ARRT (Procedures)
Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue? a. a postpubertal adolescent b. a 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy c. a menopausal woman d. a postmenopausal 65-year-old
a. a postpubertal adolescent
Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle? a. arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins b. arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules c. veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles d. venules, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries
a. arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins
Which of the following fracture classification describes a small, bony fragment pulled from a bony process? a. avulsion fracture b. torus fracture c. comminuted fracture d. compound fracture
a. avulsion fracture
The structure located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis is the a. dome of the acetabulum b. femoral neck c. greater trochanter d. iliac crest
a. dome of the acetabulum
Foot motion caused by turning the ankle outward is termed? a. eversion b. inversion c. abduction d. adduction
a. eversion
A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow a. ewing sarcoma b. multiple myeloma c. enchondroma d. osterochondroma
a. ewing sarcoma
The lumbar vertebral pedicle is represented by which part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine? a. eye b. nose c. body d. ear
a. eye
All the following are palpable bony landmarks that can be used in radiography of the pelvis, except a. femoral neck b. pubic symphysis c. greather trochanter d. iliac crest
a. femoral neck
Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position? a. hepatic/right colic flexure b. splenic/left colic flexure c. sigmoid colon d. ileocecal valve
a. hepatic/right colic flexure
Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-L3? a. inferior costal margin b. greater trochanter c. iliac crest d. ASIS
a. inferior costal margin
In the PA axial oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the a. intervertebral foamina nearest the IR b. intervertebral foramina furthest from the IR c. interarticular joints d. intervertebral joints
a. intervertebral foamina nearest the IR
All of the following are associated with the knee joint, except a. labrum b. fat pad c. menisci d. collateral ligament
a. labrum
The structure labeled #4 in this image is.... a. maxillary sinus b. sphenodial sinus c. ethmoidal sinus d. front sinus
a. maxillary sinus
Which of the following is represented by number 9? a. medial border b. lateral border c. inferior angle d. superior angle
a. medial border
the following projection of the ankle best demonstrates the mortise: a. medial oblique 15-20º b. lateral oblique 15-20º c. medial oblique 45º d. lateral oblique 45º
a. medial oblique 15-20 degrees
Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace? a. patient AP with 30-35º angle cephalad b. patient AP with 30-35º angle caudad c. patient AP with 0º angle d. patient lateral, coned to L5
a. patient AP with 30-35º angle cephalad
Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is... a. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larnyx b. crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma c. respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling d. all of the above
a. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larnyx
The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions? a. right iliac b. left iliac c. right lumbar d. hypogastric
a. right iliac
Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are mostly likely to lodge in the a. right main stem bronchus b. left main stem bronchus c. esophagus d. proximal stomach
a. right main stem bronchus
To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in a. the recumbent position b. the erect position c. the anatomic position d. the Fowler position
a. the recumbent position
Which type of ileus is characterized by cessation of peristalsis? a. mechanical b. paralytic c. asymptomatic d. sterile
b. paralytic
What is the structure labeled number 5 in this image? a. base of the second metacarpal b. pisiform c. trapezium d. trapezoid
b. pisiform
In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized? a. dorosplantar projection of the foot b. plantodorsal projection of the os calcis c. medial oblique position of the foot d. lateral foot
b. plantodorsal projection of the os calcis
The radiograph shown in this image was most likely made in the following position a. supine recumbent b. prone recumbent c. PA upright d. supine trendelenburg
b. prone recumbent
With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized? a. symphysis b. rami c. body d. angle
b. rami
During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon? a. AP or PA erect b. right lateral decubitus c. left lateral decubitus d. ventral decubitus
b. right lateral decubitus
The number 2 in this figure indicates... a. body of L2 b. spinous process of L1 c. spinous process of L3 d. transverse process of L3
b. spinous process of L1
During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the a. subdural space b. subarachnoid space c. epidural space d. epidermal space
b. subarachnoid space
The laryngeal prominence is formed by the a. thyroid gland b. thyroid cartilage c. vocal cords d. pharynx
b. thyroid cartilage
The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is a. red marrow b. yellow marrow c. endosteum d. cancellous tissue
b. yellow marrow
To visualize or "open" the right sacoiliac joint, the patient is positioned... a. 30-40 LPO b. 30-40 RPO c. 25-30 LPO d. 25-30 RPO
c. 25-30 LPO
The following position is used to demonstrate that lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation: a. AP b. lateral c. 30º RPO d. 45º LPO
c. 30º RPO
Which of the following positions best demonstrates the proximal tibiofibular articulations? a. AP b. 90º mediolateral c. 45º internal roatation d. 45º external rotation
c. 45º internal roatation
Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition? a. radial flexion/deviation b. ulnar flexion/deviation c. AP (medial) oblique d. AP (lateral) oblique
c. AP (medial) oblique
Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees? a. AP recumbent b. lateral recumbent c. AP erect d. medial oblique
c. AP erect
An acromioclavicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection a. AP recumbent, affected shoulder b. AP recumbent, both shoulders c. AP erect, both shoulders
c. AP erect, both shoulders
Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor? a. BE b. upper GI c. IVU d. bone survey
c. IVU
The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the... a. T2-T3 interspace fifth thoarcic vertebra b. T9-T10 interspace c. T5 d. costal margin
c. T5
During an upper GI examination of a stomach of average size and shape, a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb are demonstrated. The position used is more likely
LPO
Which of the following projections/positions will best demonstrate a subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?
