biochemistry EQ5 study questions
What reagents are required for the Sanger-Coulson sequencing method? template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs, ddNTP template, primer, DNA polymerase, dNTPs, ddNTP template, primer, DNA polymerase, rRNA, dNTPs, ddNTP template, primer, DNA polymerase, mRNA, dNTPs none of the above
template, primer, DNA polymerase, dNTPs, ddNTP
The ΔG°' for the reaction ATP + Arginine ADP + Phosphoarginine is 1.7 kJ mol-1. Based on this information, plus the knowledge that the reaction ATP + H2O ADP + Pi + H+ has a standard state free energy change at pH 7 of -30.5 kJ mol-1, calculate the ΔG°' for the reaction Phosphoarginine + H2O Arginine + Pi + H+
-32.2 kJ mol-1
Given below is a table of the free energies of hydrolysis of several compounds. Using this data, calculate the value of G° for the following reaction in kJ/mol: Creatine phosphate + Glycerol → Creatine + Glycerol-3-phosphate Express answer to one decimal in units of kJ/mol.
-33.4 kJ/mol
What is the value of ΔG°' at T = 25.0 °C for a reaction in which K'eq = 1.00?
0.00 kJ mol-1
For the following reaction, calculate the Keq at 25°C. succinyl-CoA + acetoacetate ⟶⟶ acetoacetyl-CoA + succinate ΔG°' = -1.25 kJ/mol 3.21 4.22 x 102 1.00 0.602 1.66
1.66
What is the oxidizing agent in the irreversible reaction below? CH3CH2CHO + NADH → CH3CH2CH2OH + NAD+ A) CH3CH2CHO B) NADH C) CH3CH2CH2OH D) NAD+
A) CH3CH2CHO
A virus life cycle that involves the incorporation of the viral DNA into the host chromosome is A) lysogeny. B) lytic. C) oncogenic. D) non-existent.
A) lysogeny.
Cyotoxic T (Tc) cells carry this (these) type(s) of receptors: T cell receptor (TCR) CD4 receptor CD8 receptor Both TCR and CD4 receptors. Both TCR and CD8 receptors
Both TCR and CD8 receptors
Which of the following is not a reason that AIDS has been difficult to eradicate? A) It is slow acting. B) The HIV reverse transcriptase is inaccurate. C) The gp120 protein makes a conformational change when it binds to the CD4 receptor causing antibodies to be ineffective. D) HIV evades the innate immune system. E) It gives the infected individual multiple symptoms within weeks of infection.
E) It gives the infected individual multiple symptoms within weeks of infection.
What happens to the entropy when ATP is hydrolyzed to ADP? Entropy decreases Entropy increases Entropy doesn't change. ATP has no entropy.
Entropy increases
What happens to the DNA copy of the retroviral RNA genome after it is produced? It is incorporated into the host's DNA. It is transcribed to produce mRNAs. It is wrapped in a capsid for export from the cell. It is replicated as a plasmid.
It is incorporated into the host's DNA.
A retrovirus has a(n) _________ genome that must pass through a stage in which _________ converts the genome to (a) _________. The latter material must _________ the host's _________ in order for the viral genome to be expressed.
RNA reverse transcriptase DNA recombine with DNA
Sometimes knowing the DNA sequence of a gene that codes for a protein does not tell one the amino acid sequence of the mature protein. What is/are reason(s) for this? Not all mRNA transcription processes have complete fidelity to the gene sequence. The gene may have introns that are not found in the mRNA encoding the protein. Some mature proteins have a portion of their pro-protein sequence removed. Some DNA samples are difficult to sequence, thus leading to errors in the gene sequence.
The gene may have introns that are not found in the mRNA encoding the protein. Some mature proteins have a portion of their pro-protein sequence removed.
What vectors are commonly used for cloning?
