BIO 1345 FINAL EXAM

A scientific theory: A) is a general explanation for natural phenomena. B) is an educated guess. C) is less reliable than a hypothesis. D) will never be changed

A

A substance with specific properties that cannot be broken down or converted into another substance is called a(n): A) element. B) molecule. C) ion. D) compound. E) mixture.

A

All the following are important functions of the cytoskeleton EXCEPT: A) storage of food molecules. B) assistance during cell division. C) movement of organelles. D) maintenance of shape. E) maintenance of organization in the cell

A

An ________ chemical reaction releases energy, whereas an ________ reaction requires an input of energy. A) exergonic; endergonic B) endergonic; exergonic C) enzymatic; endergonic D) endergonic; enzymatic E) equilibrium; exergonic

A

Each of the following requires 12 carbon atoms. Which of the arrangements of carbon atoms has the greatest entropy? A) 12 molecules of carbon dioxide, CO2 B) one molecule of the disaccharide maltose, C12H22O11 C) two molecules of the monosaccharide glucose, C6H12O6 D) four molecules of the monosaccharide pyruvate, C3H4O3

A

For an atom to achieve maximum stability and become chemically inert, what must occur? A) Its outermost energy shell must be filled with electrons. B) The number of electrons must equal the number of protons. C) Electron pairs are shared. D) Ionization occurs.

A

How do cells capture the energy released by cellular respiration? A) They produce ATP. B) They produce glucose. C) They store it in molecules of carbon dioxide. D) The energy is coupled to oxygen. E) None of the choices are correct.

A

How does anaphase of mitosis differ from anaphase I of meiosis? A) In anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids separate, but in anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate. B) In anaphase of mitosis, homologous chromosomes separate, but in anaphase I of meiosis, sister chromatids separate. C) Sister chromatids do not separate in mitosis, but in anaphase I of meiosis, sister chromosomes do separate. D) In anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids join together, but in anaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes join together

A

In the electron transport chain, the final electron acceptor is A) an oxygen atom. B) a molecule of carbon dioxide. C) a molecule of water. D) ADP. E) ATP.

A

Of the following cell components, which is composed primarily of protein? A) cytoskeleton B) DNA C) chromatin D) mitochondria E) Golgi complex

A

Resolving power is the A) ability of an optical instrument to show two close objects as separate. B) size of an image. C) ability of an optical instrument to magnify an image. D) ability of an optical instrument to estimate the size of an image. E) distance between the lenses of a microscope.

A

Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules such as fatty acids A) easily pass through a membrane's lipid bilayer. B) require transport proteins to pass through a membrane's lipid bilayer. C) are actively transported across cell membranes. D) usually enter the cell via endocytosis.

A

Small, nonpolar, hydrophobic molecules such as fatty acids A) easily pass through a membrane's lipid bilayer. B) very slowly diffuse through a membrane's lipid bilayer. C) require transport proteins to pass through a membrane's lipid bilayer. D) are actively transported across cell membranes. E) usually enter the cell via endocytosis.

A

The cytoplasm of a certain cell, such as a neuron, already has a high concentration of K+ ions. How can K+ ions continue to enter the cell? A) active transport B) facilitated diffusion C) osmosis D) endocytosis E) infusion

A

The most common energy carrier molecule in living organisms is: A) ATP. B) inorganic phosphate. C) DNA. D) glucose. E) NADPH.

A

The role of a control in an experiment is to A) provide a basis of comparison to the experimental group. B) prove that a hypothesis is correct. C) ensure repeatability. D) prove that a hypothesis is correct and ensure repeatability. E) None of the choices are correct.

A

When a cell uses chemical energy to perform work, it couples a(n) __________ reaction with a(n) __________ reaction. A) exergonic . . . endergonic B) endergonic . . . exergonic C) exergonic . . . spontaneous D) spontaneous . . . exergonic E) endergonic . . . spontaneous

A

When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, A) it lowers the activation energy of the reaction. B) it raises the activation energy of the reaction. C) it becomes a product. D) it acts as a reactant. E) None of the choices are correct

A

Which of the following is not a true statement about diffusion? Diffusion A) is a result of the kinetic energy of atoms and molecules. B) requires no input of energy into the system. C) occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated. D) proceeds until equilibrium is reached.

A

Which of the following processes produces the most ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized? A) aerobic respiration B) anaerobic respiration C) alcoholic fermentation D) lactic acid fermentation E) All produce approximately the same amount of ATP per molecule of glucose.