PA oblique scapular Y
Which of the following positions/projections is used to demonstratea nearly frontal view of the sternum?
RAO
In which of the following positions was this image made? a. RPO b. LPO c. AP axial d. right lateral decubitus
RPO
In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs
1 only
During atrial systole, blood flows into the 1. right ventricle via the mitral valve 2. left ventricle via the bicuspid valve 3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve
2 and 3 only
If the patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head (A) 15º toward the side being examined. (B) 15º away from the side being examined. (C) 30º toward the side being examined. (D) 30º away from the side being examined.
(A) 15º toward the side being examined.
Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography? (A) Synarthrodial (B) Diarthrodial (C) Amphiarthrodial (D) Cartilaginous
(B) Diarthrodial
With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37º angle with the film, and the central ray perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated? (A) Occipital bone (B) Frontal bone (C) Facial bones (D) Basal foramina
(C) Facial bones
All of the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true, except (A) the OMI is perpendicular to the IR (B) the petrous pyramids fill the orbits (C) the MSP is parallel to the IR (D) the CR is perpendicular to the IR and exits the nasion
(C) the MSP is parallel to the IR
Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations? (A) Barium examinations (B) Spine radiography (C) Skull radiography (D) Emergency and trauma radiography
(D) Emergency and trauma radiography
The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection: (A) scapular Y (B) AP Scapula (C) medial oblique elbow (D) lateral oblique elbow
(D) lateral oblique elbow
In myelography, the contrast medium is generally injected into the (A) cisterna magna. (B) individual intervertebral disks. (C) subarachnoid space between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. (D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
(D) subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae.
All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true, except (A) the right lung has two fissures (B) the inferior portion of a lung is its base (C) each lung is enclosed in pleural membrane (D) the main stem bronchi enter the lung fissure
(D) the main stem bronchi enter the lung fissure
For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?