Viruses Bacteriophage
Which of the following statements is correct relating to viruses and cancer? (Select all that apply.) When viruses insert their DNA into the host's DNA it can cause cancer. Retroviruses are particularly dangerous with respect to cancer relative to other viruses. When people are suffering with flu they are more likely to get cancer. The rate of cell division increases in people with viruses. All of the above.
When viruses insert their DNA into the host's DNA it can cause cancer. Retroviruses are particularly dangerous with respect to cancer relative to other viruses.
Which of the following is(are) used to determine to which family a virus is categorized? Whether its genome is composed of double-stranded RNA. Whether its genome is in linear or circular form. Whether its genome is composed of double-stranded DNA. Whether its genome is composed of single-stranded RNA. Whether it has a cell membrane that contains proteins.
Whether its genome is composed of double-stranded RNA. Whether its genome is in linear or circular form. Whether its genome is composed of double-stranded DNA. Whether its genome is composed of single-stranded RNA.
Calculate ΔG° ́ for a value of K ́eq equal to 1 x 104. a. -20 kJ/mol b. -2 kJ/mol c. +20 kJ/mol d. +10 kJ/mol e. -10 kJ/mol
a. -20 kJ/mol
Clonal selection is the ability of the immune system to control the proliferation of antigen-specific cells, since it has amechanism to recognize which cells interact with that antigen. a. True b. False
a. True
A multiple cloning site is also known as: a. a polylinker b. an origin of replication c. a restriction enzyme site d. a selectable marker
a. a polylinker
A highly useful method for determining the presence of hydrolyzed fragments of DNA separated by electrophoresis is a. autoradiography. b. x-ray crystallography. c. analytical ultracentrifugation. d. all of the above
a. autoradiography.
Fluorescence works because the fluorescent molecule absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a longer wavelength. absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a shorter wavelength. absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at the same wavelength. absorbs light at many wavelengths and emits light at many wavelengths.
absorbs light at one wavelength and emits light at a longer wavelength.
A DNA library is a collection of _________that carry cloned pieces of the entire _________ of a(n) _________. A cDNA library is made by taking the _________ from a(n)_________, converting it to _________, and cloning it for the library.
cells genome organism mRNA organism cDNA
Which of the statements correctly describes the schematic pathway shown? a. Four of the reactions shown are irreversible. b. One of the reactions shown is endergonic. c. It is likely that all of the enzymes catalyzing the reactions in this pathway are regulated. d. A metabolic pathway with a starting metabolite of F and a product of A could exist in the same cell as thepathway shown above. e. The concentrations of metabolites C, D and E likely change over time depending on the metabolic status of thecell.
d. A metabolic pathway with a starting metabolite of F and a product of A could exist in the same cell as thepathway shown above.
Would you expect the biosynthesis of a protein from the constituent amino acids in an organism to be an exergonic or endergonic process? The biosynthesis of proteins is an _________ process, and is accompanied by a large _________.
endergonic decrease in energy
In the first reaction in the pentose phosphate pathway illustrated below, glucose-6-phosphate (left) reacts with NADP+ to give 6-phosphogluco-δδ-lactone (right) and NADPH. Which substance is being oxidized in this reaction? glucose-6-phosphate NADP+ 6-phosphogluco-δδ-lactone NADPH
glucose-6-phosphate
Would you expect an increase or a decrease of entropy to accompany the hydrolysis of phosphatidylcholine to the constituent parts (glycerol, two fatty acids, phosphoric acid, and choline)? Why?
increase There are more products compared to the number of reactants.
A virus life cycle that involves the incorporation of the viral DNA into the host chromosome is lytic. lysogeny. oncogenic. non-existent.
lysogeny.
