bio mid term

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12) Which of the following is produced during the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) O2 B) CO2 C) C6H12O6 D) ADP

1) The figure below shows that ________. A) ADP can perform cellular work when it binds to an additional phosphate group B) ATP can perform cellular work when it releases a phosphate group C) ATP can be converted to ADP by adding a phosphate group D) energy is released from ATP during the process of cellular respiration

10) Ten kilocalories are equivalent to ________ calories. A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 0.1 D) 100

3) What percentage of Amanda's gametes would likely have the normal number of chromosomes? A) zero B) 100 percent C) 50 percent D) 25 percent

3) Photosynthesis contributes to plant growth by ________. A) taking in oxygen and making wood B) taking in carbon dioxide and making sugars (carbohydrates) C) synthesizing carbon dioxide and making cellulose D) converting sugar to oxygen and water

4) What does the figure below show? A) the synthesis of ADP B) the breakdown of ATP to perform cellular work C) the removal of a phosphate group from ADP D) the synthesis of ATP through the addition of a phosphate group

4) When using a microscope to view cells you obtained from scraping under your fingernails, you notice that the cells lack nuclei; therefore, you conclude that the cells must be a type of ________ cell. A) plant B) eukaryotic C) fungal D) prokaryotic

25) How much genetic material is present in a cell during prophase I compared to a cell that has completed meiosis II? A) one-quarter as much B) four times as much C) one-half as much D) twice as much

26) During metaphase I, ________. A) crossing over occurs B) homologous chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell C) the nuclear envelope breaks up D) sister chromatids separate and migrate to opposite poles

26) What does "adaptation" mean in an evolutionary context? A) the way an individual's body adjusts to its environment B) the accumulation of favorable variations in a population over time C) the ability of organisms to alter their appearance under changing environmental conditions D) all of the above

26) Which of the following is a function of the Golgi apparatus? A) digestion of organic matter inside the cell B) protein modification C) drug detoxification D) cell respiration

26) Which part of cellular respiration produces the most NADH? A) electron transport chain B) citric acid cycle C) glycolysis D) fermentation

28) Facilitated diffusion across a biological membrane requires ________ and moves a substance ________ its concentration gradient. A) energy... down B) transport proteins... down C) energy and transport proteins... against D) transport proteins... against

29) Proteins are polymers constructed from ________ monomers. A) hydrocarbon B) amino acid C) nucleotide D) fatty acid

3) This diagram of the human life cycle shows that ________. A) meiosis produces a diploid zygote B) meiosis produces haploid sperm and egg cells C) fertilization produces a haploid zygote D) a diploid zygote undergoes meiosis to produce an adult human

16) The sum total of all the chemical reactions that occur in organisms is called ________. A) hydrolysis B) cellular synthesis C) conservation of energy D) metabolism

17) Which of the following structures manufactures the components of ribosomes? A) nucleus B) cytoplasm C) endoplasmic reticulum D) nucleolus

18) Some ribosomes are suspended in the cytosol of a cell, whereas other ribosomes ________. A) make proteins inside the nucleus B) are found on the plasma membrane C) are attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) are attached to the outside of the nucleus

19) A glycerol with three fatty acids attached is referred to as a ________. A) prostaglandin B) nucleic acid C) steroid D) fat

19) Which domain(s) consist(s) of prokaryotic cells? A) Bacteria only B) Eukarya only C) Archaea and Eukarya D) Bacteria and Archaea

2) A single carbon atom can form a maximum of ________ covalent bond(s). A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4

2) Examine the structures of the plant and animal cells below. Which of the following organelles connect(s) to the nuclear envelope? A) the Golgi apparatus B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) the endoplasmic reticulum

2) Janice's genotype is ________. A) Ww B) WW C) ww D) WW or Ww

2) Recombinant offspring were produced by the mating shown in the accompanying art. What is the recombination frequency of purple round and red long offspring? A) 21% B) 381 C) 21 + 21 D) 11%

3) The figure below shows a Paramecium, a single-celled freshwater protist. The hairlike structures visible on the Paramecium allow it to move. These structures are ________. A) microfilaments B) intermediate filaments C) flagella D) cilia

15) The structural combination of DNA and protein forms ________. A) nucleoli B) RNA C) chromatin D) ribosomes

16) Cellulose is an example of ________. A) a polypeptide B) a steroid C) fiber D) fat

1) Breathing faster when we exercise is necessary to expel ________. A) carbon dioxide and bring in more oxygen to support aerobic metabolism B) oxygen and bring in more carbon dioxide to support aerobic metabolism C) carbon dioxide and bring in more oxygen to support anaerobic metabolism D) oxygen and bring in more carbon dioxide to support anaerobic metabolism

1) Is it reasonable to conclude (i.e., is it supported by the data) that female collared lizards prefer more brightly colored male lizards over dull-colored males? A) Yes, this conclusion is supported by the data. B) No, this conclusion is not supported by the data. C) The data do not clearly indicate a preference one way or the other. D) None of the above choices are correct.

1) Molecules that come from the food we eat provide energy for the amazing work that goes on inside of our cells. This energy, stored inside of our food, is a form of ________. A) potential energy called chemical energy B) potential energy called entropy C) kinetic energy called heat D) electrical energy called heat

10) Complete the equation: monosaccharide + monosaccharide → ________ + water A) disaccharide B) polypeptide C) polysaccharide D) fat

10) The ultimate source of the energy in food is ________. A) the sun B) producers C) ATP D) consumers

2) Which of the following is an autotroph? A) human B) mushroom C) pine tree D) fish

10) When mixed with water, phospholipids spontaneously form membranes because they ________. A) have hydrophilic phosphate groups that are attracted to water and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that avoid water B) have hydrophilic fatty acid tails that are attracted to water and hydrophobic phosphate groups that avoid water C) have hydrophilic heads that are attracted to their hydrophobic tails D) are both fluid and mosaic

11) The CORRECT sequence of stages of mitosis is ________. A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase B) telophase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase C) anaphase, interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

11) The concept of a membrane as a fluid mosaic reflects the ability of ________. A) phospholipids and most proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane B) phospholipids but not proteins to drift about in the plane of the membrane C) most proteins but not phospholipids to drift about in the plane of the membrane D) carbohydrates to drift into and out of the membrane structure

12) Respiration describes the exchange of gases between your blood and the air. Cellular respiration ________. A) produces ATP B) produces oxygen C) produces glucose D) uses carbon dioxide

12) The extracellular matrix of animal cells ________. A) protects and support cells B) provides avenues for the exchange of DNA C) is a warehouse for the storage of extra lipids and carbohydrates D) is primarily a site of dead matter and waste materials

13) What name is given to the specific location of a gene on a chromosome? A) locus B) phenotype C) genotype D) allele

13) Which of these events occurs during anaphase? A) Sister chromatids become separate chromosomes. B) Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. C) The nuclear envelope reappears. D) The nuclear envelope breaks up.

14) Anything that prevents ATP formation will most likely ________. A) result in cell death B) force the cell to rely on lipids for energy C) force the cell to rely on ADP for energy D) have no effect on the cell

14) During telophase, ________. A) the events of prophase are reversed B) chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell C) sister chromatids become separate chromosomes D) the nuclear envelope breaks up

16) Cytokinesis typically begins during the ________ stage of mitosis. A) telophase B) prophase C) metaphase D) anaphase

16) If a plant appears blue to us, what wavelength of light is being reflected? A) blue B) green C) red D) yellow

17) Which of the following is hydrophilic? A) cellulose B) testosterone C) butter D) cholesterol

19) Homologous chromosomes ________. A) carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics B) include only the autosomes C) are a set of chromosomes that the cell received from one parent D) carry the same versions of all genes

19) Where in the cell does glycolysis occur? A) cytoplasm B) endoplasmic reticulum (ER) C) within the fluid just inside the inner mitochondrial membrane D) between the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane

2) A process is referred to as aerobic if it requires ________. A) oxygen B) carbon dioxide C) ATP D) carbohydrates

2) Dull-colored males were used in this experiment to ________. A) serve as a comparison (control) group to the brightly colored males B) be sure that females could recognize the gender of the other lizards C) give the experiment more trials so that the data would be more persuasive D) be sure all females had a male with which they could mate

2) What is biology? A) the scientific study of life B) the scientific study of the environment C) the scientific study of DNA D) the scientific study of ecosystems

2) Which theory states that all living things are composed of cells? A) cell theory B) Hooke's rule C) evolutionary theory D) Mendel's law

20) Information is transferred from the nucleus to ribosomes via ________. A) mRNA B) rough endoplasmic reticulum C) DNA D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

20) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of stages in cellular respiration? A) glycolysis, citric acid cycle, electron transport B) citric acid cycle, glycolysis, electron transport C) citric acid cycle, electron transport, glycolysis D) electron transport, glycolysis, citric acid cycle

21) The region of an enzyme to which a substrate binds is called the ________ site. A) active B) substrate C) enzymatic D) inactive

22) A hormone that will be secreted from a cell is manufactured by ribosomes ________. A) attached to the endoplasmic reticulum B) attached to the Golgi apparatus C) attached to the plasma membrane D) inside the nucleus

22) Which component of the following reaction is the substrate? sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) sucrose B) sucrase C) glucose D) fructose

23) Sexual reproduction in humans ________. A) allows a haploid sperm cell to fertilize a haploid egg cell B) produces a haploid individual C) produces an individual with 23 chromosomes D) combines two diploid gametes, producing a zygote

23) The branch of biology that explains both the diversity and the unity of life is ________. A) evolution B) microbiology C) taxonomy D) genetics

23) Which one of the following is TRUE? A) An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape. B) Enzymes work generally on a broad range of substrates. C) Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions. D) Enzymes emerge changed from the reactions they catalyze.