0 degree (perpendicular)
A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following? 1. sacral vertebral 2. thoracic vertebrae 3. lumbar vertebrae
1 and 2 only
A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to... 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR
1 and 2 only
Appropriate radiation protection strategies for the pediatric patient include the following: 1. use appropriate gonadal shielding 2. shield torso when examining upper extremities 3. examine thorax and skill in AP position rather than PA
1 and 2 only
Causes of death in 70 percent of people older than 65 years include 1. stroke 2. heart disease 3. digestive disorders
1 and 2 only
During IV urography, the prone position is generally recommended to demonstrate 1. ureteral filing 2. the renal pelvis 3. superior calyces
1 and 2 only
Elements of correct positioning for PA projections of the chest include 1. weight evenly distributed on feet 2. elevation of the chin 3. shoulders elevated and rolled forward
1 and 2 only
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct 3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum
1 and 2 only
Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibulon joint (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3 only
1 and 2 only
For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. patency of the biliary ducts 2. biliary tract calculi 3. duodenal calculi
1 and 2 only
In the AP projection of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is vertical 2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia 3. calcaneus is well visualized
1 and 2 only
Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include 1. pedicle 2. laminae 3. body
1 and 2 only
Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include the following: 1. cecum 2. vermiform appendix 3. sigmoid
1 and 2 only
Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantar flexion 2. abduct 3. oblique
1 and 2 only
The PA chest radiograph shown in this image demonstrates 1. rotation 2. scapulae removed from lung fields 3. adequate inspiration
1 and 2 only
The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s): 1. the male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. the male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. the female coccyx is more vertical
1 and 2 only
The structures visualized when positioned as in Figure could also be seen when performed with the patient in the following position(s): 1. lateral recumbent 2. seated 3. erect AP
1 and 2 only
When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. with humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. with forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular
1 and 2 only
Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. short, wide, transverse heart 2. high and peripheral large bowel 3. diaphragm positioned low
1 and 2 only
Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. fractured lateral malleolus 2. fractured medial malleolus 3. fractured anterior tibia
1 and 2 only
Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. condyloid 2. sellar 3. gomphosis
1 and 2 only
Which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to excretory urography? 1. creatinine 2. blood urea nitrogean (BUN) 3. red blood cells (RBCs)
1 and 2 only
Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? 1. femur 2. tibia 3. patella
1 and 2 only
Which of the following can be sued to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. prone, knee flexed 40º , CR directed caudad 40 to the popliteal fossa 2. supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. prone, patella parallel to IR, hell rotated 5-10º lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint
1 and 2 only
Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? 1. percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. stent placement 3. peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)
1 and 2 only
Which of the following is/are recommended in order to reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region? 1. close collimation 2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. decreased SID
1 and 2 only
Which of the following is/are required for a lateral projection of the skull? 1. the IOML is parallel to the IR 2. the MSP is parallel to the IR 3. the CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM
1 and 2 only
Which of the following is/are true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. the procedure is performed in the erect position 2. use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. the procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected
1 and 2 only
Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? 1. clavicular body 2. acromioclavicular joint 3. sternocostal joint
1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders 2. ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. the esophagus is visible in the midline
1 and 2 only
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the images shown? 1. image A was made with cephalad angulation 2. Image B was made with caudal angulation 3. Images A and B were made with CR 15 degree cephalad
1 and 2 only
Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. posterior clinoid processes 2. dorsum sella 3. posterior arch C1
1 and 2 only
types of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. fibrous 2. cartilaginous 3. synovial