A recombinant DNA experiment would require one or more _________ to cut the DNA sequence of interest, a _________ to join cut pieces of DNA together, a suitable _________ to carry the foreign DNA, a cell line to accept the _________, and a method to _________ the correct transformants.
restriction enzyme DNA ligase vector vector select
I am performing a reaction, A → B, with ΔG°' = −0.3 kJ/mol. I start the reaction with 10 mM A and no B. After allowing the reaction to proceed for 24 hrs at room temperature and atmospheric pressure, I analyze a sample of the reaction mix to find I now have 1 mM A and 9 mM B. Which of the following conclusions should I make? ΔG∘′=−RTlnKeq R=8.3145J/K⋅mol T = oC + 273 A) The reaction has reached equilibrium. B) I should come back again later; equilibrium has not yet been reached. C) The formation of B from A is thermodynamically unfavorable, so I should find another starting material to make B. D) I must've screwed up; there's no way I could get that result with that ΔG°'.
D) I must've screwed up; there's no way I could get that result with that ΔG°'.
The protein called p53 is especially important in cancer because: A) Protein p53 has the ability to prevent cells from dividing. B) Protein p53 has the ability to repair mutations. C) Protein p53 can cause damaged cells to enter programmed cell death. D) Protein p53 can prevent cells from dividing and cause them to enter programmed cell death. E) All of these.
D) Protein p53 can prevent cells from dividing and cause them to enter programmed cell death.
How do TC cells bind and recognize antigen on APCs? A) The TCR binds to MHC I and CD8 binds antigen. B) The TCR binds to MHC II and CD8 binds antigen. C) The TCR binds to antigen and CD8 binds B7. D) The TCR binds to antigen and CD8 binds to MHC I. E) The TCR binds to antigen and CD8 binds to MHC II.
D) The TCR binds to antigen and CD8 binds to MHC I.
What is the function of protein spikes on a virus? A) They protect the genome. B) They are involved with incorporation of the genome into that of host (lysogeny). C) They transcribe the RNA genome into a DNA copy. D) They help the virus attach to the host.
D) They help the virus attach to the host.
The ΔG°' for the reaction Citrate Isocitrate is 6.64 kJ mol-1. The ΔG°' for the reaction Isocitrate α-Ketoglutarate is -267 kJ mol-1. What is the value of ΔG°' for the reaction Citrate α-Ketoglutarate?
-260.4 kJ mol-1
Give the DNA sequence for the template strand that gives rise to the following sequence gel, prepared using theSanger method with a radioactive label at the 5' end of the primer.
5'-GATGCCTACG-3'
Some restriction enzymes leave "sticky ends" on the DNA that they cut. Which of the following DNA sequences, each cut by a known restriction enzyme, would have sticky ends? (The DNA cut location is shown by a vertical line in the following sequences. Select all that apply.)
5'-G|CATGC-3' 5'-G|GATCC-3' 5'-GC|GGCCGC-3' 5'-GGTAC|C-3' 5'-CTGCA|G-3' 5'-GC|GGCCGC-3'
In three separate tubes, the plasmid given below is treated with one of these restriction endonucleases: EcoRI, BamHI, and HindIII. Which of the following best represents the electrophoretic gel one would see from these digests?
A
The genes for both the α- and β-globin chains of hemoglobin contain introns (i.e. they are split genes). How can one introduce the gene for α-globin into a bacterial plasmid and have the bacteria produce α-globin?
A cDNA copy of the α-globin mRNA should be inserted into the plasmid.
Suppose you want to design a drug to fight a virus. Which of the following would be good choices? (Select all that apply.) A molecule that binds to and blocks one of the specific protein spikes on the virus. A molecule that binds to and inactivates a key viral enzyme. A molecule that attacks the cellular DNA replication machinery. A molecule that disrupts protein synthesis.
A molecule that binds to and blocks one of the specific protein spikes on the virus. A molecule that binds to and inactivates a key viral enzyme.
Consider this rxn which has a ΔG° = +0.4 kJ/mol.succinate + FAD → fumarate + FADH2A 1-mM solution of each compound is mixed & the reaction is allowed to come to equilibrium. Which statement is correct about the resulting concentration of FAD at equilibrium? A) [FAD] > [FADH2] B) [FAD] < [FADH2] C) [FAD] = [FADH2] D) Cannot be determined from the information provided.
