Blood Bank Exam 1

A Jean, such as the old Jean, that produces no detectable product is called: A. An amorph B. A trait C. An allele D. Recessive

A

A person with the genotype MM Shows a 3+ reaction one red blood cells are mixed with M antisera, where as a person with the genotype MN Shows a 1+ reaction. What phenomenon is occurring here? A. Dosage B. Prozone C. Zeta potential D. Hemolysis

A

Anti-IgG is specific for what part of the IgG molecule? A. FC fragment B. Constant region of Fab fragment C. Hypervariable region of Fab fragment D. Kappa light chain

A

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react? A. 22°C B. 37°C C. 56°C D. 42°C

A

How is it genetically possible for a child to have type Rh negative? A. Both parents are Dd B. Both parents are DD C. Mom is DD and dad is Dd D. Sibling is Rh-positive

A

How many chromosomes do somatic cells of humans have? A. 46 B. 50 C. 23 D. 100

A

IgG- coated RBCs Will be phagocytized by what Effector cells? A. Monocytes/macrophages B. T cells C. Eosinophils D. Basophils

A

Most antigens in the various blood group systems follow what kind of inheritance patterns? A. Codominant B. Homozygous C. Dominant D. Autosomal

A

What cells are responsible for mounting a secondary response when exposure to the same antigen occurs? A. Memory T/B cells B. Neutrophils C. Plasma cells D. Myeloblasts

A

What effect does a low pH have an a Celine AHG test? A. Enhances antibody elution B. Enhances the antigen antibody complex C. Increases hydrogen bonding D. Increases bacterial contamination

A

What is the definition of an immunoglobulin? a. A protein molecule produced in response to an antigen B. a protein molecule in response to an antibody C. A substance that aids in the primary immune response D. A substance that aids in the growth and proliferation of leukocytes

A

What is the purpose of the anti-human globulin AHG test and blood banking? A. It detects red blood cells coated with anti-body by bridging the gap between red blood cells B. It detects white blood cells coated with antibodies by bridging the gap between red blood cells C. It detects red blood cells coded with antigen D. All of the above

A

What test is used to remove autoantibodies from test serum? A. Adsorption B. Direct Coombs C. Elution D. Indirect Coombs

A

Which is a characteristic of natural killer cells? A. They bind to antibody coated cells in ADCC B. They require the presence of MHC to respond to antigen C. They produce antibodies to act on foreign antigens D. They possess the TCR on their membrane surface

A

Which of the following antibodies is considered the most significant and blood banking because it reacts at body temperature? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

A

Which of the following best describes the structure of human chromosomes? A. Linear strands of DNA wound around histones P. Linear strands of RNA wrapped around histones C. Tertiary structure of DNA wound around histones D. Quaternary structure of DNA wound around histones

A

Why are checks cells added to all negative reactions in the AHG test? A. To ensure AHG was not neutralized by free globulin molecules D. To wash away any unbound antibody C. To increase the cell to serum ratio D. To bring the antibody closer to the antigen and the test system

A

Why is low ionic strength solution (LISS) used in blood banking? A. It reduces the incubation time B. It reduces the net negative surface charge on the RBC C. It increases the Zeta potential D. It enhances aggregation

A

Why is the 37°C reading omitted when using PEG additive? A. PEG may cause aggregation of RBCs at 37°C B. Antibodies detected by PEG do not react at 37°C C. Warm reacting antibodies are not clinically significant D. Unwanted reactions to the C3b will be detected at 37°C

A

"Complete" Agglutinins that agglutinate red blood cells and saline are of which immunoglobulin class? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

B

A father carries the XG trait and passes it on to all of his daughters but none of his sons. What type of inheritance does this represent? A. Autosomal dominant B. X-linked dominant C. X-linked recessive D. Autosomal recessive

B

All of the following are consistent with Mendels basic rule of inheritance except: A. The gene is transmitted through generations in tact B. A pair of genes is always found in the same Gammy C. Different pairs of genes are assorted independently of each other D. A pair of genes is rarely found in the same gamete

B

And advantage of polyclonal anti-Aunt IgG over mono clonal anti-GG is: A. AHG produced and rabbits is more specific than AHG produced in mice B. Polyclonal anti-IgG will recognize IgG variance C. Polyclonal anti-IgG has an anti-complement activity D. Polyclonal anti-IgG recognizes only one IgG epitope

B

At what temperature do IgG antibodies react optimally? A. 22°C B. 37°C C. 56°C D. 4°C

B

At what temperature is the incubation phase of the AHG test? A. 22°C B. 37°C C. 4°C D. 56°C

B

Conventional tube testing and AHG testing has one distinct advantage over gel testing. Identify the advantage. A. Sensitivity B. Cost C. Time-saving D. Automation

