BIOS 2210: Exam 4 Review (pt. 1)

what disease does Paul suspect Ron might have contracted? (hiking)

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

based on the recommendations in this textbook, which antibiotic would be the treatment of choice for this disease? (STD) trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole doxycycline erythromycin cephalosporin

cephalosporin

if the mother has (chlamydia/syphilis/yaws) at the time of birth, the pathogen can infect the newborn's eyes and may cause blindness.

chlamydia

why did his sexual partners believe they were not infected with a STD?

clinical signs/symptoms in females are often not detectable, especially early in the infection

Why were corticosteroids contraindicated in this case? (E. coli)

corticosteroids are immunosuppressive

t/f: pseudomonas aeruginosa is a true pathogen with a long list of virulence factors.

false

virulence factors associated with this organism include all of the following, EXCEPT ___________. endotoxin flagella fimbriae capsule

flagella

which of the following would be the LEAST likely way you could contract syphilis? from an asymptomatic sex partner from an unclean toilet seat from mother to child during pregnancy by touching sores and then touching the lips or mouth

from an unclean toilet seat

coliforms are distinguished from noncoliforms by their ability to ferment (glucose/citrate/lactose).

lactose

which of the following findings are key to the cause of the outbreak? (sauce)

large quantities of meat were prepared and kept warm for a long time before they were served; the sauce was prepared on an overcrowded steam table and, as a result, did not reach an appropriate temperature to kill any organisms

which of the following is the result of inhalation of aerosols of fresh water containing a bacterial parasite of protozoa? pertussis legionnaires' disease meningococcal meningitis acute bacterial meningitis Q fever

legionnaires disease

what virulence factor(s) do all Gram-negative bacteria share? fimbriae proteases that kill IgA antibodies lipid A a glycocalyx both fimbriae and glycocalyx

lipid A

which of the following symptoms is LEAST characteristic of Clostridium perfringens food poisoning? (sauce)

moderate vomiting and fever

salmonella and shigella, both causes of diarrhea, can be distinguished by which of the following tests? lactose fermentation oxidase test motility urease test pigment production

motility

which of the following streptococcal infections is usually fatal? necrotizing fasciitis scarlet fever pharyngitis erysipelas

necrotizing fasciitis

are Clostridium botulinum vegetative cells required to be present for foodborne botulism to occur?

no, food borne botulism is caused by the botulinum toxin produced by the bacteria, not the bacteria themselves

amount adults Chlamydia trachomatis is an STD, but among children who are not sexually active, it can cause ocular infections which may be spread . . . in saliva on hands/ by flies by contact with saliva or blood on hands by flies

on hands/ by flies

which of the findings listed below DOES NOT supports the hypothesis? (sauce)

oxidative metabolism of glucose by ileum cells occurs at a constant rate as toxin levels are increased

undiagnosed or untreated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae in can progress too . . . trench fever meningococcal meningitis Q fecer bubonic plague pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

how will the prescribed penicillin kill S. pyogenes that is causing Shell's infection? (throat)

penicillin will interfere with the peptidoglycan synthesis, ultimately weakening the cell wall and leading to cellular lysis

which of the following is an effective way to prevent many staphylococcus infections? avoid exposure to soil control of the organism in animals proper food canning techniques proper cleansing of wounds

proper cleansing of wounds

analysis of the second swab has confirmed that the causative organism is streptococcus pyogenes, a gram-positive organism. imagine that you are the technician looking at the gram stain from shelly's culture. what would you expect to see as you look though the microscope? (throat)

purple, spherical-shaped organisms arranged in chainlike formations

when a UTI spreads to the kidneys it is called (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis).

pyelonephritis

one of the primary reasons the disease is able to evade the body's immunity is that it . . .

resists digestion by phagocytes

why does Dr. Turner change Chloe's initial antimicrobial therapy? which of the following are valid reasons why Chloe's antimicrobial therapy should be changed?

