ARDS, Acute Respiratory Failure, ABGs

A patient is in acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) as a result of sepsis. Which measure would be implemented to maintain cardiac output? a. Administer crystalloid fluids. b. Position the patient in the Trendelenburg position. c. Place the patient on fluid restriction and administer diuretics. d. Perform chest physiotherapy and assist with staged coughing.

A. Administer crystalloid fluids. Low cardiac output may necessitate crystalloid fluids in addition to lowering positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) or administering inotropes. The Trendelenburg position (not recommended to treat hypotension) and chest physiotherapy are unlikely to relieve decreased cardiac output, and fluid restriction and diuresis would be inappropriate interventions.

The nurse is providing care for an older adult patient who is experiencing low partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood (PaO2) as a result of worsening left-sided pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse use to help the patient mobilize his secretions? a. Augmented coughing or huff coughing b. Positioning the patient side-lying on his left side c. Frequent and aggressive nasopharyngeal suctioning d. Application of noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV)

A. Augmented coughing or huff coughing Augmented coughing and huff coughing techniques may aid the patient in the mobilization of secretions. If positioned side-lying, the patient should be positioned on his right side (good lung down) for improved perfusion and ventilation. Suctioning may be indicated but should always be performed cautiously because of the risk of hypoxia. NIPPV is inappropriate in the treatment of patients with excessive secretions.

A 22-yr-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a stab wound to the abdomen. The patient's vital signs are blood pressure 82/56 mm Hg, pulse 132 beats/min, respirations 28 breaths/min, and temperature 97.9° F (36.6° C). Which fluid, if ordered by the health care provider, should the nurse question? A. D5W B. 0.9% saline C. Packed red blood cells D. Lactated Ringer's solution

A. D5W IV administration of 0.45% saline is hypotonic and is used for maintenance fluid replacement and dilutes the extracellular fluid. IV solutions used for volume expansion for hypovolemic shock include lactated Ringer's solution and 0.9% saline. If hypovolemia is due to blood loss, blood may be administered.

The patient has pulmonary fibrosis and experiences hypoxemia during exercise but not at rest. To plan patient care, the nurse should know the patient is experiencing which physiologic mechanism of respiratory failure? a. Diffusion limitation b. Intrapulmonary shunt c. Alveolar hypoventilation d. Ventilation-perfusion mismatch

A. Diffusion limitation The patient with pulmonary fibrosis has a thickened alveolar-capillary interface that slows gas transport, and hypoxemia is more likely during exercise than at rest. Intrapulmonary shunt occurs when alveoli fill with fluid (e.g., acute respiratory distress syndrome, pneumonia). Alveolar hypoventilation occurs when there is a generalized decrease in ventilation (e.g., restrictive lung disease, central nervous system diseases, neuromuscular diseases). Ventilation-perfusion mismatch occurs when the amount of air does not match the amount of blood that the lung receives (e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pulmonary embolus).

The nurse in the cardiac care unit is caring for a patient who has developed acute respiratory failure. Which medication is used to decrease patient pulmonary congestion and agitation? a. Morphine b. Albuterol c. Azithromycin d. Methylprednisolone

A. Morphine For a patient with acute respiratory failure related to the heart, morphine is used to decrease pulmonary congestion as well as anxiety, agitation, and pain. Albuterol is used to reduce bronchospasm. Azithromycin is used for pulmonary infections. Methylprednisolone is used to reduce airway inflammation and edema.

When caring for older adult patients with respiratory failure, the nurse will add which intervention to individualize care? a. Position the patient in the supine position primarily. b. Assess frequently for signs and symptoms of delirium. c. Provide early endotracheal intubation to reduce complications. d. Delay activity and ambulation to provide additional healing time.

Assess frequently for signs and symptoms of delirium. Older adult patients are more predisposed to factors such as delirium, health care associated infections, and polypharmacy. Individualizing the older patient's care plan to address these factors will improve care. Older adult patients are not required to remain in a supine position only and should increase activity as soon as stability is determined. Endotracheal intubation is not provided early, and noninvasive positive pressure ventilation may be considered as an alternative. The nurse should consider that the aging process leads to decreased lung elastic recoil, weakened lung muscles and reduced gas exchange, which may make the patient difficult to wean from the ventilator.

