AS 121 Final Exam Review

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A

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by A.an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records. B.the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate. C.an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date.

A

For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must A.determine runway lengths at airports of intended use. B.file a VFR flight plan with the nearest flight service. C.obtain and squawk a discrete transponder code.

A

Pre-takeoff briefing of passengers about the use of seat belts is the responsibility of A.the pilot. B.all passengers. C.a crewmember.

C

Rapid or extra deep breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition known as A.aerotitis. B.aerosinusitis. C.hyperventilation.

A

The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from A.1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. B.sunset to sunrise. C.the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

A

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding A.24 calendar months. B.6 calendar months. C.12 calendar months.

B

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority? A.Take no special action since you are pilot in command. B.File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested. C.File a report to the FAA Administrator, as soon as possible.

A

What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of A.It could happen to me. B.It will not happen to me. C.It cannot be that bad.

C

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight? A.Look only at far away, dim lights. B.Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds. C.Scan slowly to permit off-center viewing.

B

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is A.250 knots. B.200 knots. C.180 knots.

A

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°? A.4,500 feet. B.5,000 feet. C.4,000 feet.

A

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A.Aircraft towing other aircraft. B.Airship. C.Gyroplane.

B

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office? A.An in-flight generator or alternator failure. B.An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. C.An in-flight radio communications failure.

A

Which is not a type of hypoxia? A.Hypertoxic. B.Hypoxic. C.Histotoxic.

C

Which of the following flights may be made without ADS-B Out equipment installed? A.A VFR flight that departs a Class E airport and cruises at 12,500 ft. MSL to a Class G destination airport. B.A VFR flight that overflies, but does not enter, a Class C airspace while en route at 6,500 ft. MSL. C.A VFR flight that departs a Class D airport, cruises in Class E airspace at 7,500 ft. MSL, and arrives at another Class D airport.

C

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft? A.Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon. B.Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. C.Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

B

You are PIC of a flight and determine that the aircraft you planned to fly has an overdue Airworthiness Directive (AD). Which of the following is an appropriate decision? A.No maintenance is available so you wait until after the trip to comply with the AD. B.You cancel the flight and have the aircraft scheduled for maintenance. C.You make the flight because you can overfly an AD by 10 hours.

A

You are conducting your preflight of an aircraft and notice that the last inspection of the emergency locator transmitter was 11 calendar months ago. You may A.depart because the ELT is within the inspection requirements. B.not depart until a new inspection is conducted. C.depart if you get a special flight permit.

C

Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding A.60 days. B.30 days. C.90 days.

B

Your transponder is inoperative. In order to enter Class B airspace, you must submit a request for a deviation from the A.nearest FSDO 24 hr. before the proposed operation. B.controlling ATC facility at least 1 hr. before the proposed flight. C.ATC facility no less than 24 hr. before the proposed operation.

B

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately- A.Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. B.Private Pilot Certificate. C.Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate.

C

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? A.3395.5 hours. B.3312.5 hours. C.3402.5 hours.

C

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 36-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A.August 10, 3 years later. B.August 31, 3 years later. C.August 31, 5 years later.

A

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on A.May 31, 2 years later. B.May 31, 1 year later. C.May 3, 1 year later.

C

A Third-Class Medical Certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on A.August 10, 2 years later. B.August 31, 2 years later. C.August 31, 5 years later.

C

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding A.24 hours. B.12 hours. C.8 hours.

C

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as A.hyperventilation. B.hypoxia. C.spatial disorientation.

B

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? A.The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level. B.The elevation of the departure area. C.Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

C

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? A.Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms. B.Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual. C.Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.

A

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to A.determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. B.review traffic control light signal procedures. C.check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).

C

In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have A.passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane. B.made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane. C.received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.

C

In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude? A.Recognizing the invulnerability of the situation. B.Making a rational judgment. C.Recognizing hazardous thoughts.

C

Is it legal to fly on the dealer's registration after a buyer purchased an airplane from that dealer? A.Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 30 days. B.Yes, the airplane can be flown by the buyer for 120 days. C.No, the airplane cannot be flown by the buyer and has to be registered.

A

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in A.loss of muscular power. B.an increased sense of well-being. C.tightness across the forehead.

A

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings within the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same A.category, class, and type, if a type rating is required. B.category and class, but not type. C.make and model.

B

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months A.at least three flights in a powered glider. B.at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot. C.at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.

B

Under what condition could an aircraft's engine logbook show no previous operating history? A.This would indicate an error by maintenance personnel. B.When the aircraft's engine has been rebuilt by the manufacturer. C.If the aircraft had been imported from a foreign country.

B

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? A.If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration. B.If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. C.Only in an emergency.

C

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of A.14,000 feet MSL. B.12,500 feet MSL. C.15,000 feet MSL.

A

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? A.Annual condition and 100-hour inspections. B.Annual condition and 50-hour inspections. C.Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.

A

While experiencing a hangover, a pilot A.will have impaired motor and mental responses. B.is no longer under the influence of alcohol. C.may experience discomfort, but no impairment.

B

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate? A.The FAA. B.The pilot. C.The medical examiner.

A

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (ADs) are complied with? A.Owner or operator. B.Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA). C.Repair station.

B

Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service? A.Repair station. B.Owner or operator. C.Certified mechanic.

C

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? A.None of the answers are correct. B.Student or Recreational pilot. C.Private or Commercial pilot.

B

You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must A.list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. B.obtain weather reports, forecasts, and fuel requirements for the flight. C.be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.