1 and 2 only
Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90 degrees flexion 3. insufficient flexion
1 and 3 only
In lateral projection of the ankle, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed
1 and 3 only
Select the incorrect statement regarding this figure 1. the degree of obliquity is too great 2. the midphalanges are foreshortened 3. the interphalangeal joints are well demonstrated
1 and 3 only
The AP projection of the sacrum requires that the CR should be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. two inches superior to the pubic symphysis 2. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis
1 and 3 only
The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. infraorbitomeatal line (IMOL) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR
1 and 3 only
Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. Talotibial 2. Talocalcaneal 3. Talofibular
1 and 3 only
Which of the following is/are part of the bony thorax? 1. manubrium 2. clavicles 3. 24 ribs
1 and 3 only
Which of the following is/are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine shown in this image? 1. zygapophyseal articulations 2. intervertebral foramina 3. inferior articular processes
1 and 3 only
Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiopgraphing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the help? 1. when a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician 2. AP axiolateral projection should be avoided 3. to evaluate the entire region, the pelvis is typically included in the initial examination
1 and 3 only
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses 1. the OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal 2. the petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. the frontal and ethmodial sinuses are visualized
1 and 3 only
In which of the following tangenital axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. supine flexion 45º (Merchant) 2. prone flexion 90º (Settegast) 3. prone flexion 55º (Hughston)
1 only
The AP axial projection of the cervical spine demonstrates the following 1. C3-C7 cervical bodies 2. intervertebral foramina 3. zygapophyseal joints
1 only
Which aspect(s) of the scapula are demonstrated in this image? 1. its posterior aspect 2. its costal surface 3. its sternal articular surface
1 only
Which of the following is/are located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. patellar surface 2. intertrochanteric crest 3. linea aspera
1 only
Image identification markers should include: 1. Patient's name and/or ID number 2. Date 3. A right or left marker
1, 2, and 3
Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? 1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus 2. Suspected large-bowel obstruction 3. Presurgical patients (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
1, 2, and 3
To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the cassette. 2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible. 3. hand lateral and in internal rotation. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
1, 2, and 3
Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension? 1. obesity 2. smoking 3. stress
1, 2, and 3
During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm. 2. raises the ribs. 3. depresses the abdominal viscera. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
2 and 3 only
Which of the following is/are effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? 1. use of PA position 2. use of breat shields 3. use of compensating filtration
1, 2, and 3
Which of the following statements is/are correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? 1. the MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR 2. the right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs 3. arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field
1, 2, and 3
According to ACR (2017), patients with acute kindey injury or severe chronic kidney disease, or those undergoing arterial catheter study, should adhere to the following guideline(s) for iodinated contrast medium administration: 1. patients should temporarily discontinue metformin at time of (or prior to) the procedure 2. withhold metformin for 48 hours after the procedure 3. metformin may be reinstituted only after renal function studies have been re-evaluated and found acceptable
1,2, and 3
During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending on 1. respiratory phase. 2. body habitus. 3. patient position. (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2, and 3
1,2, and 3
Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position
1,2, and 3
When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the following should be demonstrated: 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids
1,2, and 3
Which of following are mediastinal structures? 1. heart 2. trachea 3. esophagus
1,2, and 3
Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. scapular Y projection 2. inferosuperior axial 3. transthoracic lateral
1,2, and 3
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the image 1. patient is placed in an RAO position 2. midcoronal plane is about 60 degree to the IR 3. acromion process is free of superimposition
1,2, and 3
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding this image? 1. it demonstrates RAO sternum 2. exposure was made during shallow respiration 3. sternum is projected in the left thorax
