Bacteriology & Virology Final Quarter 3

The food-borne disease that involves neurotoxin is: A. botulism B. Bacillus cereus intoxication. C. Clostridium perfringens gastroenteritis. D. gastrointestinal anthrax. E. All of these choices are correct.

A

The gram-negative bacillus associated with abscesses from dog and cat bites or scratches is: A. Pasteurella multocida. B. Yersinia enterocolitica. C. Salmonella typhimurium. D. Francisella tularensis. E. Brucella suis.

A

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is: A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. IgD E. IgM

A

The pathogen that causes Legionnaires' pneumonia also causes a milder infection called Pontiac fever: A. True B. False

A

The positive CAMP test is an example of synergistic effect of two exotoxins: A. True B. False

A

The potential for hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when: A. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh− mother. B. maternal Rh− cells enter an Rh+ fetus. C. fetal Rh− cells enter an Rh+ mother. D. maternal Rh+ cells enter an Rh− fetus. E. fetal Rh+ cells enter an Rh+ mother.

A

What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? A. bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils B. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils C. degranulation D. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. E. Histamine acts on smooth muscle.

A

Where can you find bacteria that are able to grow on MSA agar? A. skin B. intestine C. throat D. bone

A

Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A. cutaneous B. gastrointestinal C. pulmonary D. All of these choices are correct.

A

Which is incorrect about Leptospirosis? A. A vaccine is not available. B. Weil's syndrome occurs during the second phase of the disease. C. It can be avoided by not swimming in livestock watering ponds. D. It is a zoonosis. E. Its principle targets are the kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes.

A

Which is incorrect about Staphylococcus aureus food intoxication? A. Ingestion of the pathogen allows it to multiply and damage the GI tract lining. B. Common associated foods include custards, ham, cream pastries, processed meats. C. Food becomes contaminated by a human carrier. D. After contamination, food must be left unrefrigerated for a few hours. E. Symptoms come on quickly, and include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea.

A

Which is not a characteristic of Nocardia? A. They are filamentous rods that grow in clusters called sulfur granules in infected tissue. B. It can cause pneumonia with symptoms similar to tuberculosis. C. It lives in the soil. D. It causes most cases in the immunocompromised. E. It can be transmitted by respiratory droplets.

A

Which of the following antibiotics specifically disrupt protein synthesis of streptococci? A. macrolides B. aminoglycosides C. β-lactams D. cephalosporins E. ansamycin plural

A

Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type 1 hypersensitivity? A. Contact dermatitis B. Diarrhea C. Sneezing D. Rashes E. Rhinitis

A

Which of the following organisms causes a type of diarrhea with stools described as watery "rice water stools?" A. Vibrio cholerae B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Campylobacter jejuni D. Vibrio vulnificus E. Helicobacter pylori

A

Which of the following organisms would look most similar to Neisseria meningitidis on a Gram stained smear? A. Branhamella catarrhalis B. Streptococcus agalactiae C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Which organism can infect deeper wound sites and produce exotoxins, enzymes, and gas that cause tissue and muscle necrosis? A. Clostridium perfringens B. Clostridium tetani C. Clostridium difficile D. Clostridium botulinum E. All of these choices are correct.

A

Yersinia pestis A. is usually transmitted by a flea vector. B. was virulent in the Middle Ages but is no longer virulent. C. has humans as an endemic reservoir. D. does not respond to antimicrobic drugs. E. All of these choices are correct.

A

Coagulase test may be used to identify __________________ A. fibrin formation B. Staphylococcus aereus C. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A, B

Bacterial tick-borne diseases include___________________: A. Ehrlichiosis B. Rocky mountain spotted fever C. Anaplasmosis D. Babesiosis

A, B, C

Which bacteria are Beta-hemolytic? A. Streptocuccus agalactiae B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Staphylococcus aereus D. Staphylococcus epidermidis

A, B, C

Which following is Category B NIAID emerging infectious diseases/pathogens? A. Coxiella burnetii B. Chikungunya virus C. Brucella spp. D. Arenaviruses

A, B, C

Which following is CategoryC NIAID emerging infectious diseases/pathogens? A. Influenza virus B. Rabies virus C. hantaviruses D. Variola major virus

A, B, C

Which tests may be useful to differentiate Gram negative bacilli? A. oxidase test B. H2S production C. lactose fermentation D. blood agar

A, B, C

Control transmission of zoonotic diseases include_______________: A. vaccination of humans if possible B. animal vaccination if possible C. avoid contact with infected humans D. avoid contact with infected animals

A, B, C, D

Factors contributing to emerging and re-emerging diseases include__________________: A. microbial evolution B. increased density of human population C. aging population D. international travel

A, B, C, D

In the virtual Kirby-Bauer antimicrobial susceptibility test, zone of inhibition around each disk is measured. Based on the results of virtual lab, which following(s) is/are true? A. Clear zone around disks indicate no bacterial growth B. Ciprofloxacin is effective for treating Pseudomonas aerogenosa infection C. E. coli is resistant to clindamycins D. Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to amoxicillin E. Erythromycin may be used to treat E. coli infection

A, B, C, D

Symptoms associated Powassan virus infection include_________________: A. psychosis B. muscle weakness C. neck stiffness D. fever E. erythematous rash

A, B, C, D, E

Oxidase test may be used to _____________: A. identify the presence of cytochrome C oxidase B. differentiate E. coli and Pseudomonas spp. C. differentiate Pseudomonas spp. and Neisseria spp. D. differentiate E. coli and Neisseria spp.

A, B, D

Powassan virus is ___________________: A. associated with tick-borne encephalitis B. enveloped + strand RNA virus C. transmitted via contaminated food and water D. flavirirus

A, B, D

Coagulase is ___________ A. an exoenzyme converting fibrinogen to fibrin B. an endotoxin C. produced by S. aureus D. a neurotoxin

A, C

In the Streak Plate virtaul lab, bacteria pure culture could be obtained by___________ A. sterilize innoculate loop in a flame B. RT-PCR C. taking sample from sputum D. successive dilution of original culture in each quadrant.

A, D

Which following(s) is/are true regarding the catalase virtual lab? A. Oxygen is the product of catalase B. Hydrogen proxide is the product of catalse C. Streptococcus is catalase positive D. Staphylococcus is catalase positive

A, D

The National Institute of Allergy and Infectious Diseases (NIAID) classifies viral hemorrhagic fevers as Category _______ pathogens which pose the ___________ risk to national security and public health

A, highest

Clinical manifestation of melioidosis include____________ A. cutaneous infection B. pulmonary infection C. central nervous system infection D. bone / joint infection

A,B,C,D

Burkholderia pseudomallei are____________ A. casautive agent for melioidosis B. enveloped RNA virus C. resistant towards extreme temperature, acidic/alkaline conditions, disinfection/antiseptic solutions D. Gram negative bacteria associated with zoonotic diseases

A,C,D

Ebola virus is ____________________________ A. transmitted via contaminated bodily fluid B. mosquitoe-borne virus C. biosafety level - 4 agent D. a filovirus

A,C,D

Mosquito-borne flavivirus include_________ A. Zika virus B. coronaviruses C. West Nile virus D. Dengue virus

A,C,D

Risk factors for melioidosis include___________ A. alcoholism B. receiving COVID 19 vaccine C. diabetes mellitus D. chronic kidney damage

A,C,D

Flaviviruses are ______________________ A. enveloped viruses B. DNA viruses C. prions D. single positive strand RNA viruses

A,D

Matching: A. site of protein synthesis B. carries of codon C. carries of anticodon D. a process synonymous with mRNA synthesis E. bacteriophages participate in this transfer F. duplication of DNA molecule G. process in which transcribed DNA code is deciphered into a polypeptide H. involves plasmids

A. ribosome B. mRNA C. tRNA D. transcription E. conjugation F. replication G. translation H. transformation, transduction, conjugation

Which of the following sequences of DNA would most likely be damaged by UV radiation?

AGTTCGCTT

As a general rule, the first codon on a DNA template strand that signals the start for a protein is

AUG

Ornithosis: A. has humans as a reservoir. B. is a zoonosis of certain types of birds. C. is a mild, upper respiratory tract illness. D. is caused by Chlamydophila pneumoniae. E. All of the choices are correct.

B

Patients with legionellosis should be placed in isolation when hospitalized due to the contagious nature of the pathogen. A. True B. False

B

Pertussis has the following characteristics, except: A. the pathogen has virulence factors to destroy the action of respiratory cilia. B. the catarrhal stage has persistent, hacking coughs with "whoops". C. transmission is by respiratory droplets. D. DTaP immunization will prevent it. E. an early stage resembles a cold with nasal discharge and sneezing.

B

Pseudomonas is an enteric gram-negative rod. A. True B. False

B

Shiga toxin is a(n): A. neurotoxin B. exotoxin C. endotoxin D. exoenzyme

B

Shigella species have the following characteristics, except: A. they produce enterotoxin. B. they infect the small intestine. C. they belong to Enterobacteriaceae. D. they are non-motile. E. they release endotoxin.

B

Shigellosis is typically acquired via the respiratory route: A. True B. False

B

Streptococcus pneumoniae is: A. a pathogen with endotoxin. B. a gram-positive diplococcus with a capsule. C. called the meningococcus. D. in the viridans group. E. All of these choices are correct.

B

Taxo-P sensitive bacteria is: A. Streptococcus mitis B. Streptococcus pnemoniae C. E. coli D. Bacillus cereus

B

The Group A streptococcal infection that has symptoms of fever, edema of skin near portal of entry, and an elevated red, hot vesicular lesion is: A. necrotizing fasciitis. B. erysipelas. C. impetigo. D. scarlet fever.

B

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to: A. toxic shock syndrome toxin. B. erythrogenic toxin. C. exfoliative toxin D. hemolysins E. enterotoxins

B

The bright red rash and fever of scarlet fever is due to: A. toxic shock syndrome toxin. B. erythrogenic toxin. C. hemolysins. D. exfoliative toxin. E. enterotoxins.

B

The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by: A. eosinophils. B. macrophages. C. basophils. D. neutrophils. E. lymphocytes.

B

The following image is an example of _________ hemolysis. A. Beta B. alpha C. Non D. Gamma

B

The initial encounter with an allergen is called the: A. provocative dose. B. sensitizing dose. C. allergic dose. D. desensitizing dose. E. hypersensitivity dose.

B

The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by: A. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C. Staphylococcus aureus. D. Neisseria meningitidis. E. Streptococcus pyogenes.

B

The major virulence factor of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that causes serious systemic effects is: A. the metachromatic granules. B. its exotoxin. C. the endospores. D. the capsule. E. its endotoxin.

B

The naked viruses generally are more resistant to antiseptics such as soap and alcohol than enveloped viruses because: A. reverse transcriptase resists enzyme digestion B. lipids are easily destroyed by soap and alcohol C. capsomers are easily destroyed by soap and alcohol D. naked viruses do not cause any disease

B

The process by which antibodies block interactions between pathogens or their products and host cells is termed: A. attenuation B. neutralization. C. complement. D. interference.

B

The tertiary stage of syphilis: A. has no symptoms. B. is when gummas develop in tissues. C. is when the patient is highly infectious to others. D. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage. E. is when a chancre develops.

B

The vaccine for immunity to Haemophilus influenzae serotype b is: A. DtaP. B. Hib C. Pneumovax. D. MMR.

B

The white-footed mouse, deer, and deer ticks are important to maintaining the transmission cycle associated with: A. leptospirosis. B. Lyme disease. C. tertiary syphilis. D. chlamydiosis. E. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

B

Toxoids: A. contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. B. contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. C. confer passive immunity. D. are always genetically engineered. E. All of these choices are correct.