30) One difference between mitosis and meiosis is ________. A) mitosis produces cells genetically identical to the parent cell, but meiosis does not B) mitosis produces more daughter cells for each division than meiosis C) mitosis produces haploid cells, but meiosis produces diploid cells D) mitosis requires only one parent cell, but meiosis requires two parent cells

24) In meiosis, how does prophase I differ from prophase II? A) During prophase I there is one diploid cell; during prophase II there are two haploid cells. B) During prophase I chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell; during prophase II the chromosomes line up in double file in the middle of the cell. C) During prophase I the chromosomes coil up; the chromosomes are not coiled up during prophase II. D) In prophase I the sister chromatids are attached; in prophase II the sister chromatids are separated.

24) What is the key to the recognition of incomplete dominance? A) The phenotype of the heterozygote falls between the phenotypes of the homozygotes. B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution. C) The alleles affect more than one trait. D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

24) What must pyruvic acid be converted to before it can enter the citric acid cycle? A) acetyl CoA B) lactic acid C) ethyl alcohol D) citric acid

25) Which one of the following is most similar to the mechanism of an enzyme inhibitor? A) keeping someone from parking by parking in their designated spot B) driving the wrong way on a one-way street C) forgetting to put a cap back on a pen D) changing the tires on a car

26) An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. If an individual with wavy hair mates with an individual with straight hair, what is the probability that their child will have curly hair? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%

27) Electron transport takes place in the ________. A) mitochondria B) chloroplasts C) cytoplasm D) ribosomes

27) Which of the following parts of a cell is (are) most like the shipping center of a company? A) the Golgi apparatus B) mitochondria C) chloroplasts D) the nucleolus

27) ________ is the source of the oxygen gas released by a photosystem. A) H2O B) Chlorophyll a C) CO2 D) C6H12O6

28) An individual with the blood group genotype LMLN has the phenotype MN. What is the relationship between the LM and LN alleles? A) codominance B) pleiotropy C) LN is dominant D) incomplete dominance

28) Over a span of two decades, scientists measured changes in the beak size of a population of Galápagos ground finches. This ________. A) provided evidence of natural selection in action B) is an example of artificial selection C) is an example of overproduction D) led Darwin to his theory of evolution through natural selection

29) Osmosis can be defined as ________. A) the diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane B) the diffusion of nonpolar molecules across a selectively permeable membrane C) active transport across a selectively permeable membrane D) the diffusion of a solute across a selectively permeable membrane

29) Science is ________. A) the inquiry-based effort to describe and explain nature B) the search for truth C) an organized set of principles for how to behave ethically and morally D) all of the above

3) An object at rest has no ________ energy, but it may have ________ energy resulting from its location or structure. A) kinetic... potential B) kinetic... conserved C) potential... kinetic D) stored... potential

3) Examine the following figure. Which of these stages occur(s) in the cytoplasm? A) glycolysis B) citric acid cycle C) glycolysis and citric acid cycle D) citric acid cycle and electron transport

3) Humans are both ________. A) heterotrophs and consumers B) heterotrophs and producers C) producers and decomposers D) autotrophs and producers

3) Oleic acid is a fatty acid that occurs naturally in many animal and vegetable fats and oils. What can you tell about oleic acid just by looking at its structure? A) Oleic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid. B) Oleic acid is a saturated fatty acid. C) Oleic acid is a trans fatty acid. D) Oleic acid is a hydrophilic fatty acid.

3) The chromosomes of eukaryotic cells are found in the ________. A) nucleus B) centriole C) Golgi apparatus D) nucleolus

3) This hypothetical pedigree for a disease in humans illustrated inheritance that is A) autosomal recessive. B) autosomal dominant. C) sex-linked dominant. D) carried on the Y chromosome

3) Which hypothesis were the poultry scientists likely testing? A) The time of egg laying (oviposition) has an impact on egg weight. B) Bigger eggs result in larger mature chickens. C) Young hens have a harder time laying eggs than do older hens. D) Egg weight is related to the weight of the hatchling (newly hatched chick).

3) Which of the following is NOT a property of life? A) Populations of organisms rarely change over time. B) Living things exhibit complex but ordered organization. C) Organisms take in energy and use it to perform all of life's activities. D) Organisms reproduce their own kind

3) Which of the following is a feature of prokaryotic cells but NOT eukaryotic cells? A) pili B) cell wall C) flagella D) DNA

3) Which wavelength of light is the LEAST useful to your plant's growth? A) 750 nm B) 650 nm C) 550 nm D) 500 nm

30) Amino acids include a side group as well as ________. A) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, an amino group, and a carboxyl group B) a central carbon, a hydrogen atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group C) a central nitrogen, a carbon atom, a hydroxyl group, and a carbonyl group D) a central nitrogen, a carbon atom, an amino group, and a carbonyl group

30) In cellular respiration, most ATP is produced DIRECTLY as a result of ________. A) the movement of hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane B) the citric acid cycle C) fermentation D) the electron transport chain

30) In photosynthesis, an H+ ion gradient forms across the ________. A) thylakoid membrane B) outer chloroplast membrane C) endomembrane D) inner chloroplast membrane

31) Vacuoles are ________. A) membranous sacs B) manufactured by ribosomes C) composed of microtubules D) found only in plant cells

31) When two solutions that differ in solute concentration are placed on either side of a selectively permeable membrane, and osmosis is allowed to take place, the water will ________. A) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower water concentration B) exhibit a net movement to the side with higher water concentration C) exhibit a net movement to the side with lower solute concentration D) exhibit an equal movement in both directions across the membrane

31) Which of these statements is CORRECT? A) Scientific ideas are subjected to repeated testing. B) Science can be used to prove or disprove the idea that deities or spirits cause earthquakes and other natural disasters. C) Science does not require observations that other people can confirm. D) Only discovery science can lead to important conclusions about nature.

32) A cell that neither gains nor loses a net amount of water at equilibrium when it is immersed in a solution is ________. A) isotonic to its environment B) hypertonic to its environment C) hypotonic to its environment D) metabolically inactive

33) CAM plants conserve water by ________. A) opening their stomata only at night B) incorporating CO2 into RuBP C) keeping their stomata closed at night D) running the Calvin cycle at night

33) Extremophilic bacteria are able to survive in hostile environments, including scalding hot water as well as springs and vents that reach temperatures over 100°C. Researchers studying these bacteria measured the function of a protein from an extremophile bacterium at 100°C, and they also measured the function of a similar protein from a human cell at 100°C. Which of the following results do you think the researchers obtained? A) The bacterial protein functioned normally, whereas the human protein did not. B) The human protein functioned normally, whereas the bacterial protein did not. C) The bacterial protein and the human protein both functioned normally. D) Neither the human protein nor the bacterial protein functioned normally.

34) A child is born with a rare disease in which mitochondria are missing from certain skeletal muscle cells. Physicians find that the muscle cells function. Not surprisingly, they also find that ________. A) the muscles contain large amounts of lactic acid following even mild physical exercise B) the muscles contain large amounts of carbon dioxide following even mild physical exercise C) the muscles require extremely high levels of oxygen to function D) the muscle cells cannot split glucose to pyruvic acid

34) A hypothesis is a(n) ________. A) tentative answer to a question B) guess C) observation D) theory

35) A specific stretch of DNA that programs the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide is a ________. A) gene B) protein C) nucleic acid D) enzyme

35) What is the best explanation for a BbCc × bbcc cross producing offspring in a 5:5:1:1 phenotypic ratio? A) linked genes B) polygenic inheritance C) incomplete dominance D) codominance

35) You try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is a hypothesis? A) My car's battery is dead. B) If I recharge the battery, then my car will start. C) My car is too old to function properly. D) What is wrong with my car?

36) During a race such as a marathon, the skeletal muscle cells in your legs use a lot of energy to continually contract and power your muscles. What organelle is most likely abundant in skeletal muscle cells? A) mitochondria B) Golgi apparatus C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum D) rough endoplasmic reticulum

36) How many chromosomes can a gamete possess as a result of nondisjunction? A) n + 1 or n - 1 B) 2n + 1 or 2n - 1 C) 2n - 1 only D) 2n + 1 or n - 1

36) What waste product do yeast produce under anaerobic conditions? A) ethyl alcohol B) pyruvic acid C) lactic acid D) creatine

36) Which of the following processes could result in the net movement of a substance into a cell, if the substance is more concentrated in the cell than in the surroundings? A) active transport B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) osmosis

37) Similar to the nucleus, chloroplasts and mitochondria are ________. A) surrounded by two membranes B) able to synthesize carbohydrates C) manufactured by the nucleolus D) able to synthesize lipids

38) How do hypotheses differ from theories? A) Theories are more comprehensive than hypotheses. B) Theories must be testable; hypotheses do not need to be testable. C) Hypotheses are educated guesses, and theories are tentative explanations. D) Hypotheses are derived from experimentation, whereas theories are derived from observation.

39) Antibiotic resistance evolves in bacteria when ________. A) the presence of antibiotics favors bacteria that already have genes for resistance B) farmers do not use enough antibiotics in animal feed C) the antibiotics create resistance genes in bacteria D) none of the above

39) Assume that having three nostrils is inherited as a sex-linked trait on the Y chromosome. A man with three nostrils has a daughter who has a son with a man who has only two nostrils. What is the probability that the three-nostriled man's grandson has three nostrils? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100%

4) Chromatin consists of ________. A) DNA and protein B) RNA and protein C) protein only D) DNA only

4) Some plant species require shaded conditions while other plant species require bright sunlight. Shade tolerance is best related to which of these characteristics? A) Different species of plants have different ratios of pigment molecules that utilize different wavelengths of light. B) Plant leaves without a protective coating are subject to sunburn. C) Some species of plants are able to produce sugar without ever having been exposed to sunlight. D) Some species of plants are consumers and do not need sunlight

4) Suppose that you wanted to conduct an experiment to determine the smoke points of the oils listed in the table. What would be the experiment that would give you the best information to determine which oil has the highest smoke point? A) Add some olive oil to a pan, heat it over a flame, and measure the temperature of the oil when it begins to smoke. Repeat for the other three oils. B) Mix all four oils in a pan, heat them over a flame, and measure the temperature of the oil mixture when it begins to smoke. C) Add some olive oil to a pan, heat it over a flame, and measure how long it takes for the oil to begin to smoke. Repeat for the other three oils. D) Mix all four oils in a pan, heat

4) The bacteria show the greatest resistance to which antibiotic? A) Antibiotic A B) Antibiotic B C) Antibiotic C D) Antibiotic D

40) Regulation in biological systems depends on feedback, which is an example of information flow. When diabetes destroys insulin-producing cells, what information flow is disrupted? A) The body is unable to send signals that indicate the amount of sugar in the blood. B) Cells in the bladder are no longer able to send signals when the bladder fills. C) The pancreas is unable to produce enzymes to break down proteins. D) Appetite signals no longer regulate feeding.