A

A denatured protein differs from a normal protein because it: A) does not contain amino acids B) has lost its usual secondary and tertiary structures C) is composed of nucleotides D) contains many disulfide bonds

B

A null hypothesis: A) results from an improperly controlled experiment B) is the premise that no difference exists between a treatment and control group C) cannot be rejected D) is a hypothesis that experimenter hopes will be falsified E) is the premise that treatment groups were not adequately controlled

B

According to __________, energy cannot be created or destroyed. A) Aristotle's first principle B) the first law of thermodynamics C) the second law of thermodynamics D) the third law of thermodynamics

B

Collagen and hemoglobin are examples of ________, whereas glucose and cellulose are examples of ________. A) proteins; lipids B) proteins; carbohydrates C) carbohydrates; proteins D) nucleic acids; lipids

B

DNA carries genetic information in its: A) helical form B) sequence of bases C) tertiary structure D) phosphate groups E) sugar groups

B

If a certain atom has a tendency to lose two electrons, this lends itself to the formation of a(n): A) polar molecule. B) ion. C) water molecule. D) isotope.

B

If red blood cells are taken from the body and placed in a hypertonic solution, what happens to the cells? A) The cells swell and burst because water moves into them. B) The cells shrivel up because water leaves them. C) The cells remain unchanged due to equal solute concentrations inside and outside the cells. D) The cells remain unchanged due to equal water concentrations inside and outside the cells. E) They become white blood cells.

B

In fermentation, the pyruvic acid from glycolysis is converted into a different compound, such as alcohol. What is the purpose of this? A) The conversion yields one ATP per pyruvic acid molecule. B) The conversion yields one NADH per pyruvic acid molecule. C) The conversion yields one FADH2 per pyruvic acid molecule. D) The conversion is needed to regenerate the NAD+ consumed during glycolysis. E) A buildup of pyruvic acid in the surrounding environment would be too toxic.

B

Most of a cell's enzymes are A) lipids. B) proteins. C) amino acids. D) nucleic acids. E) carbohydrates

B

Oxidation is the __________, and reduction is the __________. A) gain of electrons . . . loss of electrons B) loss of electrons . . . gain of electrons C) loss of oxygen . . . gain of oxygen D) gain of oxygen . . . loss of oxygen E) gain of protons . . . loss of protons

B

Phospholipids spontaneously form a bilayer in an aqueous solution. Why do the heads of the phospholipids point out and the tails point toward one another? A) The tails are nonpolar and form hydrogen bonds with one another. B) The tails are repelled by the aqueous environment. C) The heads are repelled by the water inside and outside the cell.

B

Phosphorus has an atomic number of 15, so what is the distribution of its electrons? A) The first energy level has eight and the second has seven. B) The first energy level has two, the second has eight, and the third has five. C) The first energy level has two and the second has 13. D) The first, second, and third energy levels have five electrons each. E) The electron arrangement cannot be determined from the atomic number alone.

B

Plasma membranes are selectively permeable. This means that A) anything can pass into or out of a cell as long as the membrane is intact and the cell is healthy. B) the plasma membrane allows some substances to enter or leave a cell more easily than others. C) glucose cannot enter the cell. D) cholesterol cannot enter the cell. E) plasma membranes must be very thick.

B

The conversion of CO2 and H2O into organic compounds using energy from light is called A) glycolysis. B) photosynthesis. C) fermentation. D) cellular respiration. E) photorespiration

B

The formation of ions involves the: A) sharing of electrons. B) gain or loss of electrons. C) gain or loss of protons. D) sharing of protons. E) gain or loss of neutrons

B

The ultimate source of energy flowing into nearly all ecosystems is A) wind. B) sunlight. C) electricity. D) geothermal vents. E) radioactivity.

B

Two aqueous solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane that allows water to pass through but does not allow starch to pass through. Solution A is 10% starch and solution B is 5% starch. What will occur? A) Water will diffuse from solution A to solution B. B) Water will diffuse from solution B to solution A. C) Starch will diffuse from solution A to solution B. D) Starch will diffuse from solution B to solution A. E) Both water and starch will diffuse from solution B to solution A.

B

We use the scientific method every day. Imagine that your car doesn't start one morning before school. Which of these is a reasonable hypothesis regarding the problem? A) I'm going to be late. B) I'm out of gas. C) I should check whether the lights were left on and drained the battery. D) I should change the battery or the starter. E) I should add a quart of oil

B

What is the ultimate source of energy for almost all forms of life on Earth? A) heat energy B) solar energy C) thermal energy D) chemical energy E) nuclear energy

B

Which of the following are products of cellular respiration? A) oxygen and carbon dioxide B) ATP and carbon dioxide C) oxygen and glucose D) oxygen and ATP E) glucose and carbon dioxide

B

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of stages in cellular respiration? A) glycolysis, oxidative phosphorylation, and the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation C) the citric acid cycle, oxidative phosphorylation, and glycolysis D) oxidative phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the citric acid cycle E) oxidative phosphorylation, the citric acid cycle, and glycolysis

B

Which one of the following statements is false? Cellular respiration A) consumes glucose. B) is a single chemical reaction with just one step. C) produces water. D) produces carbon dioxide. E) releases heat.

B

Your instructor asks you to look into your microscope to see a prokaryotic cell. You will be looking for a cell that A) has a nucleus. B) has a membrane. C) makes up most of the tissues of your body. D) is much larger than most cells in your body. E) does not use DNA to code genetic information.