B

Which chemical produced by S. aureus is also known as "spreading factor"? A. hemolysin B. hyaluronidase C. penicillinase D. coagulase E. toxic shock syndrome toxin

B

Which disease involves transmission by aerosolized water from whirlpool spas, air conditioners, cooling towers, and supermarket vegetable misters? A. pertussis B. legionellosis C. traveler's diarrhea D. plague E. brucellosis

B

Which is incorrect about Lyme disease? A. It is nonfatal. B. It is a new disease that started in Lyme, Connecticut. C. Its reservoirs are mice and deer. D. It can slowly progress and mimic rheumatoid conditions. E. It is transmitted by ticks.

B

Which is incorrect about Mycoplasma pneumoniae? A. After 2 to 3 weeks, it develops into an unproductive cough and earache. B. Birds are a reservoir. C. Early infections are characterized by fever, malaise, sore throat, headache. D. Its cells lack a cell wall. E. It is a common cause of primary atypical pneumonia.

B

Which is mismatched? A. K antigen - capsule B. H antigen - fimbriae C. O antigen - cell wall, somatic D. All of these choices are correct.

B

Which is not a characteristic of Helicobacter pylori? A. Produces urease that buffers stomach acidity B. Produces enteroxin that causes diarrhea C. Lives in the stomach D. Gram negative E. Curved rods

B

Which method of microbial control destroys microorganisms by oxidation of cells? A. use of UV radiation B. incineration C. steam autoclave D. use of glutaraldehyde

B

Which of the following is a risk of a bone marrow transplant that is not typically a risk of a kidney or heart transplant? A. hypogammaglobulinemia B. graft versus host disease C. formation of autoantibodies D. host rejection of graft

B

Which of the following is not correct concerning Legionnaires' disease? A. Symptoms include cough, diarrhea, and abdominal pain. B. The disease is communicable from person to person. C. Cases have been traced to the fallout from the Mount Saint Helen's volcano. D. It is more common in males over 50 years of age. E. L. pneumophila lives in close associations with free-living amoebas.

B

Which of the following is not true about diphtheria? A. Humans can be healthy carriers. B. It is a zoonosis. C. It is an upper respiratory infection. D. It is prevented with the DTaP vaccine. E. A pseudomembrane may form in the back of the throat.

B

The following image is an example of ________ shaped bacteria with __________ arrangement

bacillus, palisade

What is a/are potential reservoir(s) for viruses?

bats

A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?

bile salts

Classification of viruses into families involves determining all the following characteristics except

biochemical reactions.

Penicillins and cephalosporins

block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

Which color pigment is produced by Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

blue-green

Which of the following bacterial genera contain members that are very similar physiologically to Pseudomonas and cause a similar spectrum of opportunistic infections?

both Burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas

A media is designed that allows only staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is

both selective and differential.

Which of these metals have antimicrobial properties associated with them?

both silver and gold

Antimicrobics effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed

broad-spectrum drugs.

How do enveloped animal viruses exit their host?

budding or exocytosis

Treponema pallidum is extremely sensitive to temperature changes and low moisture, thus it is transmitted

by intimate person-to-person contact.

Cocksackieviruses

can cause hand-foot-mouth disease.

Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

can cause high fever, pneumonia, respiratory distress.

Helical and icosahedral are terms used to describe the shapes of a virus

capsid

Which structure protects bacteria from being phagocytized?

capsule

"Typhoid Mary" is an example of a ________, because she was infected by the causative agent for typhoid fever yet was asymptomatic.

carrier

People who have a subclinical case of a disease are frequently ________ of a particular disease.

carriers

Parainfluenza virus

causes croup, bronchitis, and bronchopneumonia.

In bacterial cells, the electron transport system is located in the

cell membrane.

The site/s for most ATP synthesis in prokaryotic cells is/are the

cell membrane.

Viruses, Rickettsia, and Chlamydia are described as obligate intracellular parasites because they can only be propagated inside living host cells. Which of the following would be appropriate for their cultivation?

cell or tissue cultures

Which structure confers bacteria shape?

cell wall

E. coli O157:H7 and E. coli O111:H7 differ in their

cell wall antigen.

Peptidoglycan is a unique macromolecule found in bacterial

cell walls.

Which form of energy fuels cellular energetics in chemoheterotrophs?

chemical energy in organic compounds

Aerobic respiration is an example of

chemoheterotrophy.

If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with

chickenpox

If a person who has never been infected with the varicella-zoster virus comes in contact with a person who has shingles, they will come down with:

chickenpox.

A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is

chocolate agar.

A chemical that inhibits beta-lactamase enzymes is

clavulanic acid.

A change in one partner in a close relationship that leads to a change in the other partner is

coevolution

A bacterial cell that is deposited on the surface of an appropriate solid growth media will divide repeatedly until it forms a visible accumulation of bacterial growth. This is known as a bacterial

colony.

In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each ________ on the agar surface represents one ________ from the sample.

colony; cell

Virion refers to

complete virus particle

Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media?

complex

What is the correct sequence for a Gram stain?

crystal Violet, Gram's iodine, Alcohol, Safranin

Case C: What diagnostic testing would be indicated to follow this exam?

culture and sensitivity from throat swab, rapid strep test

The virus-induced, specific damage to the host cell that can be seen in a light microscope is called

cytopathic effect.

Which location would best support the growth of a barophile?

deep oceans

A frameshift is caused by ________ mutations?

deletion and insertion

Inhalation of respiratory secretions is involved in the transmission of the following, except

dengue fever.

The chancre of syphilis

develops into a lesion with firm margins and an ulcerated central crater

Pseudomonas aeruginosa causes all the following, except

diarrheal illness.

The following image is an example of __________

diplococcus

Using toilet bowl cleaner and nonionizing radiation on inanimate surfaces only removes or kills vegetative bacteria. The term that best describes this action is

disinfection.

Which following process contribute to arrangement of bacteria?

division plane during binary fission

The core of every virus particle always contains:

either DNA or RNA.

Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?

electron

Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?

electron

Diseases that suddenly become prevalent are referred to as ________ diseases.

emerging

An occasional serious complication of herpes simplex-1 is

encephalitis.

Which of the following structure is produced by some bacteria in response to adverse conditions?

endospore

The pathogenesis of rickettsial infections often involves infection of

endothelial lining of blood vessels.

The lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria is also known as

endotoxin

The study of the occurrence, distribution, and determinants of health and disease in a population is the field of

epidemiology.

The sterilizing gas used in a special chamber is

ethylene oxide.

Microorganisms that live in severe habitats, such as very hot, acidic or salty environments, are called

extremophiles

An organism that can exist in both oxygen and oxygen-free environments is a(n)

facultative anaerobe.

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar and in a candle jar. After incubation there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a/an

facultative anaerobe.

A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size. (T/F)

false

ALL microorganisms that live in the human body are harmful. (T/F)

false

Bacteria chromosome are inside nucleus (T/F)

false

Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) are typically resistant to carbapenem but sensitive to most other antibiotics.

false

Chiropractic doctors are not required to report patients with Lyme disease. Only primary care physicians do. (T/F)

false

Chlorine compounds remain stable and effective in the presence of excess organic matter. (T/F)

false

Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it. (T/F)

false

Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon. (T/F)

false

Melioidosis needs to be reported within 7 days in GA. A. true B. false

false

Most microbial contaminants of food are killed at freezing temperatures. (T/F)

false

Normal microflora are usually found in the blood, lymph, and nervous systems of the body. (T/F)

false

Photosynthesis occurs in chloroplasts of prokaryotes. (T/F)

false

The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9. (T/F)

false

The term diplococci refers to an irregular cluster of spherical bacterial cells. (T/F)

false

Viruses constitute the fourth domain of life in current biological classification schemes. (T/F)

false

Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called

fastidious.

Smallpox is a disease in which

fever, malaise, rash, possible toxemia and shock occurs.

Symptoms of influenza include

fever, myalgia, sore throat, cough, nasal discharge.

The short, numerous appendages used by some bacterial cells for adhering to surfaces are called

fimbriae

Herpes whitlow is a deep set herpes simplex virus infection of the

finger.

A bacterial cell exhibiting chemotaxis probably has

flagella

A microscope that exposes specimens to ultraviolet, violet, or blue light and forms an image with the light emitted at a different wavelength is called a __________ microscope.

fluorescence

An inanimate object that transmits infectious agents between hosts is most appropriately called a

fomite.

Which of the following are NOT vectors important in disease transmission?

fomites

Case F: What is your diagnosis in this case?

gas gangrene

Which body site is preferentially infected by foodborne pathogens?

gastrointestinal tract

What is the smallest unit of heredity (genotype)?

gene

A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host via lytic life cycle. This is an example of

generalized transduction.

Which of the following is NOT a public health measure used to control the transmission of disease?

genetic engineering

The ________ is all of the genetic material of a cell.

genome

The term chemotroph refers to an organism that

gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds.

Characteristics of all the members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include

glucose fermentation.

Lipopolysaccharide is an important cell wall component of

gram-negative bacteria.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

has symptoms that include fever, headache, and rash.

Each of the following viruses or diseases are transmitted via the oral-fecal route, except

hepatitis C virus.

Epidemiological studies of AIDS in Africa have confirmed that ________ transmission of the virus is the norm in that region.

heterosexual

Regarding the viral membrane of an enveloped virus, the lipids are derived from the ________, and the proteins are encoded by ________.

host's cell membrane / viral genes

A disease showing a relatively slow, progressive rise followed by a gradual decline in incidence is indicative of a(n)

host-to-host epidemic.

In ________ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.

hypotonic

Which of the following branches of Microbiology is utilized in diagnosing or treating someone who has broken out in hives and is experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin?

immunology

Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea?

in a hot spring

Disease ________ is measured by the total number of new reported disease cases within a population over a period of time.

incidence

Which stage of an acute infectious disease occurs between the time the organism begins to grow in the host and the appearance of disease symptoms?

incubation period

Disease cases that exhibit new syndromes or characteristics or are linked to new pathogens are surveyed through regional laboratories and considered ________ cases.

index

An example of a cyclical disease is

influenza.

The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is

inoculation

In the Gram-staining procedure, the mordant is

iodine

The lactose repressor

is inactivated by binding lactose.

Dry heat

is less efficient than moist heat.

The bacterial chromosome

is part of the nucleoid.

Which of these drugs is used to treat cases of tuberculosis?

isoniazid

All of the following pertain to HIV, except

it causes Kaposi sarcoma.

Human herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6) has the following characteristics, except

it causes Kaposi's sarcoma.

West Nile virus has the following characteristics, except

it causes a hemorrhagic fever.

All of the following are correct about the autoclave, except

it is effective for sterilizing powders, oils, and waxy substances.

All of the following pertain to herpes simplex-1 (HSV-1), except

it is latent in the lumbosacral spinal nerve ganglia.

Typhoid fever has the following characteristics, except:

it is spread by handling reptiles.

All the following pertain to measles (rubeola), except

it is transmitted by direct contact with the rash.

All of the following are associated with bubonic plague, except

it is transmitted by human feces.

All of the following are benefits of food irradiation, except

it makes the food less nutritious.

Sin Nombre hantavirus has all the following characteristics, except

its reservoir is human carriers.

Enveloped viral membranes are generally ________ with associated virus-specific ________.

lipid bilayers / glycoproteins

Which organ is responsible for metabolizing and detoxifying foreign chemicals in the blood, including drugs?

liver

Case G: What is your diagnosis here?

lockjaw (tetanus)

The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the

log phase.