When caring for a patient, the nurse assesses tachypnea, a cough, and restlessness. The lung sounds have fine, scattered crackles, and the chest x-ray shows new bilateral interstitial and alveolar infiltrates. The nurse is aware that the patient may have an acute lung injury (ALI). In what order does the nurse expect the physiologic changes of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)to occur if it happens with this patient? (Answer with a letter followed by a comma and a space (e.g. A, B, C, D).) a. Atelectasis b. Interstitial edema c. Refractory hypoxemia d. Surfactant dysfunction e. Increased inflammatory response f. Decreased gas exchange surface area

B, D, A, C, E, F In the injury or exudative phase of ARDS (1-7 days after acute lung injury), there is interstitial edema and surfactant dysfunction that lead to atelectasis. Widespread atelectasis decreases lung compliance, hyaline membranes form, and refractory hypoxemia occurs. In the reparative or proliferative phase (1-2 weeks after acute lung injury), there is an increased inflammatory response which worsens hypoxia. In the fibrotic phase (2-3 weeks after acute lung injury), the lung tissue is remodeled by collagen and fibrous tissue, which decreases the available surface area for gas exchange.

When caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), which finding indicates therapy is appropriate? a. pH is 7.32. b. PaO2 is greater than or equal to 60 mm Hg. c. PEEP increased to 20 cm H2O caused BP to fall to 80/40. d. No change in PaO2 when patient is turned from supine to prone position

B. PaO2 is greater than or equal to 60 mm Hg. The overall goal in caring for the patient with ARDS is for the PaO2 to be greater than or equal to 60 mm Hg with adequate lung ventilation to maintain a normal pH of 7.35 to 7.45. PEEP is usually increased for ARDS patients, but a dramatic reduction in BP indicates a complication of decreased cardiac output. A positive occurrence is a marked improvement in PaO2 from perfusion better matching ventilation when the anterior air-filled, nonatelectatic alveoli become dependent in the prone position.

You are caring for a patient admitted with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.33, PaO2 47 mm Hg, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, HCO3 32 mEq/L, and O2 saturation of 92%. What is the correct interpretation of these results? A. Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis C. Normal acid-base balance with hypoxemia D. Normal acid-base balance with hypercapnia

B. Partially compensated respiratory acidosis A low pH (normal, 7.35-7.45) indicates acidosis. In a patient with respiratory disease such as COPD, the patient retains carbon dioxide (normal, 35-45 mm Hg), which acts as an acid in the body. For this reason, the patient has respiratory acidosis. The elevated HCO3 indicates a partial compensation for the elevated CO2.

The nurse is admitting a 45-yr-old patient with asthma in acute respiratory distress. The nurse auscultates the patient's lungs and notes cessation of the inspiratory wheezing. The patient has not yet received any medication. What should this finding suggest to the nurse? A. Spontaneous resolution of the acute asthma attack B. An acute development of bilateral pleural effusions C. Airway constriction requiring immediate interventions D. Overworked intercostal muscles resulting in poor air exchange

C. Airway constriction requiring immediate interventions When a patient in respiratory distress has inspiratory wheezing and then it ceases, it is an indication of airway obstruction. This finding requires emergency action to restore airway patency. Cessation of inspiratory wheezing does not indicate spontaneous resolution of the acute asthma attack, bilateral pleural effusion development, or overworked intercostal muscles in this asthmatic patient that is in acute respiratory distress.

The nurse is caring for a 37-yr-old female patient with multiple musculoskeletal injuries who has developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which intervention should the nurse initiate to prevent stress ulcers? a. Observe stools for frank bleeding and occult blood. b. Maintain head of the bed elevation at 30 to 45 degrees. c. Begin enteral feedings as soon as bowel sounds are present. d. Administer prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) to reduce anxiety.

C. Begin enteral feedings as soon as bowel sounds are present. Stress ulcers prevention includes early initiation of enteral nutrition to protect the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from mucosal damage. Antiulcer agents such as histamine (H2)-receptor antagonists, proton pump inhibitors, and mucosal protecting agents are also indicated to prevent stress ulcers. Monitoring for GI bleeding does not prevent stress ulcers. Ventilator-associated pneumonia related to aspiration is prevented by elevation of the head of bed to 30 to 45 degrees Stress ulcers are not caused by anxiety. Stress ulcers are related to GI ischemia from hypotension, shock, and acidosis.