results of antimicrobial susceptibility testing were conflicted; the isolate is confirmed to be Burkholderia cepacia

what part of the United States is endemic for RMSF? (hiking)

the Appalachian region (North Carolina, Kentucky)

the use of super-absorbent tampons has been impacted in which of the following staphylococcal diseases? toxic shock syndrome furuncles endocarditis empyema

toxic shock syndrome

how do clinicians primary screen for tuberculosis in patients

tuberculin skin test

a virulence factor common to many members of the Enterobacteriaceae which permits them to deliver harmful proteins directly to cell is . . .

type III secretion system

an effective vaccine is available to prevent (gonorrhea/salmonellosis/typhoid).

typhoid

chloe's mother wants to have another child. However, she is concerned that a second child might also have CF, so she encourages Chloe's stepfather to be tested. tests reveal that he does NOT carry the CF gene. what is the chance that a second child born to Chloe's mother and stepfather will have CF?

0% chance of having CF

what is the attack rate of food poisoning among the group who attended the July 4 celebration? (sauce)

105/150(100)= 70.0%

it is estimated that. ___________ of the world's population may be infected with tuberculosis.

33%

what is the name of the vaccine given to prevent TB in countries where it is endemic?

BCG vaccine

which of the following conclusions are supported by the current research data? (Chloe's case)

Burkholderia cepacia complex appears to be very diverse in its habitat and distribution; it would appear that the environment may serve as a reservoir for acquiring Burkholderia cepaciacomplex strains; genomovars III and II appear to be the most virulent or transmissible to humans.

hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by ___________.

E. coli O157:H7

which tests would be useful in identifying Escherichia coli?

E. coli is a Gram-negative bacillus that ferments lactose and glucose, but not sucrose. it is motile and does not utilize citrate or urea.

which of the following is a characteristic of biological transmissions from Dermacentor to human host.

R. rickettsia is transmitted to the human host during a bite, when tick saliva enters the wound

gangrenous secondary infections withClostridium are associated with which of the following diseases? murine typhus RMSF anaplasmosis epidemic typhus

RMSF

over 90% of urinary tract infections (UTIs) are caused by Escherichia coli strains. UTIs are 14 times more common in women than in men. why do you think this is?

UTIs caused by E. coli are 14 times more common in woman than in men because women have a shorter urethra than men and the proximity of the urethra to the anus is much closer in women

in what case would you suspect wound botulism?

a person injured herself while gardening. four days later she begins to feel weak and dizzy, with blurred vision. and progressive paralysis

resistance of Pseudomonas to a wide range of antibacterial agents is partly due to its . . .

ability to metabolize many drugs

mycobacterium tuberculosis is considered a(n) ___________.

aerobe

rickettsia rickettsia is a game-negative, obligate intracellular pathogen. what statement about the R. rickettsia life cycle is FLASE?

after entering a host, R. rickettsia multiples to levels high enough to successfully invade cells and establish infection

neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is . . .

an acute painful infection with pus discharge

although cholera can be treated with antibiotics, data suggest that antibiotic treatment alone is NOT the most effective therapy. which of the following statements describes the most likely reason for supplementing antibiotic therapy?

antibiotic therapy addresses only the growth of V. cholerae; it doesn't address the extreme dehydration suffered by a person infected with V. cholerae.

which of the following is the best way to avoid infection by Neisseria meningitidis? avoidance of . . . unprotected sexual activity ticks and other insect vectors crowded living conditions contact w animal blood/organs

avoidance of crowded living conditions

disease research and epidemiology bring together many different facets to help us better understand disease pathology and spread. which of the following statements are true?

bacterial exotoxins can be altered to create toxoids, which can be used to produce protective immunity in a host; the interactions that occur between a microbe and host influence the evolution of both; Some pathogens are able to cause disease within a host without penetrating the body

based on its Gram status, why are penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics effective against Streptococcus pneumoniae?