All of the following are methods of disinfection or sterilization, except

lyophilization

Archaea as a group are not pathogens. This is because

mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements.

Which of the following diseases is NOT normally spread by a common source?

measles

Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with

measles (rubeola).

All of the following are characteristics of viruses except

metabolism

Which term refers to all of the chemical reactions of the cell?

metabolism

What unit of measure is most appropriate for expressing the size of bacteria?

micrometer

Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?

mitosis

The number of ill individuals within a population is referred to as

morbidity

Bacteriophage have a ________ complex structure than animal viruses, because ________.

more / the bacteriophage must penetrate the peptidoglycan cell wall

Filoviruses (such as Ebola virus) that cause severe hemorrhagic fevers generally have high ________ but low ________.

mortality / morbidity

Orchitis and epididymitis is seen in young adult males as a complication of

mumps

A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called a(n)

mutation

Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed

narrow-spectrum drugs.

The enzyme associated with the influenza virus that hydrolyzes the protective mucous coating of the respiratory tract is

neuraminidase

Influenza pandemics occur cyclically because

new strains emerge due to reassortment between bird, swine, and human variants.

All of the following are examples of basic dyes except

nigrosin

In viruses, genetic information flows from ________ to ________.

nucleic acid / protein

In general, most DNA viruses multiply in the host cell's ________, while most RNA viruses multiply in the host cell's ________.

nucleus; cytoplasm

The type of photosynthesis that does not produce oxygen

occurs in purple and green sulfur bacteria.

All of the following pertain to transcription except

occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm.

Diseases can be controlled through immunization even if the percentage of the population that is immunized is less than 100% because

of herd immunity.

A pure culture contains only

one species of microorganism.

Diseases that are good candidates for eradication have

only a human reservoir.

A large number of cases of a particular disease observed in a relatively short period of time in an area that previously experienced only sporadic cases of the disease is known as a(n)

outbreak.

The most likely place where an exoenzyme participates in a chemical reaction is

outside of the cell.

A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with

oxygen.

A disease that is present in unusually high numbers throughout the world is called a(n)

pandemic.

If the objective lenses of a microscope can be changed without losing focus on the specimen, they are said to be

parfocal

Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by

pasteurization

Case C: What is the most likely treatment for this illness?

penicillin or erythromycin

Spirochetes have a twisting and flexing locomotion due to appendages called

periplasmic flagella (axial filaments).

The term that refers to the presence of flagella all over the cell surface is

peritrichous.

An organism that uses CO 2 for its carbon needs and sunlight for its energy needs would be called a/an

photoautotroph.

The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called

phylogeny

Visible, clear, well-defined patches in a monolayer of virus-infected cells in a culture are called

plaques

Which is mismatched?

plasmids - genes essential for growth and metabolism

Shrinkage of the plasma membrane away from the cell wall when the bacterium is placed in a hypertonic environment is called

plasmolysis

Which of the following shows the correct relationship among the epidemiology terms listed?

prevalence > incidence > mortality

Normal flora ________ colonization of pathogenic organisms.

prevent

Pasteurization of milk is an example of a disease control measure aimed at

preventing common source diseases.

All of the following are true of prions and prion diseases, except

prion diseases are diagnosed by an indirect ELISA test that detects antibody to prions.

Which of the following is the way that prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes?

prokaryotes lack mamabrane enclosed nucleus

The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the

promoter.

Enzymes are

proteins that function as catalysts.

Influenza vaccines include all the following, except

provides lifelong immunity.

Which bacteria carry out photosynthesis without generating oxygen?

purple bacteria

After the decolorizer has been added, gram-positive organisms are stained __________ and gram-negative organisms are stained __________.

purple; colorless

If the decolorizer is not left on long enough in the Gram-staining procedure, gram-positive organisms will be stained __________ and gram-negative organisms will be stained _________

purple; purple

Which of the following emergence factors has contributed to the HIV/AIDS epidemic?

rapid pathogen adaptation and change

Immersion oil can be used to increase the resolution achieved with some microscope lenses because it has the same ___________ as the objective lens.

refractive index

A microaerophile

requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels.

Fermentation

requires an organic electron acceptor.

The ability of a microscope to differentiate between two close objects or points is referred to as

resolution.

Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct?

resolving power

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called

restriction endonucleases.

Which location would best support the growth of a halophile?

salt lakes

The process of using a cleansing technique to mechanically remove and reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is

sanitization

Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called

saprobes.

The most effective HIV treatment includes

several different drugs each directed at different enzymes (reverse transcriptase, integrase, fusion, and protease).

Cytomegalovirus mononucleosis typically has fever and lymphocytosis, but in severely immunocompromised patients symptoms include

severe diarrhea, pneumonitis, hepatitis, and retinitis.

Acyclovir is used to treat

shingles, chickenpox, and genital herpes.

Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would

shrivel as a result of the move.

Which of the following is present in prokaryotes but not in eukaryotes?

simultaneous transcrption and translation

Symptoms of infectious mononucleosis include

sore throat, fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly.

The following image is an example of ________ shaped bacteria.

spiral

Cholera is an example of a pandemic disease that

spreads from a common source and could be controlled with adequate clean water and waste sanitation measures.

Sterilization is achieved by

steam autoclave.

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is

sterilization

All of the following are correct about salmonelloses except

strains are normal flora in dogs and cats.

Case C: What would be your presumptive diagnosis for this child?

streptococcal pharyngitis

The following image is an example of _____

streptococcus

Case B. What would be your primary diagnosis of this patient?

subacute bacterial endocarditis

All of the following pertain to poliomyelitis, except

summer outbreaks in the U.S. have been recently increasing.

Scanning electron microscopy is most often used to reveal

surface structures.

Which of the following is/are considered (a) direct contact infection(s)?

syphilis, gonorrhea, and skin infections

Which of the following antimicrobials is contraindicated for children due to permanent tooth discoloration?

tetracycline

Which term is not used to describe bacterial cell shapes?

tetrad

Full induction of the lactose operon requires

that lactose be present without glucose.

All of the following pertain to genital warts, except

the are not common in the United States.

Case A: From complaint and physical examination, which of the symptoms lead you to your choice of agent?

the fever, wound with oozing pus and enlarged lymph nodes

All of the following pertain to patients with AIDS, except

the highest number of cases worldwide is in the United States.

All the following are correct about the polio vaccines, except

the inactivated polio vaccine (IPV) can occasionally revert to a neurovirulent strain.

The difference in cell wall structure of Mycobacterium and Nocardia compared to the typical gram-positive bacterial cell wall structure is

the predominance of unique, waxy lipids.

Which of the following is useful in distinguishing between procaryotic and eucaryotic cells?

the presence of membrane-delimited organelles within the cytoplasm

Mineral oil is added to the slide when using 100x objective lens to observe the bacteria because

the refractive index of mineral oil is the same as glass

All of the following are problems in the management of antibiotic usage, except

the selection of antibiotics based on results of appropriate antibiotic susceptibility testing.

All of the following pertain to monkeypox, except

the virus has shown a trend in becoming less virulent, with fewer outbreaks in humans.

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the

therapeutic index (TI).

All of the following are similarities between HAV, HBV, and HCV, except

they are all RNA viruses.

Characteristics of the Orthomyxoviruses include all of the following, except

they include paramyxoviruses.

While trying to start an IV on a patient, Kurt received a needlestick injury and blood exposure involving a patient with AIDS. He was immediately started on three different antiretroviral medications. The advantage of using combined therapy in this circumstance is

this should prevent the emergence of drug-resistant microbes.

All of the following are true of human parvovirus B19, except

this virus can also cause severe disease in puppies.

in DNA, adenine is the complementary base for ______, and cytosine is he complementary base for ______.

thymine, guanine

Control of rodent populations is important for preventing

tick-borne relapsing fever.

Why is immersion oil often used when viewing specimens under the microscope?

to increase the resolution

Case A: Which of the following is most likely to follow this infection?

toxic shock syndrome

Messager RNA is formed by ________ of a gene on the DNA template strand

transcription

Which of the following is not true of conjugation?

transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule

In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated Streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated Streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated Streptococci. What is the term that describes this process?

transformation

The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is

transformation

Genes that jump from one location to another in the genome are

transposons.

Most cases of mosquito-transmitted diseases occur in

tropical and sub-tropical regions or during the summer and fall seasons.

A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve. (T/F)

true

A lytic infection results in death of the host cell. (T/F)

true

A saprobe with a cell wall will utilize extracellular digestion. (T/F)

true

ATP synthase is a complex enzyme needed for oxidative phosphorylation. (T/F)

true

Alcohols are more effective at inactivating enveloped viruses than naked viruses. (T/F)

true

At the end of the Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells. (T/F)

true

Bacteria in the genus Mycoplasma lack cell walls. (T/F)

true

Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than planktonic bacteria. (T/F)

true

Burkitt lymphoma is a B-cell malignancy, usually of the jaw, associated with Epstein-Barr infection or coinfection with other diseases. A. true B. false

true

Chlamydia trachomatis is commonly transmitted directly by sexual activity. A. true B. false

true

Chlorine dioxide and ethylene oxide are gaseous sterilants. (T/F)

true

Filtration is an effective method to remove microbes from air and liquids. (T/F)

true

Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye. A. true B. false

true

If you observe rod-shaped, pink cells on a slide that had just been Gram stained, you can assume that their cell walls contain endotoxin. (T/F)

true

Melioidosis needs to be reported immediately in GA. A. true B. false

true

Negative staining with India ink can be used to reveal the presence of capsules that surround bacterial cells (T/F)

true

Neisseria lactamica in the human oral cavity may prevent meningococcal meningitis. (T/F)

true

Planktonic bacteria are more susceptible to antibiotics as compared to biofilm microorganisms. (T/F)

true

Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria. (T/F)

true

The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface, seeded with the test bacterium, to which small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface. (T/F)

true

The degree of turbidity in a broth culture correlates to the amount of cell growth. (T/F)

true

The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants. (T/F)

true

Transcription and translation are coupled in bacteria. (T/F)

true

Varicella and herpes zoster are caused by the same virus. A. true B. false

true

Variola major and variola minor are the two principal forms of smallpox disease. A. true B. false

true

Viruses can redirect host metabolic functions. (T/F)

true

Rabbits and rodents are the reservoirs of the causative agent of

tularemia.

Host range of a virus is limited by the

type of host cell receptors on cell membrane.

Please match the bacteria with the disease they cause: A. salmonella typhimurium B. Bartonella Henselae C. Yersinia pestis D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa E. Yersinia enterocolitica

typhoid fever, cat scratch disease, plaque (black death), urinary tract infection (UTI), yersiniosis

Documented transmission of HIV involves

unprotected sexual intercourse and contact with blood/blood products.

Helicase

unwinds DNA.

In just over a decade of efforts, the World Health Organization (WHO) eradicated smallpox by using worldwide

vaccination programs.

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are

vegetative bacteria and fungi.

Hemagglutinition utilizing red blood cell to detect _______ in a sample.

virus

Which public health measure(s) is/are MOST effective against pathogens transmitted through common vehicles?

water purification and food safety regulations

A ________ is a disease that primarily infects animals but can be transmitted to humans.

zoonosis

Which of the following is/are true of antibiotic usage and the development of antibiotic resistance? A. Antibiotics increase the rate of bacterial transformation, conjugation, and transduction, and thus increase the spread of antibiotic resistance. B. Antibiotics select for resistant mutants and bacteria possessing R-plasmids, increasing their frequency in the population. C. Antibiotics cause R-plasmids to form and cause their transfer, spreading antibiotic resistance. D. Antibiotics cause mutations (antibiotics are mutagens), thus resulting in increasingly resistant bacterial populations. E. All of these choices are correct.