40) Which of the following is an adaptation to increase the surface area of a part of a cell that is involved in cellular respiration? A) the cristae of a mitochondrion B) the outer membrane of a chloroplast C) the grana of a chloroplast D) the endoplasmic reticulum

41) A balloon permeable to water but not to glucose contains a 10% glucose solution. A beaker contains a 5% glucose solution. What will happen when the balloon is submerged in the beaker? A) The volume of water in the beaker will decrease. B) The volume of water in the beaker will increase. C) The amount of glucose in the beaker will increase. D) The amount of glucose in the beaker will decrease.

41) Hypophosphatemia (vitamin D—resistant rickets) is inherited as a sex-linked dominant trait. The relevant gene is found on the X chromosome. What is the expected outcome of a cross between a homozygous recessive woman and a man with hypophosphatemia? A) All of their daughters and none of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia. B) Fifty percent of their daughters and fifty percent of their sons exhibit hypophosphatemia. C) All of their sons and none of their daughters exhibit hypophosphatemia. D) Twenty-five percent of their offspring exhibit hypophosphatemia.

42) On a lab bench, there are four balloons filled with identical volumes of different salt solutions: 0% (balloon A), 5% (balloon B), 10% (balloon C), and 15% (balloon D). There are also four beakers each filled with identical volumes of a 10% salt solution. The balloons are semi-permeable; that is, only water can enter and exit the balloon. All four balloons are placed in separate beakers at the same time and are allowed to come to equilibrium. Which is the correct order of balloon volumes at equilibrium, from largest to smallest? A) A < B < C < D B) D < C < B < A C) D < B < A < C D) All balloons will be of equal volume at equilibrium.

5) A rock on the top of a mountain contains ________ energy. A) potential B) no C) kinetic D) conserved

5) The above figure shows that ________. A) meiosis results in the formation of four haploid daughter cells B) fertilization results in four haploid daughter cells C) the human 2n number is 4 D) meiosis forms diploid gametes

5) Why do you think the bacteria start to decline when treated with antibiotic C but then begin to grow as time goes on? A) Some bacteria with resistance to antibiotic C were selected for over time. B) Additional bacteria were added to the experimental group. C) Antibiotic C degraded and thus was no longer effective. D) This is the normal course of bacterial growth no matter which antibiotic is applied.

6) In eukaryotic cells, what name is given to the region between the nucleus and the plasma membrane? A) cytoplasm B) phospholipid bilayer C) nucleoid D) chloroplast

6) Sister chromatids are joined at the ________. A) centromere B) spindle C) centrosome D) centriole

6) The energy in the proton gradient above is ________. A) potential energy B) sunlight light energy C) sugar energy D) heat energy

6) Through what structure(s) do plants obtain most of their water? A) roots B) interior cells C) stomata D) leaves

6) Which of the following is a producer? A) oak tree B) earthworm C) sun D) cat

7) Plants use photosynthesis to A) store chemical energy, and they use cellular respiration to harvest energy. B) change light energy into chemical energy as well as to harvest chemical energy. C) harvest energy, and they use cellular respiration to store chemical energy. D) change light energy into sugars. Answer: A

7) Which of the following is a measure of randomness in a system? A) entropy B) kinetic energy C) potential energy D) chemical energy

8) Glucose molecules provide energy to power the swimming motion of sperm. In this example, the sperm are changing ________. A) chemical energy into kinetic energy B) chemical energy into potential energy C) kinetic energy into potential energy D) kinetic energy into chemical energy

8) Which of the following is a function of the plasma membrane? A) regulate the traffic of chemicals in and out of the cell B) regulate the production of lipids in the cell C) regulate the production of DNA in and out of the nucleus D) regulate the production of proteins in the cell

9) Relative to prokaryotic cells, eukaryotic cells are usually ________. A) larger and more complex B) smaller and simpler C) larger and equally complex D) smaller and more complex

9) Which of the following are isomers? A) glucose and fructose B) glucose and sucrose C) sucrose and glucose D) lactose and maltose

17) The energy of wavelengths that appear ________ is LEAST useful to photosynthesis. A) red B) green C) blue D) orange

18) How does taxonomy assist biologists? A) by providing easily remembered scientific names for organisms B) by categorizing diverse items into smaller and smaller numbers of groups C) by reducing life to its smallest common denominator, the cell D) all of the above Answer: B

1) In the accompanying art, you see a table with the actual number of offspring that resulted from a dihybrid cross. The numbers do not show the 9:3:3:1 ratio predicted. One phenotype occurred more than predicted; another occurred less. The reason could be because ________. A) of errors in mitosis B) some of the alleles were linked C) some of the alleles were sex-linked D) of polygenic inheritance

1) People with lactose intolerance do not have enough ________. A) lactose B) lactase C) glucose D) fructose

1) Refer to the accompanying figure. Plant cells that contain the organelle responsible for photosynthesis are concentrated in cells of the ________. A) roots B) leaves C) stomata D) grana

1) The best definition of a purebred plant is one that ________. A) cannot be cross-fertilized B) self-fertilizes to produce offspring identical to the parent C) produces sterile offspring when cross-fertilized D) self-fertilizes to produce hybrid offspring

1) What molecules are scientists currently trying to use to power nanotechnology devices, such as microscopic robots? A) DNA B) Enzymes C) Lipids D) Cell membranes

10) Humans are composed of ________ cells. A) bacterial B) eukaryotic C) plant D) prokaryotic

10) In humans, the presence or absence of dimples is a trait controlled by a single gene. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for dimples? A) DD B) Dd C) dd D) DI

10) Which of the following equations best summarizes photosynthesis? A) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O + 6 O2 → C6H12O6 B) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 C) 6 CO2+ 6 O2→ C6H12O6+ 6 H2O

10) Which of the following is a stage of mitosis? A) cytokinesis B) telophase C) interphase D) DNA synthesis

11) You have a 2-kg bottle of liquid water at 0°C. About how many Calories are needed to heat up the water to 100°C? A) 100 Calories B) 200 Calories C) 2,000 Calories D) 10,000 Calories

12) The DNA of a eukaryotic cell is found within the ________. A) archaea B) nucleus C) prokaryotic cell D) insulin

12) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work? A) sugar B) ATP C) DNA D) fat

13) The Calvin cycle is sometimes called the "dark reactions." Could it take place if a plant were grown in the dark continuously? A) No, because plants cannot take in CO2 without sunlight. B) No, because sunlight is needed to split water to provide NADH. C) Yes, because taking in carbon dioxide, the only outside input to the Calvin cycle, does not need sunlight. D) Yes, because plants have stored materials in their roots which can provide what the Calvin cycle needs.

13) ________ store the information necessary to produce proteins. A) Lysosomes B) Genes C) Ribosomes D) Carbohydrates

14) The products of the light reactions of photosynthesis are ________. A) ATP and NADH B) ATP and NADPH C) RuBP and O2 D) ATP and NADP+

14) Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide? A) glucose B) starch C) maltose D) sucrose

15) An individual with the genotype AaBb produces four different gametes in equal proportions. This is a demonstration of ________. A) the chromosomal theory of inheritance B) Mendel's law of independent assortment C) linkage D) Mendel's principle of segregation

15) Animals store carbohydrates as ________. A) cellulose B) glycogen C) starch D) maltose

15) During cellular respiration, electrons move through a series of electron acceptor molecules. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about this process? A) The electrons gain energy as they move from one electron acceptor to another. B) Oxygen is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water. C) The electrons release large amounts of energy each time they are transferred from one electron acceptor to another. D) Glucose is eventually reduced by the electrons to form water.

15) The color that we see when looking at a pigmented object is ________. A) the wavelengths that are absorbed by the pigmented object B) the wavelengths that are reflected or transmitted by the pigmented object C) the wavelengths that have been raised to an excited state by the pigmented object D) the wavelengths that the pigmented object created after interacting with sunlight

16) More than half of all known species are ________. A) plants B) insects C) bacteria D) vertebrates

16) Most human cells contain ________ chromosomes. A) 36 B) 46 C) 2 D) 23

16) To determine the phenotype of an individual who expresses a dominant trait, you would cross that individual with an individual who ________. A) expresses the dominant trait B) is homozygous recessive for that trait C) is homozygous dominant for that trait D) is heterozygous for that trait

17) A couple has two female children. What is the probability that their next child will be male? A) 25% B) 50% C) 33% D) 67%

17) Taxonomy is the ________. A) study of cells B) naming and classifying of species C) study of organisms and their interaction with the environment D) study of genes

18) In humans, free earlobes (E) are dominant to attached earlobes (e) and the presence of freckles (F) is dominant to the absence of freckles (f). If an individual heterozygous for both of these traits were to mate with an individual with attached earlobes and no freckles, what is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes and freckles? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 100%

18) Sometimes when I have my morning coffee, which I drink black with no cream or sugar, I notice a thin film floating on top of the coffee. Since I have just read Chapter 3 of the text, I now realize the nature of this substance and so I run to my friend screaming, "Look at this ________ in my coffee!" A) hydrophilic substance B) hydrophobic substance C) disaccharide D) polysaccharide

18) The final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration is ________. A) ATP B) oxygen C) lactic acid D) NAD+

19) What data or test would you seek to determine whether or not a trait is sex linked? A) karyotype B) pedigree C) DNA sequence D) blood test