1,2, and 3
Which of the following statements regarding the radiograph in this image is true? 1. the position is used to demonstrate the frontal and ethmoid sinuses 2. the ethmoid sinuses are seen near the medial aspect of the orbits 3. the perpendicular plate is visualized in midline of the nasal cavity
1,2, and 3
Which of the following statments regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball Catcher's position," is/are correct? 1. bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. it is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. the hands are obliqued about 45, palm up
1,2, and 3
in a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed
1,2, and 3
Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. superimposed epicondyles
2 and 3 only
A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue
2 and 3 only
AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear
2 and 3 only
Central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening of self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures
2 and 3 only
Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required
2 and 3 only
Myleography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. internal disk lesions 2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord 3. posterior disk herniation
2 and 3 only
The CR is parallel to the intervertebral foramina in the following projections(s) 1. lateral cervical spine 2. lateral thoracic spine 3. lateral lumbar spine
2 and 3 only
The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. parallel to the central ray (CR) 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
2 and 3 only
The following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen: 1. ilium 2. ischium 3. punis
2 and 3 only
The following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is/are true: 1. the midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR 2. the scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. an oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained
2 and 3 only
The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries
2 and 3 only
The radiographer shown in this image demonstrates the articulation between the 1. talus and the calcaneus 2. calcaneus and the cuboid 3. talus and the navicular
2 and 3 only
The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. plantar surface 2. anterior surface 3. dorsum
2 and 3 only
Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm require that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly
2 and 3 only
Which of the following carpal(s) is best demonstrated by ulnar flexion/deviation? 1. medial carpals 2. lateral carpals 3. scaphoid
2 and 3 only
Which of the following is/are appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn patient
2 and 3 only
Which of the following is/are associated with a Colle's fracture? 1. transverse fracture of the radial head 2. chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. posterior or backward displacement
2 and 3 only
Which of the following is/are distal to the tibial plateau? 1. intercondyloid fossa 2. tibial condyles 3. tibial tuberosity
2 and 3 only
Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax? 1. RAO 2. LAO 3. RPO
2 and 3 only
Which of the following projections requires(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR? 1. AP humerus 2. lateral forearm 3. internal rotation shoulder
2 and 3 only
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the shoulder image 1. the unaffected arm is adjacent to the IR 2. it provides a lateral view 3. is it useful in trauma situations
2 and 3 only
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding these images? 1. image A shows internal rotation 2. image B shows internal rotation 3. the greater tubercle is better shown in image A
2 and 3 only
Which of the following structures is/are located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. spleen 2. gallbladder 3. hepatic flexure
2 and 3 only
what condition(s) is/are demonstrated in this figure? 1. emphysema 2. pneumothorax 3. pleural effusion
2 and 3 only
The position illustrated in the radiograph in this image may be obtained with the patient 1. supine and the CR angled 30 caudad 2. supine and the CR angled 30 cephalad 3. prone and the CR angled 30 cephalad
2 only
Which of the following statements is/are true with respect to the radiograph shown in this image? 1. the acromion process is seen partially superimposed on the third rib 2. the projection is performed to evaluate the scapula 3. the projection is performed to evaluate the acromioclavicular articulation
2 only
With the patient in PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle? 1. 5-15º caudad 2. 5-15º cephalad 3. 15-30º cephalad 4. 15-30º caudad
4. 15-30 caudad
During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position? A. Transverse colon B. Descending colon C. Ascending colon D. Left and right colic flexures
A. Transverse colon
For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface B. midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen C. at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest D. perpendicular to the level of L2
A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface
Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?