B

A basic difference between a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell is that the prokaryotic cell: A) possesses membrane-bound organelles. B) lacks DNA. C) lacks a nucleus. D) is considerably larger. E) is structurally more complex

C

A hypothesis is A) the same as a theory. B) a tentative answer to some question. C) an explanatory idea that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence. D) a widely accepted idea about a phenomenon. E) a widely accepted theory that is broad in scope and supported by a large body of evidence.

C

A nucleotide is made of a: A) phospholipid, sugar, and base B) phosphate, protein, and base C) phosphate, sugar, and base D) phospholipid, sugar, and protein

C

All cells possess all of the following components EXCEPT: A) cytoplasm B) genetic material C) a nuclear membrane D) a plasma cell membrane E) ribosomes

C

As a result of glycolysis there is a net gain of __________ ATPs. A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4

C

In fermentation, __________ is __________. A) NADH . . . reduced B) NAD+ . . . oxidized C) NADH . . . oxidized D) pyruvate . . . oxidized E) ethanol . . . oxidized

C

In salad dressings, oil quickly separates from vinegar because oils are A) heavier than water B) polar C) nonpolar D) hydrophilic E) amphiphilic

C

Large biological molecules are synthesized by removing: A) carbon B) covalent bonds C) water D) oxygen E) peptides

C

Living systems A) violate the first law of thermodynamics. B) violate the second law of thermodynamics. C) decrease their entropy while increasing the entropy of the universe. D) are examples of a closed system. E) None of the choices are correct

C

Organisms that are not prokaryotes are in the Domain A) Bacteria. B) Plantae. C) Eukarya. D) Archaea. E) Fungi.

C

Phospholipids are unusual yet important to cell membrane structure because they: A) are part of DNA B) contain nucleic acids C) have a polar end and a non polar end D) are found only in animals E) are an important energy carrier molecule

C

The active site of an enzyme is A) the region of a substrate that is changed by an enzyme. B) the highly changeable portion of an enzyme that adapts to fit the substrates of various reactions. C) the region of an enzyme that attaches to a substrate. D) the region of a product that detaches from the enzyme. E) None of the choices are correct.

C

The enzymes of the citric acid cycle are located in the A) cytoplasm. B) outer mitochondrial membrane. C) mitochondrial matrix. D) inner mitochondrial membrane. E) intermembrane space of the mitochondrion.

C

The smallest units that still retain the characteristics of an element are called: A) molecules. B) cells. C) atoms. D) tissues. E) organic molecules

C

The transfer of a phosphate group to a molecule or compound is called A) carboxylation. B) ionization. C) phosphorylation. D) hydrogen bonding. E) hydrogenation.

C

What type of chemical reaction results in the breakdown of organic polymers into their respective subunits? A) condensation B) oxidation C) hydrolysis D) ionization

C

When gametes fuse during fertilization, a(n) ________ is produced. A) egg B) sperm C) zygote D) haploid individual

C

Which of the following is NOT a typical trait of cancerous cells that makes them different from normal somatic cells? A. Cancer cells often deactivate their apoptosis systems. B. Cancerous cells are not as sensitive to contact inhibition. C. Cancer cells have more effective DNA repair activities. D. Cancer cells are more mobile and less dependent on anchorage

C

Which one of the following is false? A) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape. B) Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates. C) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions. D) Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze. E) An enzyme binds to its substrate at the enzyme's active site.

C

Which one of the following processes is endergonic? A) the burning of wood B) the release of heat from the breakdown of glucose C) the synthesis of glucose from carbon dioxide and water D) the breakdown of glucose E) cellular respiration

C

Which one of the following substances is not a lipid? A) wax B) cholesterol C) cellulose D) steroids E) fat

C

A mutation is a: A) physical deformity. B) change in the DNA sequence. C) dose of radiation. D) defective egg or sperm cell

D

A protein containing more than one polypeptide chain exhibits the ________ level of protein structure. A) primary B) secondary C) tertiary D) quaternary E) infinite

D

An atom's nucleus is composed of: A) protons only. B) neutrons only. C) protons and electrons. D) protons and neutrons. E) neutrons and electrons.

D

At the end of the citric acid cycle, most of the energy remaining from the original glucose is stored in A) CO2. B) pyruvic acid. C) ATP. D) NADH and FADH2

D

During cellular respiration, the energy in glucose A) becomes stored in molecules of ammonia. B) is used to manufacture glucose. C) is released all at once. D) is carried by electrons. E) None of the choices are correct

D

During which of the following phases of cellular respiration does substrate-level phosphorylation take place? A) glycolysis B) the citric acid cycle C) oxidative phosphorylation D) glycolysis and the citric acid cycle

D

Energy that is not converted to useful energy is usually given off as: A) radioactivity. B) electricity. C) light. D) heat. E) entropy.

