ATP Written Figure Questions

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Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the total time from starting to the alternate through completing the approach for Operating Conditions L-1? A) 44 minutes. B) 30 minutes. C) 29 minutes.

44 minutes

Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum landing distance that may be used by a turbine-engine-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 6 (wet) at the destination airport? A) 9,100 feet. B) 6,279 feet. C) 5,460 feet.

?

Refer to appendix 2, figure 37.) What is the maximum gross weight for hovering in ground effect at 3,000 feet pressure altitude and +25 °C? A) 16,600 pounds. B) 17,300 pounds. C) 14,700 pounds.

?

Refer to appendix 2, figure 39.) What is the takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Pressure altitude -1,000 ft Temperature (OAT) +25 °C Gross weight 14,000 lb A) 1,000 feet. B) 950 feet. C) 900 feet.

?

Refer to appendix 2, figure 43.) What is the single-engine landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle? Gross weight 12,000 lb Pressure altitude 3,500 ft Temperature (OAT) +30 °C A) 1,000 feet. B) 850 feet. C) 900 feet.

?

Refer to appendix 2, figures 168, 169, and 169A.) What action should be taken by the pilot if communications are lost after departure from RWY 16 at PWK if VMC? A) Start right turn within 1 mile of the departure end of RWY, remain east of ORD VOR/DME R-345, and maintain 3,000 feet; 3 minutes after departure, turn direct to PMM, and climb to FL 190. B) Climb to 3,000 feet; after 3 minutes, turn direct to PMM and climb to FL 190. C) Continue the flight under VMC and land as soon as practicable.

?

Refer to appendix 2, figures 173, and 173A.) The PIC of PTZ 70 has less than 100 hours of PIC time in the BE 1900. Due to BUF weather being 100 feet, 1/4 mile in blowing snow, which is below landing minimums, the PIC requested and received clearance to SYR, the filed alternate. Under Part 135 what are the PIC's minimums at SYR for the ILS RWY 10? A) 800/2. B) 671/40. C) 771/64.

?

Refer to appendix 2, figures 21, 22, 23, 24, and 25.) What is the en route time of the cruise leg for Operating Conditions BE-34? A) 1 hour 7 minutes. B) 1 hour 12 minutes. C) 1 hour 2 minutes.

?

Refer to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG in inches from datum under Loading Conditions BE-1? A) Station 290.3. B) Station 291.8. C) Station 285.8.

?

Refer to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the trip time corrected for wind under Operating Conditions Z-5? A) 1 hour 11 minutes. B) 62 minutes. C) 56 minutes.

A) 1 hour 11 minutes.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 131.) What is the runway distance remaining at 'C' for a nighttime takeoff on runway 9? A) 1,000 feet. B) 1,800 feet. C) 1,500 feet.

A) 1,000 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 118A.) The touchdown zone elevation of the LOC BC RWY 26L approach at Phoenix Sky Harbor Intl is A) 1,123 feet. B) 1,130 feet. C) 1,640 feet.

A) 1,123 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 27 and 28.) What is the landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle for Operating Conditions B-36? A) 1,625 feet. B) 1,900 feet. C) 950 feet.

A) 1,625 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 26.) What are the time and distance to descend from 18,000 feet to 2,500 feet? A) 10.0 minutes, 36 NM. B) 9.8 minutes, 33 NM. C) 10.3 minutes, 39 NM.

A) 10.0 minutes, 36 NM.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 99 and 101.) Which frequency should be selected to check airport conditions and weather prior to departure at DFW Intl? A) 117.0 MHz. B) 135.5 MHz. C) 134.9 MHz

A) 117.0 MHz.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 231.) Given the following conditions, what is the takeoff climb limit? Airport OAT: 38° C Airport Pressure Altitude: 14 ft. Flaps: 15° Engine Bleed for packs: On Anti-ice: Off A) 136,000 lb. B) 137,500 lb. C) 139,000 lb.

A) 136,000 lb.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is VREF for Operating Conditions L-1? A) 143 knots. B) 145 knots. C) 144 knots.

A) 143 knots.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 84 and 85.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions H-1? A) 2,630 pounds. B) 3,500 pounds. C) 4,680 pounds.

A) 2,630 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 125.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055° radial of the station and heading away from the station? A) 2. B) 1. C) 3.

A) 2.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 73 and 75.) What is the go-around EPR for Operating Conditions L-5? A) 2.00 EPR. B) 2.05 EPR. C) 2.04 EPR.

A) 2.00 EPR.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions A-3? A) 22 percent MAC. B) 20 percent MAC. C) 18 percent MAC.