B

Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action? A. IL-1 B. IFN C. IL-6 D. TNF E. chemokines

B

Which of the following organisms would look most similar to Neisseria meningitidis on a Gram stained smear? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Branhamella catarrhalis C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus agalactiae

B

Which organism is associated with commonly causing urinary tract infections in sexually active young adult and adolescent females? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus saprophyticus C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus agalactiae

B

Which type of anthrax is called "woolsorter's disease?" A. gastrointestinal B. pulmonary C. cutaneous D. All of these choices are correct.

B

Yaws, Pinta, and Bejel are all diseases that: A. are caused by arthropod vectors. B. are slow, progressive skin diseases that can spread to deep tissues. C. are sexually transmitted. D. are respiratory tract infections. E. are caused by Vibrio species.

B

Staphylococcus aereus may be identified with_____________ tests: A. Rapis Strep test B. coagulase test C. Mannitol Salt agar D. Catalase test

B, C, D

Zika virus may cause______________________ A. scalded skin syndrome B. microcephaly C. Guillain-Barre sydrome D. hepatitis

B,C

Which of the following is a scientific name?

Bacillus subtilis

Antibiotic resistance refers to _____________ (patient or bacteria) become resistant to antibiotics

Bacteria

Which of the following statements about Gram-staining is true?

Bacteria stain differently based on differences in their cell wall composition.

Bacteria are in Domain ___________, and composed of ___________ cells.

Bacteria, prokarytic

How do bacteriophage influence bacterial evolution?

Bacteriophage transfer genetic information between bacterial cells through transduction, thus increasing the genetic diversity of bacterial populations.

Although Burkholderia cepacia could be very useful in bioremediation programs, it is not feasible to use it. Why?

Because it can cause opportunistic infections in the respiratory tract.

Why has the United States and Europe banned the use of human drugs in animal feeds?

Because it contributes to the growing drug resistance problem.

The causative agent of Lyme disease is:

Borrelia burgdorferi.

Which bacteria could be responsible for hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)?

Both E. coli 0157:H7 and Shigella dysenteriae

The name of bacteria associated with melioidosis is ______________ ______________, which is gram ___________ bacteria

Burkholderia pseudomallei, negative

A female who is Rh +: A. is at risk for a pregnancy resulting in hemolytic disease of the newborn. B. inherited two recessive genes C. is in the majority of the population with regard to Rh status. D. can only have an Rh positive baby. E. All of these choices are correct.

C

A pregnant woman is told she has a positive CAMP test and should be treated with a course of antibiotics. This test is indicative of: A. Group A streptococci. B. S. epidermidis. C. Group B streptococci. D. S. aureus. E. S. saprophyticus.

C

A seasonal farmworker has been brought into the emergency room showing early symptoms of tetanus, including spastic contractions of face and neck muscles. His coworkers indicated that he had received a puncture wound in his hand a week prior to the onset of symptoms. His tetanus vaccination status is uncertain. Which of the following should be administered to the patient first, as soon as possible? A. antibiotics B. hyperbaric oxygen chamber therapy C. tetanus immune globulin D. tetanus toxoid E. a tetanus titer

C

All of the following are associated with subacute endocarditis, except: A. oral bacteria get introduced by dental procedures to the blood. B. it occurs in patients that have prior heart damage. C. it is caused by immune system autoantibodies that attack heart and valve tissue. D. bacteria colonize previously damaged heart tissue resulting in vegetation. E. signs and symptoms include fever, heart murmur, and possible emboli.

C

All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity, exept A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. complement E. foreign cells

C

All of the following are involved in the development of a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, except A. antigen. B. TH cells. C. IgE. D. cytokines. E. TC cells. F. dendritic cells. G. macrophages.

C

All of the following pertain to Neisseria meningitidis, except: A. the reservoir is the nasopharynx of human carriers. B. it is more easily transmitted in day-care facilities, dorms, and military barracks. C. it is a common cause of bacterial pneumonia. D. it causes serious meningitis. E. virulence factors include a capsule, pili, endotoxin, and IgA protease.

C

All of the following pertain to tuberculosis, except: A. lung infection can disseminate to many other organs in extrapulmonary TB. B. symptoms of active TB include low-grade fever, coughing, fatigue, weight loss, and night sweats. C. antimicrobials cannot treat and cure tuberculosis. D. live bacilli can remain dormant in the lungs and reactivate later in life. E. the BCG vaccine is used in other countries.

C

An example of artificial active immunity would be: A. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. B. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. C. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. D. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.

C

An example of natural passive immunity would be: A. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. B. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. C. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. D. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.

C

E. coli 0157:H7 characteristics include all the following, except: A. it is transmitted by ingestion of contaminated, undercooked food, especially hamburger. B. some cases go on to hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS) with possible kidney failure. C. it only causes occupational illness in people who work with animals. D. its reservoir is cattle intestines. E. it causes a bloody diarrhea.

C

Ebola virus and Marburgvirus belong to family _________________ A. Flaviviridae B. retroviridae C. Filoviridae D. Arenaviridae

C

Erythema migrans, a bull's-eye rash, at the portal of entry is associated with: A. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. B. leptospirosis. C. Lyme disease. D. syphilis. E. relapsing fever.

C

Formation of a pseudomembrane in the back of the throat is seen in: A. listeriosis. B. tuberculosis. C. diphtheria. D. erysipeloid. E. botulism.

C

If a microorganism grows on Mannitol Salt Agar, and there are yellow color around bacterial colony, this bacteria is _______ which ______________ salt and ferments mannitol. A. S. epidermidis, is sensitive B. S. pneumoniae, tolerates C. S. aureus, tolerates D. S. mitis, resists

C

Pasteurization of milk helps to prevent: A. pertussis. B. legionellosis. C. brucellosis. D. shigellosis. E. tularemia.

C

Plasma cells: A. are derived from T-lymphocytes. B. function in cell-mediated immunity. C. produce and secrete antibodies. D. All of these choices are correct.

C

Production of enterotoxin is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium tetani. B. Clostridium botulinum. C. Clostridium perfringens. D. Clostridium difficile. E. All of these choices are correct.

C

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except: A. scarlet fever. B. impetigo. C. scalded skin syndrome. D. necrotizing fasciitis. E. erysipelas.

C

The RPR, VDRL, MHA-TP, FTA-ABS, and TPI tests are used to diagnose: A. Q fever. B. chlamydiosis. C. syphilis. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever. E. lyme disease.

C

The function of bacterial endospores is: A. the storage of excess cell materials. B. to convert gaseous nitrogen to a usable form for plants. C. for protection of genetic material during harsh conditions. D. for reproduction and growth. E. to have sites for photosynthesis.

C

The individuals most at risk for botulism are those that: A. have a weakened immune system. B. eat meat. C. consume home-preserved foods. D. eat often in restaurants. E. are vegetarians.

C

The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus strains that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in scalded skin syndrome is: A. toxic shock syndrome toxin. B. hemolysin. C. exfoliative toxin. D. enterotoxin. E. erythrogenic toxin.

C

Type ________ hypersensitivities involve soluble antigen with IgM or IgG forming complexes that can deposit in tissues. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C

What is the usual cause of pseudomembranous colitis? A. handling infected animals contaminated with E. rhusiopathiae B. living in close contact with someone infected with C. perfringens C. therapy with broad-spectrum antibiotics leading to superinfection by C. difficile D. consuming unpasteurized dairy products containing Listeria monocytogenes E. improperly home-preserved foods containing botulin toxin

C

Which cells may carry out phagocytosis? A. B cells and Plasma Cells B. Helper T cells (CD4) C. Macrophages and neutrophils D. Cytotoxic T cells (CD8) E. Natural Killer cells

C

Which following is the most fatal disease? A. Measles B. antibiotic associated colitis C. Rabies D. tuberculosis

C

Which is incorrect regarding fever? A. It is present in all vertebrates. B. It inhibits the multiplication of temperature-sensitive microorganisms. C. It is associated exclusively with bacterial infections. D. It stimulates the activity of T-cells. E. When rising, a person feels cold.

C

Which is mismatched? A. Coxiella burnetii - Q fever B. Bartonella henselae - cat scratch disease C. Rickettsia rickettsii - epidemic typhus D. Rickettsia typhi - endemic (murine) typhus E. Bartonella quintana - trench fever

C

Which is mismatched? A. food allergy - Type 1 hypersensitivity B. poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity C. hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity D. serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity E. transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity

C

Which of the following distinguishes syphilis from yaws? A. Syphilis is caused by a spirochete. B. Syphilis has a primary, secondary, and tertiary stages. C. Syphilis is sexually transmitted. D. Syphilis is treated with antibiotics. E. Syphilis is a slow and progressive disease.

C

Which of the following is an agent of the sexually-transmitted disease chancroid? A. Haemophilus parainfluenzae B. Haemophilus aegyptius C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Haemophilus influenzae E. Haemophilus aphrophilus

C

Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies? A. They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them. B. They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies. C. They are found mainly in the lymph nodes. D. Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines.

C

Which of the following is most useful for the definitive diagnosis of Lyme disease? A. Gram stain of blood specimen B. Culture of the bull's-eye rash on Lyme-selective agar C. Lyme antibody titers D. Blood cultures E. All of these methods may be used to diagnosis Lyme disease.

C

Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type 1 hypersensitivity? A. Rashes B. Rhinit C. Contact dermatitisis D. Diarrhea E. Sneezing

C

Tick-borne viral diseases include_______: A. yellow fever B. Lyme disease C. Bourbon virus disease D. Powassan encephalitis

C, D

Which following is Category A NIAID emerging infectious diseases/pathogens? A. Severer acute resoiratory syndrome associated coronavirus B. Burkholderia pseudomallei C. Yersinia pestis D. Francisella tularensis

C, D

If a patient's antibody test indicates IgG production, this patient has _________ illness

Chronic

Case F: What is the causative agent for this disease?

Clostridium perfringens

How do antibiotic resist genes emerge?

Combination of genes exposed to antibiotics, spread of those germs

Which infection is marked by labored, noisy breathing and a hoarse cough?

Croup

A 48-year old man has had nasal surgery and absorbent material has been inserted into his nasal cavity to control bleeding. Several hours ago he began to complain of a headache and has since developed a red rash over much of his body and is experiencing muscle cramps and diarrhea. His blood pressure has dropped to 75/50 mg Hg. This patient's illness is most likely caused by: A. Streptococcus pyogenes — erythrogenic toxin B. Streptococcus pyogenes — streptolysin O C. Staphylococcus aureus — exfoliative toxin D. Staphylococcus aureus — toxic shock syndrome toxin

D

A patient has a suspicious skin infection and a culture is taken. Which media would be appropriate to select for staphylococci? A. Nutrient agar B. Blood agar C. macConkey agar D. Mannitol salt agar E. Chocolate agar

D

The major categories of hypersensitivities that typically involve a B-cell immunoglobulin response is/are: A. Type 1 only. B. Type 1 and Type 4. C. Type 4 only D. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3 E. Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4.

D

The most immediate and important treatment needed to prevent death in cholera victims is: A. antimicrobics B. antitoxin. C. surgery. D. water and electrolyte replacement. E. None of the choices are correct.

