ARRT REVIEW

What 4 things need to be on EVERY radiographic image?

(1) the patient's name or ID number, (2) the side marker, right or left; (3) the date of the examination; and (4) the identity of the institution or office

Which of the following is (are) included in whole-body dose equivalents? 1.Gonads 2.Lens 3.Extremities

1 & 2, Gonads and lens

For the axiolateral oblique (modified Law) projection of the TMJ's, how much is the central ray angled and in which direction?

15 degree caudad angle; The purpose of the 15 degree caudad angle is to project the upside TMJ below the downside TMJ so they will not be superimposed. The downside TMJ is the one of interest.

An upper G.I. series on a hypersthenic patient would require what kind of an adjustment of the central ray?

2" higher than normal; A hypersthenic patient is one with a large, wide body habitus. The stomach lies more superior and horizontal than an average stomach.

Where should the central ray enter for a cross-table (horizontal beam) lateral, trauma skull projection? A. Perpendicular to the EAM B. 3/4" anterior and 3/4" superior to the EAM C. 2" superior to the EAM D. The lateral margin of the orbit

2" superior to the EAM

For an axiolateral (modified Schuller) projection of the TMJ's, how is the central ray angled?

25 degrees caudad; The skull is in a true lateral position. The 25 degree caudad angle prevents the two TMJ's from being superimposed.

How much must the body be rotated for an oblique position of the sacroiliac joints?

25-30 degrees; With the body rotated 25-30 degrees, the CR would enter a point 1" medial to the upside A.S.I.S.

The spinal cord terminates at what vertebrae?

2nd Lumbar Vertebrae

At what angle should a wheelchair be placed in next to the radiographic table?

45 degrees, with the patients stronger leg closest to the table

How many movable joints can be visualized in an AP pelvis radiograph?

5; Two sacroiliac joints, two hip joints and the symphysis pubis

How many salivary glands are there?

6; There are right and left parotids, right and left submandibulars and right and left sublingual salivary glands.

How much must the patient be obliqued in order to visualize the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine?

70 degrees; A steep 70 degree oblique will demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine

What is the preferable SID for a lateral position of the cervical spine?

72"; Because of the OID, a long SID is preferred to keep magnification to a minimum and to maximize recorded detail.

In reviewing a patient's blood chemistry, which of the following blood urea nitrogen (BUN) ranges is considered normal?

8 - 25 mg/100ml

In regards to density, scale of contrast, and latitude, what occurs with a 15% kVp increase and a 50% mAs decrease?

A 15% increase in kVp with a 50% decrease in mAs serves to produce a radiograph similar to the original, but with some obvious differences. The overall blackness (radiographic density) is cut in half because of the decrease in mAs. However, the loss of blackness is compensated for by the addition of grays (therefore, longer-scale contrast) from the increased kVp. The increase in kVp also increases exposure latitude; there is a greater margin for error in higher kVp ranges.

What is a Bankart lesion?

A Bankart lesion is a fracture of the anteroinferior portion of the rim of the glenoid fossa.

What is a Hill-Sachs defect?

A Hill-Sachs defect is a compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head, usually associated with anterior dislocation of the shoulder joint. It can involve the cartilage of the humeral head, causing instability and predisposing the shoulder to subsequent dislocations.

What is a compensating filter used for?

A compensating filter is used to make up for widely differing tissue densities. For example, it is difficult to obtain a satisfactory image of the mediastinum and lungs simultaneously without the use of a compensating filter to "even out" the densities.

Which has a lower osmolality, ionic or nonionic agents?

A nonionic contrast agent has a lower osmolality.

At what respiratory rate would a patient have tachypnea?

A respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths/min in an adult

What is a rotator cuff tear?

A rotator cuff tear involves injury to one or more of the muscles participating in formation of that muscular structure. The supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis, and teres minor are the major muscles of the rotator cuff.

The bregma in an adult would be referred to as what in an infant?

Anterior fontanel; The bregma is where the sagittal suture and the coronal suture join. In an infant it is referred to as "soft spots" and is called the anterior fontanel. There are five other such areas in the skull.

Where is the exact location of the optic foramen?

Apex of the orbit; The orbit is "cone" shaped. The base of the orbit makes up the bony rim around the eye and the apex of the orbit is where the optic foramen is located.

Is focal spot size directly or indirectly related to recorded detail?

As focal spot size increases, recorded detail decreases because more penumbra is produced. Focal spot size is thus inversely related to radiographic sharpness or recorded detail.

Does an image become more or less gray as kVp is increased?

As kVp is increased, the percentage of scattered radiation relative to primary radiation increases, hence the grayer appearance

As kilovoltage is reduced, what happens to radiographic density?

As kilovoltage is reduced, the number of high-energy photons produced at the target is reduced; therefore, a decrease in radiographic density occurs.

What is another name for the first cervical vertebra?

Atlas; Atlas was a mythological Greek god who held the world on his shoulders. The 1st cervical (atlas) holds the weight of the skull.

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle 3. zygoma A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position. 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints. 3. The procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only - Evaluation of the acromioclavicular joints requires bilateral AP or PA erect projections with and without the use of weights. Weights are used to emphasize the minute changes within a joint caused by separation or dislocation.

What is the outer meningeal layer of the spinal cord called?

Dura mater; From outside to inside the layers are dura mater, arachnoid and pia mater.

Why must there be a 5 degree angle in the lateral knee position?

It is needed because there is significant magnification of the medial femoral condyle (the side farthest from the IR) and, unless the central ray is angled slightly cephalad, subsequent obliteration of the joint space.

When is informed consent necessary?

Informed consent is necessary before performing any procedure that is considered invasive or that carries considerable risk.

What is it called when part of the bowel telescopes into the adjacent bowel?

Intussusception; It is a telescoping of the bowel into itself. This often results in an ileus.

What is the most inferior portion of the pelvis called?

Ischial tuberosity; While you are sitting up, the pelvis is in a vertical position. You are actually sitting on the ischial tuberosities

The innominate bone is formed by the fusion of which three bones?

Ischium, pubis, ilium; Innominate means "no name". The reason the bone has no name is because it is formed by three bones (ischium, pubis, ilium) that have fused together. One innominate bone makes up 1/2 of the pelvis.

What is the name of the organ that lies within the duodenal loop?

Pancreas; The pancreas lies within the duodenal loop and the main pancreatic duct empties into the duodenum through the sphincter of Oddi

What is the name of the part of the temporal bone that houses the organs of hearing and equilibrium?

Petrous portion; The middle ear houses the organs of hearing and equilibrium, it is located in the petrous portion of the temporal bones.

What is an iatrogenic infection is one caused by?

Physician intervention; The prefix iatr- is from the Greek iatros, meaning "physician." An iatrogenic infection is one caused by physician intervention or by medical or diagnostic treatment/procedures. Examples include infection following surgery and nausea or other illness following prescribed drug use

Is geometric unsharpness more likely to occur at the cathode or anode end of the image?

because of the target angle, penumbral blur varies along the longitudinal tube axis, being greater at the cathode end of the image and less at the anode end of the image

Which of the following articulates with the zygomatic bones? A. Nasal B. Lacrimal C. Temporal D. Mandible

c. Temporal; The temporal process of the zygomatic bone articulates with zygomatic process of the temporal bone to form the zygomatic arch

How are mAs and radiographic density related in the process of image formation?

mAs and radiographic density are directly proportional.

In a hypersthenic patient, where is the stomach located?

the stomach is high and transverse/horizontal

The exposure factors of 300 mA, 0.07 second, and 95 kVp were used to produce a particular radiographic density and contrast. A similar radiograph can be produced using 500 mA, 80 kVp, and A. 0.01 second. B. 0.04 second. C. 0.08 second. D. 0.16 second.

C. 0.08 second; First, evaluate the change(s): The kVp was decreased by about 15% [95-15% = 80.7]. A 15% decrease in kVp will cut the radiographic density in half; therefore, it is necessary to use twice the original mAs to maintain the original density. The original mAs was 21, and so we now need 42 mAs, using the 500-mA station. Because mA × s = mAs, 500x = 42 x = 0.084 second

A diabetic patient who has prepared for a fasting radiographic examination is susceptible to a hypoglycemic reaction. This is characterized by 1. shaking and nervousness. 2. cold, clammy skin. 3. cyanosis. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 1 and 2

The cribriform plate is a part of which of these bones? A. Frontal B. Sphenoid C. Ethmoid D. Vomer

C. Ethmoid; The cribriform plate has several small foramina for the passing of the olfactory nerves (the nerves of smell)

All the following have an effect on patient dose except A. kilovoltage B. milliampere-seconds C. focal spot size D. inherent filtration

C. Focal spot size

At what level is the image receptor centered for a lateral lumbosacral spine? A. A.S.I.S. B. Symphysis pubis C. Iliac crest D. First lumbar

C. Iliac crest; Lumbosacral spine means the lumbar vertebrae and the sacrum must be demonstrated. In order to see the five lumbar and the sacrum the CR must be centered at the level of the iliac crest.