A) 22 percent MAC.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 44.) What is the new CG if the weight is removed from the forward compartment under Loading Conditions WS 1? A) 27.1 percent MAC. B) 30.0 percent MAC. C) 26.8 percent MAC.

A) 27.1 percent MAC.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 12.) Given the following conditions, what is the minimum torque for takeoff? Pressure altitude 3,500 ft Temperature (OAT) +43 °C Ice vanes Retracted A) 3,000 foot-pound. B) 3,110 foot-pound. C) 3,050 foot-pound.

A) 3,000 foot-pound.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 14.) Given the following conditions, what is the accelerate-stop field length? Pressure altitude 6,000 ft Temperature (OAT) +10 °C Weight 16,600 lb Wind component 15 kts HW Ice vanes Retracted A) 4,950 feet. B) 5,300 feet. C) 4,800 feet.

A) 4,950 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 126.) What is the usual radius from the airport of the inner circle (now called surface area), C? A) 5 miles. B) 10 miles. C) 7 miles.

A) 5 miles.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 84 and 85.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions H-2? A) 5,250 pounds. B) 5,100 pounds. C) 3,400 pounds.

A) 5,250 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 114, lower panel.) What is the minimum en route altitude on V210, when crossing the POM VORTAC southwest bound and continuing on the same airway? A) 5,300 feet. B) 10,300 feet. C) 10,700 feet.

A) 5,300 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 1.) What is the maximum planning landing distance that may be used by a turbopropeller-powered, small transport category airplane to land on Rwy 24 (dry) at the alternate airport? A) 6,405 feet. B) 5,490 feet. C) 6,210 feet.

A) 6,405 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 40.with the following conditions - Pressure altitude 9,500 ft / Temperature (OAT) -5 °C / Heater ON) What is the climb performance with both engines operating? A) 600 ft/min. B) 925 ft/min. C) 335 ft/min.

A) 600 ft/min.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 53 and 55.) What is the STAB TRIM setting for Operating Conditions R-5? A) 7-1/2 ANU. B) 6-3/4 ANU. C) 8 ANU.

A) 7-1/2 ANU.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 51 and 52.) What is the approximate landing weight for Operating Conditions L-1? A) 81,600 pounds. B) 80,300 pounds. C) 78,850 pounds.

A) 81,600 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 70.) How many minutes of dump time is required to reduce fuel load to 16,000 pounds (@ 2,350 lbs/min)? A) 9 minutes. B) 8 minutes. C) 10 minutes.

A) 9 minutes.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 106 and 107.) If the glide slope indication is lost upon passing HUNDA INT on the ILS RWY 25L approach at LAX, what action should the pilot take? A) Continue to the MAP, and execute the missed approach as indicated. B) Continue the approach as an LOC, and add 100 feet to the DH. C) Immediately start the missed approach direct to INISH INT

A) Continue to the MAP, and execute the missed approach as indicated

Refer to appendix 2, figure 123.) You receive this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A) Direct only. B) Parallel only. C) Teardrop only.

A) Direct only.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 145.) What condition is reported at Childress (KCDS)? A) Light rain showers. B) The ceiling is solid overcast at an estimated 1,800 feet above sea level. C) Heavy rain showers began 42 minutes after the hour.

A) Light rain showers.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 19 and 20.) Which statement is true regarding performance with one engine inoperative for Operating Conditions BE-27? A) Service ceiling is below the MEA. B) Bleed air OFF improves service ceiling by 3,000 feet. C) Climb rate at the MEA is more than 50 ft/min

A) Service ceiling is below the MEA.

Refer to appendix 1, legend 15 and appendix 2, figure 215.) Windsor Locks/Bradley Intl, is an FAR Part 139 airport. What minimum number of aircraft rescue and fire-fighting vehicles, and what type and amount of fire-fighting agents are the airport required to have? A) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000 gallons of water. B) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC plus 3,000 gallons of water. C) Two vehicles and 600 pounds dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 500 pounds of DC plus 4,000 gallons of water.

A) Three vehicles and 500 pounds of dry chemical (DC), or Halon 1211 or 450 pounds DC and 4,000 gallons of water

Refer to appendix 2, figures 237 and 238.) Given the following conditions, what are the takeoff V speeds? Weight: 170,000 lb. Flaps: 10° Temperature (OAT): 25° C Field pressure altitude: 427 ft. Runway slope: 0% Wind (KTS) Headwind: 8 KTS Runway Condition: Wet Runway For VR more than or equal to .1 VR, round up VR to the next value (example: 140 +.1 =141) A) V1 134 kts., VR 140 kts., V2 145 kts. B) V1 140 kts., VR 140 kts., V2 145 kts. C) V1 138 kts., VR 141 kts., V2 145 kts.

