ATI Pharmacology Quiz
A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Available is prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
0.5 mL
A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 4mg/kg/day PO divided into 2 equal doses daily to a toddler who weighs 22 lb. How may mg should the nurse administer per dose?
20 mg
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 8,000 units subcutaneously every 8 hr. Available is heparin 10,000 units/1 mL. How any mL should the nurse administer per dose?
0.8 mL mL/dose = (1 mL/10000 units ) * (8000 units/ 1 dose) = 8000/10000 = 0.8 mL/dose
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has rheumatoid arthritis and a prescription for long-term prednisone therapy. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects? A. Stress fractures B. Orthostatic hypotension C. Gingival ulcerations D. Weight loss
A. (R) Prednisone can cause demineralization of the bones and can lead to osteoporosis and stress fractures.
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about administering morphine via IV bolus to a client. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Respiratory depression can occur 7 min after the morphine is administered. B. The morphine will peak in 10 min. C. Withhold the morphine if the client has a respiratory rate less than 16/min. D. Administer the morphine over 2 min.
A. (R) Respiratory depression can occur within 7 min following the administration of IV bolus morphine. The nurse should monitor the client's respirations and have naloxone available to reverse the effects of the morphine. Peaks in 20 min, hold if respiratory rate less than 12/min, admin slowly over 4-5 min to prevent hypotension and resp depression
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has ulcerative colitis and a new prescription for sulfasalazine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? A. Jaundice B. Constipation C. Oral candidiasis D. Sedation
A. (R) Sulfasalazine can cause a yellow discoloration of the skin and yellow/orange discoloration of the urine. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the provider if theses occur. Can cause bloody diarrhea, stomatitis, headache, and peripheral neuropathy
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for tamoxifen. The nurse should recognize that tamoxifen has which of the following therapeutic effects? A. Antiestrogenic B. Antimicrobial C. Androgenic D. Anti-inflammatory
A. (R) Tamoxifen is an antiestrogen med. used to treat cancer of the breast in pre/postmenopausal women; used to prevent breast cancer in women who are at inc. risk
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a seizure disorder and a new prescription for valproic acid. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse plan to monitor? SATA A. BUN B. PTT C. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) D. Urinalysis E. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
B, C, E (R) Valproic acid has no effect on kidney function, can alter coagulation so PT and PTT should be monitored, can cause life-threatening hepatotoxicity so baseline liver function tests (LFTs) before starting this medication and LFTs repeated at regular intervals during therapy; AST and ALT measure liver function and identify liver damage
A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority? A. Administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning. B. Ambulate the client to a chair prior to administering the medication. C. Give the medication to the client with water rather than milk. D. Teach the client how to take the medication at home.
B. (R) Ambulate client to chair and ensure client is sitting upright before admin of alendronate to prevent esophagitis, must be able to sit or stand upright for 30 min after taking med. Should admin. before breakfast in the morning (food can reduce absorption), admin. with water vs. milk (milk, calcium-containing substances can dec. absorption), teach how to take med. at home but B is priority
a nurse is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who is receiving a continuous IV heparin infusion and has an aPTT of 90 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse prepare to take? A. Administer vitamin K B. Reduce the infusion rate C. Give the client a lose-dose aspirin D. Request an INR
B. (R) An aPTT of 90 seconds is outside the expected reference range of 60-80 seconds, which can cause anticoagulation. The nurse should contact the provider, reduce the infusion rate, and assess the client for bleeding. Vit K is used to reverse warfarin, aspirin can inhibit platelet aggregation and is contraindicated in clients receiving heparin, INR is indicated for clients receiving warfarin
A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for chlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Thrombophlebitis B. Hyperactive reflexes C. Muscle weakness D. Hypoglycemia
C. (R) Chlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic used to treat hypertension and congestive heart failure. It promotes excretion of water, sodium, and potassium, and can cause hypokalemia. Manifestations of hypokalemia include muscle weakness, muscle cramps, and dysrhythmias. Can also cause hypercalcemia, hypoactive reflexes, hyperglycemia
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has chronic kidney failure with an AV fistula for hemodialysis and a new prescription for epoetin alfa. Which of the following therapeutic effects of epoetin alfa should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Reduces blood pressure B. Inhibits clotting of fistula C. Promotes RBC production D. Stimulates growth of neutrophils
C. (R) Stimulates erythropoiesis in bone marrow to inc. RBC production and reduce anemia, anemia is common w/ chronic kidney failure, since erythropoietin is produced by the kidney; can cause hypertension, clot formation
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication? A. Hearing examination B. Glucose tolerance test C. Electrocardiogram D. Pulmonary function tests
Can cause tachycardia and ECG changes, older adult is at risk for CV effects, ECG should be done prior to obtain baseline CV status; can cause blurred vision
A nurse is administering subcutaneous heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Administer the medication into the client's abdomen. B. Inject the medication into a muscle. C. Massage the site after administering the medication. D. Use a 22-gauge needle to administer the medication.