B

Extravascular molasses occurs one red blood cells are coded with antibodies, what organ sequesters these cells? A. Thymus B. Reticuloendothelial system C. Bone marrow D. All of the above

B

How is polyclonal antiglobulin serum made? A. Serum from one human is injected into another human and an antibody is produced B. Humans serum is injected in the rabbits and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody C. Murine serum is injected into rabbits and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody D. Murine serum is injected into mice and an immune response triggers the production of an antibody

B

How would a negative IAT be demonstrated in solid phase methodology? A. The cells form of monolayer B. There is a pellet at the bottom of the well C. The well turns orange D. Smart agglutinins up here at the bottom of the well

B

In an immune response _____ antibodies are formed before ____ A. IgG, IgA B. IgM, IgG C. IgG, IgM D. IgM, IgA

B

Most clinically significant blood group antibodies are of which IgG subclasses? A. IgG1 and IgG2 B. IgG1 and IgG3 C. IgG2 and IgG3 D. IgG2 and IgG4

B

One antigen and antibody combined they are held together by noncovalent forces. With the absence of a visible lattice, this stage is called ________ A. Adhesion B. Sensitization C. Agglutination D. Inhibition

B

Only 5% of Kell-negative individuals will develop antibodies to Kell if exposed to the Kell antigen, whereas 50% to 70% of Rh(D)-negative individuals would produce antibodies to D upon exposure. What is the reason for this? A. Difference in ABO type B. Difference in immunogenicity C. Phenotype D. All of the above

B

The indirect antiglobulin test detects which antigen antibody reactions? A. In vivo B. In vitro C. Both in vivo and in vitro D. None of the above

B

The two strands of DNA are: A. Parallel B. Antiparallel C. Somatic D. Zigzag

B

What blood group is the best example of Codominantly inherited blood group genes? A. Rh B. MN C. Lewis D. ABO

B

What class of immunoglobulin is capable of crossing the placenta A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgD

B

What do "check cells" contain? A. A+ Red blood cell coated with anti-D B. Rh(D)+ red blood cells coated with anti-D C. Rh(D)- red blood cells coated with anti-D D. B+ Red blood cells coated with anti-D

B

What does analysis represent in an antigen antibody reaction? A. A negative result B. A positive result C. And inconclusive results D. None of the above

B

What function does chemically modified IgG serve? A. It creates a pentametric structure to enhance binding B. Disulfide bonds are reduced in the hinge region of IgG which promotes flexibility of Fab portions C. It alters the light change variability portion of molecule D. It associates the IgG molecule from surface of sensitized red blood cells

B

What is the optimal temperature for complement activation? A. 58°C B. 37°C C. 4°C D. 22°C

B

What is the purpose of washing cells in the AHG test? A. To dilute serum B. To remove all unbound protein C. To remove all bound protein D. To exclude a low affinity antibody

B

What type of genetic change mutation is in capable of reverting back to the original phenotype? A. duplication B. Deletion C. Recombination D. Insertion

B

Which immunoglobulin exist in a pentametric configuration? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. IgE

B

Which of the following antibodies as least likely to bind compliment? A. JK^a B. Kell C. ABO D. P

B

Which of the following best describes classical genetics? A. DNA alteration that is caused by a physical or chemical agent B. Transmission of characteristics from parents to offspring C. Possessing a pair of identical alleles D. The synthesis of RNA from DNA requiring RNA Polymerase

B

Which of the following statements is true concerning immunoglobulin variations? A. Allotypic variations occur primarily in the variable region B. Isotypic refers to all members of a species C. Idiotypic Variation occurs in the constant region D. Isotypic Variation is associated with organ transplantation and paternity testing

B

Why are enzymes using blood banking? A. Enzymes enhance reactivity of MNS antigens B. Sialic acid is released from red blood cells, which helps to reduce the Zeta potential C. Hydrophobic like a proteins are removed from the red blood cell membrane, rendering the membrane hydrophilic, thereby allowing the red blood cells to move closer D. All of the above

B

A human gamete contains how many chromosomes? A. 23 pairs B. 46 pairs C. 23 chromosomes D. 46 chromosomes

C

A patient came in for a routine type and screen prior to surgery. The antibody screen was negative at 37°C and at the AHG face. Check cells do not produce agglutination often. What is a possible explanation for this result? A. Dirty glassware B. Use of positive DAT cells C. Inadequate washing D. Over centrifugation

C

A structural alteration of DNA and an organism that is caused by a physical or chemical agent is called: A. Transcription B. Translation C. Mutation D. Cloning