A) V1 134 kts., VR 140 kts., V2 145 kts.

As you rolled out long on Runway 30 after landing at Long Beach (LGB) (figures 241 and 242), you slowed and turned left on very wide pavement and now see Taxiway D signs on both sides of your pavement. You notice your heading is about 250°. Tower is urging you to turn left on D, cross 16R/34L, then taxi to G and hold short of Runway 30. You now know you A) exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2. B) exited onto Taxiway G. C) exited at Taxiway J and transited HS 4.

A) exited onto Runway 25R and transited HS 2.

Refer to appendix 2 - Addendum, figure 242) You received these ATC taxi instructions: "Taxi to Runway 30 via Lima and hold short of Runway 25L." Your airplane is on the ramp by the terminal and NWS on the east side of the airport. Your taxi route A) requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima. B) involves transiting HS 4. C) requires crossing Runway 34R en route to the assigned runway.

A) requires crossing of Runway 25L at Lima.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What is the approximate fuel consumed when holding under Operating Conditions O-1? A) 1,950 pounds. B) 1,625 pounds. C) 2,440 pounds.

B) 1,625 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max climb EPR for Operating Conditions T-1? A) 2.04. B) 1.82. C) 1.96.

B) 1.82.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 15 and 18.) What are the time, fuel, and distance from the start of climb to cruise altitude for Operating Conditions BE-24? A) 12.0 minutes; 220 pounds; 45 NM. B) 10.0 minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM. C) 9.0 minutes; 185 pounds; 38 NM.

B) 10.0 minutes; 170 pounds; 30 NM

Refer to appendix 2, figure 41.) Given the following, what is the single-engine climb or descent performance? Pressure altitude 3,000 ft Temperature (OAT) +35 °C A) 150 ft/min descent. B) 100 ft/min descent. C) 350 ft/min climb.

B) 100 ft/min descent.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 193, 193A,194, 195, 195A, 196,and 196A.) While being radar vectored for the ILS/DME RWY 35R, Denver Approach Control tells PIL 10 to contact the tower, without giving the frequency. What frequency should PIL 10 use for tower? A) 121.85. B) 124.3. C) 132.35.

B) 124.3.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 42.) Given the following, what is the airspeed limit (VNE)? Gross weight 16,500 lb Pressure altitude 5,000 ft Temperature (OAT) -15 °C A) 133 KIAS. B) 128 KIAS. C) 126 KIAS.

B) 128 KIAS.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the change of total drag for a 140,000-pound airplane when configuration is changed from flaps 30°, gear down, to flaps 0°, gear up, at a constant airspeed of 160 knots? A) 15,300 pounds. B) 13,500 pounds. C) 13,300 pounds.

B) 13,500 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 73, 74, and 75.) What is the maneuvering speed for Operating Conditions L-5? A) 137 knots. B) 130 knots. C) 124 knots.

B) 130 knots.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 81, 82, and 83.) What is the takeoff safety speed for Operating Conditions G-1? A) 122 knots. B) 137 knots. C) 139 knots.

B) 137 knots.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 92.) What is the maximum charted indicated airspeed while maintaining a 3° glide slope at a weight of 140,000 pounds? A) 127 knots. B) 156 knots. C) 149 knots.

B) 156 knots.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 77, 79, and 80.) What is the gross weight index for Loading Conditions WT-6? A) 181,340.5 index. B) 165,991.5 index. C) 156,545.0 index.

B) 165,991.5 index.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 142 and 143.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation 'D' correspond? A) 4. B) 17. C) 15.

B) 17.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 53, 54, and 55.) What is the takeoff EPR for Operating Conditions R-2? A) 2.18. B) 2.19. C) 2.16.

B) 2.19.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 61 and 62.) What is the trip fuel for Operating Conditions X-1? A) 24,000 pounds. B) 25,000 pounds. C) 26,000 pounds.

B) 25,000 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 202 and 206.) PTL 55 received the following clearance from Bay Approach Control. PTL 55 is cleared ILS RWY 19L at SFO, sidestep to RWY 19R. 1.3 times the Vso speed, of PTL 55, is 165 knots. What is the lowest minimum descent altitude (MDA) and the lowest visibility that PTL 55 may accomplish the sidestep? A) 340-1. B) 340-2. C) 340-1-1/2.

B) 340-2.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 121, upper panel.) On the airway J220 (BUF R-158) SE of Buffalo, the MAA is 39,000 feet. What is the MAA on J547 between BUF and PMM (lower panel)? A) 60,000 feet. B) 45,000 feet. C) 43,000 feet.