A) [FAD] > [FADH2]
Hybridomas, which produce monoclonal antibodies, are made by fusing cells of the immune system with A) cancerous cells. B) viruses. C) bacterial cells. D) ribosomes.
A) cancerous cells.
Which of the following are examples of DNA palindromes? AAAAAA AAATTT ACGGTT GTCAGT
AAATTT
Which of the following are characteristics shown by cancer cells? (Select all that apply.) The ability to self destruct in the absence of "stop growing" signal. Ability to induce local vascularization. Ability to migrate to a new location and resume growth. Growth in the presence of "stop growing" signals. Increased cellular adhesion, resulting in increased signalling to surrounding cells.
Ability to induce local vascularization. Ability to migrate to a new location and resume growth. Growth in the presence of "stop growing" signals.
Restriction enzymes are especially useful for genetic recombination work for all of the following reasons, except: They cut DNA in the middle of specific sequences. They cut DNA independent of the source of the DNA. They often generate single stranded tails or "sticky ends". There are a large variety of them commercially available. All of these traits make restriction enzymes useful.
All of these traits make restriction enzymes useful.
Which of the following are components of the system for acquired immunity? (Select all that apply.) B cells Killer T cells Dendritic cells Macrophages
B cells Killer T cells
Positive selection results from A) DP cells that react to self-antigens with high affinity. B) DP cells that react to self-antigens with low affinity. C) DP cells that don't react in any degree to self-antigens.
B) DP cells that react to self-antigens with low affinity.
More than one type of epitope can bind to an antibody, but there is only one type of antibody for each antigen. A) True B) False
B) False
The capsid of a virus is composed of A) DNA or RNA B) Protein C) Lipid D) Carbohydrate
B) Protein
Dendritic cells A) secrete cytokines, recruiting other cells to destroy microbes. B) display antigens associated with MHC proteins. C) produce antibodies. D) bind to antigens, which leads to their proliferation.
B) display antigens associated with MHC proteins.
What is the main function of TH cells? A) They function to stimulate B cells to become antibody-producing cells. B) They function to stimulate TC cells to destroy infected cells. C) Both A and B are true. D) Neither A nor B are true.
C) Both A and B are true.
Which of the following is the most direct reason that AIDS is deadly? A) HIV is a retrovirus. B) HIV enters helper T-cells. C) Budding HIV particles damage helper T-cell membranes lowering the helper T-cell count. D) HIV has an RNA genome. E) None of these explain why HIV is deadly.
C) Budding HIV particles damage helper T-cell membranes lowering the helper T-cell count.
Which of the following cell types of innate immunity kills cells that have been infected by viruses or that are cancerous? A) dendritic cells B) T cells C) NK cells D) B cells
C) NK cells
A viral genome is A) always double-stranded B) always single-stranded C) may be double or single stranded D) always made of DNA E) always made of RNA
C) may be double or single stranded
How does an expression vector differ from a regular cloning vector? A) An expression vector does not have an origin of replication. B) An expression vector is always a linear molecule, while a cloning vector may be circular. C) An expression vector has the ability to have the inserted DNA be transcribed. D) An expression vector must be of viral origin, so that it can infect a cell naturally.
C) An expression vector has the ability to have the inserted DNA be transcribed.
In DNA sequencing, fragments to be analyzed are produced by A) acid hydrolysis B) base hydrolysis C) selective interruption of DNA synthesis D) exposure to 32P
C) selective interruption of DNA synthesis
Long terminal repeats (LTRs) are involved in which part of the retroviral lifecycle? A) replicating the viral DNA B) creating the nucleocapsid C) production of spike proteins D) incorporating the viral genome into the host genome E) none of these
D) incorporating the viral genome into the host genome
In general, catabolism A) is a reductive process that releases energy. B) is an oxidative process that requires energy. C) is a reductive process that requires energy. D) is an oxidative process that releases energy. E) none of these
D) is an oxidative process that releases energy.