C

All of the following are characteristics of a secondary immune response except: A. Quickly formed antibodies B. Higher affinity for antigen C. Higher dose of antigen required to form antibodies D. Lower dose of antigen required to form antibodies

C

All of the following are functions performed by the compliment system except: A. Direct lysis of bacteria B. Promotion of phagocytosis C. Decreased vascular permeability D. Smooth muscle contraction

C

All of the following complement proteins can be found on the red blood cell membrane except: A. C3D B. C4B C. C4A D. C4d

C

All of the following conditions may produce a positive DAT except: A. Hemolytic disease or the newborn B. Hemolytic transfusion reaction C. Lymphoma D. Drug-induced hemolytic anemia

C

All of the following techniquesAre used in the laboratory to detect blood group antigens are antibodies except: A. Agglutination B. Precipitation C. ELISA D. Hemolysis

C

Alternate forms of a gene that can occur at a single chromosome locus are referred to as: A. Amorphs B. Traits C. Alleles D. Recessive

C

An antibody screen is performed, and all three tubes are negative after adding AHG. Check cells are added, and the tubes are centrifuged. No agglutination occurs after the addition of check cells what is the next course of action? A. Recentrifuging the tubes B. Adding one drop of control cells C. Repeating the antibody screen D. Adding one drop of AHG

C

At what age do inference begin to produce their own antibodies? A. One week B. Two months C. Six months D. One year

C

How do restriction endonucleases function A. Disrupt hydrogen bonding in DNA structure B. Promote digestion of RNA C. Cut DNA into smaller fragments D. Terminate translation of mRNA

C

How is the classical pathway of complement activated? A. By polysaccharides on the surface of bacteria B. By enzyme catalysis C. By binding of antigen with antibody D. By Lipopolysaccharides on surface of red blood cells

C

In Mendels law separation, the first filial generation is: A. Recessive B. Homozygous C. Heterozygous D. Autologous

C

In the MN blood group seen, a person who inherits an "M" allele and an N allele expresses both M and N antigens in the RBCs. Which of the following is true? A. M is dominant to N B. N is dominant to M C. M and N are codominant alleles D. M and N are located on the same chromosome

C

Polyspecific AHG contains: A. Anti-IgG B. Anti-C3b-C3d C. Anti IgG and anti C3d D. Anti IgG and anti IgM

C

Saline used for the blood banking test should have a pH of ____ A. 5.0-5.5 B. 6.8-7.2 C. 7.2-7.4 D. 7.5-8.0

C

The anti-human globulin AHG test was discovered in 1945 by whom? A. Landsteiner B. Mollison C. Coombs D. Sanger

C

The condition in which one chromosome has a copy of the genes and the other chromosome has that Gene deleted or absent is referred to as: A. Homozygous B. Heterozygous C. Hemizygous D. Recessive

C

The diploid chromosome number and humans is: A. 12 B. 23 C. 46 D.92

C

What Rh type does a mother have to be to produce antibodies to Rh(D) from an Rh-positive infant? A. O positive B. Rh positive C. Rh negative D. Kell negative

C

What is a possible consequences of incubating tubes too long with LISS one performing the IAT? A. Increase sensitivity B. Hemolysis C. Elution of antibody from red blood cells D. All of the above

C

What is a vector? A. Substance capable of catalyzing a reaction B. Sequence of three bases in a strand of DNA C. Extra chromosomal genetic element that can carry a recombinant DNA molecule into a host bacterial cell D. Substance that can carry an electric current in solution

C

What is responsible for recognition of the antibody-binding site to homologous antigen? A. Phenotype B. Solubility of antigen C. Variable region of light/heavy chain D. Complementarity

C

What is the incubation time for the IAT when saline is used instead of LISS? A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 30 minutes D. One hour

C

When an individual is said to have blood Group A it refers to the individuals? A. Alleles on the chromosome B. genotype C. Phenotype D. Haplotype

C

Which immunoglobulin is found in the greatest concentration in serum? A. IgE B. IgM C. IgG D. IgA

C

Which of the following best describes the process of my ptosis? A. Cell division by which only 1/2 of the daughter cells produce are identical to the parent cell B. Cell division of germ cells by which two sets sets of divisions of the nucleus produce cells that contain half the number of chromosomes of somatic cells C. Cell division that produces two daughter cells having the same number of chromosomes as the parent D. Cell division that produces for daughter cells 4n

C

Which of the following blood group systems is not likely to cause HDN? A. Kell B. ABO C. MN D. Rh

C

Which of the following is consistent with hemolytic disease of the newborn? A. Recipient antibody coating donor red blood cells B. Maternal antibody coating fetal red blood cells C. Fetal antibody coating maternal red blood cells D. Auto antibody coating individuals on red blood cells