D

Heating inactivates enzymes by A) breaking the covalent bonds that hold the molecule together. B) removing phosphate groups from the enzyme. C) causing enzyme molecules to stick together. D) changing the enzyme's three-dimensional shape. E) None of the choices are correct.

D

In eukaryotes, gametes are produced by: A) binary fission. B) budding. C) mitosis. D) meiosis.

D

Kinetic energy differs from chemical energy in that A) kinetic energy is stored energy that has the potential to do work, and chemical energy is the energy of movement. B) kinetic energy depends on the movement of atoms, whereas chemical energy depends on the movement of molecules. C) kinetic energy can be converted into various forms of energy, whereas chemical energy can only be converted into heat. D) kinetic energy is the energy of a moving object, whereas chemical energy is the potential energy of molecules. E) chemical energy is a particular form of kinetic energy

D

Life is organized in a hierarchical fashion. Which one of the following sequences illustrates that hierarchy as it increases in complexity? A) ecosystem, population, organ system, cell, community, molecule, organ, organism, tissue B) cell, molecule, organ system, organ, population, tissue, organism, ecosystem, community C) organism, organ system, tissue, population, organ, community, cell, ecosystem, molecule D) molecule, cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism, population, community, ecosystem E) ecosystem, molecule, cell, tissue, organism, organ system, organ, community

D

The atomic number of an atom is defined as the: A) number of electrons in the outermost energy level. B) total number of energy shells. C) arrangement of neutrons in the atomic nucleus. D) number of protons in the atomic nucleus. E) total number of electrons and neutrons.

D

The end product of a biosynthetic pathway often acts to block the initial step in that pathway. This phenomenon is called: A) allosteric activation. B) denaturation. C) irreversible inhibition. D) feedback inhibition. E) substrate activation.

D

The main difference between an autotroph and a heterotroph is: A) how they reproduce. B) how they respond to stimuli. C) their ability to move. D) how they obtain energy.

D

The protein-containing structure on the centromere where microtubules attach is called the: A) cell plate. B) spindle. C) centriole. D) kinetochore

D

What is the basic difference between exergonic and endergonic reactions? A) Exergonic reactions involve ionic bonds; endergonic reactions involve covalent bonds. B) Exergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds; endergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds. C) Exergonic reactions involve the formation of bonds; endergonic reactions involve the breaking of bonds. D) Exergonic reactions release energy; endergonic reactions absorb it. E) In exergonic reactions, the reactants have less chemical energy than the products; in endergonic reactions, the opposite is true.

D

Which of the following BEST explains why a particular atom may not form compounds readily? A) The atom has no electrons. B) The atom has an uneven number of protons. C) The atom has seven electrons in its outer shell. D) The atom's outer energy shells are completely full

D

Which of the following can affect the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction? A) temperature B) pH C) competitive inhibitors D) All of the choices are correct

D

Which of the following is NOT a reason the cell would not pass the G1 checkpoint and instead be arrested in the G1 phase? a. If DNA is damaged (UV, radiation, chemicals), the cell cycle will arrest at this point. b. Cell is nutritionally deficient c. Absence of necessary growth factor d. If the microtubules are not attached properly to each sister chromatid

D

Which of the following statements is a hypothesis rather than a theory? A) Matter is composed of atoms. B) Living things are made of cells. C) Modern organisms descended from preexisting life-forms. D) Female birds prefer to mate with male birds that have longer tails

D

Which of the following terms refers to the situation where a single phenotypic characteristic is determined by the additive effects of two or more genes? A) incomplete dominance B) codominance C) pleiotropy D) polygenic inheritance E) blending inheritance

D

Which one of the following is not a function of the plasma membrane? The plasma membrane A) forms a selective barrier around the cell. B) plays a role in signal transduction. C) has receptors for chemical messages. D) is the control center of the cell. E) is involved in self-recognition.

D

Which one of the following is true about the ATP molecule? A) It contains two phosphate groups. B) Extremely stable bonds link the second and third phosphate groups. C) It contains the six-carbon sugar hexose. D) It contains a nitrogenous base molecule called adenine. E) None of the choices are correct.

D

Which one of the following metabolic pathways is common in aerobic and anaerobic organisms? A) the citric acid cycle B) oxidative phosphorylation C) chemiosmosis D) glycolysis E) None of the choices are correct

D

A human sperm cell possesses autosomes and: A) exactly the same genetic information as a body cell. B) an X chromosome always. C) either an X or a Y chromosome. D) a Y chromosome always. E) both an X and a Y chromosome.

E

A phospholipid is composed of A) one glycerol molecule linked to three fatty acids B) one fatty acid molecule linked to three glycerol molecules C) one glycerol molecule linked to three phosphate groups D) one fatty acid molecule linked to one glycerol molecule and two phosphate groups E) one glycerol molecule linked to one phosphate group and two fatty acids

E

All of the following are important to the theory of evolution EXCEPT: A) environmental change. B) variation in traits within a population. C) mutations. D) inheritance of traits. E) changes in individuals within their lifetimes

E

Chromosomes are made of: A) cells. B) proteins. C) organelles. D) deoxyribonucleic acid. E) more than one of the above

E

During redox reactions A) the loss of electrons from one substance is called reduction. B) a substance that gains electrons is said to be oxidized. C) electrons are lost from one substance and added to another substance. D) protons from one molecule replace the electrons lost from another molecule. E) None of the choices are correct.