A patient who has gallstones is said to have what condition?

Cholelithiasis; Cholelithiasis is the condition (-iasis) of having gall (chole) stones (lith).

What is the name of the main bile duct that leads directly from the liver?

Common hepatic duct; Hepat is a word root meaning liver. Hepatic is an adjective referring to the liver.

What is the purpose of the thoracic duct?

Conveys lymph into the left subclavian vein; The lymphatic system drains interstitial fluid from the tissues into the venous system. The thoracic duct is the largest lymph vessel which allows the passage of lymph into the left subclavian vein.

A minor reaction to the IV administration of a contrast agent can include 1. a few hives 2. nausea 3. a flushed face A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Accurate operation of the AEC device depends on 1. the thickness and density of the object 2. positioning of the object with respect to the photocell 3. beam restriction A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

All drug packages must provide certain information required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration. Some of the information that must be provided includes 1. the generic name. 2. contraindications. 3. the usual dose. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Distortion can be caused by 1. tube angle 2. the position of the organ or structure within the body 3. the radiographic positioning of the part A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Geometric unsharpness will be least obvious 1. at long SIDs. 2. with small focal spots. 3. at the anode end of the image. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the 1. subscapularis. 2. infraspinatus 3. teres minor. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Operative cholangiography may be performed to 1. visualize biliary stones or a neoplasm. 2. determine function of the hepatopancreatic ampulla. 3. examine the patency of the biliary tract. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Personal radiation monitor reports must include which of the following information? 1. Dose equivalents for report period 2. Dosimeter type 3. Radiation quality A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Symptoms associated with a respiratory reaction to contrast media include 1. sneezing. 2. hoarseness. 3. wheezing. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

The structures forming the brain stem include the pons the medulla oblongata the midbrain A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

When comparing the male and female bony pelves, it is noted that the 1. male pelvis is deeper. 2. female pubic arch is greater than 90°. 3. female greater sciatic notch is wider. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the proper care of a patient with a tracheostomy? 1. Employ sterile technique if you must touch a tracheostomy for any reason. 2. Before you suction a tracheostomy, the patient should be well aerated. 3. Never suction for longer than 15 seconds, permitting the patient to rest in between. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3

How can you get an exact axial image of the clavicle?

By using the lordotic position

How is the mortise joint best demonstrated?

The 15-degree medial oblique projection is used to demonstrate the ankle mortise (joint).

What does the systolic part of the blood pressure show?

The phase of contraction of the cardiac muscle tissue.

What does the diastolic part of the blood pressure show?

The phase of relaxation of the cardiac muscle tissue

For metatarsals, metacarpals, and phalanges, what are the three parts of each?

The proximal base, the middle shaft, and the distal head

What is attenuation?

The reduction in x-ray photon intensity as the photon passes through material

What position is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper humerus on patients who are unable to abduct their arm?

A transthoracic projection is used to obtain a lateral projection of the upper half to two-thirds of the humerus when the arm cannot be abducted. The affected arm is placed next to the upright Bucky, the unaffected arm rests on the head, and the CR is directed horizontally through the thorax, exiting the upper humerus.

According to the line-focus principle, an anode with a small angle provides 1. improved recorded detail. 2. improved heat capacity. 3. less heel effect. A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only - The line-focus principle illustrates that as the target angle decreases, the effective focal spot decreases (providing improved recorded detail), but the actual area of electron interaction remains much larger (allowing for greater heat capacity). It must be remembered, however, that a steep (small) target angle increases the heel effect, and part coverage may be compromised

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a two-member team performing mobile radiography on a patient with MRSA precautions? 1. One radiographer remains "clean"—that is, he or she has no physical contact with the patient. 2. The radiographer who positions the mobile unit also makes the exposure. 3. The radiographer who positions the cassette also retrieves the cassette and removes it from its plastic protective cover. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 and 2 only; The positioner of the cassette is the "dirty" tech, they will never touch the cassette without the cover.

Physical changes characteristic of gerontologic patients usually include 1. loss of bone calcium. 2. loss of hearing. 3. loss of mental alertness. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

Which of the following is (are) located on the proximal aspect of the humerus? 1. Intertubercular groove 2. Capitulum 3. Coronoid fossa A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only

An increase in kilovoltage with appropriate compensation of milliampere-seconds will result in 1. increased exposure latitude. 2. higher contrast. 3. increased density. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only - As the kilovoltage is increased, more penetration will occur, and a greater range of densities (grays) will be apparent in the image. This is termed long scale or low contrast. In addition, as the kilovoltage and scale of grays increase, the exposure latitude increases; the margin for error in technical factors becomes greater. As the milliampere-seconds value is decreased to compensate for the increased kilovoltage, density should remain the same.

Geometric unsharpness is directly influenced by 1. OID 2. SOD 3. SID A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only - Geometric unsharpness is affected by all three factors listed. As OID increases, so does magnification—therefore, OID is directly related to magnification. As SOD and SID decrease, magnification increases—therefore, SOD and SID are inversely related to magnification.

Which of the following is (are) directly related to photon energy? 1. Kilovoltage 2. Milliamperes 3. Wavelength A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only - kV is the qualitative regulating factor and has a direct effect on photon energy (as kV increases so does energy). Wavelength is INVERSELY proportional to photon energy

The functions of automatic beam limitation devices include 1. reducing the production of scattered radiation 2. increasing the absorption of scattered radiation 3. changing the quality of the x-ray beam A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only; Beam restrictors function to limit the size of the irradiated field. In so doing, they limit the volume of tissue irradiated (thereby decreasing the percentage of scattered radiation generated in the part) and help to reduce patient dose.

In radiography of a large abdomen, which of the following is (are) effective way(s) to minimize the amount of scattered radiation reaching the image receptor (IR)? 1. Use of close collimation 2. Use of low mAs 3. Use of a low-ratio grid A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only; One way to minimize scattered radiation reaching the IR is to use optimal kilovoltage; excessive kilovoltage increases the production of scattered radiation. Close collimation is exceedingly important because the smaller the volume of irradiated material, the less scattered radiation will be produced.

Which of the following is (are) accurate positioning or evaluation criteria for an AP projection of the normal knee? 1. Femorotibial interspaces equal bilaterally. 2. Patella superimposed on distal tibia. 3. CR enters ½ in. distal to base of patella. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A. 1 only; Patella is superimposed over the femur, CR enters 1/2 in distal to APEX of patella

An upper respiratory disease would be located where? 1. Nose and throat 2. Trachea 3. Bronchi A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 & 3 only D. 2 & 3 only

A. 1 only; The upper respiratory tract includes the nasal cavity, pharynx and larynx. Therefore, upper respiratory infections involve the nose and throat.

The right anterior oblique of the cervical spine requires which of the following combinations of tube angle and direction? A. 15° to 20° caudad B. 15° to 20° cephalad C. 25° to 30° caudad D. 25° to 30° cephalad

A. 15 to 20 degrees caudad

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae? A. AP axial B. Lateral C. 45 degree oblique D. 70 degree oblique

A. AP Axial; The transverse processes project laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae. Therefore, the AP axial projection would demonstrate them best.

Which of the following positions/projections would best demonstrate a hiatal hernia? A. AP B. Lateral C. RAO D. LAO

A. AP; A hiatal hernia is where a portion of the stomach herniates through the diaphragm. An AP projection fills the fundus with barium and will demonstrate a hiatal hernia if the diaphragm is included.

The practice that is used to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria is termed A. antisepsis B. disinfection C. sterilization D. medical asepsis.

A. Antisepsis

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle? A. Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins B. Arterioles, arteries, capillaries, veins, venules C. Veins, venules, capillaries, arteries, arterioles D. Venules, veins, capillaries, arterioles, arteries

A. Arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venules, veins

A radiographer who tells the patient that he or she will have to repeat this uncomfortable examination if the patient does not try harder to cooperate can be accused of A. assault. B. battery. C. false imprisonment. D. defamation.

A. Assault; Assault is the threat of touching or laying hands on someone. If a patient feels threatened by a practitioner, either because of the tone or pitch of the practitioner's voice or because the practitioner uses words that are threatening, the practitioner can be accused of assault.

Rotation of the skull takes place between which of the following cervical vertebrae? A. Cl and C2 B. C2 and C3 C. C4 and C5 D. C6 and C7

A. C1 and C2; C1 articulates with the skull and it rotates around the dens of C2

To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR. B. CR is directed cephalad to the IR. C. skull is obliqued away from the affected side. D. skull is obliqued toward the affected side.