19) What is one reason why plants have accessory pigment molecules, like chlorophyll b and carotenoids? A) to reflect more energy B) to absorb energy in parts of the electromagnetic spectrum that chlorophyll a cannot C) to give them different colors D) because plants cannot make enough chlorophyll a for all of their energy needs

2) A mating between a purebred purple-flowered pea plant and a purebred white-flowered pea plant would produce a(n) ________. A) purebred variety B) hybrid C) P generation D) F2 generation

2) As shown in the following figure, plant cell cytokinesis differs from animal cell cytokinesis because ________. A) plant cells produce more daughter cells B) plant cells form a cell plate and animal cells do not C) animal cells produce more daughter cells D) animal cells form a cell plate and plant cells do not

2) Examine the cells below. Cells with a higher concentration of ions than the surrounding medium tend to ________. A) stay about the same size and shape B) expand C) shrink D) divide

2) If a person eats one hard-boiled egg and digests the egg fully, cellular respiration will convert most of this energy into ________. A) ATP B) heat C) carbon dioxide D) sugars

2) In the accompanying figure, the molecule that makes up the bulk of the mass of the plant comes in mostly ________. A) through the veins, which bring materials from the roots B) through the transparent covering of the leaf into the photosynthetic cells C) through the stomata D) from the roots where they are stored during the night

2) What is energy? A) the capacity to cause movement B) the capacity to cause change C) a measure of calories D) a measure of disorder

2) When oxygen delivery becomes insufficient to support a runner's aerobic metabolism, cells switch to an emergency mode in which ________. A) ATP is generated less efficiently by harvesting the heat energy in a cell B) ATP is inefficiently produced and lactic acid is generated as a by-product C) lactic acid is broken down to produce smaller amounts of ATP D) carbon dioxide is joined with water to generate much smaller amounts of ATP

2) With respect to her sex chromosomes, Amanda would be designated as ________. A) XYY B) XO C) XOY D) XX

20) The ________ is most commonly found in nature. A) recessive trait B) wild-type trait C) parental type D) dominant trait

20) Which component of the following reaction is the enzyme? sucrose + sucrase + water → sucrase + glucose + fructose A) sucrose B) sucrase C) glucose D) fructose

21) A newly discovered multicellular organism obtains food by digesting dead organisms. Such an organism is most likely a member of the kingdom ________. A) Plantae B) Fungi C) Protista D) Animalia

21) An individual heterozygous for cystic fibrosis ________. A) cannot have children with cystic fibrosis B) is a carrier C) will have children who are all carriers of cystic fibrosis D) has cystic fibrosis

21) What chromosomes belong to a normal human female? A) 22 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes B) 44 autosomes and 2 X chromosomes C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome D) 46 autosomes and two X chromosomes

22) Achondroplasia is a form of dwarfism caused by a dominant allele. The homozygous dominant genotype causes death, so individuals who have this condition are all heterozygotes. If a person with achondroplasia mates with a person who does not have achondroplasia, what percentage of their children would be expected to have achondroplasia? A) 0% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100%

22) Members of the kingdom Plantae differ from members of the other kingdoms of Eukarya in that most members of the kingdom Plantae ________. A) are decomposers B) are unicellular C) are consumers D) produce their own food

22) Which of the following is a result of glycolysis? A) production of CO2 B) conversion of glucose to pyruvic acid C) a net loss of two ATPs per glucose molecule D) conversion of NADH to NAD+

23) Based on its function in detoxifying drugs, you would expect to find a large amount of smooth ER in ________ cells. A) brain B) liver C) intestinal D) muscle

23) The second stage of aerobic respiration is ________. A) ATP production B) the citric acid cycle C) lactic acid fermentation D) glycolysis

24) Substances that plug up an enzyme's active site are ________. A) enzyme substrates B) enzyme inhibitors C) enzyme catalysts D) enzyme products

24) Where are photosystems located? A) chlorophyll B) thylakoid membrane C) mitochondria D) stroma

25) An individual with (naturally) curly hair and an individual with (naturally) straight hair mate; all of their offspring have (naturally) wavy hair. What is the relationship between the alleles for hair texture? A) pleiotropy B) incomplete dominance C) wavy hair dominant to both straight and curly hair D) codominance

3) This pedigree supports the fact that widow's peak is due to a dominant allele, because if it were due to a recessive allele and both parents show the recessive phenotype, then ________. A) half of the sons would have a widow's peak B) all of the offspring would have a widow's peak C) none of the daughters would have a widow's peak D) all of the daughters and none of the sons would have a widow's peak

30) Tay-Sachs disease results from ________ lacking a specific type of lipid-digesting enzyme. A) the Golgi apparatus B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) the endoplasmic reticulum

31) In humans, the inheritance of ________ is best explained as being polygenic. A) cystic fibrosis B) height C) blood type D) sickle-cell disease

32) A protein's function is most dependent on its ________. A) pH B) shape C) size D) weight

32) Anaerobic respiration produces a maximum of ________ ATP per glucose. A) 0 B) 2 C) 10 D) 38

32) C4 plants conserve water by ________. A) shuttling CO2 from the Calvin cycle to the water-splitting photosystem B) keeping their stomata closed when the weather is hot and dry C) growing very deep roots D) running the Calvin cycle at night

32) Many human traits, such as our performance on intelligence tests or our susceptibility to heart disease, are ________. A) determined only by our genes B) influenced by both genes and the environment C) determined by genes in some people and by the environment in other people D) not affected by our genes

33) Some protozoans have special organelles called contractile vacuoles that continually eliminate excess water from the cell. The presence of these organelles tells you that the environment ________. A) is isotonic to the protozoan B) is hypotonic to the protozoan C) is hypertonic to the protozoan D) contains a higher concentration of solutes than the protozoan

34) Plant cells, unlike animal cells, are characterized by the presence of a ________. A) cell wall and a contractile vacuole B) cell wall and a central vacuole C) nucleus and a cell wall D) nucleus and a contractile vacuole

34) ________ genes violate Mendel's principle of independent assortment. A) Codominant B) Linked C) Recessive D) Pleiotropic

35) Cells in the thyroid gland produce and secrete thyroid hormone (a polymer of amino acids) that helps to regulate metabolism. What organelle is most likely abundant in cells of the thyroid gland? A) mitochondria B) rough endoplasmic reticulum C) free ribosomes D) lysosomes

35) Some friends are trying to make wine in their basement. They've added yeast to a sweet grape juice mixture and have allowed the yeast to grow. After several days, they find that sugar levels in the grape juice have dropped, but there's no alcohol in the mixture. The most likely explanation is that ________. A) the mixture needs more sugar; yeast need a lot of energy before they can begin to produce alcohol B) the mixture needs less oxygen; yeast only produce alcohol in the absence of oxygen C) the mixture needs more oxygen; yeast need oxygen to break down sugar to produce alcohol D) the mixture needs less sugar; high sugar concentrations stimulate cellular respiration, and alcohol is not a by-product of cellular respiration

36) A dihybrid cross produces 30 recombinant offspring out of a total of 1,000 offspring. What is the recombination frequency of the two gene pairs? A) 6% B) 3% C) 30% D) 1.5%

36) DNA nucleotides include ________. A) uracil, guanine, adenine, and cytosine B) thymine, guanine, adenine, and cytosine C) thymine, uracil, adenine, and cytosine D) thymine, guanine, adenine, and uracil

36) You try to start your car, but it does not start. Which of these is a prediction? A) My car's battery is dead. B) If I recharge the battery, then my car will start. C) My car is too old to function properly. D) What is wrong with my car?

37) The recombination frequency between gene B and gene C is 11%. The recombination frequency between gene B and gene D is 5%. The recombination frequency between gene C and gene D is 15%. What would be the arrangement of these genes on a linkage map? A) CDB B) DBC C) BCD D) More information is needed.

39) Cellular respiration can be described as the conversion of the energy ________. A) of sunlight to energy stored in organic compounds B) stored in food molecules to energy stored in ATP C) stored in ATP to energy stored in food molecules D) stored in ATP to energy used to do work

39) Certain cells that line the stomach synthesize a digestive enzyme and secrete it into the stomach. Which of the following processes could be responsible for its secretion? A) endocytosis B) exocytosis C) phagocytosis D) passive transport

39) In Texas, a man showed up at a medical facility claiming that he felt drunk when he had not ingested any alcohol. Indeed his blood alcohol measured 0.37, many times the legal limit. Although he was a home brewer, he claimed that this intoxication had been happening often without his drinking any alcohol. Which of these hypotheses and actions might be most useful in diagnosing this problem? A) His home brew concoctions have created a type of alcohol that lasts a long time. Have him refrain from home brewing for a week and recheck his blood alcohol. B) He might have recently had a round of antibiotics that killed the bacteria that usually live in his gut and allowed a yeast species to overgrow. Put him on probiotics and a low carb diet for a week and recheck his blood alcohol. C) The fumes from the alcohol that he is using as a cleaning solution might be getting into his bloodstream. Ask him if he is using alcohol externally. D) Maybe he feels drunk because he has been eating mushrooms that have sprouted during this very wet weather. Check him for fungal toxins.

4) Running burns approximately 600 Calories per hour. If you ate four hard-boiled eggs, how long would you have to run to burn them off? A) 10 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 60 minutes D) 120 minutes

4) The light reactions are generally presented in zig-zag patterns, as shown in the accompanying figure. What is the significance of the primary electron receptor shown at position 2 being slightly higher than the primary electron receptor shown at position 3? A) The electron that has been accepted gains energy as it leaves the primary electron receptor at 2 and heads to the primary electron receptor at position 3. B) The primary electron receptor at 2 has slightly less energy than the primary electron receptor at position 3. C) The primary electron receptor at position 2 comes before the primary electron receptor at position 3. D) Since electrons have given off energy in the electron transport chain, they can be boosted higher by the second photosystem.