AP or PA through the foramen magnum
Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be A. iodinated contrast administration evening before examination; water only in the morning B. NPO after midnight C. cathartics and cleansing enemas D. NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and empty bladder before scout film
B. NPO after midnight
In this image, the structure indicated as number 2 is which of the following? a. neck of rib b. tubercle of rib c. transverse process d. head of rib
B. tubercle of rib
With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? A. Radial head B. Ulnar head C. Coronoid process D. Olecranon process
C. Coronoid process
Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be A. iodinated contrast evening before examination; water only in the morning B. NPO after midnight. C. cathartics and cleansing enemas. D. NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and empty bladder before scout image.
C. cathartics and cleansing enemas.
Which of the following conditions is demonstrated in this figure
Dextrocardia
The ascending colon is labeled in this image as number... a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
a. 3
Persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is referred to as
a patent ductus arteriosus
The base of the fifth metacarpal seen in this image is indicated by what number? a. 7 b. 8 c. 11 d. 12
a. 7
Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition? a. AP oblique, medial rotation b. AP oblique. lateral rotation c. mediolateral d. lateral weight-bearing
a. AP oblique, medial rotation
Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the a. AP projection b. lateral projection c. medial oblique projection d. lateral oblique projection
a. AP projection
Narrowing the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the a. AP projection b. lateral projection c. axial projection d. lordotic projection
a. AP projection
Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions? a. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position b. AP projection, right lateral decubitus position c. PA recumbent position d. AP recumbent position
a. AP projection, left lateral decubitus position
With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the a. Trendelenburg position b. Fowler position c. decubitus position d. Sims position
a. Trendelenburg position
To demonstate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45º a. toward the affected side b. away from the affected side c. with the arm at the side in the anatomic position d. with the arm in external rotation
a. toward the affected side
What is the structure labeled number 1 in this image? a. trapezium b. scaphoid c. ulnar styloid d. radial styloid
a. trapezium
Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following, expect a. weight-bearing b. RAO c. LAO d. PA
a. weight-bearing
In this image, what is labeled number one? a. zygapophyseal joint b. intervertebral foramen c. intervertebral disc space d. vertebral body
a. zygapophyseal joint
The RPO position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the
anterior rim of the right acetabulum
The relationship between the fractured ends of long bones is referred to as
apposition
The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a/an a. AP projection b. 30º oblique c. 45º oblique d. AP axial projection
b. 30 degree oblique
In the PA projection of the hand seen in this image, which numeral identifies the head of the fifth metacarpal? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
b. 4
Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys? a. lateral abdomen b. AP abdomen c. dorsal decubitus abdomen d. ventral decubitus abdomen
b. AP abdomen
Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity? a. Ewing sarcoma b. Osgood-Schlatter disease c. Gout d. Exostosis
b. Osgood-Schlatter disease
What should be done to better demonestrate the coracoid process shown in this image a. use a perpendicular CR b. angle the CR about 30º cephalad c. angle the CR about 30º caudad d. angle the MSP 15º toward the affected side
b. angle the CR about 30º cephalad
The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as a. asphyxia b. aspiration c. atelectasis d. asystole
b. aspiration
The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to a. permit the diaphragm to move to its lowest position b. avoid superimposition on the apices c. assist in maintaining an upright position d. keep the MSP parallel
b. avoid superimposition on the apices
Which of the following places the anatomical points of the hand's third digit in correct order from proximal to distal? a. base of metacarpal, head of middle phalanx, carpometacarpal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint, distal interphalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft b. carpometacarpal joint, base of metacarpal, metacarpophalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, head of middle phalanx, distal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft c. ungual tuft, distal interphalangeal joint, head of middle phalanx, proximal interphalangeal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint, base of metacarpal, carpometacarpal joint d. carpometacarpal joint, metacarpophalangeal joint, base of metacarpal, head of middle phalanx, proximal interphalangeal joint, dsital interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft
b. carpometacarpal joint, base of metacarpal, metacarpophalangeal joint, proximal interphalangeal joint, head of middle phalanx, distal interphalangeal joint, ungual tuft
What hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contration of the gallbladder following the ingestion of a fatty meal? a. insulin b. cholecystokinin c. adrenocorticotropic hormone d. gastrin
b. cholecystokinin
In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin? a. closed b. compound c. compression d. depressed
b. compound
With which of the following does the trapezium articulate? a. fifth metacarpal b. first metacarpal c. distal radius d. distal ulna
b. first metacarpal
The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is a. hemoptysis b. hematemesis c. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (Copd) d. bronchitis
b. hematemesis
What is the position of the stomach in hypersthenic patient? a. high and vertical b. high and horizontal c. low and vertical d. low and horizontal
b. high and horizontal
Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children? a. appendicitis b. intussusception c. regional enteritis d. ulcerative colitis
b. intussusception
All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position? a. AP b. Lateral c. Acute Flexion d. AP partial flexion
b. lateral
The plane passing vertically through the body and dividing it into anterior and posterior halves is the a. median sagittal plane (MSP) b. midcoronal plane c. sagittal plane d. transverse plane
b. midcoronal plane
To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers a. rest on the IR for immobilization b. must be supported parallel to the IR c. are radiographed in natural flexion d. are radiographed in palmar flexion