D

The oxidase test is to identify the presence of __________________ A. catalase B. hemolysin C. coagulase D. cytochrome C oxidase

D

The purpose of streaking plate is to: A. kill bacteria B. see whether bacteria grow on the plate C. grow a lot bacteria D. Isolate pure colonies

D

The secondary stage of syphilis: A. has no symptoms. B. is when gummas develop in tissues. C. is when the patient is no longer infectious to others. D. is a time when the pathogen enters and multiplies in the blood. E. occurs within 10 days of the primary stage.

D

The virulence of Vibrio cholerae is due to its: A. invasive enzymes. B. capsule C. neurotoxin D. enterotoxin E. All of the above.

D

Tuberculoid leprosy: A. may have complications including secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. B. is the most disfiguring. C. is characterized by a large number of acid fast bacilli in the infected tissues (multibacillary). D. causes asymmetrical, shallow skin lesions with loss of pain sensation. E. All of these choices are correct.

D

Viral hemorrhagic fevers pose_________: A. 2nd highest risk to national security and public health B. 3rd highest risk to national security and public health C. no risk at all D. the highest risk to national security and public health

D

What is the Arthus reaction? A. an autoimmune disorder B. the name given to skin wheals that occur during an allergy skin test C. a positive tuberculosis skin test D. an acute response to a second injection of vaccines at the same site E. the lysis of RBC due to complement during an incorrect blood transfusion

D

Which chemical, produced by S. aureus, digests blood clots? A. coagulase B. toxic shock syndrome toxin C. penicillinase D. staphylokinase E. hyaluronidase

D

Which is incorrect about Yersinia pestis? A. It is a gram-negative rod. B. It exhibits bipolar staining. C. It produces coagulase enzyme. D. It produces enterotoxin. E. It has a capsule.

D

Which is the best guide for selecting an effective antibiotic? A. identification of the microbe causing the infection B. history of prior antibiotics prescribed for the patient C. location of the patient's infection D. results of Kirby-Bauer antimicrobial susceptibility testing

D

Which method of microbial control destroys microorganisms by oxidation of cells? A. steam autoclave B. use of UV radiation C. use of glutaraldehyde D. incineration

D

Which of the following is not caused by Haemophilus influenzae? A. epiglottitis B. bronchitis C. bacterial meningitis D. influenza (flu) E. otitis media

D

Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action? A. IL-1 B. TNF C. chemokines D. IFN E. IL-6

D

Which of the immunizations would carry the greatest risk for immunocompromised patients? A. immune serums B. killed, inactivated vaccines C. subunit vaccines D. attenuated vaccines E. toxoids

D

Which pathogen is the most common cause of neonatal pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis in the United States? A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus B. Staphylococcus epidermidis C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. Streptococcus pyogenes

D

Which process involves antibodies coating microorganisms in order to facilitate phagocytosis? A. neutralization B. anamnestic response C. complement fixation D. opsonization E. agglutination

D

_____________ line indicate positive for the Virtual Rapid Strep Test. A. Purple vertical line over green horizontal line B. Green vertical line over pink horizontal line C. Yellow vertical line over blue horizontal line D. Pink vertical line over blue horizontal line

D

Retroviruses have the following characteristics, except

DNA genome.

A client displays symptoms of fatigue, diarrhea, weight loss, neurological changes and enlarged lymph nodes. The client thought they had the flu because they felt ill, then felt better over the last 5 years. However, this cycle of feeling tired has led to fever, fatigue, sore throat, and night sweats with a rash. The patient also has thrush. Which result indicates the causative agent of AIDS?

Detection of HIV antigen

A common food intoxication is caused by enterotoxin-producing strains of: A. Staphylococcus epidermidis. B. Streptococcus agalactiae. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Streptococcus pyogenes. E. Staphylococcus aureus.

E

A diagnosis of tuberculosis involves: A. acid-fast stain of sputum. B. tuberculin skin test. C. sputum culture. D. chest X-ray. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

A halophile would ________ in a high salt environment: A. become crenated B. undergo osmotic lysis C. form endospores D. undergo plasmolysis E. thrive

E

A patient has a serious lung infection. A sputum sample was taken. The lab technician stated that the lab isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be ________. A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Haemophilus influenzae C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Borrelia burgdorferi E. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

E

A secondary acquired immunodeficiency is: A. type I diabetes. B. DiGeorge syndrome. C. adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency. D. agammaglobulinemia E. AIDS

E

Adenoviruses are: A. causes of conjunctivitis, common cold, and an acute hemorrhagic cystitis in children. B. nonenveloped, double-stranded, DNA viruses. C. transmitted by respiratory and ocular secretions. D. causes of outbreaks among military recruits. E. all of the above

E

After being bitten by a tick on a hiking trip, Amy had chills, headache, muscle pain, nausea, lethargy, and rash. Before further testing, Amy's healthcare provider gave her information about which of the following diseases? A. Ehrlichiosis B. Streptococcus pyogenes and strep throat C. Anaplasmosis D. Shigella and dysentery E. Both anaplasmosis and ehrlichiosis. F. All of these choices are correct

E

All of the following are characteristics of Campylobacter jejuni except: A. it is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated chicken, meat, milk, and water. B. it produces an enterotoxin called CJT that stimulates diarrhea. C. it has gram negative curved rods with darting motility. D. it causes fever and a watery to bloody diarrhea. E. it infects the stomach.

E

All of the following are true about diphtheria toxin, except: A. it primarily targets the heart and nerves. B. it is an exotoxin. C. it inhibits cellular protein synthesis. D. it must be neutralized with antitoxin. E. antitoxin (DAT) comes from immunized human plasma donors.

E

An organism found in coastal waters that causes a food infection and gastroenteritis due to a variety of contaminated raw and undercooked seafood is: A. Chlamydia trachomatis. B. Campylobacter jejuni. C. Vibrio cholerae. D. Helicobacter pylori. E. Vibrio parahaemolyticus.

E

Chancroid is characterized by: A. sexually transmission. B. lesions which develop at the portal of entry. C. bubo-like swelling of the lymph nodes. D. geographical distribution in the tropics and subtropics. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Characteristics of rickettsias include: A. obligate parasites requiring host cells for growth. B. host cells are required for ATP metabolism. C. gram negative coccobacilli. D. arthropods serve as life cycle hosts and vectors. E. All of the choices are correct.

E

Chlamydia trachomatis causes: A. congenital and adult inclusion conjunctivitis. B. cervicitis in females. C. nongonococcal urethritis (NGU) in males. D. ocular trachoma. E. All of the choices are correct.

E

Cholera symptoms include: A. acidosis, sunken eyes, thirst. B. loss of blood volume. C. copious watery diarrhea. D. hypotension, tachycardia, shock. E. All of the choices are correct.

E

Cytomegalovirus: A. is among the most common of human infections. B. is commonly carried in the latent state. C. is transmitted by saliva, respiratory mucus, milk, urine, semen, and cervical secretions. D. can be sexually transmitted. E. all of the above

E

Disease/s caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae include: A. bronchial pneumonia. B. otitis media. C. meningitis. D. lobar pneumonia. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Escherichia coli infections: A. include urinary tract infections from normal flora strains. B. involve enterotoxin in traveler's diarrhea. C. are often transmitted by fecal contaminated water and food. D. can cause an inflammatory disease similar to Shigella dysentery. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Fifth disease: A. is a childhood febrile disease with a bright red rash on the cheeks. B. in immunodeficient children, destroys red blood cell stem cells. C. is caused by Parvovirus B19. D. involves pathogen capable of crossing the placenta. E. all of the above

E

Generally, what must healthy adults consume in order to contract botulism? A. botulism toxoid in contaminated food B. vegetative cells of C. botulinum C. endospores of C. botulinum D. botulism antitoxin in contaminated food E. botulism toxin in contaminated food

E

In which of the following situations would Staphylococcus epidermidis be the most likely etiologic agent? A. food intoxication B. urinary bladder infection C. conjunctivitis D. otitis media E. infected IV catheter site

E

Neisseria gonorrhoeae is: A. virulent due to fimbriae and a protease that inactivates IgA. B. the cause of gonorrhea. C. called the gonococcus. D. the cause of ophthalmia neonatorum. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Nonspecific chemical defenses include: A. stomach hydrochloric acid. B. lysozyme. C. lactic acid and electrolytes of sweat. D. skin's acidic pH and fatty acids. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Norwalk agent is: A. a calicivirus. B. a common enteric virus of gastroenteritis. C. sometimes acquired from contaminated water and shellfish. D. transmitted orofecally. E. all of the above

E

Oral flora bacteria on the tooth surface: A. use fimbriae and slime layers to adhere. B. include lactobacilli and streptococci that ferment carbohydrates and produce acids that cause caries. C. include streptococci that metabolize sucrose, produce sticky glucans, and form plaque. D. develop a biofilm. E. All of the choices are correct.

E

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is: A. an opportunist that produces many diverse enzymes. B. highly chemical resistant. C. found in soil and water. D. motile. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Relapsing fever involves: A. initial symptoms of fever, headache, fatigue. B. soft-bodied ticks transmitting Borrelia hermsii. C. campers and forestry personnel. D. human body louse transmitting Borrelia recurrentis. E. All of the choices are correct.

E

Salmonella typhi A. causes invasive infection of the small intestine. B. is not a coliform. C. multiplies within phagocytes. D. can be treated with antimicrobics. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Salmonelloses are: A. gastroenteritis with vomiting and diarrhea. B. not caused by Salmonella typhi. C. associated with undercooked poultry and eggs, and reptile and rodent feces. D. enteric fevers that often include septicemia. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism? A. Anatomical barriers in the body B. Phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils C. Interferon D. Inflammatory response E. T cell and B cell responses

E

The DTaP immunization: A. contains tetanus toxoid. B. contains a pertussis vaccine with acellular capsule material. C. is administered in childhood. D. contains diphtheria toxoid. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

The M protein of Streptococcus pyogenes: A. is the basis for the organism belonging to Lancefield Group A B. protects against lysozyme damage. C. gives rise to a zone of beta hemolysis on blood agar. D. is also called streptokinase. E. protects against phagocytosis and enhances adherence.

E

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include: A. synthesis of enzymes that alter drug structure. B. bacterial chromosomal mutations. C. alteration of drug receptors on cell targets. D. prevention of drug entry into the cell. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

The following are characteristics of Chlamydias except: A. they are gram negative. B. they are obligate intracellular parasites that need host cells for growth. C. reticulate bodies differentiate into elementary bodies. D. elementary bodies are the infectious form. E. elementary bodies are metabolically active.

E

The outcome of the Gram stain is based on differences in the cell's: A. flagella B. inclusions. C. ribosomes D. cell membrane. E. cell wall.

E

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause: A. fever and anemia. B. massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. C. recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. D. systemic shock and kidney failure. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Treatment and control of anthrax includes: A. proper disposal of animals that have died from anthrax. B. toxoid for military and those with occupational exposure C. use of antimicrobics, such as ciprofloxacin for active cases. D. vaccination of livestock. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Treponema pallidum subspecies pallidum: A. is transmitted by direct sexual contact. B. is the cause of syphilis. C. has humans as the reservoir. D. can cross the placenta. E. All of the choices are correct.

E

Which event releases the chemical mediators? A. binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils B. Histamine acts on smooth muscle. C. binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils D. Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. E. degranulation

E

Which is not a characteristic of spirochetes? A. Endoflagella enclosed in periplasmic space B. Helical shape C. Gram negative D. Always motile E. All are pathogenic

E

Which is not associated with tularemia? A. Symptoms include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerative lesions, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia. B. The reservoir can be rabbits and squirrels. C. The causative agent is a pathogen of concern on the lists of bioterrorism agents. D. Tularemia is transmitted by arthropod vectors. E. In animals, tularemia infects the placenta and fetus.