The usefulness of blotting techniques in molecular biology is that A) spills of hazardous chemicals are minimized B) only the substance of interest is transferred to a nitrocellulose disk C) It directly gives rise to a genetic map D) transferred material is in the same relative position on the disk as on the original sample
D) transferred material is in the same relative position on the disk as on the original sample
Which of the following are methods used to determine where the DNA bands are located on an electrophoresis gel? A) Radioactivity B) Fluorescence C) Dyes which bind to DNA D) Luminescence E) All of these can visualize the DNA.
E) All of these can visualize the DNA.
Which of the following parameters affects the distance DNA molecules migrate during electrophoresis, at pH = 8? A) The mass of the DNA B) The total ionic charge on the DNA molecule C) The fact that each nucleotide contributes one negative charge at this pH D) The concentration of agarose or polyacrylamide in the gel E) All of these features control the distance the DNA migrates
E) All of these features control the distance the DNA migrates
How does HIV confound the human immune system? (Select all that apply.) HIV does not contain viral DNA, and is therefore not recognized as a foreign body. HIV binds a cell protein that blocks the antiviral action of natural killer cells. The surface protein of HIV mimics that of a T cell. The outer membrane of HIV contains sugars that are very similar to those found on most of its host's cells. Submit Answer Try Another Version
HIV binds a cell protein that blocks the antiviral action of natural killer cells. The outer membrane of HIV contains sugars that are very similar to those found on most of its host's cells.
Several biochemical pathways start by putting a coenzyme A onto the molecule that initiates the pathway. Which of the following is a correct reason for this? (Select all that apply.) It is a large group that cannot cross membranes, so compartmentalizes pathways. It helps enzymes bind to the substrate. It allows molecules to cross membranes through specific channels so that they can enter different pathways. It stabilizes reactive intermediates formed during metabolic pathways. None of the above.
It is a large group that cannot cross membranes, so compartmentalizes pathways.
If a recombinant plasmid were obtained inserting DNA into the BamHI site, the recombinant plasmid would lack which of the following properties?
It will be resistant to the antibiotic tetracycline.
_____ are the cells of the innate immune system that digest cellular debris and pathogens. Natural killer cells Leukocytes Macrophages Dendritic cells
Macrophages
The Keq at pH 8.5 and 30 °C is 119. Can you determine the rate of the reaction from this information?
No, the equilibrium constant provides the equilibrium position, not the rate of reaction.
The standard free-energy change is positive. Reaction would take place only if it is coupled to an exergonic reaction. Reaction would take place with an enzyme. Reaction would proceed as written. Reaction would take place, but at a very slow rate.
Reaction would take place only if it is coupled to an exergonic reaction.
The following item was the most important one for the development of PCR as a commercially successful and widely-used procedure: Taq DNA Polymerase Heat-resistant DNA Heat-resistant primers for DNA synthesis Robotic machines to run the PCR procedure. Heat-resistant nucleoside triphosphate substrates.
Taq DNA Polymerase
Temperature control is extremely important in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Match the temperature conditions to the correct step of PCR. Heat to 72 °C Cool to 55-60 °C Heat to 95 °C
Taq DNA polymerase replicates DNA. Primers anneal to DNA. Double-stranded DNA separated.
Why do restriction endonucleases not hydrolyze DNA from the organism that produces them? The endonucleases are sequestered away from the organism's DNA. The DNA of the organism condenses in such a way that hides the coding sequence that is cleaved by the restriction endonucleases. Base phosphorylation at the restriction site often protects the organism's DNA. The endonuclease restriction site is modified in the organism's DNA.
The endonuclease restriction site is modified in the organism's DNA.