B) 45,000 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 115, 116, 117, 118, and 118C.) What is the specific range in nautical miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to the ARLIN Intersection using .78 Mach? A) 47.9 NAM/1,000 pounds. B) 48.2 NAM/1,000 pounds. C) 48.8 NAM/1,000 pounds.

B) 48.2 NAM/1,000 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 66 and 67.) What is the estimated fuel consumption for Operating Conditions Z-1? A) 5,970 pounds. B) 5,230 pounds. C) 5,550 pounds.

B) 5,230 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 36.) Given the following conditions, what is the maximum allowable measured gas temperature (MGT) during the power assurance check? Engine torque 57 percent Pressure altitude 2,500 ft Temperature (OAT) +5 °C A) 815 °C. B) 810 °C. C) 828 °C.

B) 810 °C.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 171, top panel.) The facility (Kankakee) that is located 9 miles NE of Chicago Midway or 27 miles SSE of Northbrook (OBK) is a/an A) Aeronautical Radio Inc. (AIRINC) transmitter. B) Flight Service, Remote Communications Outlet. C) Automated Weather Observing System (AWOS/ASOS) with frequency.

B) Flight Service, Remote Communications Outlet.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 2.) May a small transport category, turbine-engine-powered airplane that has a computed landing distance of 5,500 feet use one or both of the runways depicted in the illustration at the destination airport? A) Rwy 1 or Rwy 19 may be used whether conditions are wet or dry. B) Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist. C) Only Rwy 19 may be used provided dry conditions exist.

B) Neither Rwy 1 nor Rwy 19 may be used if dry conditions exist.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 112.) What action should the pilot take if communications were lost during the Cugar Four Arrival, after turning on the 305 radial of IAH? A) Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then outbound on the IAH R-125 for a procedure turn for final approach. B) Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then to either IAF on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach. C) From BANTY INT, proceed to the IAF on the IAH R-290, then continue on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach.

B) Proceed direct to IAH VORTAC, then to either IAF on the IAH 10 DME Arc to final approach.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 104.) What effect on the takeoff run can be expected on Rwy 11R at Tucson Intl? A) Takeoff length shortened to 6,986 feet by displaced threshold. B) Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.6 percent upslope of the runway. C) Takeoff run shortened by 0.6 percent runway slope to the SE.

B) Takeoff run will be lengthened by the 0.6 percent upslope of the runway.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 153, 154, and 155.) Interpret the path of the jetstream. A) Southern California, Nevada, Utah, Nebraska/Kansas, and then southeastward. B) The Alaska area, across Canada to Montana, South Dakota, then across the Great Lakes area. C) Oregon, Idaho, Wyoming, Nebraska, Iowa, and across the Great Lakes.

B) The Alaska area, across Canada to Montana, South Dakota, then across the Great Lakes area.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 45, 46, and 47.) What are V1 and VR speeds for Operating Conditions A-1? A) V1 120.5 knots; VR 123.5 knots. B) V1 123.1 knots; VR 125.2 knots. C) V1 122.3 knots; VR 124.1 knots.

B) V1 123.1 knots; VR 125.2 knots.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 149.) What will be the wind and temperature trend for an SAT ELP TUS flight at 16,000 feet? A) Temperature decrease slightly. B) Wind direction shift from southwest to east. C) Windspeed decrease.

B) Wind direction shift from southwest to east.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 156.) This sign, which is visible to the pilot on the runway, indicates A) the point at which the emergency arresting gear is stretched across the runway. B) a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway. C) a point at which the pilot should contact ground control without being instructed by the tower.

B) a point at which the aircraft will be clear of the runway.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 125.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A) 285°. B) 235°. C) 055°.

C) 055°.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 235 and 236.) Given the following conditions, what is the maximum Slush/Standing Water takeoff weight? Dry field/obstacle limit weight: 180,000 lb. Slush/standing water depth: .25 inches Temperature (OAT): 30° C Field pressure altitude: 5431 ft. Field length available: 9000 ft. A) 130,850 lb. B) 147,550 lb. C) 139,850 lb.

C) 139,850 lb.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 161A.) The La Guardia weather goes below minimums and New York Approach Control issues a clearance to N711JB, via radar vectors, to ASALT Intersection. What is the lowest altitude that Approach Control may clear N711JB to cross ASALT Intersection? A) 2,500 feet. B) 3,000 feet. C) 2,000 feet.

C) 2,000 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 15, 16, and 17.) What is the two-engine rate of climb after takeoff in climb configuration for Operating Conditions BE-21? A) 2,450 ft/min. B) 1,350 ft/min. C) 2,300 ft/min.