A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR

An interaction that produces x-rays at the anode as a result of outer shell electrons filling holes in the K shell is called: A. characteristic. B. photoelectric. C. Compton. D. Brems.

A. Characteristic; This is a description of characteristic radiation. Although both characteristic and Brems radiation produce x-rays at the anode, Brems radiation occurs when a projectile electron misses the outer shell target electrons and moves close to the nucleus. Photoelectric interaction does involve outer shell electrons filling holes in the K shell, but it does not produce x-rays at the anode. Compton interaction produces scatter radiation.

Which of the following reasons would NOT require an acute abdominal series? A. A child swallowing a penny B. Perforated hollow viscus C. Intestinal obstruction D. Abdominal infection

A. Child swallowing a penny; Acute means sudden onset. Perforated organs, obstruction and infection are serious illnesses that would require supine, erect or decubitus radiographs of the abdomen.

What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis? A. Dome of the acetabulum B. Femoral neck C. Greater trochanter D. Iliac crest

A. Dome of the acetabulum

A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an) A. Hill-Sachs defect. B. Bankart lesion. C. rotator cuff tear. D. adhesive capsulitis.

A. Hill-Sachs defect

Which of the following describes the term ileus? A. Intestinal obstruction B. Enlarged bowel C. Distended stomach D. Abdominal infection

A. Intestinal obstruction; Ileus is an obstruction of the small intestine. It can be caused by infection, postsurgical complications or a physical blockage.

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best demonstrated? A. Lateral oblique foot B. Medial oblique foot C. Lateral foot D. Weight-bearing foot

A. Lateral oblique foot; The lateral oblique demonstrates the interspaces between the first and second metatarsals and between the first and second cuneiforms. To best demonstrate most of the tarsals and intertarsal spaces (including the cuboid, sinus tarsi, and tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal), a medial oblique projection is required (plantar surface and IR form a 30-degree angle)

What is the name of the valve that allows blood to pass from the left atrium to the left ventricle? A. Mitral B. Aortic C. Tricuspid D. Semilunar

A. Mitral; The mitral, or bicuspid, valve allows blood to pass from the left atrium to the left ventricle. The aortic, or semilunar, valve allows blood to pass from the left ventricle to the aorta. The tricuspid valve allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the right ventricle.

Which type of error results in grid cutoff at the periphery of the radiographic image? A. Off-focus B. Off-center C. Off-level D. Off-angle

A. Off-focus

Grid cutoff due to off-centering would result in A. overall loss of density B. both sides of the image being underexposed C. overexposure under the anode end D. underexposure under the anode end

A. Overall loss of density

Which of the following defines dysuria? A. Painful urination B. Inability to urinate C. Frequent urination D. Constant urination

A. Painful urination; Dysuria is difficult or painful (dys-) urination (uria).

If a patient is unable to assume a lordotic position, what other way could the pulmonary apices be demonstrated? A. Patient supine, CR directed 15 - 20 degrees cephalad B. Patient erect, CR directed perpendicular to mid-sagittal plane C. PA projection with the patient's hands raised above his head D. A 60 degree RAO and a 30 degree LAO

A. Patient supine, CR directed 15 - 20 degrees cephalad; An AP lordotic projection of the pulmonary apices has the patient leaning back against the image receptor holder. This is a difficult position for an elderly patient.

Which of the following project off the posterior, lateral borders of the vertebral body? A. Pedicles B. Laminae C. Spinous process D. Articular processes

A. Pedicles; Projecting directly off the posterior, lateral borders of a vertebral body are two pedicles.

The pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are best demonstrated during an upper GI series in which of the following positions? A. RAO B. Left lateral C. Recumbent PA D. Recumbent AP

A. RAO

A radiograph exposed using a 12:1 ratio grid may exhibit a loss of density at its lateral edges because the A. SID was too great. B. grid failed to move during the exposure. C. x-ray tube was angled in the direction of the lead strips. D. CR was off-center.

A. SID was too great; If the SID is above or below the recommended focusing distance, the primary beam at the lateral edges will not coincide with the angled lead strips.

Which of the following positions would the patient be in during the insertion of an enema tip? A. Sims' position B. Trendelenburg position C. Fowler's position D. Prone position

A. Sims' position; The Sims' position has the patient on their left side with the right leg flexed and placed in front of the left leg. Trendelenburg position has the head lower than the feet; Fowler has head above the feet.

Which of the following bones helps form the base of the cranium? A. Sphenoid B. Parietal C. Occipital D. Frontal

A. Sphenoid; The base of the cranium is made up of the right and left temporals, the ethmoid and the sphenoid.

Which of the following topographical landmarks corresponds to the floor of the cranium? A. Supraorbital groove B. Interpupillary line C. Mental point D. E.A.M.

A. Supraorbital groove; The supraorbital groove lies above each eyebrow. It is an important landmark because this is where the facial bones end and the cranium begins.

Which of the following blood pressure measurements might indicate shock? A. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg B. Systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg C. Diastolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg D. Diastolic pressure lower than 90 mmHg

A. Systolic pressure lower than 60 mmHg; Shock is indicated by extremely low blood pressure, that is, a systolic blood pressure reading lower than 60 mmHg (below 90 mmHg is considered low blood pressure).

A CCD may be used in the television system instead of what device(s)? A. Vidicon and Plumbicon tubes B. C-arm C. Automatic brightness control D. Output phosphor

A. Vidicon and Plumbicon tubes; A charge-coupled device (CCD) is a solid-state imager that may be used instead of vidicon and Plumbicon tubes to send the signal to a television monitor. The c-arm is a structural device that keeps the x-ray tube and image receptor an appropriate distance apart. Automatic brightness control does not involve such a device. Output phosphor is a part of the image-intensifier tube.

A spontaneous fracture most likely would be associated with A. pathology. B. crepitus. C. trauma. D. metabolism.

A. pathology

An increase in kilovoltage will serve to A. produce a longer scale of contrast B produce a shorter scale of contrast C. decrease the radiographic density D. decrease the production of scattered radiation

A. produce a longer scale of contrast - An increase in kilovoltage increases the overall average energy of the x-ray photons produced at the target, thus giving them greater penetrability. Greater penetration of all tissues serves to lengthen the scale of contrast

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in A. the recumbent position. B. the erect position. C. the anatomic position. D. Fowler's position.

A. the recumbent position; varices are must more pronounced in the recumbent position rather than the erect position

When does absorption occur?

Absorption occurs when an x-ray photon interacts with matter and disappears, as in the photoelectric effect.

What is the most superior structure of the scapula?

Acromion process

What is adhesive capsulitis?

Adhesive capsulitis, or "frozen shoulder," causes very diminished shoulder movement as a result of chronic joint inflammation.

A common problem among elderly men is prostatic enlargement. Which radiographic exam will show this? 1. IVU 2. Cystogram 3. Voiding cystourethrogram

All 3; An enlarged prostate gland can be visualized on all three of these exams of the urinary system

Which of the following structures should be seen on a good supine abdominal radiograph? 1. Lumbar transverse processes 2. Psoas muscles 3. Kidney outlines

All 3; Look for these structures to help you determine if you have a good, quality radiograph of the supine abdomen

Which of the following is (are) symptom(s) of shock? 1. Pallor and weakness 2. Increased pulse 3. Fever A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only; A patient who is going into shock may exhibit pallor and weakness, a significant drop in blood pressure, and an increased pulse. The patient may also experience apprehension and restlessness and may have cool, clammy skin.

Which of the following is (are) characteristic(s) of anemia? 1. Decreased number of circulating red blood cells 2. Decreased hemoglobin 3. Hematuria A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only; Anemia is a blood condition characterized by a decreased number of circulating red blood cells and decreased hemoglobin; it has many causes. Adequate hemoglobin is required to provide oxygen to the body. Anemia is treated according to its cause. Hematuria is the term used to describe blood in the urine and is unrelated to anemia

Skin discoloration owing to cyanosis may be observed in the 1. gums. 2. earlobes. 3. corneas. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only; Cyanosis is a condition resulting from a deficiency of oxygen circulating in the blood. It is characterized by bluish discoloration of the gums, nailbeds, earlobes, and the area around the mouth

In which of the following conditions is a double-contrast BE essential for demonstration of the condition? 1. Polyps 2. Colitis 3. Diverticulosis A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only; Double-contrast studies of the large bowel are particularly useful for demonstration of the bowel wall and anything projecting into it, for example, polyps. Polyps are projections of the bowel wall mucous membrane into the bowel lumen. Colitis is inflammation of the large bowel, often associated with ulcerations of the mucosal wall. A single-contrast study most likely would obliterate these mucosal conditions, but coating of the bowel mucosa with barium and subsequent filling of the bowel with air (double contrast) provide optimal delineation. Single-contrast studies will demonstrate projections/outpouchings from the intestinal wall such as diverticulitis.

Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull? 1. The IOML is parallel to the IR. 2. The MSP is parallel to the IR. 3. The CR enters ¾ inch superior and anterior to the EAM. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only; In the lateral position of the skull, the midsagittal plane must be parallel to the IR and the interpupillary line vertical. Flexion of the head is adjusted until the IOML is parallel to the IR. The CR should enter about 2 inches superior to the EAM. The centering point for a lateral sella turcica is ¾ inch anterior and superior to the EAM

Greater latitude is available to the radiographer when using 1 high-kilovoltage factors. 2. a slow film-screen combination. 3. a high-ratio grid. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 1 and 2 only; In the low-kilovoltage ranges, a difference of just a few kilovolts makes a very noticeable radiographic difference; that is, there is little latitude. High-kilovoltage techniques offer a much greater margin for error, as do slower film-screen combinations.

Which of the following is the proper tube angle for an AP axial coccyx projection? A. 10-20 degrees cephalad B. 10-20 degrees caudad C. 25 degrees cephalad D. 25 degrees caudad

B. 10-20 degrees caudad; The CR should enter 2" superior to the symphysis pubis at a 10-20 degree caudad angle to demonstrate the coccyx in an AP axial projection.

A lateral radiograph of the lumbar spine was made using 200 mA, 1-second exposure, and 90 kV. If the exposure factors were changed to 200 mA, 0.5 second, and 104 kV, there would be an obvious change in which of the following? 1. Radiographic density 2. Scale of radiographic contrast 3. Distortion A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B. 2 only The original milliampere-seconds value (regulating radiographic density) was 200. The original kilovoltage (regulating radiographic contrast) was 90. The milliampere-seconds value was cut in half, to 100, causing a decrease in density. The kilovoltage was increased (by 15%) to compensate for the density loss and thereby increase the scale of contrast.

Which of the following should be done to best visualize the sternum? 1. High kVp 2. Shallow, RAO 3. Short SID A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2 & 3

B. 2 only; At one time a short SID was recommended to magnify the ribs, but for radiation safety reasons that practice has been discontinued.

For an axiolateral oblique projection of the mandible, if the patient is lateral, how much is the tube angled? A. 15 degrees cephalad B. 25 degrees cephalad C. 35 degrees cephalad D. 45 degrees cephalad

B. 25 degrees cephalad; It takes a 25 degree tube angle, or a combination of a head tilt (15 degrees) and tube angle (10 degrees) to achieve a 25 degree angle

If the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular to the image receptor for an AP axial (Towne) projection, how much caudad angle is required? A. 25 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 37 degrees D. 40 degrees

B. 30 degrees; It is difficult to get the orbitomeatal line perpendicular to the image receptor on most patients, therefore, put the infraorbitomeatal line perpendicular to the image receptor and use a 37 degree caudad angle

The umbilicus lies at the level of which of the following? A. 2nd and 3rd lumbar B. 3rd and 4th lumbar C. 4th and 5th lumbar D. 5th lumbar and 1st sacral

B. 3rd and 4th lumbar; Although not a good landmark to use routinely, on large patients it may be the only one that can be located. The iliac crest lies at the level of L4-L5 interspace.

To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned A. 45 degrees oblique, affected side up. B. 45 degrees oblique, affected side down. C. 25 degrees oblique, affected side up. D. 25 degrees oblique, affected side down.

B. 45 degrees oblique, with the affected side down; To view it in profile, then, it must be placed so that its surface is perpendicular to the IR. The patient is positioned in a 45-degree oblique, affected-side-down position, which places the glenoid fossa approximately perpendicular to the IR.

What is the condition called when a patient's kidneys cannot excrete any urine? A. Dysuria B. Anuria C. Hematuria D. Polyuria

B. Anuria, meaning without (an-) urine (uria) describes the patient's condition when he is unable to void.

Fluoroscopic imaging of the ileocecal valve is generally part of a(n) A. esophagram. B. upper GI series. C. small-bowel series. D. ERCP.

C small-bowel series

What is it called when part of a patient's bronchial tree is blocked, causing a partial collapse? A. Pneumothorax B. Atelectasis C. Hemothorax D. Pleural effusion

B. Atelectasis; Atelectasis is a collapsed or airless condition of the lung which may be caused by obstruction of the airway.

Which of the following is a very serious inflammation of the brain? A. Spinalitis B. Encephalitis C. Hydrocephalus D. Meningitis

B. Encephalitis; Inflammation of the brain, a very serious condition, is encephalitis (encephal = brain; itis = inflammation)

Which of the following is most likely to produce a high-quality image? A. Small image matrix B. High signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) C. Large pixel size D. Low resolution

B. High signal-to-noise ration; Noise interferes with visualization of image details, for example, scattered radiation fog, graininess from quantum mottle, and so on. The actual signal can be from x-rays, sound waves, and so on. The signal is desirable, the noise is not, therefore, a higher SNR produces a higher-quality image. Low SNR severely impairs contrast resolution

Which of the following is NOT part of the large intestine? A. Right colic flexure B. Jejunum C. Ascending colon D. Sigmoid

B. Jejunum; The jejunum is part of the small intestine

At what level should the CR enter for a RAO of the stomach of a sthenic patient? A. T9 B. L2 C. L4 D. Iliac crest

B. L2; The CR should enter at the level of L2, midway between the spinous processes and the lateral border of the abdomen

Which of the following organs have folds that are referred to as haustra? A. Stomach B. Large intestine C. Gallbladder D. Small intestine

B. Large intestine

Which of the following bones forms the major part of the hard palate? A. Palatines B. Maxillae C. Zygomatics D. Mandible

B. Maxillae; It would seem logical that the palatines would form the hard palate. However, they only form the posterior 1/4. The palatine processes of the maxillae form the majority of the hard palate.

Short dimension grids, where the grid lines run with the short axis of the grid instead of the normal long axis, are useful for which of the following? A. Upright abdomen B. Mobile chest done with the grid crosswise C. Mobile knee in traction D. 45/45 trauma shoulder

B. Mobile chest done with the grid crosswise; With a normal grid, when turned crosswise for a large patient the CR and grid must be aligned perfectly or grid cutoff will occur. With a short dimension grid, the grid lines will be runnning vertically when the grid is turn crosswise. This allows the radiographer to angle up or down or be misaligned with out getting grid cuttoff

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except A. the temporal bones B. the occipital bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the sphenoid bone

B. Occipital bones

A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70° (rather than the desired 90°). How should the central ray be directed? A. Perpendicular to the IR B. Parallel to the floor C. 20° caudad D. 20° cephalad

B. Parallel to the floor

Which of the following terms describes the intensity of the x-ray beam? A. Quality B. Quantity C. Primary D. Remnant (exit)

B. Quantity; Intensity is the number of x rays per area. Quantity refers to the number of x rays.

A patient hurts in the left anterior part of the thorax. Which oblique would show this area best? A. LAO B. RAO C. RPO D. Lateral

B. RAO; A RAO or a LPO will show this area best.

Which of the following is NOT an artery that originates directly from the aortic arch? A. Brachiocephalic artery B. Right subclavian C. Left carotid D. Left coronary

B. Right subclavian; The brachiocephalic, left subclavian, left common carotid, left and right coronaries are arteries that branch off the aortic arch

Which of the following is NOT one of the bones that composes the calvarium? A. Frontal B. Temporal C. Occipital D. Parietal

B. Temporal; The calvarium (skull cap) is made up of the frontal, occipital and right and left parietals.

An RT (ARRT) is the supervising manager of a short-staffed imaging facility in a State having legislation that requires professional certification. An job applicant arrives whose ARRT certification has lapsed. The manager hires him to fill a 20-hour position doing chest and extremity radiography. The supervisor is guilty of A. breaking the ARRT Code of Ethics. B. breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics. C.malpractice. D. nothing, because position responsibilities are limited.

B. breaking the ARRT Rules of Ethics; The ARRT Standards of Ethics apply to those Registered Technologists holding ARRT certification and Candidates for ARRT certification. The Standards consist of two parts: the Code of Ethics (aspirational) and the Rules of Ethics (mandatory). The ARRT Rules of Ethics are mandatory minimum professional standards for all RTs and candidate RTs. Violators, and individuals who permit violation, of these Rules are subject to sanctions. Rules of Ethics numbers 15 and 21 specifically refer to those who knowingly assist another without proper certification to engage in the practice of radiologic technology, and/or those who fail to promptly report such activity to the ARRT—as being subject to sanction.

When performing a quality control test to ensure that the penetrating ability of the x-ray beam is accurate, the result must be within this amount of the control panel setting: A. ±2% of SID. B. ±4%. C. ±10 % D. ±4 kVp.

B. ±4%.; kVp must be accurate to within 10% of that chosen. Be sure you know these quality control standards.

How should people in sterile gowns pass each other?