4) The principle that energy cannot be created or destroyed is known as ________. A) cellular respiration B) conservation of energy C) conservation of heat D) entropy

4) What are (is) the main factor(s) causing differences between the chick hatch weight and the weight of the egg when it is laid? A) The only factor that causes the chick to weigh less than the egg when it is laid is the removal of the shell. B) Not only does the hatchling have no shell, but it has lost some of its mass (weight) to the air during development. C) During development, the chick gains new parts so the weight increases. D) Egg weight at oviposition includes a lot of water that evaporates during development.

4) What are the two main processes upon which ecosystems depend? A) speciation and evolution B) nutrient recycling and energy flow C) decomposition and nutrient recycling D) sunlight and photosynthesis

4) What would genetic counselors say is the probability that the second child will have the disease? A) 1/2 B) 1/4 C) 1/8 D) 1/16

4) ________ is a hydroxyl group. A) -NH2 B) -OH C) -COOH D) -H

40) A DNA molecule has the sequence AGTTCAACT. The equivalent RNA molecule would have the sequence ________. A) AGTTCAACT B) AGUUCAACU C) UGTTCUUCT D) UGUUCUUCU

42) Which of these results would you predict to occur if climate change results in increased warming global temperatures? A) Species competition will result in slower evolution in the tropics. B) The tree line (at which it is too cold for trees to grow) moves toward the north and south poles. C) Winters will be longer toward the poles. D) Land animals will suffer fewer consequences than marine animals.

5) In the following reaction, galactose is a ________. galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) polysaccharide B) monomer C) polymer D) protein

5) One difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells ________ prokaryotic cells. A) have DNA, which is lacking in B) have membrane-enclosed structures called organelles, which are lacking in C) have a plasma membrane, which is lacking in D) have a nucleoid region, which is lacking in

5) The figure below shows that ________. A) amino acids can move directly into the electron transport chain B) our cells can use sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids to produce ATP C) our cells can produce ATP only from glucose D) our cells can produce ATP from sugars and glycerol, but not fatty acids

5) What statement regarding this data is TRUE? A) The weight of the tumors will not change if not treated with Dox or Dox + ATP. B) Tumor weight decreases when you add Dox only to cancer cells. C) Adding Dox only or Dox + ATP result in similar decreases in tumor weight. D) Dox is entering the cancer cells via endocytosis to induce cell death.

5) Which of the following is NOT recycled but is lost from ecosystems? A) nitrogen B) energy C) magnesium D) carbon

6) If the proportion of brightly colored male lizards increased steadily in future generations, this would ________. A) reject the original hypothesis B) be an example of evolution due to natural selection C) illustrate the relationship between structure and function D) demonstrate the flow of energy through a system

6) The 2n number for the cell depicted here is ________. A) one B) two C) four D) eight

6) Which of these shown in the figure below does NOT begin cellular respiration in the cytoplasm? A) amino acids B) fatty acids C) glucose D) glycerol

7) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes? A) 2:1 B) 1:1 C) 1:2:1 D) 3:1

7) What name is given to the following reaction? sucrose + water → glucose + fructose A) hydrogenation B) hydrolysis C) glycolysis D) dehydration

7) Which of the following occurs during interphase? A) Chromatin becomes tightly coiled. B) Chromosome duplication occurs. C) Sister chromatids separate. D) The mitotic spindle forms.

8) Carbohydrates typically include ________. A) an NH2 group B) C, H, and O atoms C) N and S atoms D) a PO4 group

8) Mendel crossed purebred purple-flowered plants with purebred white-flowered plants, and all of the resulting offspring produced purple flowers. The offspring are all ________, and the allele for purple flowers is ________. A) heterozygotes... recessive B) heterozygotes... dominant C) homozygotes... recessive D) homozygotes... dominant

8) Which of the following structures can perform all the activities required for life? A) DNA molecules B) cells C) organelles D) nuclei

8) Which of these could lead to the mistake evident in the karyotype? A) a failure of cytokinesis after meiosis I in gamete formation B) a nondisjunction in meiosis II in gamete formation C) crossing over in meiosis I in gamete formation D) fertilization by two sperm in zygote formation

9) Humans convert approximately ________ of the energy stored in food to useful work. A) 22% B) 34% C) 55% D) 99.9%

9) Plant cells ________. A) do not need chloroplasts because their mitochondria meet their energy needs B) have chloroplasts and mitochondria C) use carbon dioxide but do not use oxygen D) do not need mitochondria because their chloroplasts meet their energy needs

14) Which of the following are produced as a result of cellular respiration? A) ATP and water B) carbon dioxide and ATP C) carbon dioxide, water, and ATP D) oxygen and glucose

1) A(n) ________ is an example of an organism that can sometimes reproduce asexually by parthenogenesis. A) cat B) human C) Komodo dragon D) mouse

1) Examine the two sugars in the following figure. How do these two sugars compare? A) Glucose has more hydrogen. B) Glucose has more double bonds. C) They have the same formula but different structures. D) They are structurally identical in every way.

1) Lactic acid build up in muscles is a sign that ________. A) aerobic respiration capacity has not been reached B) respiration is operating effectively C) insufficient oxygen is reaching the muscles D) the muscles will be able to operate continuously for a long time

1) Mary has the genotype ________. A) WW B) ww C) Ww D) More information is needed.

1) Using the figure below for a reference, approximately how many times larger is a nucleus compared to a protein? A) 10 times larger B) 100 times larger C) 1,000 times larger D) 10,000 times larger

1) Which cookies are less healthy? A) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more saturated fat. B) The chocolate mint cookies because they contain more total grams of protein and carbohydrates. C) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more trans fat. D) The peanut butter cookies because they contain more grams of carbohydrates.

1) Which wavelength is best for your plants' growth? A) 650 nm B) 550 nm C) 500 nm D) 400 nm

10) The first step of the Calvin cycle is the incorporation of ________ into ________. A) O2... G3P B) RuBP... O2 C) CO2... RuBP D) G3P... RuBP

11) An individual who is homozygous ________. A) expresses the dominant trait B) carries two different alleles for a gene C) carries two copies of the same allele for a gene D) expresses the recessive trait

11) In the following equation, lactose is a ________. galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) nucleic acid B) fatty acid C) disaccharide D) dipeptide

11) The last stage of one complete turn of the Calvin cycle involves ________. A) G3P production B) oxidation of CO2 C) regeneration of RuBP D) sugar production

11) What compound directly provides energy for cellular work? A) C6H12O6 B) glucose C) ATP D) fat

12) If an herbicide blocked the Calvin cycle before the generation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), which of the following statements would be TRUE? A) The plant would still be able to make sugar, just a lot less. B) No oxygen would be released by the plant. C) No sugar would be made by the plant. D) Only RuBP would be recycled.

12) Table sugar is ________. A) glucose, a monosaccharide B) glucose, a disaccharide C) sucrose, a monosaccharide D) sucrose, a disaccharide

13) The Calvin cycle requires ________ and ________ from the light reactions in order to operate. A) glucose... carbon dioxide B) electrons... NADH C) ATP... NADPH D) RuBP... NADP+

13) Which of these equations describes aerobic cellular respiration? A) glucose → lactic acid + energy B) energy + carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen + water C) glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water + energy D) none of the above

14) The nuclear envelope is composed of ________. A) chromatin B) DNA C) a double membrane D) carbohydrates

15) The human genome consists of about ________ chemical letters. A) 300,000 B) 1 million C) 3 billion D) 300 billion

16) Which of the following statements is TRUE? A) Oxygen is a product of cellular respiration; carbon dioxide is a product of photosynthesis. B) Lactic acid is a product of aerobic respiration; ethyl alcohol is a product of fermentation. C) Oxidation is the loss of electrons; reduction is the gain of electrons. D) Glucose is a product of aerobic respiration; lactic acid is a product of anaerobic respiration.

17) Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction by ________. A) increasing the temperature of the substrates B) contributing electrons to the reaction C) decreasing activation energy D) changing the pH of the environment

17) The first electron acceptor of cellular respiration is ________. A) CO2 B) O2 C) NAD+ D) H2O

17) What is the difference between a benign and a malignant tumor? A) Benign tumors are composed of cancer cells; malignant tumors are not. B) Benign tumors are not the result of a failure of a cell cycle control system; malignant tumors are. C) Benign tumors do not metastasize; malignant tumors do. D) Benign tumors do not form lumps; malignant tumors do form lumps.

18) What is responsible for the yellow-orange coloration of leaves in the fall? A) RuBP B) chlorophyll a C) carotenoids D) chlorophyll b

18) Which of the following will help prevent cancer and increase survival? A) Eat a low-fiber, low-fat diet. B) Limit exercise. C) Seek early detection of tumors. D) Smoke only cigarettes.

18) Which one of the following is TRUE? A) Enzymes are the products in a chemical reaction. B) Enzymes are the reactants in a chemical reaction. C) Enzymes catalyze specific reactions. D) Enzymes' functions require inhibitors.

19) An enzyme's function is most dependent on its ________. A) pH B) temperature C) shape D) size

19) Where does protein synthesis take place? A) in the nucleolus B) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) on ribosomes D) in the nucleus

2) Examine the figure above. Most of the mass of the tree shown in the figure comes from ________. A) water B) glucose C) the air D) the soil

2) In the process of evolution by natural selection illustrated in the accompanying figure, which of the following is the mechanism or agent of natural selection? A) artificial selection B) selective breeding C) selective predation D) genetic drift

2) Of the following, which wavelength is LEAST useful to your plants? A) 650 nm B) 450 nm C) 550 nm D) 400 nm

2) Ordinary cell division produces two daughter cells that are genetically identical. This type of cell division is important for all of the following functions EXCEPT ________. A) growth of a multicellular organism B) cell replacement C) production of sperm and eggs D) asexual reproduction

2) The figure below shows ________. A) a single strand of RNA B) double-stranded RNA C) a single strand of DNA D) double-stranded DNA

2) Which of the following is a characteristic of chloroplasts that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria? A) Chloroplasts have cell walls. B) Chloroplasts contain pigments. C) Chloroplasts have their own DNA. D) A single, highly folded plasma membrane surrounds chloroplasts.