How is the gp120 protein important to HIV and its ability to confound the immune system? The gp120 protein has reverse transcriptase activity and is needed to replicate the genome. The gp120 protein is a protease needed to prepare the capsid. The gp120 protein binds to the CD4 receptor of TH cells in order to enter the cell. The gp120 protein enables HIV to insert its genome into the host DNA.
The gp120 protein binds to the CD4 receptor of TH cells in order to enter the cell.
What is the importance of methylation in the activity of restriction endonucleases? The presence of a methylated base in DNA to be cut can block endonuclease activity. Methylation of DNA alters its structure, thus changing the targeting site for certain restriction endonucleases. Cells can methylate restriction endonucleases, thus activating the enzymes. Methylation of specific DNA bases provides targeting information to some restriction endonucleases.
The presence of a methylated base in DNA to be cut can block endonuclease activity.
Recombinant DNA molecules contain covalently linked segments derived from two or more sources. True False
True
The "natural" function of restriction endonucleases is to a. protect bacterial cells from invasion by viruses (bacteriophages). b. help bacteriophages infect cells. c. regulate gene expression from specific promoters. d. remove chromatin from histones.
a. protect bacterial cells from invasion by viruses (bacteriophages).
Each band in a lane of a Sanger Coulson sequencing gel represents a. random cutting of DNA b. a single nucleotide that ran that far on a gel c. a piece of DNA that ended in a specific base d. none of these
c. a piece of DNA that ended in a specific base
Which of the following best describes the function of reverse transcriptase? a. It's involved in viral attachment to a host cell. b. It uses an RNA template to make a double-stranded DNA. c. It uses DNA to synthesize an RNA in the 3' → 5' direction. d. It joins the gene segments that code for antibodies.
b. It uses an RNA template to make a double-stranded DNA.
Which of the following are cells of innate immunity that engulf invaders and display portions of their proteins to othercells? a. NK cells b. dendritic cells c. T cells d. B cells
b. dendritic cells
Dendritic cells a. secrete cytokines, recruiting other cells to destroy microbes. b. display antigens associated with MHC proteins. c. produce antibodies. d. bind to antigens, which leads to their proliferation.
b. display antigens associated with MHC proteins.
he standard state usually used in biochemistry (ΔG° ́) includes a. all concentrations at 1 M. b. all concentrations at 1 mM, except for [H+], which is 10−7 M. c. all concentrations at 1 M, except for [H+], which is 10−7 M. d. None of the answers
c. all concentrations at 1 M, except for [H+], which is 10−7 M.
If a reaction has a Keq < 1 and all reaction components are at 1 M then the reaction will proceed in the _________direction and ΔG° ́ for the forward reaction will be _____________. a. reverse, negative b. reverse, positive c. forward, negative d. forward, positive e. Cannot be determined.
b. reverse, positive
ΔG° ́ for the hydrolysis of ATP is -31 kJ/mol. What effect will doubling ATP concentration have on the value of ΔG° ́for ATP hydrolysis? a. It will increase ΔG° ́ b. ΔG° ́ will not change c. It will decrease ΔG° ́
b. ΔG° ́ will not change
f the reaction A → B has ΔG = +25 J/mol and the reaction B → C has ΔG = −15 J/mol, the overall energy change A→ C will be a. −40 J/mol. b. −15 J/mol. c. +10 J/mol. d. +40 J/mol. e. You cannot determine the overall reaction from the given data.
c. +10 J/mol.
Which of the following contributes to the variability of the immunoglobulins? a. Each B cell has a different genome. b. The variability comes from transposon insertion. c. The variability comes only from alternative splicing of mRNA. d. A variety of different DNA sequences are physically attached together to generate a huge number of differentantibody genes.
d. A variety of different DNA sequences are physically attached together to generate a huge number of differentantibody genes.