B

You attended a party last night, and you consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is A.0.0%. B.below .04%. C.below .08%.

B

You own an aircraft which is certificated to carry 8 occupants and has a total of 8 seats installed, including the pilot's seat. You have recently elected to fly under BasicMed. May you continue to fly the aircraft? A.Yes, if you remove two of the seats. B.No. C.Yes, as long as you carry no more than 5 passengers.

B

As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when A.operating under VFR in Class B airspace. B.there is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action. C.flying in the outer ring of Class C airspace.

B

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff? A.VY. B.VX. C.VA.

C

According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may A.not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight. B.be paid for the operating expenses of a flight if at least three takeoffs and three landings were made by the pilot within the preceding 90 days. C.not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.

C

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time? A.VA. B.VX. C.VY.

C

An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than A.July 1, next year. B.July 13, next year. C.July 31, next year.

B

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in A.Class D airspace. B.Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport. C.Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.

A

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace? A.Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C. B.Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL). C.Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).

A

Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a A.Private Pilot Certificate. B.Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate. C.Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

A

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any A.local law enforcement officer. B.person in a position of authority. C.authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.

A

Effects of carbon monoxide poisoning include A.dizziness, blurred vision, and loss of muscle power. B.motion sickness, tightness across the forehead, and drowsiness. C.sweating, increased breathing, and paleness.

C

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? A.End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight. B.1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. C.Sunset to sunrise.

C

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? A.An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet. B.An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. C.An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

C

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA's Security and Hazardous Materials Safety Office? A.Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate. B.No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action. C.No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

C

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only A.60 days after the date of the move. B.90 days after the date of the move. C.30 days after the date of the move.

B

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than A.September 30, 2015. B.September 30, 2016. C.September 1, 2016.

C

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? A.Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. B.No, it may not be moved under any circumstances. C.Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.

C

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with A..004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. B..008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. C..04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

C

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight A.in Class D airspace under special VFR. B.over a densely populated area. C.except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

A

On a post flight inspection of your aircraft after an aborted takeoff due to an elevator malfunction, you find that the elevator control cable has broken. According to NTSB 830, you A.must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office. B.must file a NASA report immediately. C.should notify the NTSB within 10 days.

B

One purpose of crew resource management (CRM) is to give crews tools to A.reduce the need for outside resources. B.recognize and mitigate hazards. C.maintain currency with regulations.

B

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the A.pilot in command. B.owner or operator. C.mechanic who performed the work.

B

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? A.Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight. B.Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only. C.Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.

A

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as A.altitude increases. B.altitude decreases. C.air pressure increases.

B

The NTSB must be notified immediately when there is A.a hangar fire. B.an in-flight fire. C.a ground fire.

C

The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to A.scan the visual field very rapidly. B.look to the side of the object and scan rapidly. C.look to the side of the object and scan slowly.

A

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the A.pilot in command. B.aircraft manufacturer. C.Federal Aviation Administration.

A

The illusion associated with landing on a narrower than usual runway may result in the pilot flying a A.lower approach with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short. B.slower approach with the risk of reducing airspeed below VSO or landing hard. C.higher approach with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway.

C

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days? A.5 B.7 C.10

C

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A.within 10 days. B.within 7 days. C.when requested.

C

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the A.pilot in command. B.mechanic who performs the work. C.owner or operator.

B

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? A.A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience. B.An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. C.Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.

B

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight? A.The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily. B.All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance. C.Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity.

B

What is a correct response if an exhaust leak were to be detected while in flight? A.Increase altitude so the effects of CO would be decreased. B.Open air vents or windows. C.Take deep breaths so as to inhale more oxygen.

A

What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks? A.Checklists. B.Flying outside the envelope. C.Situational awareness.

A

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Impulsivity"? A.Not so fast, think first. B.It could happen to me. C.Do it quickly to get it over with.

A

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane? A.An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower. B.An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller. C.An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots.

A

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)? A.Continual flight into instrument conditions. B.Getting behind the aircraft. C.Duck-under syndrome.

B

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (ADs)? A.They are voluntary. B.They are mandatory. C.For informational purposes only.

B

When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as A.aerosinusitis. B.hyperventilation. C.aerotitis.

A

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? A.When 50 percent of their useful life expires. B.Every 24 months. C.At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection.

A

When may an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested? A.During the first 5 minutes after the hour. B.Any time. C.At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour.

A

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator? A.Upon request. B.Within 7 days. C.Within 10 days.

C

When must the battery in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced (or recharged if the battery is rechargeable)? A.Every 24 calendar months. B.During each annual and 100-hour inspection. C.After one-half the battery's useful life.

B

When preventive maintenance is performed on an aircraft, what paperwork is required? A.The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook. B.The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work, and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records. C.A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook.

B

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft A.that has the other to its right. B.at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another. C.that is the least maneuverable.

C

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance? A.Within 7 days. B.Immediately. C.Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

A

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate? A.Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate. B.In the current, FAA-approved flight manual. C.In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

B

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet. A.5,000 feet. B.5,500 feet. C.4,500 feet.

B

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? A.Flight under instrument flight rules. B.Flight over a densely populated area. C.Flight within Class D airspace.

B

Which of the following is a correct response to counteract the feelings of hypoxia in flight? A.Increase cabin air flow. B.Promptly descend to a lower altitude. C.Avoid sudden inhalations.

A

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight? A.Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals. B.Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area. C.Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.

B

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A.An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen. B.Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear. C.The excessive consumption of alcohol.


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