E

Which is not correct about Bacillus cereus? A. causes food-borne intoxication B. produce enterotoxins C. associated with cooked rice, potato, and meat dishes that are stored at room temperature D. present in soil E. causes a zoonosis

E

Which of the following is most directly responsible for cell lysis in Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions? A. IgM antibodies B. TC cells C. NK cells D. IgE antibodies E. complement activation F. IgG antibodies

E

Which of the following is/are characteristic of lepromatous leprosy? A. Complications include secondary infections, kidney, or respiratory failure. B. Granulomatous thickenings and folds of the skin may develop. C. Lepromatous leprosy is the most disfiguring form of the disease. D. The pathogen grows extensively in cooler body areas, such as nose, ears, testes. E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Which of the following may be recommended for treating gangrene? A. amputation of affected limb B. hyperbaric chamber C. rigorous cleansing of deep wounds D. debridement of the wound E. All of these choices are correct.

E

Which of the following pertains to both tetanus and food-borne botulism? A. It can be treated with antibiotics. B. It is caused by enterotoxins of the pathogen. C. Nausea and diarrhea are symptoms. D. Exotoxin blocks acetylcholine release. E. Treatment involves antitoxin therapy.

E

Example of Biosafety Level 4 agent is

Ebola virus

How to differentiate emerging vs remerging diseases?

Emerging diseases are brand new, remerging have been around but reappear in different circumstances.

Describe Powassan virus structure

Enveloped single stranded (+) RNA

What is the source for DNA polymerase used in PCR?

Enzyme TAG polymerase

Genus _____________ grow on mannitol salt agar (MSA)

Staphylcoccus

________________ _______________ ferment mannitol

Staphylcoccus aureus

Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus?

Staphylococcus

Case A: What type of infection do you believe she has in this hand?

Staphylococcus aureus

Which following are gram-positive bacteria?

Staphylococcus aureus

Case B: What agent do you think is causing this problem?

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Which bacteria is typically found on your skin and may form biofilm on plastic devices?

Staphylococcus epidermidis

Which of the following is not correct concerning the plague?

Strains of the plague bacillus are less virulent today compared to strains prevalent in the Middle Ages.

Which of the following presents the greatest challenge to the development of a vaccine against HIV?

Surface antigens on HIV change readily due to frequent mutations.

List 2 factors that may contribute to reemerging opportunistic infections among human population

Susceptibility to infection, increased density of human population

Bacteria make up about one-third the weight of fecal matter. (T/F)

TRUE

Permanent cardiovascular and neurological damage is seen in which stage of syphilis?

Tertiary

Why did the H1N1 strain of influenza virus cause a pandemic in 2009?

The H1N1 virus underwent a significant antigenic shift compared to other circulating strains of influenza.

Occasionally when doing serologic testing to identify strains of Salmonella isolates, the test for different O antigens is negative. What is the most likely explanation?

The K antigens are masking the O antigens.

Which is incorrect about rabies?

The average incubation in human is one week.

Immersion oil increases the amount of light passing through a specimen and entering the objective lens. (T/F)

True

Staphylococci can be differentiated from streptococci by the: A. catalase test. B. coagulase test. C. fermentation of mannitol. D. Gram stain.

A

Streptococcus salivarius BLIS K12 is a probiotic strain against bacterial pharyngo-tonsillitis in the human oral cavity. (T/F)

True

The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another is called refraction. (T/F)

True

The following image is an example of bacillus bacteria forming endospores.

True

The prokaryotic cell membrane is a site for many enzymes and metabolic reactions. (T/F)

True

The methanogens, producers of methane gas, require environments that

are anaerobic with hydrogen gas and CO2.

The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain ________.

are differential stains

All of the following pertain to virus envelopes except they

are located between the capsid and nucleic acid.

Sulfonamides

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

ALL viral particles

are metabolically inert.

All arboviruses involve

arthropod vectors.

Rubella is

associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects.

Prior to staining, smears of microorganisms are heat-fixed in order to

attach it firmly to the slide.

CAMP test is useful to identify _______________ infection: A. Streptococcus agalactiae B. Streptococcus mitis C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Case F: The patient's diabetes contributed to the problem as presented because of poor circulation to the injured limb: A. True B. False

A

Enterotube may be used to rapidly identify G - baccili: A. True B. False

A

If you see the purple black color after the virtual oxidase test, it means the sample is oxidase ____________: A. positive B. false positive C. negative D. false negative

A

The contribution of B-cells is mainly in: A. humoral immunity. B. inflammation. C. cell-mediated immunity. D. complement activity. E. phagocytosis.

A

The enzyme that coagulates plasma is: A. coagulase. B. staphylokinase. C. hyaluronidase. D. Dnase E. catalase

A

Hydrogen peroxide is an effective antiseptic for _______ bacterial infection on the skin? A. leprosy B. Clostridium tetani C. Bacillus cereus D. Bacillus anthracis

B

Infected animals shed Leptospira interrogans in their: A. feces B. urine C. respiratory secretions. D. saliva. E. blood.

B

Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following, except: A. furuncles and carbuncles. B. sore throat. C. pneumonia. D. folliculitis E. osteomyelitis.

B

Iodine serves as __________ in Gram stain: A. primary stain B. mordant C. counter stain D. decolorizer

B

Which virus caused Spanish flu pandemic? Structure of the virus?

- H1N1 Infleunza A virus - enveloped particles w/ spherical capsid

Why melioidosis needs to be reported immediately in GA?

- No human vaccines available, invasive disease, 20-50% mortality rate, potential bioterrorism agent, helps mitigate public health risk

What is the difference between deoxynucleotides and dideoxynucleotides? Which nucleotides are used in DNA sequencing procedure?

- dideoxynucleotides has a hydrogen on its 3' end, deoxynucleotides have an OH - dideozynucleotides are used in DNA sequencing procedure

Difference between variolation and vaccination?

- variolation injects actual virus - vaccination uses less deadly version of actual virus

What is the difference between variolation and vaccination?

- variolation injects actual virus, vaccination injects less deadly version of virus

Meningococcemia is: A. associated with vascular hemorrhage and petechiae. B. frequently seen in elderly. C. common during gonorrhea. D. caused by a gram-positive diplococcus. E. All of these choices are correct.

A

List 5 mechanisms for bacteria resisting antibiotics

1. Limiting uptake of a drug 2. Modification of a drug 3. Destroy antibiotic 4. Target antibiotic target 5. They can pump the antibiotic out

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are

121°C at 15 psi for 15 minutes.

Why is it possible to use a 16S rDNA sequence to identify bacteria?

16S rDNA sequence is conserved among prokarytes

Only Gram-negative bacteria produce endotoxin: A. True B. False

A

Plague is a quarantinable disease: A. True B. False

A

Proteus species often cause urinary tract infections. A) True B) False

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is resistant to many antimicrobics. A) True B) False

A

Scarlet fever is caused by strains of: A. Streptococcus pyogenes. B. Streptococcus agalactiae. C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. D. Staphylococcus aureus. E. Staphylococcus epidermidis.

A

There are _____________ cases of melioidosis reported in US during 2021. The source of infections in US was _________________

4, aromatherapy room spray

If objective lens used is 40X and occular lens is 10x, the total magnification is ___________

400

The mortality rate of melioidosis in the US is ___________

50%

A 32-year-old woman visits her physician with complaints of feeling tired and stiff for the past 2 weeks. She reports that she recently returned from a 2-month-long solo hiking trip and thought the signs and symptoms resulted from her trip. However, within the past few days, she has developed pain in her joints, tendons, bones, and muscles. The physician questions the patient about signs of symptoms that may have appeared during her hiking trip. The patient mentions that at one point, she had a round rash on her side, but it went away. She does not recall being bitten by a tick, but she cannot rule out this possibility. What is a possible diagnostic consideration? A. Borrelia burgdorferi B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Clostridium tetani D. Staphylococcus aureus

A

A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for: A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. B. Streptococcus pyogenes. C. Staphylococcus aureus. D. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. E. Neisseria meningitidis.

A

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except: A. it is a dimer. B. it can fix complement. C. it has 10 antigen binding sites. D. it contains a central J chain. E. it is the first class synthesized by a plasma cell.

A

All of the following are typical of nocardiosis, except: A. nocardiosis usually develops in individuals with a healthy immune response. B. infections may involve the lungs, the skin, or subcutaneous sites. C. symptoms of pulmonary nocardiosis may resemble the symptoms of tuberculosis. D. it may be caused by Nocardia brasiliensis, Nocardia asteroides, or Nocardia caviae.

A

All species of Staphylococcus: A. produce catalase. B. produce coagulase. C. have endospores. D. are motile. E. All of these choices are correct.

A

Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing: A. desensitization. B. degranulation. C. tissue matching. D. sensitization

A

Allergic reactions to penicillin are an example of a: A. Type 1 hypersensitivity. B. Type 2 hypersensitivity. C. Type 3 hypersensitivity. D. Type 4 hypersensitivity.

A

Antitoxins: A. contain antibodies to neutralize specific toxin. B. contain attenuated organisms. C. include capsule material against the pneumococcus and meningococcus. D. contain purified, chemically denatured bacterial exotoxin. E. use vaccinia virus with genetic material of bacterial toxins.

A

Based on a patient's medical history, a doctor suspects that the patient may have been exposed to syphilis several years prior. Since the patient is currently asymptomatic, the doctor will be testing to see if the patient is in the latent stage of syphilis. Which of the following would be the most effective way to diagnose syphilis during latency? A. Serological testing of blood specimens B. Dark-field microscopy of scrapings from chancres C. Dark-field microscopy of blood specimens D. Culture of blood specimens on syphilis selective agar

A

What does AIDS stand for?

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome

If a patient's antibody test indicates IgM production, this patient has ____________ illness

Acute

Following several days of nausea and fatigue, Jackie has become jaundiced and her urine is very dark-colored. Tests ordered by her physician have confirmed that she has hepatitis A. Which of the following is most likely to shorten the duration and lessen the severity of her symptoms?

Administration of pooled human immune serum globulin

Case C: What factors of this case allowed you to make a presumptive diagnosis?

All of above

Characteristics of rickettsias include

All of the choices are correct.

Helicobacter pylori causes:

All of the choices are correct.

Influenza infection can be treated with: A. oseltamivir. B. zanamivir. C. rimantadine. D. amantadine. E. all of these a

All of the choices are correct.

Respiratory syncytial virus (Pneumovirus): A. is the most common cause of respiratory infections in babies. B. uses the nasopharynx as its main replication site. C. can be treated with the antiviral aerosol Ribavirin. D. causes serious disease in infants 6 months old or younger. E. all of these

All of the choices are correct.

Spongiform encephalopathies are: A. caused by prions. B. chronic, fatal infections of the nervous system. C. associated with abnormal, transmissible, protein in the brain. D. Creutzfeld-Jacob disease, kuru, and Gertsmann-Strussler-Scheinker syndrome. E. all of the above

All of the choices are correct.

Treatment of an animal bite for possible rabies includes: A. debridement. B. infusion of the wound with human rabies immune globulin (HRIG). C. postexposure vaccination with HDCV. D. washing bite with soap or detergent. E. All of the above

All of the choices are correct.

Varicella-zoster virus: A. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. B. has humans as its reservoir. C. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. D. causes chickenpox and shingles. E. all of the above

All of the choices are correct.