20) What chromosomes belong to a normal human male? A) 22 autosomes and two Y chromosomes B) 44 autosomes and two Y chromosomes C) 44 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome D) 46 autosomes, one X chromosome, and one Y chromosome

20) What name is given to a discrete packet of light? A) phaser B) wavelength C) photon D) quantum

21) Saturated fats are saturated with ________. A) carbon B) nitrogen C) hydrogen D) oxygen

22) By definition, what type of fatty acid has double bonds? A) steroid B) triglyceride C) unsaturated D) saturated

23) Which of the following is lowest in unsaturated fats? A) beef B) salmon C) corn oil D) canola oil

23) Which of the following techniques is used to collect fetal cells during pregnancy for genetic testing? A) testcross B) dihybrid cross C) amniocentesis D) pedigree analysis

24) A fat that is hydrogenated is ________. A) more unsaturated B) easier to digest C) more solid D) less likely to cause strokes

24) Functions of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum include ________. A) steroid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification B) lipid synthesis, protein synthesis, and drug detoxification C) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and drug detoxification D) lipid synthesis, steroid synthesis, and storage of genetic information

25) What structures move proteins from the ER to the Golgi apparatus? A) transport proteins B) central vacuole C) transport vesicles D) nucleolus

25) Which of the following is a health effect of a diet high in saturated fats? A) increased risk of infectious disease B) decreased risk of atherosclerosis C) increased risk of heart attack D) decreased risk of stroke

26) The light reactions of photosynthesis take place ________. A) in the stroma B) in the mitochondria C) in the thylakoid membrane D) in the cytosol

27) Upon completion of telophase I and cytokinesis, there is(are) ________ cell(s). A) four haploid B) two diploid C) two haploid D) one diploid

28) Lysosomes are responsible for ________. A) lipid synthesis B) cellular respiration C) digestion of organic matter inside the cell D) protein synthesis

29) Aerobic cellular respiration generates about ________ ATP from one glucose. A) 2 B) 6 C) 38 D) The number generated depends on whether the end product of aerobic respiration is lactic acid or ethyl alcohol.

29) If a cell's lysosomes burst, the cell would ________. A) shrivel B) divide into two cells C) digest itself D) need to manufacture more lysosomes Answer: C

29) Marfan syndrome is the result of inheriting a single allele. Individuals with Marfan syndrome are tall and long-limbed, and have both cardiovascular and eye defects. Of what type of inheritance is the phenotype of Marfan syndrome an example? A) codominance B) homozygous recessive C) pleiotropy D) incomplete dominance

3) Alleles are described as ________. A) homologous chromosomes B) environmental factors that affect gene expression C) alternate versions of a gene D) alternate phenotypes

3) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which of the following is TRUE regarding the behavior of a chlorophyll molecule as it absorbs a photon? A) An electron goes from the excited state to the ground state. B) Light is released. C) The energy of a photon raises an electron to the excited state. D) ATP is broken down

3) The amount of dietary Calories in one hard-boiled egg could raise the temperature of ________. A) 75 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius B) 750 grams of water by 1 degree Celsius C) 1,000 grams of water by 75 degrees Celsius D) 7,500 grams of water by 50 degrees Celsius

3) The following molecule is best described as a(n) ________. CH3-CH2-CH2-CH2 A) protein B) carbohydrate C) organic compound D) inorganic compound

3) Which of the following is a characteristic of mitochondria that suggests that they might have evolved from free-living bacteria? A) Mitochondria have cell walls. B) The plasma membrane of a mitochondrion, forming the surface of this organelle, is the site of many important steps of cellular respiration. C) Mitochondria have their own DNA. D) Mitochondria rely upon proteins as their source of energy

3) Which of the following is the hypothesis of this case study? A) Male collared lizards exhibit color variation. B) Dull-colored males are less likely to be eaten by predators. C) A function of male coloration is to attract females. D) Males prefer brightly colored females.

30) What is the difference between discovery science and hypothesis-driven science? A) Discovery science "discovers" new knowledge, whereas hypothesis-driven science does not. B) Discovery science is based on deductive reasoning, whereas hypothesis-driven science is based on inductive reasoning. C) Discovery science is mostly about describing nature, whereas hypothesis-driven science tries to explain nature. D) Discovery science involves predictions about outcomes, whereas hypothesis-driven science involves tentative answers to specific questions.

31) What is the name given to the reaction that breaks peptide bonds? A) dehydration B) hydrogenation C) hydrolysis D) glycolysis

32) A protist that contains contractile vacuoles most likely lives ________. A) in a marine environment B) within the cells of another organism C) in fresh water D) in ice

32) Which of the following is the best description of the events of anaphase I? A) Half of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole along with half of the chromosomes inherited from the father. B) Sister chromatids separate and the daughter chromosomes migrate to opposite poles. C) Homologous chromosomes randomly separate and migrate to opposite poles. D) All of the chromosomes inherited from the mother go to one pole of the cell, and all of the chromosomes inherited from the father go to the other pole

33) For a species with four pairs of chromosomes, ________ chromosome combinations are possible. A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 20

34) Scientists are working to create a better biofuel factory through which of the following processes? A) increasing the rate at which certain algae reproduce B) developing strains of algae that can clean up oil spills C) increasing the genetic diversity of groups of algae D) restricting hydrocarbon production

37) How many chromosomes does an individual with Turner syndrome have? A) 2n + 1 B) n + 1 C) 2n − 1 D) n − 1

37) Large amounts of oxygen gas first appeared in Earth's atmosphere about ________ years ago. A) 500,000 B) 10 million C) 2.7 billion D) 3.5 billion

37) Which of the following are the proper components of the scientific method? A) experiment, conclusion, application B) question, observation, experiment, analysis, prediction C) observation, question, hypothesis, prediction, experiment, results, conclusion D) observation, question, opinion, conclusion, hypothesis

38) Sexual reproduction appears to be absent in bdelloid rotifers. Which of these, if found in this group, would bring into question the idea that they reproduce ONLY asexually? A) female rotifers with eggs B) significant differences of two different alleles among different populations (one population having mostly allele A and one having mostly a). C) cells in which meiosis occurs D) related groups (not bdelloid rotifers) which reproduce both sexually and asexually.

39) How does RNA differ from DNA? A) RNA is double-stranded; DNA is single-stranded. B) RNA is a polymer of amino acids; DNA is a polymer of nucleotides. C) RNA contains uracil; DNA contains thymine. D) In RNA G pairs with T; in DNA G pairs with C.

39) Which of these describes the type of reproduction that is most adaptive in a rapidly changing environment with many different parasitic diseases present? A) asexual reproduction because the currently successful genotypes can reproduce quickly B) asexual reproduction, because asexual reproduction uses less energy, which leaves more for each individual to adapt to the changing environment C) sexual reproduction because the diversity of genotypes increases the likelihood that there is one which can survive in a new environment D) sexual reproduction because this type of reproduction allows the production of a greater number of offspring thus providing more individuals to take advantage of any environmental challenges presented

4) "Male collared lizards show considerable color variation." This is a(n) ________. A) hypothesis B) conclusion C) observation D) result

4) A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The seeds of all of the offspring are yellow. Why? A) The yellow allele is recessive to the green allele. B) All of the offspring are homozygous yellow. C) The yellow allele is dominant to the green allele. D) The alleles are codominant.

4) Photosynthetic organisms are ________. A) producers that make all of their organic matter from organic molecules that they take in B) consumers that obtain organic molecules from other living organisms C) producers that make all their own organic matter from inorganic molecules D) decomposers that obtain nutrients from the soil

4) What is the chromosome number found in humans cells after meiosis I is completed? A) 46 autosomes B) 43 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes C) 22 autosomes and a sex chromosome D) 44 autosomes and 2 sex chromosomes

4) Within the inner membrane of a chloroplast, interconnected sacs of membrane called ________ are suspended in a thick fluid called the ________. A) chlorophyll... thylakoid B) thylakoids... grana C) thylakoids... stroma D) grana... thylakoid

40) Red-green color blindness is inherited as a sex-linked recessive trait. The gene is found on the X chromosome. Can a man with normal color vision father a daughter who is red-green color-blind? A) Yes, if the woman with whom he mates is red-green color-blind. B) Yes, if the man is heterozygous for red-green color blindness. C) No, he can't (unless there is a mutation). D) No, the expression of the trait skips a generation.

41) Information flow in biological systems is necessary for negative or regulative feedback to operate. Which of these examples does NOT involve flow of information providing feedback? A) Heat receptors send signals to promote sweating. B) Low blood sugar causes the liver to convert starch to sugar to be released in the blood. C) Drought kills many trees. D) Bacterial genes for breaking down lactose are activated in the presence of lactose.

41) The ability to tolerate lactose throughout life most likely arose in ________. A) populations that live in cold climates B) populations that live in wet climates C) cultures that keep dairy herds D) Native Americans

43) Which of the following molecules spontaneously form membranes when mixed in water and most likely were one of the first organic compounds formed on Earth? A) DNA B) Enzymes C) Phospholipids D) RNA

5) A purebred plant that produces yellow seeds is crossed with a purebred plant that produces green seeds. The F1 plants have yellow seeds. What is the expected phenotypic ratio of seed color of the offspring of an F1 × F1 cross? A) 1:2:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 9:3:3:1

6) A horse eating some hay is an example of ________. A) an autotroph eating a producer B) an autotroph eating a consumer C) a consumer eating a producer D) a consumer eating a heterotroph

6) According to Mendel's law of segregation, ________. A) two alleles segregate into each gamete B) more gametes carrying the dominant allele are produced than gametes carrying the recessive allele C) gametes have one allele copy for each gene D) gametes are diploid

6) Shade-tolerant plants have many adaptations for living in areas of low light. Predict whether each of the following processes would be high or low in comparison with other plants and choose the answer that is most CORRECT. Density of stomata on leaves Leaf size Carbohydrate storage A) High, high, high B) High, high, low C) Low, high, high D) Low, high, low

6) You are riding on your bike and stop pedaling, coasting along the road. Eventually, your bike slows down and stops. What happened to the energy of your motion when your bike stopped? A) It was returned to the bicycle. B) It was converted back to chemical energy. C) It was released as heat. D) It was used to chemically break down the tires.

