AS 121 Test 2

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is?

"FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED"

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visability requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is?

1 mile

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operting under special VFR in Class D airspace?

1 mile flight visability

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is?

1,000 feet

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating conrol tower require the visability and ceiling to be at least?

1,000 feet and 3 miles

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D sirspace are?

1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visability

When do you need to have a mode C transponder?

Above 10,000 MSL and more than 2,500 AGL, 30 NM of Class B airspace, Above class C airspace, In class B airspace and class A airspace

No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the?

Airplave is equipped for instrament flight

Which of the following is connected to the pilot-static system in the airplane?

Airspeed indicator

What is the controlling factor for the successful accomplishment of an emergency landing?

Altitude available at the beginning of the emergency

A "forced" landing is?

An immediate landing, on or off an airport, necessitated by the inability to continue further flight

Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?

Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and invulnerability.

If given a landing clearance on runway 16 and told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot determine the available landing distance?

Ask the controller

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within class D airspace when the visability is?

At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?

Checklists

What is the C in the DECIDE model?

Choose

Most midair collision accidents occur during?

Clear days

What is the antidote when a pilot has the hazardous attitude of "Invulnerability"?

It could happen to me

Which of the following should a pilot keep in mind when faced with an emergency landing in terrain that will extensively damage the airplane?

Keeping cabin area as intact as possible by using dispensable structure to absorb the violence of the stopping process and avoiding forceful bodily contact with interior structure

The most critical error that can be made in the planning and execution of an emergency landing is?

Loss of initiative over the airplane's attitude and sink rate at touchdown

How do you identify class E airspace?

Magenta dashed line starts at surface and 700 AGL

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall?

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected?

Mode A/3, Code 1200

What are the minimum VFR weather minimums for class A airspace?

Not permitted in class A airspace

What antidotal phrase can help reverse the hazardous attitude of impulsivity?

Not so fast, think first

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Impulsivity"?

Not so fast, think first

Which of the following should a pilot believe when operating (or trying to) in instrument meteorological conditions (IFR)?

Only the flight instruments

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Private pilot certification or student pilot certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

In the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

Recognizing hazardous thoughts

Which of the following are factors that could interfere with a pilot's ability to act promptly and properly when faced with an emergency?

Reluctance to accept the situation, undue concern about getting hurt, desire to save the airplane

What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft's limits by trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

Scud running

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.

What is the most critical factor determining the severity of a deceleration process?

Speed

What governs the overall severity of a deceleration process?

Speed and stopping distance

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Macho"?

Taking chances is foolish

When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.

The actual touchdown during an emergency landing should be made at?

The lowest possible controllable airspeed

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?

The pilot

The feature of a precautionary landing that makes it less hazardous than a forced landing is?

The pilot has more time for terrain selection and the planning of the approach

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practibile, after takeoff

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

What is the key to the successful management of an emergency situation?

Thorough familiarity with and adherence to the proceedures developed by the airplane manufacturer

If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed?

To the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.

VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is?

Too high.

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?

Two-way radio communications equipement, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter

What other energy absorbing mediums (other than the airplane structure) are possibly available in an emergency situation?

Vegetation, trees, dense crop fields

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying?

above the aircrafts final approach path and landing beyond the large aircrafts touchdown point.

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within class D airspace unless the?

ground visability at that airport is at least 3 miles

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a?

pulsating red light

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to?

sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.

Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operations program?

student pilot

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Antiauthority"?

Follow the rules

The guidelines published in the "Airplane Flying Handbook" are?

Generic and not meant to replace the airplane manufacturer's recommonded procedures

From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?

Ground control, on initial contact

ATC advises, "traffic 12 o clock," this advisory is relative to your?

Ground track

What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?

Human error

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as "Resignation"?

I am not helpless

What is the I in the DECIDE model?

Identify

A pilot not trained in attitude instrument flying will lose control of the airplane in about ______ minutes (as shown by accident statistics).

10 minutes

Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?

1200

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

1200

Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace?

1200, Mode A/3

While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?

121.5 MHz

A 25-amp hour battery (alternator or generator failed) with a load of 10 amps will last about how long?

2 hours

The radius of the procedural outer area of class C airspace is normally?

20 NM

(Refer to Area 2.) The visibility and cloud clearance requirements to operate VFR during daylight hours over the town of Cooperstown between 1,200 feet AGL and 10,000 feet MSL are

3 miles and 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally from clouds.

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visability and vertical cloud clearance of?

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

What are the minimum VFR weather minimums for class C airspace?

3 statute miles and 5,1,2 (500 ft below, 1000 feet above and 2000 ft horizontally)

What are the minimum VFR weather minimums for class D airspace?

3 statute miles and 5,1,2.

What are the minimum VFR weather minimums for class E airspace?

3 statute miles and 5,1,2.

What are the minimum VFR weather minimums for class B airspace?

3 statute miles and clear of clouds

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is?

500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

7500

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to?

A flashing red and green light given anytime means exercise extreme caution.

What often leads to spatial disorientation or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

Continual flight into instrument conditions

What is the D in the DECIDE model?

Detect

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is?

Developing lift

What is the second D in the DECIDE model?

Do

Which is the proper action to take if an engine failure occurs immediately after takeoff?

Establish the proper glide attitude and select a field directly ahead or slightly left or right of the takeoff path

What is the E in the DECIDE model?

Estimate

What is the second E in the DECIDE model?

Evaluate

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?

Flashing green