Bacteria are commonly found in your throat include

All of these

How does the DNA sequence work?

All of these

How to identify an unknown bacteria?

All of these

Brucellosis is:

All of these choices are correct.

Endospores can be killed by

All of these choices are correct.

Genes for which of the following may be transferred between fecal bacteria?

All of these choices are correct.

Legionella pneumophila

All of these choices are correct.

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

All of these choices are correct.

Which of the following are true about plague?

All of these choices are correct.

Which of the following is true of the analysis of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis?

All of these choices are correct.

Which of the following items are typically irradiated in order to kill microbes?

All of these choices are correct.

Which of the following will influence a physician's decision to prescribe an antimicrobial?

All of these choices are correct.

A screening system called the ________ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.

Ames

Which test may be used to identify potential mutagens?

Ames test

Case C: If left untreated, what is/are the complications(s)?

Any of above could occur

Gingivitis is: A. caused by Streptococcus mutans. B. primarily caused by anaerobic oral flora. C. also called NUG. D. erosion of tooth enamel causing a lesion. E. None of the choices are correct.

B

Gram-negative bacteria are more sensitive towards antiseptics such as soap and alcohol than Gram-positive bacteria because: A. only Gram-positive bacteria cause diseases B. The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria cell wall contains lipid C. flagella help Gram-negative bacteria to swim away from disinfectant D. Gram-negative bacteria have a negative reaction towards antibiotics

B

Hydrogen peroxide is an effective antiseptic for _______ bacterial infection on the skin? A. aerobic B. obligate anaerobic bacteria C. facultative anaerobic D. acid fast positive

B

CAMP test positive is evident with presence of _________________ ______________ on the blood agar

Arrowhead hemolysis

A 3-year-old girl presents to her pediatrician with red sores on her hands and face. Her mother reports that the sores appeared a couple of days ago, and now some of the sores have started to blister and pop, leaving a yellow crust. The child attends daycare. The pediatrician suspects impetigo, a contagious skin infection. The Gram stain reveals gram-positive cocci in chains. This patient is presenting with symptoms of a __________ A. scalded skin syndrome B. streptococcal skin infection (impetigo) C. necrotizing fasciitis D. gas gangrene

B

A 48-year old man has had nasal surgery and absorbent material has been inserted into his nasal cavity to control bleeding. Several hours ago he began to complain of a headache and has since developed a red rash over much of his body and is experiencing muscle cramps and diarrhea. His blood pressure has dropped to 75/50 mg Hg. This patient's illness is most likely caused by: A. Streptococcus pyogenes — streptolysin O B. Staphylococcus aureus — toxic shock syndrome toxin C. Staphylococcus aureus — exfoliative toxin D. Streptococcus pyogenes — erythrogenic toxin

B

A cause of epiglottitis in children and young adults is: A. Haemophilus parainfluenzae. B. Haemophilus influenzae. C. Haemophilus aphrophilus. D. Haemophilus aegyptius. E. Haemophilus ducreyi.

B

A paroxysmal cough is associated with Legionnaires' disease: A. True B. False

B

A positive Quellung reaction, or capsular swelling, is confirmatory for: A. Streptococcus pyogenes. B. Streptococcus pneumoniae. C. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. D. Staphylococcus aureus. E. Neisseria meningitidis.

B

A pure culture contains only: A. bacteria B. one species of microorganism. C. a variety of microbes from one source. D. All of these choices are correct.

B

A strain of Vibrio cholerae has mutated and is no longer able to produce cholera toxin. What is the most likely outcome of infection with this strain? A. It will not be able to survive transit through the stomach so no disease will result. B. Without its toxin, it will not cause diarrhea. C. The disease it produces will be very similar to that produced by toxin-producing strains. D. Without its toxin, it will not be able to invade the intestinal epithelial cells and establish disease.

B

After decolorization step, G + bacteria are ____: A. colorless B. purple C. pink D. brown

B

All of the following are correct about primary atypical pneumonia except: A. it is mainly caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae. B. it has symptoms similar to pneumococcal pneumonia. C. community resistance is high. D. it is transmitted by aerosol droplets. E. it can also be caused by adenoviruses.

B

All of the following pertain to Clostridium difficile infection, except: A. it often has an endogenous source. B. it is due to ingestion of contaminated, improperly stored, cooked meats and gravies. C. it is major cause of diarrhea in hospitals. D. it is a colitis that is a superinfection. E. it may be on the rise due to increased use of gastric acid inhibitors.

B

All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except: A. symptoms include painful urination and discharge. B. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. C. it is a reportable infectious disease. D. female infections are frequently asymptomatic. E. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications.

B

An 8-month old infant has been brought to the ER with a high fever. Her parents indicate that she has not been eating or drinking well and has been very irritable until the last few hours during which she has been only minimally responsive. Suspecting meningitis, a spinal tap is done and the CSF sample is sent to the lab for analysis. The white blood cell count on the sample is profoundly elevated, the protein content is elevated, and the glucose level is depressed. The Gram stained smear shows gram-positive cocci in pairs. Cultures are done and after overnight incubation, alpha hemolytic colonies are observed on the blood plate. These colonies contain gram-positive cocci, which are catalase negative. An optochin susceptibility test is done and there is a large zone of inhibition around the disk. What is the identification of this isolate? A. Enterococcus faecalis B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. viridans Streptococci D. Streptococcus agalactiae E. Neisseria meningitidis

B

Bacteria associated with food intoxication include____________. A. Staphylococcus aureus B. All of these C. Bacillus anthracis D. Bacillus cereus E. Clostridium botulinum

B

Botulin, the toxin of botulism is: A. the cause of rigid paralysis. B. only produced under anaerobic conditions. C. produced when spores germinate in the intestines of adults after ingesting contaminated food. D. not as virulent as tetanospasmin. E. detected and diagnosed by analyzing a patient's blood.

B

Carbapenem-resistant Enterobacteriaceae (CRE) are typically resistant to carbapenem but sensitive to most other antibiotics: A. True B. False

B

Diapedesis is the: A. plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. B. migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. C. production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. D. production of only red blood cells. E. loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.

B

A specimen was collected from a deep wound. A smear was prepared and Gram stained and samples were inoculated onto two blood agar plates. Both blood agar plates were incubated for 48 hours at 35°C, but one blood agar plate was incubated aerobically and the other was incubated in an anaerobe jar. The Gram stain of the original specimen showed large gram-positive bacilli. After incubation, there was no growth on the blood agar plate that was incubated aerobically, but the plate incubated in the anaerobe jar grew beta hemolytic colonies. A Gram stain of these colonies showed large gram positive bacilli, some with unstained inclusions, suggestive of endospores. What is the most likely genus of bacteria observed? A. Corynebacterium B. Listeria C. Mycobacterium D. Clostridium E. Bacillus

D

Adaptive immunity occurs when: A. virulent pathogen infections persist in the body after the initial innate defense response. B. death results from pathogen infection. C. the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body. D. the innate immune response fails to eliminate pathogens in the body and virulent infections persist after the initial innate defense response.

D

All of the following pertain to gonorrhea, except: A. it is a reportable infectious disease. B. symptoms include painful urination and discharge. C. female infections are frequently asymptomatic. D. a chancre-type lesion develops at the portal of entry. E. pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) and infertility are complications.

D

Although this bacteria is typically found in soil and water, burn wound patients are susceptible to ________ infection. A. E. coli 0157:H7 B. Bordetella pertussis C. Shigella D. Pseudomonas E. Yersinia pestis

D

An 85-year-old man has been experiencing weight loss, night sweats, and a dry cough for several months and just recently he has begun coughing up sputum with tinges of blood in it. Following a chest X-ray showing some white spots on his lungs, an AFB (Mycobacterial) stain and culture were ordered and both were positive for the presence of mycobacteria. He has been PPD positive since his 20's. Which of the following most accurately describes his current situation? A. systemic tuberculosis B. primary tubercular disease C. primary tubercular infection D. reactivation tuberculosis E. latent tubercular infection

D

An example of artificial passive immunity would be: A. a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. B. chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity. C. chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. D. giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.

D

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except: A. multiple sclerosis. B. rheumatoid arthritis. C. Graves' disease. D. tuberculin reaction. E. myasthenia gravis.

D

Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this? A. natural passive immunity B. natural active immunity C. artificial passive immunity D. artificial active immunity

D

In lab, Tom was given a mixed culture. His objective is to isolate single colonies. What should be used to accomplish this goal? A. hockey stick, spread plate technique, and 4 degree Celsius incubation temperature B. loop dilution, TSA, hockey stick, 37 degree Celsius incubator C. sterile swab, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator D. inoculating loop, incinerator, streak plate method, 37 degree Celsius incubator E. sterile swab, loop dilution, TSB

D

In patients with diabetes or liver disease, ingestion of raw oysters contaminated with this organism can lead to death: A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Vibrio parahaemolyticus C. Helicobacter pylori D. Vibrio vulnificus E. Vibrio cholerae

D

Jose needs a kidney due to his diabetes. His sister is a close match and is willing to give him one of hers. What type of transplant is this? A. xenograft B. heterograft C. autograft D. allograft

D

Leptospirosis has all the following characteristics except: A. humans acquire it by contact with abraded skin or mucous membranes. B. it infects kidneys, liver, brain, and eyes. C. the pathogen is a spirochete. D. it can be transmitted by animal bites. E. it most common in cattle, horses, pigs, and dogs.

D

Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies includes shots of HRIG (human rabies immune globulin) and rabies vaccine. The HRIG provides ________ whereas the vaccine promotes the development of ________. A. artificial active immunity; artificial passive immunity B. artificial passive immunity; natural active immunity C. artificial active immunity; natural active immunity D. artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity E. natural passive immunity; artificial passive immunity

D

Production of a neurotoxin that binds to target sites on spinal cord neurons responsible for inhibiting skeletal muscle contraction is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium botulinum. B. Clostridium difficile. C. Clostridium perfringens. D. Clostridium tetani. E. All of these choices are correct.

D

Production of a neurotoxin that prevents acetylcholine release from motor neurons at neuromuscular junctions is a characteristic of: A. Clostridium perfringens. B. Clostridium difficile. C. Clostridium tetani. D. Clostridium botulinum. E. All of these choices are correct.

D

Streptococcus pyogenes causes all the following, except: A. impetigo. B. scarlet fever. C. necrotizing fasciitis. D. scalded skin syndrome. E. erysipelas.

D

The Virtual Strep Test may be used to identify _______________ infection. A. Staphylococcus aereus B. Streptococcus pneumoniae C. Streptococcus agalactiae D. Streptococcus pyogenes

D

The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria: A. retains the cytoplasm and its contents. B. acts as a selectively permeable barrier, allowing some molecules to pass while preventing the movement of others. C. is the major site of ATP synthesis in aerobes. D. all of the choices

D

The instillation of antibiotics in newborn's eyes will prevent ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. This disease is caused by: A. Neisseria meningitidis. B. Branhamella (Moraxella) catarrhalis. C. Staphylococcus aureus. D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae. E. Streptococcus pyogenes.

D

An antimicrobic with a low therapeutic index is a safer choice compared to a drug with a high therapeutic index. (T/F)

FALSE

(True/False) Emerging diseases originate only from tropical or subtropical regions

False

E. coli is a Gram-positive bacteria. (T/F)

False

Gram negative bacteria do not have peptidoglycan. (T/F)

False

Gram-positive bacteria produce endotoxins. (T/F)

False

Ebola virus belongs to the family _______

Filovirus

Both filoviruses and flaviviruses are enveloped RNA viruses. The difference between filoviruses and flaviviruses is:

Flaviviruses are positive sense RNA viruses and filioviruses are negative sense RNA viruses

Which part of HIV facilitates attachment of HIV to T H cells?