E

Evolution by natural selection relies upon A) heritable variation. B) overproduction of offspring. C) a struggle for existence. D) individual variation. E) All of the choices are correct

E

If you examined the human body, which of the following combinations of elements would be most common? A) C, O, P, S B) C, Na, O, N C) Cl, Ca, C, H D) C, S, Ca, N E) O, N, H, C

E

Most biological molecules are joined by: A) peptide bonds. B) ionic bonds. C) hydrogen bonds. D) disulfide bonds. E) covalent bonds

E

Nucleotides A) contain nitrogenous bases B) contain sugar molecules C) contain phosphate groups D) can be linked together to form nucleic acids E) all of the choices are correct

E

The diffusion of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane is called: A) facilitated diffusion. B) hydrolysis. C) active transport. D) exocytosis. E) osmosis.

E

The energy required to initiate an exergonic reaction is called A) exergonic energy. B) endergonic energy. C) nothing; spontaneous reactions do not require an input of energy. D) hydrolytic energy. E) the energy of activation

E

The fiber in your diet is actually: A) protein. B) ATP. C) starch. D) glycogen. E) cellulose

E

The term anaerobic means A) without bacteria. B) without ATP. C) without CO2. D) with O2. E) without O2.

E

To be scientifically valid, a hypothesis must be A) phrased as a question. B) based on faith. C) testable. D) falsifiable. E) testable and falsifiable

E

Which group has prokaryotic individuals? A) Protist Kingdoms B) Kingdom Fungi C) Kingdom Plantae D) Kingdom Animalia E) Domain Archaea

E

Which of the following energy transfers is/are possible in living systems? A) light energy to chemical energy B) chemical energy to kinetic energy C) potential energy to kinetic energy D) light energy to potential energy E) All of the choices are correct.

E

Which of the following is/are properties of life? A) a complex organization B) the ability to take in energy and use it C) the ability to respond to stimuli from the environment D) the ability to reproduce E) All of the choices are correct

E

Which of the following statements is/are true about dehydration synthesis? A) one monomer loses a hydrogen atom, and the other loses a hydroxyl group B) electrons are shared between atoms of the joined monomers C) H2O is formed as the monomers are joined D) covalent bonds are formed between the monomers E) all of the choices are correct

E

Which of the following, if any, is not a common cellular activity? A) Cells respond to the environment. B) Cells develop and maintain complex organization. C) Cells take in and use energy. D) Cells regulate their internal environment. E) All of the choices are common cellular activities.

E

Which one of the following is not a function of membrane proteins? Membrane proteins A) serve as enzymes. B) attach the membrane to the cytoskeleton. C) provide passage for polar molecules. D) form junctions between cells. E) All of the choices are membrane protein functions.

E

Which one of the following is not a type of protein? A) contractile proteins B) antibodies C) enzymes D) signal proteins E) all of these are types of proteins

E

Which process accounts for the movement of large solids into some animal cells? A) active transport B) facilitated diffusion C) simple diffusion D) osmosis E) phagocytosis

E

Only males can express sex-linked traits. True or False?

False

A disaccharide forms when A) two monosaccharides join by dehydration synthesis B) two starches join by dehydration synthesis C) two monosaccharides join by hydrolysis D) two starches join by hydrolysis E) a starch and a monosaccharide join by dehydration synthesis

A

DNA differs from RNA because DNA A) contains thymine in place of uracil B) consists of a single rather than a double polynucleotide strand C) contains the sugar ribose rather than the sugar deoxyribose D) contains phosphate groups not found in RNA E) all of the choices are correct

A

During which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle does DNA replication occur? A) the S phase of interphase B) the G1 phase of interphase C) the mitotic phase D) cytokinesis

A

Enzymes are ______ that orchestrate chemical reactions within the body. A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) nucleic acids

A

Fatty acids with double bonds between some of their carbons are said to be A) unsaturated B) saturated C) completely hydrogenated D) triglycerides E) monoglycerides

A

If digestion is ______, then synthesis is ______. A) hydrolysis; dehydration B) dehydration; hydrolysis C) organic; inorganic D) inorganic; organic

A

In a biological membrane, the phospholipids are arranged with the fatty acid chains facing the interior of the membrane. As a result, the interior of the membrane is: A) hydrophobic B) hydrophilic C) charged D) polar E) filled with water

A

Phospholipids are: A) found in cell membranes B) completely hydrophilic C) completely hydrophobic D) made on the ribosomes

A

Photosynthesis is an _________________ reaction. a. Endergonic b. Exergonic

A

The failure of chromosomes to segregate properly during meiosis is called: A) nondisjunction. B) translocation. C) replication. D) inversion. E) independent assortment.