C

Why is EDTA not conductive to complement activation? A. Antigens are destroyed B. Antibodies are neutralized C. Calcium is inactivated D. It dilutes plasma

C

You are performing an IAT, and You are suspicious of the results. It appears there may be a weak alloantibody present. You decide to repeat the test, and at the LISS stage you decide to add an extra two drops of serum to each to being tested. What can you expect to happen? Hey. There will be no effect B. The additional serum increase his reaction strengths, because more possible antibodies added to the reaction C. Sensitivity of the test decreases because you increase the ionic strength of the mixture D. You lower the Zeta potential that's enhancing your results

C

A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group O. Their first born child has the blood group O. The mothers most probable genotype is: A. OO B. AA C. AB D. AO

D

All of the following are important and evaluating a positive DAT except: A. Patient diagnosis B. Drug therapy C. Transfusion history D. Donation history

D

All of the following make cause an alternation and DNA except: A. Ultraviolet light B. Alkylating agents C. Antibodies D. Enzymes

D

DNA is composed of all of the following except: A. Adenine B. Guanine C. Cytosine D. Uracil

D

False negative results and anti-human globulin testing can be caused by: A. Over centrifugation B. Under centrifugation C. Cell suspensions that our too weak or too heavy D. All of the above

D

How is RNA different from DNA? A. RNA usually exist as one strand B. Ribose is substituted for deoxyribose C. RNA incorporates uracil D. All of the above

D

Opsonization is: A. The coding of pathogens with factors that facilitate phagocytosis B. A major role of complement an immunity C. The binding opsonin, such as an antibody, to a receptor on the pathogen cell membrane D. All of the above

D

Point mutations include which of the following? A. Substitutions B. Insertions C. Deletions D. Substitutions, insertions, and deletions

D

The portion of the immunoglobulin molecule that determines class is the: A. Light chain B. Kappa chain C. Lambda chain D. Heavy chain

D

What class of antibody can be present in AHG? A. IgG B. IgM C. IgA D. All of the above

D

What does poly specific AHG contain? A. IgG B. C3b C. C3d D. All of the above

D

What does the term Zeta potential mean? A. The ability of antigen to react with anti-body B. The attraction of positive charges on the red blood cell surface to negative charges in an ionic cloud C. The attraction of negative charges on the surface of red blood cells to positive charges in an ionic cloud D. The repulsion between red blood cells caused by noncovalent forces

D

What is a possible explanation for a weak reaction (1+) In a reverse ABO grouping test? A. Elderly patient B. Immunocompromised patient C. IgM deficiency D. All of the above

D

What is the action of PEG? A.Reduces ionic strength to allow for faster antibody uptake B. It's macromolecules allow for closer contact of antibody coated RBCs C. Increases the serum to cell ratio D. Removes water molecules there by concentrating antibodies

D

What type of globulin does the antiglobulin test detect? A. IgG alloantibodies B. IgG autoantibodies C. C3b complement components D. All of the above

D

Which IgG Sub class primarily compromises antibodies to the RH Blood group system? A. IgG1, IgG2 B. IgG2, IgG4 C. IgG 3, IgG4 D. IgG1, IgG3

D

Which blood group antibodies are known to activate compliment, leading to intravascular hemolysis? A. Lewis B. Rh C. Duffy D. ABO

D

Which of the following corresponds to the basic structure of immunoglobulin? A. Two light chains held together with an interlink disulfide bonds B. Two heavy chains held together with an interlink disulfide bone C. One light chain and one heavy chain held together by covalent disulfide bonds D. Two light chains and two heavy chains held together by covalence disulfide bonds

D

Which of the following is not a clinical application for a direct antiglobulin test? A. HDN B. HTR C. AIHA D. Heterophile detection

D

Which of the following must be true and using the Hardy Weinberg equation? A. The population must be large B. Mutations cannot occur C. Mating must occur randomly D. All of the above

D

Which of the following statements is not true? A. T cell receptor's do not recognize for an antigen on their own like B cells do B. Major Histocompatibility complex (MHC) Molecules are cell membrane proteins C. MHC molecules are required for T cells to recognize foreign antigen D. MHC molecules are required for B cells to recognize foreign antigen

D

Why is incubation omitted in the direct AHG test? A. Polyspecific AFC contains a higher dose of anti-IgG B. Incubation will cause lysis of red blood cells C. Incubation elutes complement components from red blood cells D. In vivo antigen antibody complex is already formed

D

Why was anti-complement introduced in the AHG Sera? A. Certain clinically significant antibodies demonstrate complement activity B. Complement components enhance Kell antibodies C. It provides additional information for transfusion reaction workups D. All of the above

D

And what stage of mitosis is DNA not actively dividing

Interphase