The nurse is caring for a 27-yr-old man with multiple fractured ribs from a motor vehicle crash. Which clinical manifestation, if experienced by the patient, is an early indication that the patient is developing respiratory failure? a. Tachycardia and pursed lip breathing b. Kussmaul respirations and hypotension c. Frequent position changes and agitation d. Cyanosis and increased capillary refill time

C. Frequent position changes and agitation A change in mental status is an early indication of respiratory failure. The brain is sensitive to variations in oxygenation, arterial carbon dioxide levels, and acid-base balance. Restlessness, confusion, agitation, and combative behavior suggest inadequate oxygen delivery to the brain.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is admitted with a barbiturate overdose. The patient is comatose with a blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg, apical pulse of 110 beats/min, and respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. Based on the initial assessment findings, the nurse recognizes that the patient is at risk for which type of respiratory failure? a. Hypoxemic respiratory failure related to shunting of blood b. Hypoxemic respiratory failure related to diffusion limitation c. Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to alveolar hypoventilation d. Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to increased airway resistance

C. Hypercapnic respiratory failure related to alveolar hypoventilation The patient's respiratory rate is decreased as a result of barbiturate overdose, which caused respiratory depression. The patient is at risk for hypercapnic respiratory failure due to an obtunded airway causing decreased respiratory rate and thus decreased CO2 elimination. Barbiturate overdose does not lead to shunting of blood, diffusion limitations, or increased airway resistance.

Arterial blood gas results are reported to the nurse for a 68-yr-old patient admitted with pneumonia: pH 7.31, PaCO2 49 mm Hg, HCO3 26 mEq/L, and PaO2 52 mm Hg. What order should the nurse complete first? a. Administer albuterol inhaler prn. b. Increase fluid intake to 2500 mL per 24 hours. c. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/minute by nasal cannula. d. Perform chest physical therapy four times per day.

C. Initiate oxygen at 2 liters/minute by nasal cannula. The arterial blood gas results indicate the patient is in uncompensated respiratory acidosis with moderate hypoxemia. Oxygen therapy is indicated to correct hypoxemia secondary to V/Q mismatch. Supplemental oxygen should be initiated at 1 to 3 L/min by nasal cannula, or 24% to 32% by simple face mask or Venturi mask to improve the PaO2. Albuterol would be administered next if needed for bronchodilation. Hydration is indicated for thick secretions, and chest physical therapy is indicated for patients with 30 mL or more of sputum production per day.

Which patient would most benefit from noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) to promote oxygenation? a. A patient whose cardiac output and blood pressure are unstable b. A patient whose respiratory failure is due to a head injury with loss of consciousness c. A patient with a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis and who is currently producing copious secretions d. A patient who is experiencing respiratory failure as a result of the progression of myasthenia gravis

D. A patient who is experiencing respiratory failure as a result of the progression of myasthenia gravis NIPPV such as continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is most effective in treating patients with respiratory failure resulting from chest wall and neuromuscular disease. It is not recommended in patients who are experiencing hemodynamic instability, decreased level of consciousness, or excessive secretions.

The nurse on a medical-surgical unit identifies which patient as having the highest risk for metabolic alkalosis? A. A patient with a traumatic brain injury B. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus C. A patient with acute respiratory failure D. A patient with nasogastric tube suction

D. A patient with nasogastric tube suction Excessive nasogastric suctioning may cause metabolic alkalosis. Brain injury may cause hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. Type 1 diabetes mellitus (diabetic ketoacidosis) is associated with metabolic acidosis. Acute respiratory failure may lead to respiratory acidosis.

A 72-yr-old woman with aspiration pneumonia develops severe respiratory distress. Her PaO2 is 42 mmHg and FIO2 is 80%. Which intervention should the nurse complete first? a. Stat portable chest radiography b. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg IV push c. Place the patient in a prone position on a rotational bed d. Position the patient with arms supported away from the chest

D. Position the patient with arms supported away from the chest The nurse will first position the patient to facilitate ventilation. Additional oxygen support may be necessary. Refractory hypoxemia indicates the patient is not demonstrating acute lung injury but has now developed acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). If the PaO2 is 42 mm Hg on 80% FIO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen; room air is 21% FIO2), then the PaO2/FIO2 ratio is 52.5, indicating ARDS (PaO2/FIO2 ratio<200). Stat portable chest radiography may show worsening infiltrates or "white lung." A rotational bed placing the patient in prone position would be a strategy to use for select patients with ARDS. This patient's age, diagnosis, and comorbidities may indicate appropriateness for this treatment. Administration of lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg may be harmful to this patient's oxygenation status. Further assessment would be needed to determine safety.

You are caring for a patient admitted with an exacerbation of asthma. After several treatments, the ABG results are pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mm Hg, HCO3 24 mEq/L, PaO2 92 mm Hg, and O2 saturation of 99%. You interpret these results as A. metabolic acidosis. B. respiratory acidosis. C. respiratory alkalosis. D. within normal limits.

