injured with a lateral sprain(inversion)? a. Anterior Talofibular Ligament b. Posterior Talofibular Ligament c. Calcaneofibular ligament d. Tibiocalcaneal ligament

B (soft)

Which of the following would be considered a normal end-feel for knee flexion? a. firm b. soft c. hard d. empty

A (The pelvis drops down on the left side)

Which of the following would be expected in a patient as they support their weight on their right leg when they have a weak right gluteus medius? a. The pelvis drops down on the left side b. The pelvis drops down on the right side c. The pelvis will not be affected d. They will have a significant anterior pelvic tilt

A (Knee flexed and internally rotated)

Which of these correctly tests the MMT for hip internal rotators? (Kendall p. 429) a. Knee flexed and internally rotated b. Knee flexed and externally rotated c. Knee extended and internally rotated d. Knee extended and externally rotated

A (Calcaneofibular ligament)

Which of these ligaments is NOT part of the deltoid ligament as a whole? (Ankle and Foot Concepts and Palpation PowerPoint slide 4) a. Calcaneofibular ligament b. Tibionavicular ligament c. Anterior tibiotalar ligament d. Tibiocalcaneal ligament

B (Soleus)

While performing a postural assessment it is noted that the patient has deviation of the body forward from the plump line. During the examination the physical therapist should be sure to test the strength of which of the following muscles? a.) Tibialis Anterior b.) Soleus c.) Tibialis Posterior d.) Peroneus Longus

A (IT band/TFL)

While performing the Ober test the PT was not able to passively bring the patients' leg 10˚ below the horizon. During the therapy session the PT should focus on stretching which muscle? a.) IT band/TFL b.) Glut max c.) Sartorius d.) Quad

A (Leaning back--This may be an attempt to release hamstring tension and maximize the action of the rectus femoris.)

You are doing a MMT of the quadriceps femoris muscle on your patient. You notice they are compensating, what is an example of a common compensation? (Kendall p. 421) a. Leaning back b. Side bending c. Leaning forward d. Plantar flexing foot

B (Firm. Due to capsule, ligament, tensor fasciae latae muscles, gluteus medius, and gluteus minimus.-----Endfeel firm due to tension in the superior (lateral) joint capsule and the superior band of the iliofemoral ligament. Hip abductor muscles also contribute to this firm endfeel.)

You are doing a goniometric measurement on patients hip adductors. End feel is found to be normal. What is end feel and what contributes to this? (NW p. 264) a. Firm. Due to capsule, ligament, adductor longus, adductor brevis, and adductor magnus. b. Firm. Due to capsule, ligament, tensor fasciae latae muscles, gluteus medius, and gluteus minimus. c. Hard. Due to capsule and bone to bone contact. d. Soft. Due to soft tissue approximation of testing leg making contact with non-testing leg. Cannot move farther.

A (Have pt. perform iliopsoas test supine)

You are performing Iliopsoas MMT and see that your patient is extending their trunk. What is your next move? a. Have pt. perform iliopsoas test supine b. Record strength with their compensations c. Move on to strengthening d. MLT iliopsoas

A (Lateral rotation and abduction --The Sartorius muscle flexes, laterally rotates, and abducts the hip joint. It also flexes, and assists in medial rotation of the knee joint)

You are performing Thomas Test and your patient has tight sartorius. What position will the hip be resting in during this test? (NW p. 276) a. Lateral rotation and abduction b. Medial rotation and abduction c. Lateral rotation and adduction d. Medial rotation and adduction

B (Weakness of the hamstrings, the ankle is dorsiflexing to elongate the gastroc to make it a more effective knee flexor)

You are performing an MMT for gross hamstring strength of a patient. While applying pressure, you determine the patient's strength to be a 4- by the amount of resistance they are providing. However, you feel they are somewhat shaky for a 4- grade, and you then notice that the ankle is dorsiflexed while the patient is resisting. What could the ankle dorsiflexion indicate? (Kendall p. 417) A. Tension of the hamstrings can cause ankle dorsiflexion as a kinetic chain response, it is normal B. Weakness of the hamstrings, the ankle is dorsiflexing to elongate the gastroc to make it a more effective knee flexor C. Tightness of the hamstrings causing the ankle to dorsiflex D. Weakness of the hamstrings, causing the tibialis anterior to attempt to compensate by dorsiflexing the ankle

C (Incorrect position, hand should be over the lateral leg above the ankle joint)

You are performing an MMT on a patient's tibialis posterior. You have your stabilizing hand on the medial side of the ankle, just anterior to the medial malleolus. Is this the correct stabilizing position? If not, what is the correct hand placement? (Kendall p. 411) A. Incorrect position, hand should be over the medial malleolus B. Correct position, no adjustment needed C. Incorrect position, hand should be over the lateral leg above the ankle joint B. Incorrect position, hand should be under the gastroc heads

D (tight hip flexors, passively flex non-test leg and place a pillow under knee)

You are testing a patient's hamstring length using the straight leg raise test. You have the patient fully extend and actively raise their leg, the test demonstrates hamstring shortness. You observe the patient and notice that their lower back is not flat on the plinth. What could be the cause of this, and what factors would you change regarding the test position to ensure a true test result? A. tight hamstrings, have the patient flatten their back B. tight hip flexors, have the patient flex their non-test leg and place their foot flat on the plinth C. tight hamstrings, test is positive and no changes are needed D. tight hip flexors, passively flex non-test leg and place a pillow under knee

C (Supine with testing leg off side of table, hip slightly extended, abducted, and slight external rotation..... I am unsure of this answer so please correct me if my thinking is wrong. I would guess correct answer is C. It is the only position I can imagine where gravity is not working against the motions of the test)

You have a patient who is performing MMT for Gluteus Medius posterior fibers. What is the gravity eliminated position for this test? (Kendall p. 433) a. Side lying, hip slightly extended, abducted, and slight external rotation b. Prone, hip slightly extended, abducted, and slight external rotation c. Supine with testing leg off side of table, hip slightly extended, abducted, and slight external rotation d. Standing, hip slightly extended, abducted, and slight external rotation

A (Ober test)

You would like to test a patients tensor fascia lata and ilioibial band length. What is the best test to perform on them? (NW p. 283) a. Ober Test b. Thomas Test c. SLR d. Hip adduction test

C (Contact between the calcaneus and sinus tarsi)

nkle eversion may have a hard end-feel due to what? (NW p. 361) a. Contact between the calcaneus & tibia b. The deltoid ligament c. Contact between the calcaneus & sinus tarsi d. The calcaneonavicular ligament


Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Legal and Ethical Responsibilities; privacy and security

View Set

Unit 3: Encumbrances and Transfer of Ownership (Quiz)

View Set

Four Types of Speech Connectives

View Set

The Ghost of the Tokaido Inn Vocabulary

View Set

Coursera - A Life of Happiness and Fulfillment

View Set

Series 66 -- Investment Advisers Act of 1940

View Set