C) 2,300 ft/min.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 103, 104, 105, and 106.) Estimate the total fuel required to be on the aircraft, prior to taxi at Tucson Intl. (Use 13°E for problem magnetic variation.) A) 2,223 pounds. B) 2,447 pounds. C) 2,327 pounds.

C) 2,327 pounds.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 89.) How many feet will remain after landing on a 6,000-foot wet runway with reversers inoperative at 122,000 pounds gross weight? A) 2,200 feet. B) 3,150 feet. C) 2,750 feet.

C) 2,750 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 59 and 60.) What is the max continuous EPR for Operating Conditions T-5? A) 2.00. B) 1.96. C) 2.04.

C) 2.04.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 71 and 72.) What is the approximate level-off pressure altitude after drift-down under Operating Conditions D-3? A) 19,800 feet. B) 22,200 feet. C) 21,600 feet.

C) 21,600 feet.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 68 and 69.) What are the recommended IAS and EPR settings for holding under Operating Conditions O-1? A) 217 knots and 1.81 EPR. B) 219 knots and 1.83 EPR. C) 223 knots and 2.01 EPR.

C) 223 knots and 2.01 EPR.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 86 and 87.) What are descent time and distance under Operating Conditions S-1? A) 24 minutes, 118 NAM. B) 25 minutes, 118 NAM. C) 26 minutes, 125 NAM.

C) 26 minutes, 125 NAM.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 119, 120, 121, and 122.) What is the specific range in nautical air miles per 1,000 pounds of fuel from level-off to start of descent using .78 Mach? A) 55.9 NAM/1000. B) 52.5 NAM/1000. C) 48.9 NAM/1000.

C) 48.9 NAM/1000.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 3, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11.) What is the CG shift if the passengers in row 1 are moved to seats in row 9 under Loading Conditions BE-1? A) 6.2 inches aft. B) 1.5 inches aft. C) 5.6 inches aft.

C) 5.6 inches aft.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 122, and appendix 1, legend 9.) What is the approximate rate of descent required (for planning purposes) to maintain the electronic glide slope at 120 KIAS with a reported headwind component of 15 knots? A) 635 ft/min. B) 650 ft/min. C) 555 ft/min.

C) 555 ft/min.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 48, 49, and 50.) What is the ground distance covered during en route climb for Operating Conditions W-4? A) 61.4 NM. B) 60.3 NM. C) 58.4 NM.

C) 58.4 NM.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 173A.) During the approach (ILS RWY 10 at SYR) while maintaining an on glide slope indication with a groundspeed of 110 knots, what was the approximate rate of descent for PTZ 70? A) 475 feet per minute. B) 690 feet per minute. C) 585 feet per minute.

C) 585 feet per minute.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 127.) Which altitude is appropriate for circle 6 (top of Class G airspace)? A) 700 or 2,500 feet AGL. B) 500 or 2,000 feet AGL. C) 700 or 1,200 feet AGL.

C) 700 or 1,200 feet AGL.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 63 and 64.) What is the turbulent air penetration N1 power setting for Operating Conditions Q-1? A) 84.0 percent. B) 82.4 percent. C) 84.8 percent.

C) 84.8 percent.

Refer to appendix 2, figures 111 and 112.) Which approach lighting is available for Rwy 32R? A) HIRL. B) TDZ and CL. C) MALSR with RAIL.

C) MALSR with RAIL.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 144.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter? A) Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft. B) Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft. C) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.

C) Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 90.) Which configuration will result in a landing distance of 5,900 feet over a 50 foot obstacle to an icy runway? A) Use of brakes and spoilers at 125,000 pounds gross weight. B) Use of three reversers at 131,000 pounds gross weight. C) Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight

C) Use of three reversers at 133,000 pounds gross weight

Refer to appendix 2, figure 152.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow B on the Radar Summary Chart? A) Weak echoes; heavy rain showers; area movement toward the southeast. B) Strong echoes; moderate rain showers; no cell movement. C) Weak to moderate echoes; rain showers increasing in intensity.

C) Weak to moderate echoes; rain showers increasing in intensity.

You are cleared to HNL (figure 251) and plan to use the RNAV (RNP) RWY 26L approach. Assuming you have received the training, you A) should be prepared to program the FMS/GPS with the radio frequency to fly this approach. B) can use the GPS and radio frequency communications to fly this approach to minimums. C) know your FMS/GPS must have GPS and radius-to-fix capability.

C) know your FMS/GPS must have GPS and radius-to-fix capability.

Refer to appendix 2, figure 124.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance: '...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...' What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A) Teardrop only. B) Direct only. C) Parallel only.

Direct only


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