Back to back

How are the floating ribs best visualized?

Below the diaphragm; Floating ribs are best demonstrated with an abdominal technique, on full expiration

What is the purpose of having the patient flex his knees for an AP projection of the lumbar spine?

Better visualization of disk spaces; By flexing the knees, the small of the back comes in contact with the table and reduces some of the natural curvature of the lumbar spine. This makes the intervertebral disk spaces more visible.

When performing a quality control test to ensure that adjacent mA stations are accurate, the results must be within this amount of one another: A. 2% of SID B. 4% C. 10% D. 5%

C. 10%; Adjacent mA stations should be within 10% of one another. Be sure you know these quality control standards.

Ulnar deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)? 1. Medial carpals 2. Lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 - In addition to correcting foreshortening of the scaphoid, ulnar deviation opens the interspaces between adjacent lateral carpals.

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb. 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies. 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

The ARRT Rules of Ethics are 1. aspirational. 2. mandatory. 3. minimally acceptable standards. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following medical equipment is used to determine blood pressure? 1. Pulse oximeter 2. Stethoscope 3. Sphygmomanometer A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR. 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally. 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only - To accurately position a lateral forearm, the elbow must form a 90-degree angle with the humeral epicondyles perpendicular to the IR and superimposed. The radius and ulna are superimposed distally. Proximally, the coronoid process and radial head are superimposed, and the radial head faces anteriorly.

Federal regulations regarding infection control in the workplace, as amended by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), make which of the following requirements? 1. Hepatitis B immunizations must be made available to all hospital employees. 2. Puncture-proof containers must be provided for all used needles. 3. Follow-up care must be provided to any staff accidentally exposed to blood splash/needle stick. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only; Hep B immunizations are available for those who may come into contact with blood

Recorded detail can be improved by decreasing 1. the SID 2. the OID 3. patient/part motion A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only; Motion, voluntary or involuntary, is most detrimental to good recorded detail. Minimizing magnification through the use of increased SID and decreased OID functions to improve recorded detail.

Chemical substances that are used to kill pathogenic bacteria are called 1. antiseptics. 2. germicides. 3. disinfectants. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only; Some chemical agents used in health-care facilities function to kill pathogenic microorganisms, while others function to inhibit the growth/spread of pathogenic microorganisms. Germicides and disinfectants are used to kill pathogenic microorganisms, whereas antiseptics (like alcohol) are used to stop their growth/spread.

The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. parallel to the central ray (CR) 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only; The cassette for a cross-table (axiolateral or horizontal beam) lateral projection of the hip is placed in a vertical position. The top edge of the cassette should be placed directly above the iliac crest and adjacent to the lateral surface of the affected hip. The cassette is positioned parallel to the femoral neck; the CR is perpendicular to the femoral neck and cassette.

In the 15° medial oblique projection of the ankle, the 1. tibiofibular joint is visualized. 2. talotibial joint is visualized. 3. malleoli demonstrated in profile. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only; The medial oblique projection of the ankle can be performed either as a 15° to 20° oblique or as a 45° oblique. The 15° to 20° oblique demonstrates the ankle mortise, that is, the articulations between the talus, tibia, and fibula. The 45° oblique opens the distal tibiofibular joint. In all three cases, it is often recommended that the plantar surface be vertical.

Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true? 1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR. 2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft. 3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only; The scapular Y projection requires that the coronal plane be about 60 degrees to the IR (MSP is about 30 degrees), thus resulting in an oblique projection of the shoulder. The vertebral and axillary borders of the scapula are superimposed on the humeral shaft, and the resulting relationship between the glenoid fossa and humeral head will demonstrate anterior or posterior dislocation

Examples of means by which infectious microorganisms can be transmitted via indirect contact include 1. a fomite. 2. a vector. 3. nasal or oral secretions. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C. 2 and 3 only; nasal or oral secretions are direct contact by airborne droplets (involves touch)

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? A. 11 B. 21 C. 31 D. 41

C. 31; The 31 pairs of spinal nerves pass through the intervertebral foramina and sacral foramina of the vertebral column

How much should the patient be obliqued for a scapular Y position of the shoulder? A. 15 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 75 degrees

C. 45 degrees; The scapular Y position is used to rule out dislocation or fractures of the proximal humerus.

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot? A. Invert the foot. B. Evert the foot. C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly. D. Angle the CR 10 degrees anteriorly.

C. Angle the CR 10 degrees posteriorly

Where will the petrous pyramids be projected in a properly positioned PA axial (Caldwell) projection radiograph? A. In the center of the orbits B. In the upper 1/3 of the orbits C. In the lower 1/3 of the orbits D. In the lower 1/8 of the orbits

C. In the lower 1/3 of the orbits; When the orbitomeatal line is perpendicular and the CR angled 15 degrees caudad, the petrous pyramids will be projected in the lower 1/3 of the orbits.

Which of the following corresponds to the level of the iliac crest? A. T9 - 10 interspace B. L2 - 3 interspace C. L4 - 5 interspace D. S1 - 2 interspace

C. L4-L5 interspace; The iliac crest is the upper most part of the pelvis. It lies at the level of the interspace of the 4th and 5th lumbar vertabrae

A breathing technique is useful for which of the following positions/projections? A. AP cervical spine B. 70 degree oblique thoracic spine C. Lateral thoracic spine D. Open mouth

C. Lateral t-spine; The purpose of the breathing technique is to blur the ribs and lung markings to better visualize the thoracic spine.

Which of the following positions/projections will best demonstrate a "blow-out" fracture of the orbit? A. Lateral B. Parietoacanthial (Waters) projection C. Modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) projection D. PA axial (Caldwell) projection

C. Modified parietoacanthial (modified waters) projection; The modified parietoacanthial (modified Waters) projection requires the head to be extended less than the parietoacanthial (Waters) projection. This will demonstrate the floor of the orbit where the fracture fragments "blow-out" into the maxillary sinus.

Which of the following does NOT pass through the diaphragm? A. Esophagus B. Aorta C. Trachea D. Inferior vena cava

C. Trachea; The trachea is a thoracic organ that allows air to pass to the lungs.

Which of the following is NOT a part of a typical lumbar vertebra? A. Body B. Spinous process C. Transverse foramen D. Inferior articulating process

C. Transverse foramen; Transverse foramina are part of a cervical vertebra where the vertebral arteries pass through the vertebrae toward the head

Which of the following passes through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebrae? A. Carotid artery B. Jugular vein C. Vertebral artery D. Subclavian artery

C. Vertebral artery; The artery passes through the vertebrae, hence the vertebral artery

The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone articulates with which of the following facial bones? A. Maxilla B. Zygoma C. Vomer D. Palatine

C. Vomer; The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone articulates with the vomer of the facial bones to form the bony nasal septum.

A 45 degree oblique of the lumbar spine is used to visualize which of the following? A. Intervertebral spaces B. Intervertebral foramina C. Zygapophyseal joints D. Bodies

C. Zygapophyseal joints; Zygapophyseal joints are formed by the superior and inferior articulating processes. The zygapophyseal joints of the lumbar spine are best demonstrated with a 45 degree oblique

The feature of the image intensifier that automatically adjusts kVp and mAs during fluoroscopy is the: A. photocathode. B. electron-focusing lens. C. automatic gain control. D. automatic exposure control.

C. automatic gain control; The process of automatic gain control automatically adjusts kVp and mAs during fluoroscopy. This process, also known as automatic brightness control, keeps the image constant during the exam.

All of the following statements regarding the inferosuperior axial (nontrauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder are true, except A. the coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile. B. the arm is abducted about 90° from the body. C. the arm should be in internal rotation. D. the CR is directed medially 25° to 30° through the axilla.

C. the arm should be in internal rotation; The inferosuperior axial (nontrauma, Lawrence method) projection of the shoulder demonstrates the glenohumeral joint and adjacent structures. The patient is supine with arm abducted 90°, and in external rotation. The (horizontal) CR is directed medially 25° to 30° through the axilla. The coracoid process and lesser tubercle are seen in profile

Shape distortion is influenced by the relationship between the 1. x-ray tube and the part to be imaged 2. part to be imaged and the IR 3. IR and the x-ray tube A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3 - Shape distortion is caused by misalignment of the x-ray tube, the part to be radiographed, and the IR/film. An object can be falsely imaged (foreshortened or elongated) by incorrect placement of the tube, the body part, or the IR. Only one of the three need be misaligned for distortion to occur

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured posterior tibia A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3 - the lateral malleolus is fractured in the "typical" fashion, but the medial malleolus is fractured on both its medial and posterior aspects. The trimalleolar fracture frequently is associated with subluxation of the articular surfaces

Diseases whose mode of transmission is through the air include 1. TB. 2. mumps. 3. rubella. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3; Droplet precautions are necessary for all three diseases

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, the required exposure(s) must include 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the IP 2. hand pronated 3. hand supinated as much as possible A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1. and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3; To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, four exposures are made with the elbow flexed 90 degrees and with the humeral epicondyles superimposed and perpendicular to the IP—one with the hand supinated as much as possible, one with the hand lateral, one with the hand pronated, and one with the hand in internal rotation, thumb down.