Sometimes DNA probes are used to prove that a gene has been incorporated into a eukaryotic genome. The followingare all steps used in such a procedure, except: a. Digestion of the cellular DNA to break it into manageable sizes. b. Separation of the fragments by gel electrophoresis. c. Hybridization of a nucleic acid strand complementary to the gene of interest. d. Elution of the hybridized DNA from the gel for analysis. e. All of these steps are necessary in probing for the presence of a gene.
d. Elution of the hybridized DNA from the gel for analysis.
If a recombinant plasmid was obtained inserting DNA into the BamHI site, screening for therecombinant plasmid can be done by the following technique. a. Plate on nutrient agar plates that contain ampicillin. b. Plate on nutrient agar plates that contain tetracycline. c. Plate on nutrient agar plates that contain both ampicillin and tetracycline. d. Plate on nutrient agar plates that contain ampicillin, followed by replica plating on tetracycline. e. Plate on nutrient agar plates that contain tetracycline, followed by replica plating on ampicillin.
d. Plate on nutrient agar plates that contain ampicillin, followed by replica plating on tetracycline.
What feature must an expression vector have that an ordinary plasmid might lack? a. Sequences to direct replication b. A gene encoding antibiotic resistance c. A circular structure d. Sequences to control transcription and translation
d. Sequences to control transcription and translation
Consider the reaction D + E ↔ F, where ΔG° ́ = 0.0 kJ/mol. What is the value of ΔG at 25°C when the initialconcentrations of D, E, and F are 1 M, 1 mM, and 1 μM, respectively? a. -7 kJ/mol b. -50 kJ/mol c. +17 kJ/mol d. +50 kJ/mol e. -17 kJ/mol
e. -17 kJ/mol
Referring to the irreversible reaction below, which molecule loses electrons? CH3CH2OH + NAD+ → CH3CHO + NADH + H+ ........................ethanol acetaldehyde a. NADH b. NAD+ c. Acetaldehyde d. H+ e. Ethanol
e. Ethanol
The ΔG° ́ value for a hypothetical reaction is +10 kJ/mol. The Keq for a reaction whose ΔG° ́ value is twice as largewould be a. about twice as large b. about 10 times as large c. about 60 times as large d. about 10 times as small e. about 60 times as small
e. about 60 times as small
Is the reaction Citrate α-Ketoglutarate exergonic or endergonic when the reactant and product are at standard state concentrations?
exergonic
Characterise the following immunities as first line innate, second line innate, or acquired immunity. (More than one immunity on the left may match to the same option on the right. Options on the right may have no corresponding immunity) First line innate immunity Second line innate immunity Acquired immunity
mucus Natural killer cells, Macrophages, phagocytes B cells
The capsid of a virus is composed of DNA or RNA. protein. lipid. carbohydrate.
protein
Describe how the cells of the acquired-immunity system develop so that they do not recognize self-antigens but do recognize foreign antigens. When B and T cells are developing, they are, in a sense, "trained." They have three possible fates: If these cells have a high affinity for _________ they undergo _________. If the cells never see any antigens that they recognize, they _________. If the cells have a high affinity for _________, they can further develop into B and T cells.
self-antigens, apoptosis die from neglect foreign antigens
Biochemists use a modified value for standard ΔG values because all reagents are not at a 1 molar concentration. The pressure is not at 1 atmosphere. the pH in living systems is seldom, if ever, near 0. All of these justify why biochemists use a special ΔG value.
the pH in living systems is seldom, if ever, near 0.
Which of the following statements about the modified standard state for biochemistry are true, and which are false? pH = 7.0. _______ The standard state concentration of all solutes is 1 × 10-7 M. _______ The standard state concentration of [OH-] is 1 × 10-7 M. _______
true false true
What is a tumor suppressor? What is an oncogene? A(n) _________ restricts the ability of a cell to grow and to divide. A(n) _________ stimulates a cell to grow and to divide.
tumor supressor oncogene