beta lactam antibiotics are effective agianst Streptococcus pneumoniae because it is a Gram positive organism and does not have an outer membrane

members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by . . .

both motility and the ability to ferment lactose

sexually transmitted chlamydia is similar to infection with yersinia pests in that they can both produce . . .

buboes

the pathology of cepacia syndrome is often complex and due to multiple factors. all of the following factors may contribute to the development of cepacia syndrome EXCEPT which one?

burkholderia cepacia produces an inducible beta-lactamase.

the bacterium ___________ is a common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis contracted from contaminated food, especially poultry.

campylobacter jejuni

what bacteria is responsible for the most common bacterial gastroenteritis in the United States, usually accompanied by frequent, blood diarrhea?

campylobacter jejuni

Trachoma . . . (a case)

can be caused by introduction of bacteria into the eye via a fomite in adults; is the leading cause of non traumatic blindness in humans; can be passed to a child during birth; is an infection conjuctiva

enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from other Gram-positive cocci because enterococci . . .

can grow in the presence of bile salts

what vector is implicated in the spread of the disease of this clinical case? (85 man)

cat flea

the presence of ___________ can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus from other Gram-positive cocci.

catalase enzyme

genes for beta-lactamase are present in Burkholderia cepacia but are not normally expressed unless they are induced. exposure to which of the following agents most likely induced the expression of beta-lactamase resistance in Burkholderia cepacia? (Select the one best answer.) cephalexin cefiazidime ticarcillin/claulanate tobramycin

cephalexin

in cystic fibrosis, a defective gene and its protein product lead to the production of thick and dehydrated mucus because of ___________.

defective secretion of chloride ions and excess absorption of sodium

because Chloe is complaining of stomachache and is refusing food, Dr. Turner orders tests to evaluate Chloe for pancreatic insufficiency. which of the following test results would indicate pancreatic insufficiency?

detection of fat in the feces, which indicates that fats are not being digested and appropriately absorbed in the intestine; reduced pancreatic elastase levels

what is the treatment of choice for this disease? (85 man)

doxycycline

which of the following is NOT a disease generally associated with Neisseria gonorrhoeae? meningitis ophthalmia neonatorum pharyngitis dysentery

dysentery

the Ixodes tick can infect humans with Borrelia burgdorferi during which stage(s) of its life cycle?

either as a nymph or an adult

what disease is they man most likely to have? (85 man)

endemic typhus

during a stay in the hospital, an accident victim develops symptoms of bacteremia. a blood sample shows the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs. lab tests determine that the bacteria are nonhemolytic and bile salt tolerant. the bacteremia is likely due to ___________.

enterococcus

members of the genus (bacillus/enterococcus/myobacterium) are part of the normal microbiota of humans.

enterococcus

___________ is the treatment of choice for C. trachomatis. (a case)

erythromycin

a sample from a public water supply contains Gram-negative rod-shaped bacteria that ferment lactose with gas production. which of the following microbes would be the most likely candidate for this contaminant? salmonella enterica proteus mirabilis yersinia pestis escherichia coli

escherichia coli

which of the following coliform is the most common cause of non-nosocomial urinary tract infections? proteus mirabilis escherichia coli klebsiella pneumoniae serrate marcescens enterobacter

escherichia coli

which of the following are properties of exotoxins? exotoxins target specific cellular structures or molecules exotoxins are produced primarily by gram-negative bacteria exotoxins are protein molecules exotoxins are extremely heat stable very small amounts of exotoxin can be lethal exotoxin are released from the cell during death or replication

exotoxins target specific cellular structure or molecules; exotoxins are protein molecules; very small amounts of exotoxin can be lethal

t/f: enterobacteriaceae are rarely pathogenic.