7) Humans are ________. A) producers B) producers and consumers C) consumers D) producers and decomposers

7) What name is given to the membranous sacs found within a chloroplast? A) stroma B) mitochondria C) thylakoids D) vesicles

8) The mitotic cell cycle results in the production of ________. A) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information B) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information C) two cells, each with the same amount of genetic material and the same genetic information D) four cells, each with the same amount of genetic material but with different genetic information

8) The waste products of cellular respiration include ________. A) water only B) carbon dioxide only C) water and carbon dioxide D) water and glucose

8) What are grana? A) thick fluids inside chloroplasts B) convolutions of the inner chloroplast membrane C) stacks of membranous sacs D) pigments found in chloroplasts

9) Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What is the probability of having a child with attached earlobes when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes? A) 0% B) 25% C) 50% D) 75%

9) If you provided your shade-tolerant plants with their preferred wavelength of light, but only minimal amounts of water, which of the following would you expect to occur? A) increased plant growth B) increased amounts of oxygen released by the plants C) decreased amounts of ATP being produced by the plants D) increased growth of the plants' leaves

9) One of the compounds that is a direct output of the Calvin cycle is ________. A) C6H12O6 B) NADPH C) G3P D) ATP

1) Examine the figure above. Which of the following reactant(s) primarily come(s) from the air? A) water B) glucose C) carbon dioxide D) oxygen and carbon dioxide

1) Examine the figure below. Nucleosomes are made of ________. A) RNA and protein B) DNA C) proteins D) DNA and histone proteins

1) In what way(s) is the science of biology influencing and changing our culture? A) by helping us understand the relevance of evolution to human health B) by revealing how mutations in genes can lead to disease C) by providing new tools for forensic investigations D) all of the above

1) Plants are susceptible to bacterial infections, which can damage their structure or even kill them. Which of the following would be the best antibiotic to treat a plant that is infected with bacteria? A) a drug that interferes with mitochondria function B) a drug that disrupts cell wall structure and function C) a drug that destroys the central vacuole D) a drug that blocks gene expression in circular chromosomes

1) Using the branching tree of life for bears depicted in the accompanying figure, choose from among the following bear species the one that is most distantly related to the sun bear. A) brown bear B) sloth bear C) spectacled bear D) giant panda

1) What evidence suggests that mitochondria might have evolved before chloroplasts? A) Mitochondria can sometimes divide to produce chloroplasts. B) Only mitochondria have their own DNA. C) Some mitochondria have chloroplasts inside of them. D) Almost all eukaryotes have mitochondria but only some cells have chloroplasts.

1) Which of these is NOT considered an advantage of biofuels from food crops? A) reduced carbon emissions B) a renewable resource C) increased fuel efficiency D) increased crop prices

11) In photosynthesis, redox reactions ultimately transfer electrons from ________ to ________. A) O2... CO2 B) C6H12O6... O2 C) H2O... C6H12O6 D) H2O... CO2

11) What name is given to the functional compartments of a cell? A) genomes B) nuclei C) genes D) organelles

12) During metaphase, ________. A) the nuclear envelope breaks up B) sister chromatids separate C) centromeres divide

13) Energy is transferred from ATP to other molecules by transferring a(n) ________. A) adenosine B) heat unit C) ADP D) phosphate group

13) For good health, it is important to include ________ in our diets. A) fructose B) monosaccharides C) disaccharides D) polysaccharides

13) What are eukaryotic genes composed of? A) RNA B) organelles C) RNA and DNA D) DNA

14) Round seeds (R) are dominant to wrinkled seeds (r), and yellow seeds (Y) are dominant to green seeds (y). What is the expected phenotypic ratio of a cross between an RrYy and an rryy individual? A) 1:2:1 B) 9:3:3:1 C) 3:1 D) 1:1:1:1

14) What is a gene? A) a type of eukaryotic cell B) an organelle that houses DNA C) a type of prokaryotic cell D) a unit of inheritance

15) A cell that completed the cell cycle without undergoing cytokinesis would ________. A) have less genetic material than it started with B) not have completed anaphase C) have its chromosomes lined up in the middle of the cell D) have two nuclei

15) Usually, enzymes are ________. A) fats B) steroids C) chemical reactions D) proteins

2) The manufacturer of the chocolate mint cookies changed the ingredients of its cookies. Each serving now has 1 gram of saturated fat (4 fewer grams), 4 grams of trans fat (4 more grams), 21 grams of carbohydrates (1 fewer gram), and 11 grams of protein (no change). Do you think that the manufacturer made these cookies healthier? A) No, because they now have less saturated fat. B) Yes, because they now have less saturated fat. C) Yes, because they now have fewer grams of carbohydrates. D) No, because they now have more grams of trans fat.

20) What name is given to the following reaction? glycerol + 3 fatty acids → triglyceride + 3 water molecules A) glycolysis B) hydrolysis C) hydrogenation D) dehydration

20) Which kingdom of Eukarya consists primarily of unicellular organisms? A) Plantae B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Protista

21) A product of glycolysis is ________. A) lactic acid B) ethyl alcohol C) O2 D) pyruvic acid

21) The endomembrane system includes ________. A) ribosomes, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi apparatus, nucleolus, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum C) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, ribosomes, and the endoplasmic reticulum D) Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vacuoles, and the endoplasmic reticulum

21) The shorter the wavelength of visible light, the ________. A) less energy absorbed by photosynthetic pigments B) redder the color C) more photons it contains D) greater the energy

22) Chromosomes that do NOT determine the sex of an individual are called ________. A) homologous chromosomes B) nonhomologous chromosomes C) sex chromosomes D) autosomes

22) When a molecule absorbs a photon, one of its electrons is raised to the ________ state. A) energetic B) quantum C) positive D) excited

23) Which of the following is a way that a molecule releases energy gained by absorption of a photon? A) heat B) fluorescence C) light D) all of the above

24) Which of these is most closely associated with Darwin? A) energy flow B) ecosystem structure C) the three domains of life D) natural selection

25) In aerobic respiration, how many molecules of acetic acid are produced from six molecules of glucose? A) 1 B) 38 C) 6 D) 12

25) What compound is found at the reaction center of a photosystem? A) chlorophyll b B) carotenoids C) phycobilins D) chlorophyll a

25) Which of these is required for natural selection to occur? A) inheritance B) unequal reproductive success C) individual variation D) all of the above

26) Diffusion is an example of ________. A) phagocytosis B) active transport C) endocytosis D) passive transport

26) ________ is a steroid. A) Butter B) Sucrose C) Amino acid D) Estrogen

27) A friend of yours appears to have put on a lot of muscle very quickly. At the same time, you notice that your friend seems to have a lot of mood swings and appears depressed. It is reasonable for you to suspect that your friend has begun to take ________. A) amino acid supplements B) creatine C) protein powder D) an anabolic steroid

27) Diffusion ________. A) is the result of the potential energy of atoms B) requires an input of cellular energy C) occurs when particles spread from areas where they are less concentrated to areas where they are more concentrated D) proceeds until equilibrium is reached

27) What accounts for the different breeds of domesticated dogs? A) overproduction B) natural selection C) competition D) artificial selection

27) What is the key to the recognition of codominance? A) The phenotype of the heterozygote is intermediate between the phenotypes of the homozygotes. B) The trait exhibits a continuous distribution. C) The alleles affect more than one trait. D) The heterozygote expresses the phenotype of both homozygotes.

28) ATP synthase plays a role in ________. A) pulling electrons down the electron transport chain B) glycolysis C) pumping hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane D) generating ATP

28) Enzymes are ________. A) amino acids B) monosaccharides C) phospholipids

28) Which of the following is a characteristic seen in prophase I that does NOT occur in prophase II? A) Chromosomes move to the middle of the cell. B) Spindle formation occurs. C) The number of chromosomes doubles. D) Crossing over occurs.

28) Which of the following is the source of electrons for the light reactions? A) C6H12O6 B) CO2 C) NADPH D) H2O

29) Anaphase II is essentially the same as mitotic anaphase except that in anaphase II ________ and in mitotic anaphase ________. A) the cells are diploid... the cells are haploid B) chromosomes line up double file in the middle of the cell... chromosomes line up single file in the middle of the cell C) crossing over occurs... crossing over does not occur D) the cells are haploid and sister chromatids separate... the cells have the same number of chromosomes as the original cell and sister chromatids separate

29) Which of the following is found in both cellular respiration and in the light reactions of photosynthesis? A) citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) Calvin cycle

3) The amount of carbohydrates in a food product is usually separated into two groups: 1) sugars, which refers only to mono- and disaccharides, and 2) fiber. Out of the 22 grams of total carbohydrates, there are 12 grams of sugars and 2 grams of fiber in the chocolate mint cookies. All of the following statements EXCEPT for one are true. Choose the exception. A) There are more mono- and disaccharides than cellulose in the cookies. B) There are 8 grams of carbohydrates in the cookies that are not monosaccharides, disaccharides, or fiber. C) The majority of the carbohydrates in the cookies will be able to be broken down via hydrolysis reactions when eaten. D) There are 6 grams of monosaccharides and 6 grams of disaccharides in the cookies.

30) A balloon permeable to water but not to glucose contains a 10% glucose solution. A beaker contains a 5% glucose solution. Which of the following is TRUE? A) The solution in the beaker is hypertonic relative to the solution in the balloon. B) The solution in the balloon is isotonic; the solution in the beaker is hypertonic. C) The solution in the balloon is hypotonic relative to the solution in the beaker. D) The solution in the balloon is hypertonic relative to the solution in the beaker.

30) What is key to recognition of a trait whose expression is determined by the effects of two or more genes (polygenic inheritance)? A) A mating between a homozygous and a heterozygous individual produces more than the expected number of offspring expressing the dominant trait. B) All of the alleles of the gene for that trait are equally expressed. C) Pleiotropy occurs. D) The trait varies along a continuum in the population.