A

The formation of ATP in the mitochondria, which is an oxygen-dependent reaction, is called: A) aerobic respiration. B) phagocytosis. C) endosymbiosis. D) anaerobic respiration E) catabolism.

A

The function of mitochondria is A) cellular respiration. B) intracellular transport of proteins. C) lipid synthesis. D) photosynthesis. E) intracellular digestion.

A

The summary equation for photosynthesis is A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + sunlight → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 B) C5H12O6 + 6 O2 + sunlight → 5 CO2 + 6 H2O, C) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 + sunlight → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O. D) the same as the equation for glycolysis written in reverse.

A

Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry loci for the same traits in the same positions on the chromosome but specify different versions of some traits constitute a pair of A) homologous chromosomes. B) heterologous chromosomes. C) complementary chromosomes. D) polyploid chromosomes. E) None of the choices are correct

A

What is a testcross? A) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous recessive for the trait of interest B) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual heterozygous for the trait of interest C) a mating between an individual of unknown genotype and an individual homozygous dominant for the trait of interest D) a mating between two individuals heterozygous for the trait of interest E) None of the choices are correct.

A

What is the difference between "free" and "attached" ribosomes? A) free ribosomes occur in the cytoplasm, whereas attached ribosomes are found on the endoplasmic reticulum B) free ribosomes produce proteins, whereas attached ribosomes produce carbohydrates C) free ribosomes produce proteins that are exported from the cell, while attached ribosomes make proteins for mitochondria and chloroplasts D) free ribosomes are readily "used up" by the cell and are replaced frequently, whereas attached ribosomes remain functional for the lifetime of the cell

A

Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division that distinguishes it from animal cell division? A) A cell plate forms. B) A cleavage furrow forms. C) Cytokinesis does not occur. D) Four new cells (rather than two) are produced per mitotic division. E) The nucleolus disappears and then reappears.

A

Which one of the following is false? A) Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes. B) Most prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission. C) Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and simpler than eukaryotic cells. D) In prokaryotes, most genes are carried on a circular DNA molecule.

A

Which type of eukaryotic cell contains two types (a pair) of each chromosome? A) a diploid cell B) a gamete C) a haploid cell D) a meiotically produced cell

A

Covalent bonds joining two nucleotides within a single strand of DNA form between: A) a phosphate group and adenine B) deoxyribose and a phosphate group C) adenine and thymine D) the phosphate groups of both E) ribose and a base

B

During which phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle do growth and nutrient acquisition occur? A) the S phase of interphase B) the G1 phase of interphase C) the mitotic phase D) cytokinesis

B

During which stage of meiosis do synapsis and crossing over occur? A) interphase I B) prophase I C) interphase II D) prophase II E) None of the choices are correct.

B

Genes located close together on the same chromosomes are referred to as __________ genes and generally __________. A) associated . . . sort independently during meiosis B) linked . . . sort independently during meiosis C) homologous . . . are inherited together D) linked . . . do not sort independently during meiosis E) codependent . . . do not sort independently during meiosis

B

Genetic information is encoded in the A) quaternary structure of a protein B) sequence of nucleotides in DNA C) degree of saturation of fatty acids D) length of glycogen E) linear sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide

B

Glucose molecules are to starch as ________ are to proteins. A) oils B) amino acids C) fatty acids D) waxes E) lards

B

In a typical human body cell, how many sex chromosomes are there? A) 1 B) 2 C) 23 D) 46

B

Lard is a solid fat at room temperature. What does this tell you about the triglycerides in lard? A) the fats in lard are not organic molecules B) lard is composed of saturated fats C) the fats in lard are mostly phospholipids D) lard is composed of unsaturated fats

B

Organisms contain thousands of different proteins composed of ______ different amino acids. A) 4 B) 20 C) 100 D) 1,000 E) more than 5,000

B

Proteins differ from one another because A) the peptide bonds linking amino acids differ from protein to protein B) the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain differs from protein to protein C) each protein contains its own unique sequence of sugar molecules D) the number of nucleotides found in each protein varies from molecule to molecule E) the number of nitrogen atoms in each amino acid varies

B

Round pea shape is dominant over wrinkled pea shape. If a round pea has a wrinkled parent, the round pea is: a) RR. b) Rr. c) rr. d) haploid. e) recessive.

B

The "backbone" of a nucleic acid molecule is made of: A) nitrogenous bases B) sugar and phosphate groups C) ATP molecules D) NAD+ and FAD E) amino acids

B

The different forms of a gene-for example, those responsible for eye color-are called: A) cyclins. B) alleles. C) telomeres. D) sister chromatids. E) receptors.