false

the ability of Vibrio cholera to cause diseases depends on a number of factors. Which of the following are general requirements for any organism to cause disease within a host? (overcrowding) gaining access to the host via a portal of entry direct damage of host tissue depleting the host of nutrients at the site of infection evasion of host defenses adherence to host tissue production of exotoxins

gaining access to the host via a portal of entry; evasion of host defenses; adherence to host tissue

what disease does this patient have? what is the common name for this disease? syphilis; tabes genital herpes, crabs gonorrhea, the clap chlamydia, red eye

gonorrhea, the clap

the most significant streptococcal pathogens are found in which of the following lancefield groups? groups . . . A and D A, B, and D A and B B and D

groups A and B

infection with ___________ may result in peptic ulcers and stomach cancer.

helicobacter pylori

the ability to produce (hyalurondiase/lipase/protease) enables Staphylococcus aureus to penetrate and spread through tissue.

hyaluronidase

streptococcus pneumoniae is found as part of the normal microbiota of the mouth and pharynx and yet we can cause disease in some people when it is inhaled to the lungs. why do you think this is?

if streptococcus pneumoniae is inhaled from the nasopharynx into lungs damaged by a previous viral infection or in an immune compromised person, it can flourish

streptococcus pneumoniae is found as part of the normal microbiota of the mouth and pharynx and yet can cause disease in some people when it is inhaled into the lungs. why do you think this is?

if streptococcus pneumoniae is inhaled from the nasopharynx into lungs damaged by a previous viral infection or in an immune-compromised person, it can flourish.

what diagnostic test could be used to verify this diagnosis? (85) man

immunofluorescent antibody stain of a blood smear from this patient

an indirect immunofluorescence assay is described as the CDC "gold standard serological test" for RMSF. keeping in mind the principles behind indirect fluorescent-antibody (indirect FA) testing, which of the following characteristics contributes to its choice as the gold standard?

indirect FA . . . uses an antibody that reacts with any human antibody; is more sensitive than direct immunofluorescent testing; is rapid, sensitive, and specific

some of the individuals who said they ate the barbecue with the sauce did not become ill. which one of the following is the most likely explanation for such an occurrence? (sauce)

individuals who became ill may have consumed larger quantities of the food than individuals who did not become ill.

rickettsiosis is caused by rickettsia rickettsii, a pathogen that . . .

infects the lining of blood vessels and leads to leaking of plasma into tissue

how would you know if you were "eaten alive" by chiggers? (85 man)

intense itching, especially of the feet and legs

what is one virulence factor that differentiates staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci?

it can produce coagulase

the pneumococcal vaccine was made using the purified capsular material from 23 common strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae, but it is not effective against all strains. why is this?

it cannot cover all the strains because not all strains have the same antigens on their surface

treponema pallidum is transmitted almost solely by sexual contact because ___________.

it is extremely fastidious and sensitive

the most important virulence factor of Vibrio cholerae is . . .

its ability to produce a potent exotoxin

which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection? rheumatic fever glomerulonephritis caused by the group A streptococci impetigo scarlet fever toxic schock syndrome

rheumatic fever

epidemic typhus, spread by lice, is caused by

rickettsia prowazekii

strep throat may progress to ___________, characterized by a skin rash and a bright red swollen tongue.

scarlet fever

in approximately 10% of patients tubercles rupture and reactivate infection. this is known as ___________ tuberculosis.

secondary

the true pathogen (Salmonella/Shigella/Yersinia) is a noncoliform, nonmotile, oxidase-negative member of the Enterobacteriaceae that does not produce hydrogen sulfide.

shigella

further testing reveals this is a strain of E. coli O157:H7. what virulence factor produced by this strain could cause the heart and lung damage observed in this case?

shiva-like toxin

treponema pallidum is a spirochete. how does this morphology contribute to the pathogenesis of this organism?

spirochetes like treponema palladium have a tightly coiled, helical morphology, which allows them to move by rotation and burrow into tissues

a clinical specimen from a syphilis lesion showed NO spirochetes under the microscope when viewed in the hospital laboratory. Why is this?