A radiologic technologist can be found guilty of a tort in which of the following situations? 1. Failure to shield a patient of childbearing age from unnecessary radiation 2. Performing an examination on a patient who has refused the examination 3. Discussing a patient's condition with a third party A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3; a tort is an intentional or unintentional act that involves personal injury or damage to the patient

Which of the following will influence recorded detail? 1. Screen speed 2. Screen-film contact 3. Focal spot A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D. 1, 2, and 3; faster screens decreases detail, poor contact decreases detail, and as focal spot size decreases detail increases.

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed A. parallel to C4 B. perpendicular to C4 C. 15 degrees cephalad to C4 D. 15 degrees caudad to C4.

D. 15 degrees caudad to C4; The anterior oblique positions (LAO and RAO) of the cervical spine require a 15-degree caudal angulation and demonstrate the intervertebral foramina closest to the IR. The posterior oblique positions (LPO and RPO) require that the CR be directed cephalad 15 degrees to C4. The posterior oblique positions demonstrate the intervertebral foramina farther away from the IR.

Which of the following examinations might require the use of 120 kVp? 1. AP abdomen 2. Chest radiograph 3. Barium-filled stomach A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 and 3 only; High-kilovoltage factors are frequently used to even out densities in anatomic parts with high tissue contrast (eg, the chest). However, as high kilovoltage produces added scattered radiation, it generally must be used with a grid. It would be inappropriate to perform an AP abdomen with high kilovoltage because it has such low subject contrast. Barium-filled structures are frequently radiographed using 120 kV or more to penetrate the barium—to see through to structures behind.

With which of the following does the lateral extremity of the clavicle articulate? A. Manubrium B. Coracoid process C. Coronoid process D. Acromion process

D. Acromion process; creates the AC joint

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate? A. Foramen magnum B. Trachea C. Pharynx D. C4

D. C4

A radiograph made with a parallel grid demonstrates decreased density on its lateral edges. This is most likely due to A. static electrical discharge B. the grid being off-centered C. improper tube angle D. decreased SID

D. Decreased SID; as the SID decreases the level of density decreased on the lateral edges of an image become more obvious

What is the name of the canal that connects the nasopharynx with the middle ear? A. Auditory canal B. Internal auditory canal C. Nasal cavity D. Eustachian tube

D. Eustachian Tube; The eustachian tube (auditory tube) serves to equalize the pressure within the middle ear (tympanic cavity) to the atmospheric air pressure

Beam quality is expressed using what unit of measurement? A. mAs B. Focal-spot size C. Gray D. Half-value layer

D. Half-value layer; X-ray beam quality is expressed numerically by half-value layer, the amount of filtration needed to reduce the intensity of the beam by half. Gray and mAs are related to x-ray quantity, not quality.

Which line should be perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor for a true lateral skull position? A. Infraorbitomeatal line B. Orbitomeatal line C. Acanthiomeatal line D. Interpupillary line

D. IPL; The interpupillary line must be perpendicular to the plane of the image receptor in order to prevent tilting of the skull

Which of the following structures is most distal? A. Stomach B. Duodenum C. Jejunum D. Ileum

D. Ileum; From proximal to distal they are the stomach, duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left colic (splenic) flexure? A. Supine B. Prone C. RAO D. LAO

D. LAO; A LAO or a RPO will demonstrate the left colic (splenic) flexure.

The portal system transports blood to which of the following organs? A. Spleen B. Kidneys C. Intestines D. Liver

D. Liver; The portal system drains the blood from the pancreas, spleen, small and large intestines toward the liver where it is filtered and transported to the inferior vena cava.

Which of the following is NOT one of the sutures of the cranium? A. Coronal B. Squamosal C. Lambdoidal D. Occipital

D. Occipital; The coronal suture is between the frontal and the parietals. The squamosal is between the parietal and temporal. The lambdoidal is between the parietals and the occipital.

Which of the following would be an alternate projection for a patient who cannot flex his/her neck sufficiently for an AP axial (Towne) projection? A. AP axial (Caldwell) projection B. AP axial (Fuchs) projection C. Axiolateral (modified Schuller) projection D. PA axial (HAAS) projection

D. PA axial (HAAS) projection; This projection results in magnification of the occipital bone, so it should only be used in the above scenario.

Which of the following glands will be demonstrated if contrast media is injected into Stensen's duct? A. Submandibular B. Sublingual C. Pineal D. Parotid

D. Parotid; During sialography, contrast media is injected into the ducts of the salivary glands. The parotid duct (Stensen's) drains the parotid gland.

All the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except A. for radiography of the kidneys, the CR should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis. B. if a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than in the standard PA projection. C. chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position. D. radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

D. Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position; Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the prone position rather than in the routine supine position. The supine position would put unnecessary pressure on the protrusion of the meninges and spinal cord.

Which of the following projects posteriorly off the two laminae of a typical vertebra? A. Transverse process B. Superior articulating process C. Inferior articulating process D. Spinous process

D. Spinous process; The two laminae join together and form a spinous process posteriorly.

Which of the following is NOT an accessory organ of the digestive system? A. Pancreas B. Gallbladder C. Liver D. Spleen

D. Spleen; The spleen is part of the lymphatic system. Its function is to filter and store blood.

Which of the following contains the cerebrospinal fluid? A. Dura mater B. Pia mater C. Arachnoid D. Subarachnoid space

D. Subarachnoid space; Between the arachnoid and the pia mater is a wide space called the subarachnoid space. The subarachnoid space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.

If a 6-in. OID is introduced during a particular radiographic examination, what change in SID will be necessary to overcome objectionable magnification? A. The SID must be increased by 6 in.. B. The SID must be increased by 18 in.. C. The SID must be decreased by 6 in.. D. The SID must be increased by 42 in..

D. The SID must be increased by 42 in.. - to compensate for every 1 in. of OID, an increase of 7 in. of SID is required. Therefore, an OID of 6 in. requires an SID increase of 42 in.. This is why a chest radiograph with a 6-in. air gap usually is performed at a 10-ft SID.

How are the electrons focused toward the anode of a typical x-ray tube during an exposure? A. Electrostatic lenses B. Focusing coil C. Electron gun D. Focusing cup

D. The focusing cup surrounds the filament wires to keep the electrons in a narrow stream during the exposure.

All the following are part of the Patient's Bill of Rights except 1 A. the right to participate in proposed research studies B. the right to continuity of care. C. the right to considerate and respectful care. D. the right to review any institutional records.

D. the right to review any institutional records; Although it is the patient's right to review his or her records and the patient's right to know about institutional business relationships that could influence treatment and care, the patient does not have the right to review just any hospital/institutional records.

The accuracy of collimation at a 60-inch SID must be: A. ±6 inches. B. ±3 inches. C. ±2 inches. D. ±1.2 inches.

D. ±1.2 inches; Because the collimator must be accurate to within 2% of the source-to-image distance (SID) and because 2% of 60 is 1.2, the correct answer is choice D.

What kind of light is necessary when changing the film in a dry laser printer?

Daylight

Radiographic contrast is caused by..

Differential absorption

The effect that differential absorption has on radiographic contrast of a high-subject-contrast part can be minimized by 1.using a compensating filter. 2. using high-kilovoltage exposure factors. 3. increased collimation. A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Differential absorption refers to the different attenuation, or absorption, properties of adjacent body tissues. Two parts with widely differing absorption characteristics will produce a high radiographic contrast. Frequently, exposure factors that would properly expose one part will severely overexpose or underexpose the neighboring part (as with lungs vs. the thoracic spine). This effect can be minimized by the use of a compensating filter or by the use of high kilovoltage (for more uniform penetration)

What is the posterior portion of the sella turcica called?

Dorsum Sellae; The sella turcica is a "saddle-shaped" structure that houses the pituitary gland. The dorsum sellae is the posterior portion of the "saddle".

What is the difference between dysphagia and dysphasia?

Dysphagia is difficulty swallowing and dysphasia is a speak impairment

How can OID be reduced for a PA projection of the wrist?

Flex the metacarpophalangeal joints.

What is blur caused by?

Focal-spot blur is caused by the use of a large focal spot.

What is the normal rate of respiration for children?

For children, the rate is higher, averaging between 20 and 30 breaths/min.

For a trauma, AP 0 degree projection, where will the central ray enter?

Glabella; The patient would be in a cervical collar for this projection.