B

The primary structure of a protein is A) an a helix of a pleated sheet B) the amino acid sequence of the polypeptide chain C) composed of two or more polypeptide chains D) maintained by hydrogen bonds E) irregular folding

B

The results of dehydration synthesis can be reversed by A) condensation B) hydrolysis C) polymerization D) the addition of an amino group E) the addition of a phosphate group

B

What is NOT a feature of a prokaryotic cell? A) a plasma membrane B) a nuclear membrane C) ribosomes D) enzymes E) DNA

B

When Mendel used true-breeding white flowers and true-breeding purple flowers as the parental generation, what were the results? (Purple flower is dominant over white.) A) All the offspring had white flowers. B) All the offspring had purple flowers. C) 3/4 of the flowers produced were purple and 1/4 were white. D) 3/4 of the flowers produced were white and 1/4 were purple. E) 1/2 of the flowers produced were white and 1/2 were purple.

B

When the two gametes that fuse to form a zygote contain different alleles of a given gene, the offspring is: a) haploid. b) heterozygous. c) abnormal. d) homozygous. e) a new species.

B

Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in mitotic cell division? A) anaphase-telophase-prophase-metaphase B) prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase C) metaphase-prophase-anaphase-telophase D) telophase-anaphase-prophase-metaphase

B

Which one of the following is not the proper pairing of a polymer and its monomer? A) polysaccharide and monosaccharide B) triglyceride and steroid C) nucleic acid and nucleotide D) protein and amino acid E) all of the pairs properly reflect a polymer and its corresponding monomer

B

1. For a cell to respond to a particular hormone, it must __________. a. modify its plasma membrane to alter the hormone entering the cytoplasm b. experience an imbalance that disrupts its normal function c. have receptors that recognize and bind the hormone molecule d. be from the same cell type as the organ that produced the hormone

C

A major type of lipid found in cell membranes is A) cellulose B) triglycerides C) phospholipids D) glycerol E) waxes

C

Albinism results from a recessive allele. Which of the following describes the expected offspring from a normally pigmented male with an albino father and an albino wife? A) 75% normal; 25% albino B) 75% albino; 25% normal C) 50% normal; 50% albino D) all normal E) all albino

C

All of the following combinations are possible in the gametes of an organism that is AaBb EXCEPT: A) AB. B) aB. C) aa. D) ab. E) Ab.

C

Apoptosis involves all but which of the following? a. Chopping up of proteins b. Activation of cellular enzymes c. Lysis of the cell d. Fragmentation of the DNA

C

Cancer is essentially: A) the binding of cyclins and Cdk's. B) a never-ending repetition of the S phase of the cell cycle. C) unregulated mitotic cell division. D) the creation of extra checkpoints in the cell cycle.

C

Cellulose differs from starch in that A) the monomers of cellulose are held together by covalent bonds, whereas the monomers of starch are held together by hydrogen bonds B) glycogen is formed by plants and cellulose by animals C) most animals cannot break down cellulose, whereas starch is easily digested D) starch is made of glucose monomers, whereas cellulose is made of fructose monomers E) all of the choices are correct

C

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane located equidistant from the two spindle poles? A) interphase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase E) telophase

C

Ribosomes are the site of synthesis of: A) DNA. B) RNA. C) proteins. D) nucleoli. E) glucose.

C

The group of biological molecules that are most diverse in function is: A) carbohydrates B) lipids C) proteins D) nucleic acids

C

The physical manifestation of an organism's genes is its: a) environment. b) genotype. c) phenotype. d) genetic code. e) number of chromosomes.

C

What is the ratio of PHENOTYPES in the offspring produced by the cross Aa × Aa? Assume complete dominance for the trait. A) 100% dominance B) 100% recessive C) 75% dominant:25% recessive D) 50% dominant:50% recessive E) 25% dominant:75% recessive

C

When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of A) cancer. B) cell constraint. C) density-dependent inhibition. D) cell division repression. E) growth factor desensitization.

C

When genes are linked, a few of the recombinant genotypes still occur in the offspring because of: A) mutation. B) linkage. C) crossing over. D) natural selection. E) independent assortment.

C

Which of the following best explains why dominant alleles that cause lethal disorders are less common than recessive alleles that cause lethal disorders? A) Lethal disorders caused by dominant alleles are usually more severe than lethal disorders caused by recessive alleles. B) Unlike lethal disorders caused by recessive alleles, lethal disorders caused by dominant alleles usually cause death of the embryo. C) Most individuals carrying a lethal dominant allele have the disorder and die before they reproduce, whereas individuals carrying a lethal recessive allele are more likely to be healthy and reproduce. D) The presence of a lethal dominant allele causes sterility. E) Many lethal recessive alleles cause enhanced disease resistance when they are present in the heterozygous state, and carriers of these alleles have more children, on average, than other people.