b. must be supported parallel to the IR
The most proximal portion portion of the pharynx is the a. laryngopharynx b. nasopharynx c. epiglottis d. oropharynx
b. nasopharynx
What part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine, represents the lumbar transverse process? a. eye b. nose c. body d. neck
b. nose
Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following, except when... a. object shape does not coincide with the shape of x-ray beam b. object plane is not parallel with x-ray tube and/or IR c. anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR d. anatomic object(s) of interest is/are at a distance from the IR
c. anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR
Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot? a. invert the foot b. evert the foot c. angle the CR 10º posteriorly d. angle the CR 10º anteriorly
c. angle the CR 10º posteriorly
Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surface of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach? (A) place the patient in a 35-40º right anterior oblique (RAO) position (B) place the in a lateral position (C) angle the CR 35-45 cephalad (D) angle the CR 35-45 caudad
c. angle the CR 35-45 cephalad
The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the a. diploe b. lambda c. bregma d. pterion
c. bregma
With the patient in the PR position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting image will demonstrate the petrous pyramids a. below the orbits b. in the lower third of the orbits c. completely within the orbits d. above the orbits
c. completely within the orbits
Which of the following is represented by the number 2? a. acromion process b. superior angle c. coracoid process d. apex
c. coracoid process
To better visualize the knee-joint space in the radiograph in this image, the radiographer should... a. flex the knee more acutely b. flex the knee less acutely c. direct the CR 5-7º cephalad d. direct the CR 5-7º caudad
c. direct the CR 5-7º cephalad
The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is a. cephalad b. proximal c. distal d. lateral
c. distal
Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine? a. open-mouth projection b. moving-mandible AP c. flexion and extension laterals d. right and left bending AP
c. flexion and extension laterals
The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate a. duodenal loop b. filing of the duodenal bulb c. hiatal hernia d. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
c. hiatal hernia
Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine? a. oblique cervical spine, seated b. AP cervical spine, recumebnt c. horizontal beam lateral d. laterals in flexion and extension
c. horizontal beam lateral
Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction of stricture? a. pyelonephrosis b. nephroptosis c. hydronephrosis d. cystourethritis
c. hydronephrosis
Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula? a. retrograde pyelogram b. voiding cystourethrogram c. hysterosalpingogram d. myelogram
c. hysterosalpingogram
With the patient positioned as illustrated in this image, which of the following structures is best demonstrated? a. patella b. patellofemoral articulation c. intercondyloid fossa d. tibial tuberosity
c. intercondyloid fossa
In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head? a. AP b. external rotation c. internal rotation d. neutral position
c. internal rotation
Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially? a. AP b. external rotation c. internal rotation d. neutral position
c. internal rotation
all the following structures are associated with the posterior femur, except a. popliteal surface b. intercondyloid fossa c. intertrochanteric line d. linea aspera
c. intertrochanteric line
The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the a. transverse processes b. vertebral arches c. laminae d. pedicles
c. laminae
The letter A in this image is a. left anterior rib b. right posterior rib c. left posterior rib d. right anterior rib
c. left posterior rib
Patients are instructed to remove all jewerly, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering the room for an examination in a. sonography b. computed tomography (CT) c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. nuclear medicine
c. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated? a. AP b. lateral oblique c. medial oblique d. lateral
c. medial oblique
That portion of a long from which it lengthens/grows is the a. diaphysis b. epiphysis c. metaphysis d. apophysis
c. metaphysis
That portion of long bone where lengthening growth takes place is the a. diaphysis b. epiphysis c. metaphysis d. apophysis
c. metaphysis
Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the a. lateral projection b. Pa axial (Caldwell method) projection c. parietoacanthial (Water's method) projection d. AP axial (Towne method) projection
c. parietoacanthial (Water's method) projection
The condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs is referred to as... a. pneumothorax b. atelectasis c. pulmonary embolism d. hypoxia
c. pulmonary embolism
The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called a. hypertension b. elasticity c. pulse d. pressure
c. pulse
All the following positions are likely to be used for both single - and double-contrast examinations of the large bowel, except a. lateral rectum b. AP axial rectosigmoid c. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen d. RAO and LAO abdomen
c. right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true, except a. the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination b. retained fecal material can obscure pathology c. single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions d. double-contrast studies help to demonstrate mucosal lesions
c. single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions
Mineral homeostasis, projection, and triglyceride storage are functions of which body system? a. endocrine b. integumentary c. skeletal d. muscular
c. skeletal
Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation? a. AP knee b. lateral knee c. tangential patella d. tunnel view
c. tangential patella
Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral refulx? a. retrograde urogram b. intravenous urogram (IVU) c. voiding cystourethrogram d. retrograde cystogram
c. voiding cystourethrogram
How should a mobile chest examination be performed to demonstrate air-fluid levels on a patient seated semi-upright about 70 degrees? a. with CR directed 20º caudad b. with CR directed 20º cephalad c. with CR parallel to the floor d. with CR perpendicular to coronal plane
c. with CR parallel to the floor
Which of the following structures is illustrated by number 2 in this image? a. maxillary sinus b. coronoid process c. zygomatic arch d. coracoid process
c. zygomatic arch
Which of the following anatomic structures is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?