31) Genetic variation is accomplished by all but one of the following. Choose the exception. A) the events of meiosis I B) crossing over C) independent assortment D) the events of meiosis II

31) Human muscle cells use lactic acid fermentation to ________. A) produce more ATP than is possible through complete aerobic respiration B) produce ATP using the electron transport chain C) regenerate NADH D) produce ATP without O2

31) The Calvin cycle makes direct use of ________ to make ________. A) light energy and CO2... sugar B) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar and O2 C) light energy, CO2, and water... sugar and O2 D) CO2, ATP, and NADPH... sugar

32) Discovery science is primarily based on ________. A) hypothesis testing B) deduction C) experimentation D) observation

33) In plant cells, ________ may contain organic nutrients, pigments, and poisons. A) mitochondria B) chloroplasts C) lysosomes D) central vacuoles

33) What is the basis of Mendel's laws? A) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis only B) the behavior of chromosomes during mitotic anaphase C) the behavior of chromosomes during prophase I and prophase II of meiosis D) the behavior of chromosomes during metaphase I and anaphase I of meiosis

33) Which of the following metabolic pathways is common to both aerobic and anaerobic processes of sugar breakdown? A) the citric acid cycle B) the electron transport chain C) conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid D) glycolysis

33) Which of these would be a valid scientific hypothesis? A) Human history is determined by a series of supernatural events. B) Humans should help in the conservation of other animal species. C) Humans are controlled by forces beyond our understanding. D) Humans and bacteria share a common genetic code.

34) Crossing over during prophase I results in ________. A) nondisjunction B) reciprocal translocation C) duplication D) genetic recombination

34) If placed in tap water, an animal cell will undergo lysis, whereas a plant cell will not. What accounts for this difference? A) expulsion of water by the plant cell's central vacuole B) the relative impermeability of the plant cell membrane to water C) the relative impermeability of the plant cell wall to water D) the relative inelasticity and strength of the plant cell wall

34) Nucleic acids are polymers of ________ monomers. A) monosaccharide B) fatty acid C) DNA D) nucleotide

35) A karyotype (a chromosome display) would be unable to determine ________. A) sex B) Down syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) eye color

35) In a hypotonic solution, a plant cell will ________. A) undergo plasmolysis B) become flaccid C) burst D) become turgid

37) Active transport ________. A) uses ATP as an energy source B) can move solutes against their concentration gradient C) can involve the transport of ions D) all of the answer options

37) Which of the following is TRUE with regard to a DNA molecule? A) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of guanine, and the amount of thymine is equal to the amount of cytosine. B) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of cytosine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of thymine. C) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of uracil. D) The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and the amount of guanine is equal to the amount of cytosine.

38) If one strand of a DNA double helix has the sequence AGTACTG, what will be the sequence of the other strand? A) GACGTCA B) AGTACTG C) GTCATGA D) TCATGAC

38) Linked genes are usually ________. A) found on the X chromosome B) found on the Y chromosome C) codominant D) located close together on a chromosome

38) When a person cries, tears are exported from cells through the process of ________. A) facilitated diffusion B) active transport C) endocytosis D) exocytosis

38) Which of these stages of cell respiration can occur without the others? A) the electron transport chain B) the citric acid cycle C) lactic acid fermentation D) glycolysis

38) Which plant organelle is responsible for photosynthesis? A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondrion C) ribosome D) chloroplast

4) If only some, but not all, of Amanda's somatic (body) cells had only one X chromosome, this could indicate that an error occurred ________. A) during mitosis leading to the sperm or egg that came together to form Amanda B) during meiosis in the first cell division of the original cell that was Amanda (the zygote) C) during meiosis which occurred in Amanda's ovaries D) during mitosis which occurred at a multicellular stage of Amanda's development

4) The child shown in the figure below is not feeling well. Why does the poster say "No Antibiotics Please"? A) His illness may be caused by an allergy to penicillin. B) Antibiotics should be taken only to promote growth. C) His illness is caused by bacteria. D) His illness is caused by a virus.

40) Several students were talking about which came first in the history of the Earth. Which student has the best understanding of what happened? A) Photosynthetic producers must have come first to provide food for other organisms. B) Anaerobic bacteria must have come first because there was no carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. C) Photosynthetic producers must have come first to provide oxygen for other organisms. D) Anaerobic organisms must have come first because there was no oxygen in the atmosphere.

40) The act of a white blood cell engulfing a bacterium is ________. A) osmosis B) diffusion C) exocytosis D) phagocytosis

42) Experience with dog breeding has taught geneticists ________. A) that, given enough time, any desired trait can be bred into dogs B) that purebred dogs have offspring with qualities identical to the parents, because all purebred dogs are alike genetically C) that, while physical traits can be molded through artificial selection, behavioral traits cannot D) that geographically isolated groups of dogs may be selected for quite different traits, resulting in a different dog breed

42) Tobacco smokers (and those exposed to tobacco smoke) are at greater risk of an ectopic (tubal) pregnancy. Based on your understanding of the structures of the cytoskeleton, what is the BEST explanation? A) Tobacco interferes with the microtubule network of eggs thus weakening their structure. B) Tobacco interferes with the functioning of the flagella propelling sperm. C) Tobacco interferes with microfilament formation in sperm, thereby forcing the zygote to implant in a fallopian tube. D) Tobacco interferes with the sweeping motion of cilia that aids in the movement of the egg toward the uterus.

5) A duplicated chromosome consists of two ________. A) centromeres B) centrosomes C) genomes D) sister chromatids

5) If the egg was weighed halfway between being laid and hatching, how would you expect that weight to compare to the weight of the newly hatched chick? A) The egg would weigh more at this midpoint than when newly hatched because, during development, the chick gains new parts. B) The egg would weigh more at this midpoint than when newly hatched because it is taking in oxygen. C) The egg would weigh less at this midpoint than when newly hatched because the shell wears away over time. D) The egg would weigh less at this midpoint than when newly hatched because some of the mass of the egg would be released through cell respiration.

5) Photosynthetic organisms like grass are able to ________. A) make all of their organic matter from organic molecules in the soil. B) use water they take in through their leaves as a final electron acceptor. C) change the light energy from sunlight into sugars D) use substances in the air as a major source of carbon.

5) Shade-tolerant plants have many adaptations for living in areas of low light. Predict whether each of the following processes would be high or low in comparison with other plants and choose the answer that is most CORRECT. Net photosynthetic rate Chlorophyll per area of the leaf Electron transport chain rate A) high, high, high B) high, high low C) low, high, high D) low, high, low

5) What is the function of stomata? A) water absorption B) Calvin cycle C) location of photosystems D) gas exchange

5) Which of the following BEST describes the direct mechanism of ATP production during photosynthesis? A) use of the energy generated as hydrogen ions (H+) move up a proton gradient; this energy is used to make ATP B) use of the energy released as excited electrons are passed from one molecule to another in the electron transport system; the energy is converted to the chemical bond energy of ATP C) use of the energy stored in excited electrons; as the electrons move from the excited state to the ground state, the energy released is converted to the energy stored in the third phosphate bond in ATP D) use of the energy stored in hydrogen ion (H+) gradients; the potential energy of the proton gradient is released as the protons move down their gradient through special membrane protein channels; this energy is converted to chemical bond energy in the ATP molecule

5) Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the data? A) Dull-colored females are more likely to choose dull-colored males. B) Dull-colored males are likely to choose dull-colored females. C) Brightly colored males are stronger and more fertile than dull-colored males D) Females do not always choose brightly colored males.

5) Which of the following statements about the data in the table is TRUE? A) Saturated fat content and smoke point are positively correlated (related to one another). B) There is a negative (inverse) correlation between unsaturated fat content and smoke point. C) You can use the saturated fat content of an oil to reliably predict the smoke point of an oil. D) Unsaturated fat content and smoke point are not correlated.

6) If you were treating a patient infected with this species of bacteria, which antibiotic would you prescribe the person such that the bacteria were killed most effectively? A) Antibiotic A B) Antibiotic B C) Antibiotic C D) Antibiotic D

6) What name is given to the following reaction? galactose + glucose → lactose + water A) hydrolysis B) hydrogenation C) glycolysis

6) Why did tumor size decrease in the Dox only experiment to a lesser extent than the Dox + ATP experiment? A) ATP is actually the drug that is killing the cancer cells, not Dox. B) Dox is always active in cancer cells, so it should be able to kill some cells without ATP. C) When ATP is lacking, not as much Dox can enter the cell via facilitated diffusion. D) There is some ATP in the cancer cells normally, which acts to activate Dox.

7) If the interior of the thylakoid were not a sealed compartment ________. A) There would be no location for the electron transport chain B) Light would not be able to reach the photosystems C) Water could not be split D) The proton gradient could not be maintained

7) The karyotype above shows ________. A) abnormal sex chromosomes B) trisomy 21, a cause of Klinefelter syndrome C) Turner syndrome D) trisomy 21, a cause of Down syndrome

7) What would be the best experiment to test the effectiveness of this anticancer drug system? A) Inject both sets of liposomes into a single healthy mouse and measure what happens to its blood ATP levels. B) Inject both sets of liposomes into a single mouse that has tumors and measure what happens to the size of the tumors. C) Inject both sets of liposomes into multiple healthy mice and measure what happens to their blood ATP levels. D) Inject both sets of liposomes into multiple mice that have tumors and measure what happens to the size of the tumors.

7) You find a cell of a type you have never seen before. The cell has both a nucleus and a cell wall. Therefore, you conclude that it is likely to be a(n) ________ cell. A) prokaryotic B) animal C) bacterial D) plant

8) How many times must the Calvin cycle turn for the plant cell to be able to produce one molecule of glucose? A) one B) two C) three D) six

9) Which of the following occurs during prophase? A) Chromosomes line up on the midline of the cell. B) The nuclear envelope forms. C) Sister chromatids separate. D) The mitotic spindle begins to form

9) ________ are the major lipids of plasma membranes. A) Steroids B) Fatty acids C) Starches D) Phospholipids

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