C

Which of the following conditions would lead to an inviable human zygote? A) XXX B) XYY C) Y D) XY E) X

C

Which of the following does not enhance genetic diversity? A) random fertilization B) independent assortment of chromosomes at metaphase I C) mitosis of somatic cells D) crossing over during prophase I of meiosis E) All of the choices enhance genetic diversity

C

Which of the following provides long-term energy storage for plants? A) glucose B) glycogen C) starch D) cellulose E) ATP

C

Which one of the following lists contains only polysaccharides? A) sucrose, starch, and cellulose B) starch, amino acids, and glycogen C) cellulose, starch, and glycogen D) nucleotides, glycogen, and cellulose E) fructose, cellulose, and glucose

C

All of the following statements about genotypes and phenotypes are true EXCEPT: A) individuals with the same phenotype might have different genotypes. B) matings between individuals with dominant phenotypes cannot produce offspring with recessive phenotypes. C) matings between individuals with recessive phenotypes usually do not produce offspring with dominant phenotypes. D) individuals with the same genotype might have different phenotypes.

D

Individual features of all organisms are the result of A) genetics. B) the environment. C) the environment and individual needs. D) genetics and the environment.

D

The results of a test cross reveal that all the offspring resemble the parent being tested. This parent must be: A) heterozygous. B) recessive. C) self-pollinated. D) homozygous. E) haploid.

D

The two main functions of the endoplasmic reticulum are the production of A) mitochondria and proteins that are to be secreted by the cell. B) hydrogen peroxide and steroid hormones secreted by the cell. C) ribosomes and steroid hormones. D) membrane and proteins to be secreted by the cell. E) chromatin and mitochondria.

D

What occurs immediately following cytokinesis of mitosis? A) anaphase B) prophase C) telophase D) the G1 portion of interphase

D

Which of the following about autotrophs is true? A) are the primary producers which all heterotrophs rely on for organic molecules B) produce organic molecules from inorganic molecules. C) include the green plants as well as other organisms like bacteria D) all of the above are true

D

Which of the following biological molecules are composed of monomer units containing a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen-containing base? A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) nucleic acids

D

Which of these biological molecules contain genetic information? A) proteins B) carbohydrates C) lipids D) nucleic acids

D

Which one of the following is a difference between sexual and asexual reproduction? A) Cell division only occurs after sexual reproduction. B) Only offspring from asexual reproduction inherit traits from two parents. C) Sexual reproduction typically includes the development of unfertilized eggs. D) Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction. E) Only asexual reproduction results from the union of a sperm and an egg.

D

Which one of the following is false? A) The genetic makeup of an organism constitutes its genotype. B) An organism with two different alleles for a single trait is said to be heterozygous. C) Alleles are alternate forms of a gene. D) An allele that is fully expressed is referred to as recessive. E) The expressed physical traits of an organism are called its phenotype.

D

Which one of the following is not a function of mitosis? Mitosis helps organisms A) grow. B) reproduce asexually. C) repair tissues. D) All of the choices are correct

D

Which one of the following statements is false? A) A typical body cell is called a somatic cell. B) Gametes are haploid cells. C) Somatic cells are diploid. D) Gametes are made by mitosis. E) A zygote is a fertilized egg.

D

A recessive allele on the X chromosome causes color blindness. A color-blind woman (whose father is color blind) marries a noncolor-blind man. What is the chance that their son will be color blind? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75% E) 100%

E

All cells on Earth A) are enclosed in a membrane that maintains internal conditions different from the surroundings. B) have DNA as the genetic material. C) can interconvert forms of energy. D) can interconvert chemical materials. E) All of the choices are correct.

E

Alleles of a gene are found at __________ chromosomes. A) the same locus on homologous mitochondrial B) the same locus on heterologous C) different loci on homologous D) different loci on heterologous E) the same locus on homologous

E

The cell-cycle control system A) receives messages from outside of the cell that influence cell division. B) triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle. C) is influenced by growth factors that bind to cell receptors. D) includes three key checkpoints to complete a cell cycle. E) All of the choices are correct.

E

The fiber in your diet is actually: A) protein B) ATP C) starch D) glycogen E) cellulose

E

Which of the following factors can result in the denaturation of a protein? A) heat B) changes in pH C) chemicals that destroy hydrogen bonds D) changes in salt concentration E) all of the choices can result in the denaturation of a protein

E

Which of the following is a difference between mitosis and meiosis? A) In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced. B) Cells produced by mitosis are diploid; cells produced by meiosis are haploid. C) In mitosis cytokinesis occurs once, whereas in meiosis cytokinesis occurs twice. D) Mitosis but not meiosis occurs in somatic cells. E) All of the choices are correct

E

Which one of the following statements is false? Enzymes: A) increase the rate of chemical reactions B) function as chemical catalysts C) regulate virtually all chemical reactions in a cell D) are produced by cells E) are monomers used to build proteins

E

Which pair of organelles is responsible for supplying energy to eukaryotic cells? A) ribosomes and mitochondria B) chloroplasts and ribosomes C) Golgi apparatus and ribosomes D) mitochondria and lysosomes E) chloroplasts and mitochondria

E

A phenotypic trait, like yellow pea color, cannot be the dominant trait, if the opposite trait, green pea color, is observed more in nature. True or False?

False

Prokaryotic cells do not have mitochondria, so they cannot make ATP energy. True or False?

False