GP-120

Case D: What is your diagnosis here?

Gonorrhea and a urinary tract infection

Describe the structure of the virus that caused the Spanish flu pandemic

H1N1 influenza A virus, enveloped particles w/ spherical capsid

Which two hepatitis viruses are generally acquired in a similar manner?

HBV and HBC

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat

HIV

Which disease listed does NOT require quarantine?

HIV/AIDS

Which of the following viruses is associated with adult T-cell leukemia?

HTLV I

Which of the following is normal oral and nasopharyngeal flora but is involved in infective endocarditis in adults who have underlying congenital or rheumatic heart disease?

Haemophilus aphrophilus

Which is not a disease caused by arenaviruses?

Hantaviruses

Which cell can transfer the most DNA?

Hfr cell

Molly, a 3-year-old active preschool girl, spent the morning playing with the other children at the day care center. Shortly after lunch, she began to appear very flushed with bright red cheeks, and a check of her temperature revealed a low-grade fever of 99.5. She seemed to feel normal and showed no other signs of illness. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of her fever and bright red cheeks?

Human parvovirus B19

Case B: How would you make a definite diagnosis?

I would get a blood culture and culture for Staphylococcus epidermidis or viridans Strep.

Which of the following is an example of herd immunity?

If 70% of the population is immunized against polio, the disease will be essentially absent from the population.

Case G:How could this have been prevented?

Individuals should receive booster injections of tetanus toxoid at 10 year intervals. This would provide for immunologic memory, and rapid endogenous anti-toxin production in the event of an infection.

Which class of drugs interferes with the virus inserting itself into host DNA?

Integrase inhibitors

Which is incorrect about the MMR immunization?

It contains toxoids.

Which of the following describes the mechanism of action for zidovudine?

It is a thymine analog that interferes with the synthesis of DNA from the HIV RNA template.

Which is incorrect about hepatitis A infection?

It predisposes a person for liver cancer.

Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence that the arthritis afflicting children in Lyme, Connecticut was due to bacterial infection?

It responded to treatment with antibiotics.

The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was

Joseph Lister.

A frequent cancer that is seen in AIDS patients is

Kaposi's sarcoma.

Which of the following is not transmitted via an arthropod vector?

Leptospirosis

List 3 tick borne bacterial infections

Lyme disease, anaplasmosis, ehrlichiosis

The MOST common vectorborne disease in the United States is

Lyme disease.

What are the serious complications associated with Powassan virus?

Muscle weakness, paralysis, encephalitis, respiratory issues

How are antibiotic resistant genes selected?

Mutation and selection, horizontal and vertical transfer

A bacterial genus that has waxy mycolic acid in the cell walls is

Mycobacterium.

A patient has a serious lung infection. A sputum sample was taken. The lab technician stated that the lab isolated a bacterium that did not have any peptidoglycan. You hypothesize that the identity of this microbe could possibly be ________.

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

The mortality rate for Ebola virus is what?

Nearly 90%

Case E: Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Neisseria meningitidis induced meningitis

Ureaplasma urealyticum is implicated in which of the following?

Nongonococcal urethritis

Which drug/s interfere with the action of an HIV enzyme needed for final assembly and maturation of the virus?

Protease inhibitors

Which common hospital pathogen is able to grow abundantly in soap dishes?

Pseudomonas

Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37°C incubator and on the shelf of a 50°C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, slight growth out on the bench top and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?

Psychrophile

Oxidase positive test is evident with _____________ color

Purple

Which group of organisms is difficult to control through immunization because of their rapid and unpredictable genetic mutations?

RNA viruses

Reverse transcriptase is a(n)

RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.

What is the difference between PCR and RT-PCR?

RT-PCR uses a single strand of RNA as template, PCR uses DNA as template

Hydrophobia, the dumb phase, and Negri bodies in nervous tissue are all part of which disease?

Rabies

Is COVID 19 an emerging or a remerging disease?

Remerging disease because its coming from SARS

The melioidosis is endemic in __________ _________ and ________________________

South Asia and Australia

The major agents responsible for the common cold are

Rhinoviruses.

Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis?

Robert Koch

A private in the US Army is stationed at Ft. Bragg, North Carolina. He has been admitted to the infirmary with complaints of a severe headache and high fever. Upon questioning, he revealed that he had received a tick bite several days earlier. Two days after admission, he starts to develop a rash, beginning on his hands and feet and spreading towards his torso. Which of the following should be considered first in the diagnosis?

RockyMountain spotted fever

Structure of HIV Virus

Roughly 120 nm enveloped particles w/ conical capsid

Which febrile disease with a rash has a pathogen that can cross the placenta and cause serious fetal damage?

Rubella

What is the receptor for the COVID 19 virus entry into host cells?

S-proteins via ACE 2

Besides COVID 19, coronaviruses were also associated with ____________ and __________ diseases

SARS-COV, Mers-COV

During which stage of syphilis does fever, lymphadenopathy, and a red to brown rash occur?

Secondary

Which of the following diseases is not caused by a paramyxovirus?

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

All of the following are important bunyavirus diseases, except

Severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).

Case A: From the history, which of the information confirmed your choice?

She had diarrhea and vomiting.

Why were blood transfusions prior to 1985 more likely to be associated with Hepatitis C transmission than blood transfusions done since 1985?

Since 1985, donor blood has been tested for either nonA, nonB Hepatitis virus or specifically for Hepatitis C virus.

Which step involves transformation?

The cloning host takes up a plasmid.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation?

The culture is contaminated.

A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?

The culture medium must be selective.

Case E: Which of the following was a critical factor in your choice of diagnosis?

The headache, vomiting, stiff neck, fever and purplish spots.

Which is correct about influenza?

The virus is grown in poultry eggs for vaccines.

Which of the following is correct about polio?

The virus multiplies in the mucosa of the intestines and is shed in feces.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding coronaviruses?

There are no tests to confirm diagnosis.

Triclosan, a common ingredient in antimicrobial hand soaps available to consumers, has recently been banned by the FDA (Food and Drug Administration). All of the following are concerns regarding the use of triclosan, except

These are all concerns that have been expressed about triclosan use. There are no exceptions here.

Which of the following is not true of bacterial plasmids?

They are required for host growth and/or reproduction.

What is the biological function of endospores?

They enable organisms to endure extremes of temperature, drying, and nutrient depletion.

Why do rhinoviruses infect the upper respiratory tract, particularly the nose, but not the lower respiratory tract?

They replicate most effectively at the cooler temperatures of the upper respiratory tract.

Reservoir hosts for Powassan virus include _______________________

Ticks, cows, squirrels, deer

The Sylvatic cycle of Zika virus refers to _________________________

Transmission cycle between non-human primates and arboreal mosquitoes

The Urban cycle of Zika virus refers to _______________________

Transmission cycles between humans and urban mosquitoes

Which is incorrect regarding Q fever?

Transmitted by lice

Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens. (T/F)

True

Which is incorrect about measles?

Vaccination is with an attenuated oral vaccine.

All of the following belong to the Herpesviridae, except

Variola virus.

Case F: If left untreated, what is the possible outcome?

Without prompt treatment, the infection will produce enough toxin to kill the patient within 1-5 days.

Which of the following is a hemorrhagic fever?

Yellow fever

Examples of flaviviruses

Yellow fever, zika virus, dengue virus

Which bacteria is associated with plaque pandemic?

Yersinia pestis

Based on the following Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion result, is it a good idea to combine CTX and AMC to treat bacterial infection?

Yes, CTX and AMC are synergidstic.

Over time, the relationship between a pathogen and a naïve susceptible population tends towards

a balance between host and pathogen such that both are maintained.

All bacterial cells have

a chromosome.

The onset of a given epidemic is indicated by a sharp rise in the number of cases reported daily over a brief interval. This indicates that the mode of transmission is

a common source.

Middle eastern respiratory syndrome (MERS) is caused by

a coronavirus.

Sarcinae refers to

a cuboidal packet of cells.

Bacterial conjugation involves

a donor cell that transfers a copy of a plasmid to a recipient cell through a pilus.

The designation CRE refers to

a group of bacteria that are resistant to many classes of antibiotics.

Why is PCR useful for the bacterial virtual ID lab?

a rapid method to amplify specific DNA sequence

Hutchinson's teeth are

a symptom of congenital syphilis.

Which of the following stains is used to differentiate Mycobacterium spp. from other bacteria?

acid-fast stain

Presence of IgM against Powassan virus in pateint's serum indicates___________ infection

acute infection

Transfer RNA is the molecule that

adapts the genetic code to protein structure

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from

air

With regards to mode of disease transmission, respiratory pathogens are generally ________, and intestinal pathogens are generally spread by contaminated ________.

airborne / food or water

Alcohols: A. at 50% or higher concentrations dissolve cell membrane lipids. B. denature proteins when in a 50-95% solution. C. are skin degerming agents. D. are used to disinfect items by soaking. E. All of these choices are correct.

all of the above

Encephalitis caused by arboviruses involves: A. muscle aches and joint stiffness. B. fever, headache, and rash. C. coma, convulsions, and paralysis in severe cases. D. myalgia and orbital pain. E. All of the choices are correct.

all of the above

Hepatitis B virus: A. transmission risks include shared needles, anal intercourse, and heterosexual intercourse. B. is transmitted to the newborn from chronic carrier mothers. C. is principally transmitted by blood. D. has many chronic carriers. E. all of the above

all of the above

Herpes simplex-2 (HSV-2) causes: A. infection in neonates that have contact with lesions in the birth canal. B. intensely sensitive vesicles on or near the genitals. C. genital lesions. D. symptoms that include urethritis, cervicitis, and itching. E. all of the above

all of the above

Polyomaviruses A. cause progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. B. include the JC virus and BK virus. C. cause problems in renal transplant patients. D. cause common asymptomatic to mild infections. E. all of the above

all of the above

Reye's syndrome involves: A. children, adolescents, and young adults. B. fatty degeneration of liver, brain, kidney. C. aspirin use. D. a febrile viral illness such as influenza or chickenpox. E. All of the choices are correct.

all of the above

Symptoms of leptospirosis include: A. blood shot eye B. muscle ache C. kidney infection D. high fever and vomiting E. all of the above

all of the above

Varicella-zoster virus: A. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. B. has humans as its reservoir. C. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. D. causes chickenpox and shingles. E. All of the choices are correct.

all of the above

Yellow fever and Dengue fever are: A. transmitted by a mosquito vector. B. caused by arboviruses. C. zoonoses. D. caused by viruses that disrupt capillaries and blood clotting. E. All of the choices are correct.

all of the above

Case D: What clinical features are critical to your diagnosis?

all of these

Case D: What further actions must be taken?

all of these`

A prophage replicates

along with its host while the lytic genes are not expressed.

Recently Zika virus has been in the news, with many cases in Central and South America and increasing numbers of cases in the southern United States. Five years ago this virus was essentially unheard of in these areas. This is an example of

an emerging infectious disease.

Which of the following diseases would be the easiest to control in a human population?

an infectious disease with domestic cows as the only reservoir

Case G: What is the proper treatment of this problem?

antiserum contains Tetanus antitoxin

Case B: Which of the following is a common outcome when this disease is untreated?

any of the above could occur.

Which of the following is not true of transposons?

are always part of plasmids