spirochetes tropically do not survive transport

a strain of staphylococcus aureus that loses the ability to produce staphylokinase will be unable to do which of the following? evade immune cells grown on the surface of the skin degrade beta-lactam antibiotics spread to new locations in the body

spread to new locations in the body

what practice would NOT be a good way to prevent food borne botulism? maintaining an acidic environment, below pH 4.5 storing canned foods at room temp heat canned foods at least 80C for 20 minutes prior to consumption storing canned foods in the fridge

storing canned foods at room temp

otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with . . .

streptococcus pneumoniae

which of the following stages of syphilis is ALMOST NEVER seen in developed countries? latent phase primary syphilis secondary syphilis tertiary syphilis

tertiary syphilis

which of the following is NOT a virulence factor for Helicobacter pylori?

the ability of H. pylori to enter cells for protection

why does tuberculosis involve months of antibiotic treatment?

the bacteria grow very slowly.

strains of streptococcus pneumoniae can cause disease only when a capsule is present. why is the presence of a capsule considered a virulence factor?

the capsule prevents the bacteriam from being digested after endocytosis in the cells of the host

strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause disease only when a capsule is present. why is the presence of a capsule considered a virulence factor?

the capsule prevents the bacterium from being digested after endocytosis in the cells of the host.

gonorrhea is often asymptomatic in women because ___________.

the cervix is usually the site of infection

what effect will the penicillin have on Shelly's cells? (throat)

the penicillin will not have any impact on Shelly's cells because it targets peptidoglycan, which is found only in bacteria.

streptococcos pneumoniae was originally named diplococcus pneumoniae. why was the genus name diplococcus originally given to this organism?

the prefix 'di-' means two, and these organisms are usually found in pairs under the microscope

even though Escherichia coli cause, on occasion, severe human disease, there is no vaccine deployed for it. Why do you think this is?

there is no vaccine developed for E. coli because it is an advantageous part of the normal intestinal flora.

what is true for the Chlamydia group of bacteria? (a case)

they are very small in size, they are all intracellular parasites

over 90% of staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. why?

they produce B-lactamase

how was this disease transmitted? (STD)

this is most commonly transmitted by unprotected sex

people can reduce the chance of contracting rabbit fever by avoiding rabbits, muskrats, and (fleas/lice/ticks).

ticks

some studies have indicated that the ID50 for Vibrio cholera can be as high as 10^8 organisms. which of the following most likely explains the requirement for this relatively high ID50? (overcrowding)

to establish infections, V. cholera must survive the most immune response and the acidic environment of the stomach.

a student camping in a wilderness area where Rocky Mountain spotted fever is endemic discovers a tick on her leg. she easily removed it because it had just attached to her leg. What is her risk for contracting RMSF? View Available Hint(s)

very low, because Rickettsia rickettsia is activated only after hours of feeding

a gastroenteritis which usually resolves in 72 hours in contracted from eating shellfish contaminated with . . .

vibrio parahaemolyticus

what streptococci is associated with dental caries?

viridian's stretococci

the normal habitat for Vibrio cholerae is (humans/animals/water).

water

the IV regimen administer by Ron's doctors is consistent with the CDC's recommendation that doxycycline be administered when RMSF is suspected. Apply your knowledge of RMSF to chose the most likely reasons behind this recommendation. (hiking)

without prompt treatment RMSK can have a mortality rate as high as 20%; a delay in treatment can lead to complications that influence respiratory, cardia, and renal faliure; most tests that can definitively identify R. rickettsia are not very effective early in infection; the symptoms of RMSF are similar to those of several other infections, making definitive diagnosis difficult

what is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonic plague?

yersinia pestis

a student was bitten by a tick and fears that she may be at risk for contracting tularemia. she removed the tick a very short time after it had bitten her. is she at risk for tularemia?

yes, because Francisella is one of the most infectious of all bacteria