Glossitis refers to inflammation of the A. epiglottis B. salivary glands C. tongue D. ossicles

Inflammation of the tongue is called glossitis. Inflamed salivary glands are usually referred to with reference to the affected gland, as in parotitis (inflammation of the parotid gland). Inflammation of the epiglottis is termed epiglottitis

Calculate the grid ratio for a grid that has lead strips 5mm high and .5mm of interspace material.

Grid ratio is defined as the height of the lead strips compared with (divided by) the width of the interspace material. The width of the lead strips has no bearing on the grid ratio. The height of the lead strips is 5 mm; the width of the interspace material (same as the distance between the lead strips) is 0.5 mm. Therefore, the grid ratio is 5/0.5, or a 10:1 grid ratio.

In the hypersthenic patient, how does the stomach lie?

High and horizontal; Hypersthenic patients are those with massive body builds. Their stomachs are high and horizontal with the center of the stomach in the center of the patient.

What indicates high blood pressure?

High blood pressure is indicated by systolic pressure higher than 140 mmHg and diastolic pressure higher than 90 mmHg.

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?

IVU; Wilm's tumor is a rapidly developing tumor of the kidney(s). It is the most common childhood renal tumor, usually affecting only one kidney. Newer treatments are effective in controlling about 90% of these tumors. As the kidneys are affected, an IVU would be the most appropriate of the examinations listed.

How does grid cutoff occur and what happens to the radiographic density?

If a grid has been used improperly (off-centered or out of focal range), the lead strips will absorb excessive amounts of primary radiation, resulting in grid cutoff and loss of radiographic density.

What term terms refers to light being reflected from one intensifying screen, through the film, to the opposite emulsion and intensifying screen?

If fluorescent light from one intensifying screen passes through the film to the opposite emulsion and intensifying screen, the associated diffusion creates a type of distortion called crossover.

What happens to density when the SID is too short?

If the SID is inadequate (too short), an increase in radiographic density will occur.

What is the name of the junction between the small intestine and the large intestine?

Ileocecal valve; The ileocecal valve is the point where the small intestine and the large intestine join

The abdominal aorta bifurcates into right and left _______ arteries.

Iliac; The abdominal aorta bifurcates into the right and left common iliac arteries at the level of L4.

What is seen in the tangential projection of the patella?

In the tangential (sunrise) projection of the patella, the CR is directed parallel to the longitudinal plane of the patella, thereby demonstrating a vertical fracture and providing the best view of the patellofemoral articulation.

What is most likely to result from the introduction of a grid to a particular radiographic examination?

Increased patient dose and increased contrast. If a grid is introduced, there will be significantly fewer photons reaching the image receptor, hence a very significant decrease in radiographic density. To maintain adequate density then, the addition of a grid must be accompanied by an appropriately substantial increase in mAs, hence, increased patient dose.

What is the name of the process that projects downward from the base of the transverse process?

Inferior articulating process; The inferior articulating processes articulate with the superior articulating processes of the vertebra below to form the zygapophyseal joint

When is it recommended for radiographer to wear goggles?

It is recommended that a radiographer wear protective eye gear (goggles) during any procedure in which there might be splattering of blood or body fluids. This includes both angiography and biopsy/aspiration procedures.

What is radiographic density?

It is the overall degree of blackening of a radiograph or a part of it. The milliampere-seconds value regulates the number of x-ray photons produced at the target and thus regulates radiographic density. If it is desired to double the radiographic density, one simply doubles the milliampere-seconds

How does decreasing field size from 14 × 17 in. to 8 × 10 in., with no other changes, affect radiographic density and the amount of scattered radiation?

It leads to adecrease radiographic density and decrease the amount of scattered radiation generated within the part. Limiting the size of the radiographic field (irradiated area) serves to limit the amount of scattered radiation produced within the anatomic part. As the amount of scattered radiation produced decreases, so does the resultant density within the radiographic image. Therefore, as field size decreases, scattered radiation production decreases, and overall density decreases.

If an image shows a barium-filled fundus, what position must it be made in?

It must be made in an AP position, or if spine is obliqued, is LPO

What is the name of the point where the two parietals articulate with the occipital bone?

Lambda

Which kidney is placed parallel to the image receptor when a 30 degree RPO radiograph is taken?

Left; Because of the psoas muscles along the vertebral column, the kidneys lie at a 30 degree angle with the coronal plane. Therefore, a RPO will put the left kidney parallel to the image receptor and vice versa.

With what kVp's are low-ratio grids used?

Low-ratio grids, such as 5:1, 6:1, and 8:1, are used with moderate-kilovolt techniques and are not recommended for use beyond 85 kV.

What are low risk entry sites for HIV?

Low-risk entry methods include oral and nasal, conjunctiva, and accidental needle stick.

Which allows for more latitude: high or low ratio grids?

Lower-ratio grids offer more tube-centering latitude than high-ratio grids.

The parietoacanthial (Waters), horizontal beam projection will best demonstrate which of the following sinuses? A. Frontal B. Ethmoid C. Sphenoid D. Maxillary

Maxillary; A good parietoacanthial (Waters), horizontal beam projection will project the petrous ridges directly below the maxillary sinuses.

Which type of contrast is less likely to cause side effects?

Nonionic, low-osmolality iodinated contrast agents are associated with far fewer side effects and reactions than ionic, higher osmolality contrast agents.

What is a normal blood pressure?

Normal blood pressure is 110 to 140 mmHg systolic and 60 to 80 mmHg diastolic.

How does OID effect contrast?

OID can affect contrast when it is used as an air gap. If a 6-inch air gap (OID) is introduced between the part and the IR, much of the scattered radiation emitted from the body will not reach the IR; the air gap thus acts as a grid and increases image contrast.

What is the name of the large foramen in the innominate bone?

Obturator foramen; The obturator foramen is formed by the rami and bodies of the pubis and ischial bones

Which of the following areas would have to be radiographed in order to demonstrate the sphenoid strut? A. Base of the cranium B. Sella turcica C. Middle ear D. Orbit

Orbit; At the apex of the orbit, next to the optic foramen is part of the sphenoid bone called the sphenoid strut.

Which position/projection is necessary to demonstrate the intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine?

PA or AP axial obliques; Spinal nerves from the spinal cord are transmitted through the intervertebral foramina. The pedicles of two vertebrae make up the inter(between)vertebral foramina.

What are the names of the "L" shaped bones that are located posterior to the nasal cavity?

Palantine; The right and left palatine bones are "L" shaped. The vertical portion extends upward between the maxilla and the sphenoid bones. The horizontal portion makes up the posterior portion of the hard palate.

What is the name of the small gland that lies in the midline of the brain and is often calcified in the adult?

Pineal; The pineal gland is attached to the roof of the third ventricle. It secretes a variety of hormones, eg., melatonin (aids in sleeping). When the gland calcifies, older adults have difficulty sleeping.

What positions are usually included in an esophagogram?

Positions usually include the posteroanterior, right anterior oblique, and right lateral positions.

A patient who is diaphoretic is experiencing what?

Profuse sweating

What is the name of the large, thick muscle located on either side of the lumbar vertebrae?

Psoas; The psoas muscles are good references to see if the density of a supine abdominal radiograph is correct. A good radiograph of the abdomen will demonstrate the psoas muscles.

Which unit of exposure is described as 100 ergs of energy per gram of irradiated absorber?

Rad

Is the radial head part of the wrist joint or the elbow joint? Is the ulnar head part of the wrist joint or the elbow joint?

Radial head is part of the elbow joint, ulnar head is part of the wrist joint

An exposure was made using 600 mA, 0.04-s exposure, and 85 kVp. Each of the following changes will serve to decrease the radiographic density by one-half except change to A. 1/50-s exposure B. 72 kVp C. 18 mAs D. 300 mA

Radiographic density is directly proportional to milliampere-seconds. If exposure time is halved from 0.04 s to 0.02 s, radiographic density will be cut in half. To cut the density in half, the milliampere-seconds must be reduced to 12 mAs (rather than to 18 mAs)

Which of the following has the greatest effect on radiographic density? 1. kilovoltage 2. aluminum filtration 3. SID 4. scattered radiation

Radiographic density is greatly affected by changes in the SID, as expressed by the inverse-square law of radiation. As distance from the radiation source increases, exposure rate decreases, and radiographic density decreases. Exposure rate is inversely proportional to the square of the SID

How does SOD effect to recorded detail?

Recorded detail is affected significantly by distance changes because of their effect on magnification. As SID increases and as OID decreases, magnification decreases and recorded detail increases. SOD is determined by subtracting OID from SID.

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

Retrograde urography; Retrograde urography requires ureteral catheterization so that a contrast medium can be introduced directly into the pelvicalyceal system. This procedure provides excellent opacification and structural information but does not demonstrate the function of these structures.

Which hemidiaphragm is usually located more superior?

Right; The liver, located on the right side of the body, prevents the right hemidiaphragm from moving inferiorly like the left one does.