D. within normal limits. The normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45. Normal PaCO2 levels are 35 to 45 mm Hg, and HCO3 is 22 to 26 mEq/L. Normal PaO2 is >80 mm Hg. Normal oxygen saturation is >95%. Because the patient's results all fall within these normal ranges, the nurse can conclude that the patient's blood gas results are within normal limits.

5. You're providing care to a patient who was just transferred to your unit for the treatment of ARDS. The patient is in the exudative phase. The patient is ordered arterial blood gases. The results are back. Which results are expected during this early phase of acute respiratory distress syndrome that correlates with this diagnosis?* A. PaO2 40, pH 7.59, PaCO2 30, HCO3 23 B. PaO2 85, pH 7.42, PaCO2 37, HCO3 26 C. PaO2 50, pH 7.20, PaCO2 48, HCO3 29 D. PaO2 55, pH 7.26, PaCO2 58, HCO3 19

The answer is A. This option demonstrates respiratory alkalosis. In the early stages of ARDS (exudative) the patient will start to enter in respiratory alkalosis. The patient starts to have tachypnea (the body's way of trying to increase the oxygen level but it can't). They will have a very low PaO2 level (normal PaO2 is 80 mmHg), the blood pH will become high (normal is 7.35-7.45) (alkalotic). In the late stage, the patient can enter into respiratory acidosis.

8. A patient is on mechanical ventilation with PEEP (positive end-expiratory pressure). Which finding below indicates the patient is developing a complication related to their therapy and requires immediate treatment?* A. HCO3 26 mmHg B. Blood pressure 70/45 C. PaO2 80 mmHg D. PaCO2 38 mmHg

The answer is B. Mechanical ventilation with PEEP can cause issues with intrathoracic pressure and decrease the cardiac output (watch out for a low blood pressure) along with hyperinflation of the lungs (possible pneumothorax or subq emphysema which is air that escapes into the skin because the lungs are leaking air).

3. During the exudative phase of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), the patient's lung cells that produce surfactant have become damaged. As the nurse you know this will lead to?* A. bronchoconstriction B. atelectasis C. upper airway blockage D. pulmonary edema

The answer is B. Surfactant decreases surface tension in the lungs. Therefore, the alveoli sacs will stay stable when a person exhales (hence the sac won't collapse). If there is a decrease in surfactant production this creates an unpredictable alveoli sac that can easily collapse, hence a condition called ATELETASIS will occur (collapse of the lung tissue) when there is a decrease production in surfactant.

1.) You're providing care to a patient who is being treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a 100% non-rebreather mask. Which finding below is a HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?* A. The patient is experiencing bradypnea. B. The patient is tired and confused. C. The patient's PaO2 remains at 45 mmHg. D. The patient's blood pressure is 180/96.

The answer is C. A hallmark sign and symptom found in ARDS is refractory hypoxemia. This is where that although the patient is receiving a high amount of oxygen (here a 100% non-rebreather mask) the patient is STILL hypoxic. Option C is the answer because it states the patient's arterial oxygen level is remaining at 45 mmHg (a normal is 80 mmHg but when treating patients with ARDS a goal is at least 60 mmHg). Yes, the patient can be tired and confused from a low oxygen level BUT this question wants to know the HALLMARK sign and symptom.

6. Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing ARDS and has the worst prognosis?* A. A 52-year-old male patient with a pneumothorax. B. A 48-year-old male being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis. C. A 69-year-old female with sepsis caused by a gram-negative bacterial infection. D. A 30-year-old female with cystic fibrosis.

The answer is C. Sepsis is the MOST common cause of ARDS because of systemic inflammation experienced. This is also true if the cause of the sepsis is a gram-negative bacterium (this also makes the infection harder to treat...hence poor prognosis). With sepsis, the immune cells that are present with the inflammation travel to the lungs and damage the alveolar capillary membrane leading to fluid to leak in the alveolar sacs.

4. A patient has been hospitalized in the ICU for a near drowning event. The patient's respiratory function has been deteriorating over the last 24 hours. The physician suspects acute respiratory distress syndrome. A STAT chest x-ray is ordered. What finding on the chest x-ray is indicative of ARDS?* A. infiltrates only on the upper lobes B. enlargement of the heart with bilateral lower lobe infiltrates C. white-out infiltrates bilaterally D. normal chest x-ray

The answer is C. This is a finding found in ARDS....pronounce white-out infiltrates bilaterally.