cardiac apex
In the PA axial oblique projection of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed a. parallel to C4 b. perpendicular to C4 c. 15 cephalad to C4 d. 15 caudad to C4
d. 15 caudad to C4
Which of the following projections/positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture? a. internal and external rotation b. AP and tangential c. AP and AP axial d. AP and scapular Y
d. AP and scapular Y
At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? a. foramen magnum b. trachea c. pharynx d. C4
d. C4
In the AP axial projection, or bilateral "frog-leg" position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axes of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR? a. adducted 25º from the horizontal b. abducted 25º from the vertical c. adducted 40º from the horizontal d. abdeucted 40º from the vertical
d. abducted 40º from the vertical
An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as a. blowout b. Le Fort c. contracture d. contrecoup
d. contrecoup
The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the a. costal margin b. umbilicus c. xiphiod tip d. fourth lumber vertebra
d. fourth lumber vertebra
Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the a. position of the organ b. size and shape of the organ c. diverticula d. gastric or bowel mucosa
d. gastric or bowel mucosa
Which body habitus type is characterized by a short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach? a. asthenic b. hyposthenic c. sthenic d. hypersthenic
d. hypersthenic
Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition? a. AP b. lateral c. medial oblique d. lateral oblique
d. lateral oblique
The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the a. coronal plane 90º to the IR b. midsagittal plane 90º to the IR c. coronal plane 20º to the IR d. midsagittal plane 20º to the IR
d. midsagittal plane 20º to the IR
The structure numbered 4 in this image is the..... a. anterior arch of C1 b. body of C1 c. body of C2 d. odontoid process
d. odontoid process
Which of the following is well demonstrated just posterior to the lumbar vertebra in this image? a. inferior vena cava b. aorta c. gallbladder d. psoas muscle
d. psoas muscle
Structures located proximal to the carpal bones include a. dsital interphalangeal joints b. proximal interphalangeal joints c. metacarpals d. radial styloid process
d. radial styloid process
This image was made in what position? a. AP or PA erect b. dorsal decubitus c. left lateral decubitus d. right lateral decubitus
d. right lateral decubitus
Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Water's method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth? a. frontal b. ethmoidal c. maxillary d. sphenoidal
d. sphenoidal
Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 3 in this image is... a. PA axial projection (Caldwell method) b. parietoacanthial projection (Water's method) c. lateral projection d. submentovertex projection
d. submentovertex projection
The following skull position will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process: a. ap axial b. lateral c. parietoacanthial d. submentovertical (SMV)
d. submentovertical (SMV)
The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is a. PA projection wrist, radial deviation b. PA axial projection wrist, Stecher method c. AP oblique hands/ Norgaard method d. tangential projection wrist, Geynor-Hart method
d. tangential projection wrist, Geynor-Hart method
All the following statements regarding the position shown in this image are true, except... a. a left pleural effusion could be demonstrated b. a right pneumothorax could be demonstrated c. a left lateral decubitus position is illustrated d. the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7
d. the CR is directed vertically to the level of T7
That portion of the humerus which articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint is the a. semilunar/trochlear notch b. radial head c. capitulum d. trochlea
d. trochlea
Which of the following positions of the abdomen is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table and the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest
dorsal decubitus position
Which of the following conditions is characterized by "flattening" of the hemidiaphragms
emphysema
Which of the following methods was used to obtain the image seen in this figure (A) erect PA, chin extended, OML forming 37º to IR (B) erect PA, OML, and CR perpendicular to IR (C) erect PA, chin extended, OML 15º from horizontal (D) erect PA, chin extended, OML 30º from horizontal
erect PA, chin extended, OML 15 degrees from horizontal
Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the
hilus
How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries?
include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position
Small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity can be demonstrated in which of the following positions?
lateral decubitus, affected side up
The interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated in which of the following projections?
lateral oblique foot
In which of the following projections was the image made? a. AP b. medial oblique c. lateral oblique d. actue flexion
medial oblique
What is that portion of bone labeled C in the pediatric PA hand image seen in this figure
metaphysis
An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations?
myelogram
Which of the following serves to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?
oblique the hand no more than 45º
The floor of the cranium includes all of the following bones, except a. temporal bones b. occipital bone c. ethmoid bone d. sphenoid bone
occipital
Which of the following is best demonstrated in the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skill, with the CR directed 30 caudad to the orbitomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati?
occipital bone
The following is/are well demonstrated in the lumbar spine seen in this image 1. pedicles 2. vertebral foramina 3. zygapophyseal articulations
pedicles, 1 only
A pacemaker electrode can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, and advanced to the
right ventricle
The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the
serosa
What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra upon the vertebra below it?
spondylolisthesis
An accurate critique of the PA projection of the chest seen in this figure would include the following: 1. the pulmonary apices are demonstrated 2. the air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated 3. ten posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm
the pulmonary apices are demonstrated, the air-filled trachea and carina are demonstrated and ten posterior ribs are seen above the diaphragm... so 1,2, and 3.
Which of the following statements regarding this image is correct?
the right ureter is better visualized
Which of the following anatomic structures is indicated by the number 3 in this image? a. medial epicondyle b. trochlea c. capitulum d. olecranon process
trochlea
The term valgus refers to
turned outward