Correct: A (R) The heparin should be administered into the client's abdomen, not in the muscle, firm pressure applied after administration, with a 25-gauge or smaller needle to decrease risk of hemorrhage
A nurse is caring for a client who has a peptic ulcer disease and reports and headache. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? A. Ibuprofen B. Naproxen C. Aspirin D. Acetaminophen
D. (R) Acetaminophen is an analgesic used for mild to moderate pain. It can be administered to a client who has peptic ulcer diseases because it does not affect blood coagulation and does not increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
A nurse is administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Hypotension B. Hyperthermia C. Hypoglycemia D. Tachycardia
D. (R) Adverse effects of epinephrine, an adrenergic agonist, can include tachycardia and dysrhythmias as the result of cardiac stimulation. Can cause hypertension, hyperthermia, hyperglycemia
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for amphotericin B. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypertension C. Constipation D. Nephrotoxicity
D. (R) Amphotericin B is an antifungal medication used to treat severe fungal infections; however, it can cause nephrotoxicity. The nurse should monitor the client's creatinine every 3-4 days and increase fluid intake. The dosage of amphotericin B should be reduced if the client's creatinine is 3.5 mg/dL or greater. Can cause hypokalemia, hypotension, and diarrhea.
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for zolpidem at bedtime to promote sleep. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Ecchymosis B. Decreased urine output C. Increased blood pressure D. Dizziness
D. (R) Can cause dizziness and daytime drowsiness, confusion in older adult clients
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "Take hydrochlorothiazide as needed for edema." B. "Check you weight once each week." C. "Take the hydrochlorothiazide on an empty stomach." D. "Take the hydrochlorothiazide in the morning."
D. (R) Client should take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning to allow for diuresis during the day/prevent nocturia. Should be taken on a regular basis, weight checks daily, with food to reduce gastric distress
A nurse is preparing to administer lactated Ringer's (LR) 1,000 mL IV to infuse over 8 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min?
21
A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral tube feeding through an NG tube at 250 mL over 4 hr. The nurse should set the pump to deliver how many mL/hr?
63
A nurse is providing teaching to a group of new parents about medications. The nurse should include that aspirin is contrainidicated for children who have a viral infection due to the risk of developing which of the following adverse effects? A. Reye's syndrome B. Visual disturbances C. Diabetes mellitus D. Wilms' tumor
A. (R) Aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents who have a viral infection, such as chickenpox or influenza, due to the risk of developing Reye's syndrome.
A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a child who has asthma and a new prescription for cromolyn sodium metered dose inhaler. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching? A. "I will give my child a dose as soon as wheezing begins." B. "My child should rinse out his mouth after using the inhaler." C. My child should exhale completely before placing the inhaler in his mouth." D. "If my child has difficulty breathing in the dose, a spacer can be used."
A. (R) Cromolyn is a mast cell inhibitor that has a slow onset and is given for prophylactic treatment of asthma. It is not a rescue medication. Can cause mouth/throat irritation = rinse of gargle with water after use, exhale completely, then breathe in evenly while depressing canister, spacer provides chamber to hold med exhaled in suspension = clients with difficulty breathing in entire dose in one inhalation to continue to receive med in subsequent breaths
A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. The client has a mask-like facial expression and is experiencing involuntary movements and tremors. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering? A. Amantadine B. Bupropion C. Phenelzine D. Hydroxyzine
A. (R) The client is experiencing parkinsonism, which is an adverse effect of the antipsychotic medication chlorpromazine. Amatadine is an antiparkinsonian medication use to treat the extrapyramidal manifestations that can occur with chlorpromazine therapy. Bupropion = atypical antidepressant, phenelzine = MAOI, hydoxyzine = antihistamine (mild to mod. anxiety)
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ergotamine. The nurse should recognize that ergotamine is administered to treat which of the following conditions? A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Migraine headaches C. Ulcerative colitis D. Anemia
B. (R) Ergotamine prevents or stops a migraine headache by blocking alpha-adrenergic receptors in the cranial peripheral vascular smooth muscle, which causes vasoconstriction of dilated cerebral blood vessels. Contraindicated for clients with Raynaud's or anemia.
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. The nurse should recognize that an increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication? A. Erythrocyte count B. Neutrophil count C. Lymphocyte count D. Thrombocyte count
B. (R) Filgrastim increases neutrophil production. It is given to treat neutropenia and reduce the risk of infection for clients who are receiving chemotherapy for cancer or who have undergone bone marrow transplant. Can cause anemia,
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about metoclopramide. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following conditions is a contraindication to this medication? A. Hyperthyroidism B. Intestinal obstruction C. Glaucoma D. Low blood pressure
B. (R) Metoclopramide reduces nausea and vomiting by increasing gastric motility and promoting gastric emptying. It is contraindicated for a client who has an intestinal obstruction or perforation. Caution with hypertension.