If a radiograph exposed using a 12:1 ratio grid exhibits a loss of density at its lateral edges, it is probably because the.. A. SID was too great B. grid failed to move during the exposure C. x-ray tube was angled in the direction of the lead strips D. central ray was off-center

SID was too great

How do you find the actual object size from the size in a radiographic film?

SID/ SOD (SOD = SID-OID)

To best demonstrate the floor of the cranium, which position/projection would be used? A. Lateral B. AP axial (Towne) projection C. Submentovertex (full basal) projection D. PA axial (Caldwell) projection

SMV; The submentovertex (full basal) projection demonstrates the sphenoid, ethmoid and the mastoid and petrous portions of the temporal bones.

When does scattering occur?

Scattering occurs when there is partial transfer of energy to matter, as in the Compton effect.

If the CR enters at a point 3/4" anterior and 3/4" superior to the E.A.M., what structure would be visualized?

Sella Turcica; The sella turcica is part of the sphenoid bone and it can be located by centering the CR (central ray) at a point 3/4" anterior and 3/4" superior to the E.A.M. (external auditory meatus).

What is the name of the structure that houses the pituitary gland?

Sella Turcica; The sella turcica protects the pituitary gland, known as the master gland of the body.

What is shape distortion caused by?

Shape distortion (e.g., foreshortening or elongation) is caused by improper alignment of the tube, part, and IR.

What indicates shock?

Shock is indicated by extremely low blood pressure, that is, a systolic blood pressure reading lower than 60 mmHg (below 90 mmHg is considered low blood pressure).

What is size distortion caused by?

Size distortion, or magnification, is caused by too great an OID or too short an SID.

Are high-speed or low-speed screens better for recorded detail?

Slow screens because high-speed screens are associated with more diffusion of fluorescent light which causes them to produce less recorded detail and are not used to image structures requiring excellent recorded detail.

The open mouth parietoacanthial (Waters), horizontal beam projection is used to demonstrate which of the paranasal sinuses?

Sphenoid; The sphenoid sinuses will be projected within the open mouth.

Spina bifida is caused by which of the following? A. Pedicles not fusing to the body B. Pedicles not fusing with the laminae C. Posterior laminae not fusing D. Laminae and transverse processes fused

Spina bifida is a congenital anomaly where the laminae do not unite posteriorly, leaving an opening where the spinous process usually forms

What is the name of the flexure that lies between the transverse colon and the descending colon?

Splenic flexure; The left colic flexure extends upward toward the spleen on the left side of the abdomen.

What is a cathartic is used to do?

Stimulate defecation

What are some symptoms of hypoglycemia?

Symptoms of hypoglycemia include fatigue, restlessness, irritability, and weakness.

What are symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply?

Symptoms of inadequate oxygen supply include dyspnea, cyanosis, diaphoresis, retraction of intercostal spaces, dilated nostrils, and distension of the veins of the neck.

What is the name of the joint between the first and second cervical vertebrae? A. Cervical joint B. Cervical fusion C. Atlantoaxial joint D. Kyphotic joint

The 1st cervical vertebra is called the atlas and the 2nd cervical vertebra is called the axis. Hence the term atlantoaxial joint

What does "inadequate SID" mean?

The SID is too short

How can you tell if a image is AP or PA when comparing two films?

The anatomy closest to the IR will be normal sized, while the anatomy farthest away will be magnified

How would the introduction of a 6-in. OID affect image contrast?

The contrast would be increased. OID can affect contrast when it is used as an air gap. If a 6-in. air gap (OID) is introduced between the part and IR, much of the scattered radiation emitted from the body will not reach the IR. The OID thus is acting as a low-ratio grid and increasing image contrast.

What are the first branches of the aorta that supply blood to the heart?

The coronary arteries; The right and left coronary arteries originate from the aortic bulb and supply blood to the heart muscle.

What structure should be projected within the shadow of the foramen magnum on a well positioned AP axial (Towne) projection radiograph of the skull?

The dorsum sellae; The dorsum sellae is the posterior portion of the sella turcica. A good AP axial (Towne) projection will project it within the foramen magnum of the occipital bone.

What are the factors that affect recorded detail and how can it be improved?

The factors that affect the recorded detail of traditional screen/film imaging are focal-spot size, source-to-image distance (SID), object-to-image distance (OID), film/screen speed, and motion. Recorded detail is improved using a small focal-spot size, largest practical SID, shortest possible OID, and slowest practical screen/film combination and avoiding motion of the part being imaged.

What does the trapezium articulate with distally?

The first metacarpal

Why should the kVp in an Intravenous urogram (IVU) not exceed 70 kV?

The iodine-based contrast material used in IVU gives optimal opacification at 60 to 70 kV. Use of higher kilovoltage will negate the effect of the contrast medium; a lower contrast will be produced, and poor visualization of the renal collecting system will result.

What is the normal rate of respiration for adults?

The normal average rate of respiration for a healthy adult patient is between 12 and 20 breaths/min.

What is a normal creatinine range?

The normal creatinine range is 0.6 to 1.5 mg/100 mL.

What are high risk entry sites for HIV?

The overall chance that a person will become infected with HIV is high with entry sites such as the anus, broken skin, shared needles, infected blood products, and perinatal exposure.

The right bronchus divides into _______ branches and the left bronchus into _______ branches.

The right bronchus divides into three branches to supply the three lobes of the right lung. The left bronchus divides into two branches to supply the two lobes of the left lung.

When would you use a PA scapular Y projection?

The scapular Y position is employed to demonstrate anterior (subcoracoid) or posterior (subacromial) humeral dislocation. The humerus normally is superimposed on the scapula in this position; any deviation from this may indicate dislocation.

What is the meaning of deglutition?

The swallowing of food; Mastication is the chewing of food. Deglutition is the swallowing of food.

What is the tunnel view of the knee demonstrate?

The tunnel view of the knee is used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa.

What are the four stages of infection?

There are four stages of infection. In the initial phase, the latent period, the infection is introduced and lies dormant. As soon as the microbes begin to shed, the infection becomes communicable. The microbes reproduce (during the incubation period), and during the actual disease period, signs and symptoms of the infection may begin. The infection is most active and communicable at this point. As the patient fights off the infection and the symptoms regress, the convalescent (recovery) phase occurs.

Which gland is large when a person is young and almost disappears as an adult?

Thymus; The thymus gland is present in children until puberty. It helps the body produce antibodies to aid in the immune system.

What is the technical name for the "Adam's apple"?

Thyroid cartilage; The thyroid cartilage is located in the neck. It is more prominent in males than it is in females

If an exposure is made with a single-phase equipment, what mAs would be required to produce a similar radiograph with 3-phase, 12-pulse equipment?

To produce similar density For 3 pahse/ 6 pulse: use 2/3 original mAs For 3 phase/ 12 pulse: use 1/2 original mAs

The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the what?

Trapezium

When a patients elbow is in partial flexion, how many exposures are needed for the AP projection?

Two; one with the humerus parallel to the IR and one with the forearm parallel to the IR, each with the CR perpendicular to the elbow

Which projection would best demonstrate the carpal scaphoid?

Ulnar flexion/deviation

Rapid, irregular, ineffective twitches of the ventricles is referred to as what?

Ventricular Fibrillation; "Fibrillation" refers to rapid, irregular, ineffective twitches, in this case of the ventricles. A defibrillator is used to correct this condition

What is the name of the opening through which the spinal cord passes?

Vertebral foramen; The foramen that is formed by the body and the posterior arch of each vertebra forms a spinal canal that allows the passage of the spinal cord.

How should one clean contaminated surfaces?

When cleaning contaminated objects or surfaces such as the radiographic table, it is important to clean from the least contaminated to the most contaminated area and from the top down.

For the AP knee projection, how would you direct the CR for a person of skinny or asthenic habitus?

When the patient is of asthenic habitus with a distance of less than 19 cm between the ASIS and tabletop, the CR is directed 5 degrees caudad.

For the AP knee projection, how would you direct the CR for a person of normal or sthenic habitus?

When the patient is of sthenic habitus with a distance of 19 to 24 cm between the ASIS and tabletop, the CR is directed perpendicularly.

When a GI series has been requested on a patient with a suspected perforated ulcer, what type of contrast medium should be used?

Whenever a perforation of the GI tract is suspected, a water-soluble contrast agent (such as Gastrografin or oral Hypaque) should be used because it is easily absorbed from within the peritoneal cavity.

For the AP knee projection, how would you direct the CR for a person of fat or hypersthenic habitus?

With a patient with a hypersthenic habitus and an ASIS-to-table measurement of greater than 24 cm, the CR is directed 5 degrees cephalad.

In an asthenic patient, where is the stomach located?

a low and long stomach

Is getting a rash or hives from an injection a side effect or an adverse effect?

adverse effect