10. A patient is experiencing respiratory failure due to pulmonary edema. The physician suspects ARDS but wants to rule out a cardiac cause. A pulmonary artery wedge pressure is obtained. As the nurse you know that what measurement reading obtained indicates that this type of respiratory failure is NOT cardiac related?* A. >25 mmHg B. <10 mmHg C. >50 mmHg D. <18 mmHg

The answer is D. A pulmonary artery wedge pressure measures the left atrial pressure. A pulmonary catheter is "wedged" with a balloon in the pulmonary arterial branch to measure the pressure. If the reading is less than 18 mmHg it indicates this is NOT a cardiac issue but most likely ARDS. Therefore, the pulmonary edema is due to damage to the alveolar capillary membrane leaking fluid into the alveolar sac....NOT a heart problem ex: heart failure.

2. You're teaching a class on critical care concepts to a group of new nurses. You're discussing the topic of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). At the beginning of the lecture, you assess the new nurses understanding about this condition. Which statement by a new nurse demonstrates he understands the condition?* A. "This condition develops because the exocrine glands start to work incorrectly leading to thick, copious mucous to collect in the alveoli sacs." B. "ARDS is a pulmonary disease that gradually causes chronic obstruction of airflow from the lungs." C. "Acute respiratory distress syndrome occurs due to the collapsing of a lung because air has accumulated in the pleural space." D. "This condition develops because alveolar capillary membrane permeability has changed leading to fluid collecting in the alveoli sacs."

The answer is D. ARDS is a type of respiratory failure that occurs when the capillary membrane that surrounds the alveoli sac becomes damaged, which causes fluid to leak into the alveoli sac. Option A describes cystic fibrosis, option B describes COPD, and option C describes a pneumothorax.

11. You're precepting a nursing student who is assisting you care for a patient on mechanical ventilation with PEEP for treatment of ARDS. The student asks you why the PEEP setting is at 10 mmHg. Your response is:* A. "This pressure setting assists the patient with breathing in and out and helps improve air flow." B. "This pressure setting will help prevent a decrease in cardiac output and hyperinflation of the lungs." C. "This pressure setting helps prevent fluid from filling the alveoli sacs." D. "This pressure setting helps open the alveoli sacs that are collapsed during exhalation."

The answer is D. This setting of PEEP (it can range between 10 to 20 mmHg of water) and it helps to open the alveoli sacs that are collapsed, especially during exhalation.

9. You are caring for a patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome. As the nurse you know that prone positioning can be beneficial for some patients with this condition. Which findings below indicate this type of positioning was beneficial for your patient with ARDS?* (SATA) A. Improvement in lung sounds B. Development of a V/Q mismatch C. PaO2 increased from 59 mmHg to 82 mmHg D. PEEP needs to be titrated to 15 mmHg of water

The answers are A and C. Prone positioning helps improve PaO2 (82 mmHg is a good finding) without actually giving the patient high concentrations of oxygen. It helps improves perfusion and ventilation (hence correcting the V/Q mismatch). In this position, the heart is no longer laying against the posterior part of the lungs (improves air flow...hence improvement of lung sounds) and it helps move secretions from other areas that were fluid filled and couldn't move in the supine position, hence helping improve atelectasis.

7. As the nurse you know that acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) can be caused by direct or indirect lung injury. Select below all the INDIRECT causes of ARDS:* A. Drowning B. Aspiration C. Sepsis D. Blood transfusion E. Pneumonia F. Pancreatitis

The answers are: C, D, F Indirect causes are processes that can cause inflammation OUTSIDE of the lungs....so the issue arises somewhere outside the lungs. Therefore, sepsis (infection...as long as it is outside the lungs), blood transfusion, and pancreatitis are INDIRECT causes. Drowning, aspiration, and pneumonia are issues that arise in the lungs (therefore, they are DIRECT causes of lung injury).

A 56-yr-old man with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is on positive pressure ventilation (PPV). The patient's cardiac index is 1.4 L/min and pulmonary artery wedge pressure is 8 mm Hg. What order by the physician is important for the nurse to question? A. Initiate a dobutamine infusion at 3 mcg/kg/min. B. Administer 1 unit of packed red blood cells over the next 2 hours. C. Change the maintenance intravenous (IV) rate from 75 to 125 mL/hr. D. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) from 10 to 15 cm H2O.

d. Increase positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) from 10 to 15 cm H2O. Patients on PPV and PEEP frequently experience decreased cardiac output (CO) and cardiac index (CI). High levels of PEEP increase intrathoracic pressure and cause decreased venous return which results in decreased CO. Interventions to improve CO include lowering the PEEP, administering crystalloid fluids or colloid solutions, and use of inotropic drugs (e.g., dobutamine, dopamine). Packed red blood cells may also be administered to improve CO and oxygenation if the hemoglobin is less than 9 or 10 mg/dL.