A nurse is caring for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer? A. Oxytocin B. Nifedipine C. Dinoprostone D. Misoprostol
B. (R) Nifedipine is a tocolytic medication that is administered to stop preterm labor. Oxytocin and dinoprostone are oxytocic medications to stimulate uterine contractions and misoprostol is a prostaglandin used to induce labor
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving IV gentamicin three times daily. Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of this medication? A. Hypoglycemia B. Proteinuria C. Nasal congestion D. Visual disturbances
B. (R) Proteinuria is a manifestation of nephrotoxicity, an adverse effect of gentamicin. The nurse should monitor for oliguria and hematuria
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of oral candidiasis after taking tetracycline for 7 days. The nurse should recognize that candidiasis is a manifestation of which of the following adverse effects? A. Allergic response B. Superinfection C. Renal toxicity D. Hepatotoxicity
B. (R) Superinfection can develop from the overgrowth of fungus due to the antibacterial effect of tetracycline, nurse should monitor for manifestations ( soreness of mouth, swollen tongue); manifestations of allergic rx (urticaria, rash), renal toxicity (polyuria, proteinuria); can cause hepatotoxicity (manifestations incl. jaundice)
A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. the nurse should include a severe allergy to which of the following medications as a contraindication to ceftriaxone? A. Gentamicin B. Clindamycin C. Piperacillin D. Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim
C. (R) Clients who have a severe allergy to piperacillin, which is a penicillin, can have a cross sensitivity to ceftriaxone, a third-generation cehphalosporin. Ceftriaxone is contraindicated fro the client who has an allergy to cephalosporins or a severe allergy to penicillin.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? A. Insomnia B. Hypotension C. Bleeding D. Constipation
C. (R) Clopidogrel is an antithrombotic medication that inhibits platelet aggregation. It is used to prevent stenosis of coronary stents, myocardial infarctions, and strokes. The nurse should monitor for coffee ground emesis, black tarry stools, ecchymosis, or any indication of bleeding. Can cause dizziness, headache, hypertension, diarrhea
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? A. Ecchymosis B. Jaundice C. Hypotension D. Hypokalemia
C. (R) Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, can cause hypotension and postural hypotension, especially during the first 3 hr following the initial dosage. Can decrease Hgb/Hct but doesn't alter platelets, can cause kidney failure but not liver failure/jaundice, increases potassium levels
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has gout and a new prescription for allopurinol. The nurse should instruct the client to discontinue taking the medication for which of the following adverse effects? A. Nausea B. Metallic taste C. Fever D. Drowsiness
C. (R) Fever can indicate a potentially fatal hypersensitivity reaction. The client should discontinue the allopurinol and notify the provider if a fever or rash develops. GI effects, metallic taste, and drowsiness are expected side effects.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client who reports fatigue and cold intolerance. The client has an increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level and a decreased total T3 and T4 level. The nurse should anticiipate a prescription for which of the following medications? A. Methimazole B. Somatropin C. Levothyroxine D. Propylthiouracil
C. (R) Levothyroxine replaces thyroid hormone for a client who has hypothyroidism. Lab values for hypothyroidism include an increased TSH level and decreased total T3 and T4 levels. Clinical manifestations for hypothyroidism include fatigue, cold intolerance, and a decreased body temperature and pulse. Methimazole inhibits thyroid production (hyperthyroidism), somatropin is growth hormone for growth hormone deficiency of anterior pituitary, propylthiouracil blocks thyroid production (2nd line med for hyperthyroidism)
A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking isoniazid and rifampin for 3 weeks for the treatment of active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). The client reports his urine is an orange color. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "Stop taking the isoniazid for 3 days and the discoloration should go away." B. "Rifampin can turn body fluids orange." C. "I'll make an appointment for you to see the provider this afternoon." D. "Isoniazid can cause bladder irritation."
Correct: B (R) Rifampin can cause body fluids, such as tears, sweat, saliva, and urine, to turn a reddish-orange color. The nurse should inform the client that this effect does not cause harm.
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who a prescription for gemfibrozil. The nurse should instruct the newly licensed to monitor which of the following laboratory tests. A. Platelet count B. Electrolyte levels C. Thyroid function D. Liver function
Correct: D (R) Gemfibrozil reduces triglycerides by decreasing the liver's uptake of fatty acids. It can cause liver toxicity; therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's liver function.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects? A. Increases blood pressure B. Prevents esophageal bleeding C. Decreases heart rate D. Reduces ammonia levels
D. (R) Lactulose is a laxative that promotes the excretion of ammonia in a client who has hepatic encephalopathy from cirrhosis of the liver.
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a urinary tract infection and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates the need for further teaching? A. "If the phenazopyridine upsets my stomach, I can take it with meals." B. "The phenazopyridine will relieve my discomfort, but the ciprofloxacin will get rid of the infection." C. "I need to drink 2 liters of fluid per day while I am taking the ciprofloxacin." D. "I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns and orange color."
D. (R) Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic used to relieve pain and burning during urination. Can cause urine to turn a reddish-orange color, an expected effect, can stain clothing, doesn't need to be reported; can cause mild GI upset, client can take with meals; ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic that acts by destroying and inhibiting bacteria; client should drink 2-3 L of fluid while taking ciprofloxacin to dilute the urine and flush urinary tract
