Book Questions

¡Supera tus tareas y exámenes ahora con Quizwiz!

A 40 year old male patient (70kg) was recently diagnosed with infection involving methicillin-resistant S. aureus. He received 2000 mg of vancomycin as an IV loading dose. The peak plasma concentration of vancomycin was reported to be 28.5 mg/L. The apparent volume of distribution is: A. 1 L/kg B. 10 L/kg C. 7 L/kg D. 70 L/kg E. 14 L/kg

A. 1 L/kg

Which of the following is a systemic effect of a muscarinic agonist? A. Reduced heart rate (bradycardia) B. Increased blood pressure C. Mydriasis (dilation of the pupil) D. Reduced urinary frequency E. Constipation

A. Reduced heart rate (bradycardia)

Alkalization of urine by giving bicarbonate is used to treat patients presenting with phenobarbital (weak acid) overdose. Which of the following best describe the rationale for alkalization of urine in the setting? A. To reduce tubular reabsorption of phenobarbital B. To decrease ionization of phenobarbital C. To increase glomerular filtration of phenobarbital D. To decrease proximal tubular secretion E. To increase tubular reabsorption of phenobarbital

A. To reduce tubular reabsorption of phenobarbital

Which of the following is correct regarding β-Blockers? A. Treatment with β-Blockers should not be stopped abruptly B. Propranolol is a cardioselective β-Blocker C. Caradioselective s worsen asthma D. β-Blockers decrease peripheral resistance by causing vasorelaxation

A. Treatment with β-Blockers should not be stopped abruptly

Which of the following physiological changes could happen when a person is attacked by a grizzly bear? A. increase in heart rate B. increase in lacrimation (tears) C. constriction of the pupils (miosis) D. increase in gastric motility

A. increase in heart rate

Which of the following is correct regarding the neuromuscular blockers (NMBs)? A. Nondepolarizing NMBs are administered orally B. Cholinesterase inhibitors reduce the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs C. Nondepolarizing NMBs affect diaphragm muscles first D. Effects of depolarizing neuromuscular blockers can be reversed using cholinesterase inhibitors

B. Cholinesterase inhibitors reduce the effects

All of the following statements regarding central control of autonomic functions are correct except A. Baroreceptors are pressure sensors located at various cardiovascular sites B. The parasympathetic system is activated by the CNS in response to a sudden drop in blood pressure C. The parasympathetic system is activated by the CNS in response to a sudden increase in blood pressure D. The sympathetic system is activated by the CNS in response to a sudden drop in blood pressure

B. The parasympathetic system is activated by the CNS in response to a sudden drop in blood pressure

Which of the following statements most accurately describes a system having spare receptors? A. The number of spare receptors determines the maximum effect B. Spare receptors are sequestered in the cytosol C. A single drug-receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated D. Spare receptors are active even in the absence of an agonist E. Agonist affinity for spare receptors is less than their affinity for "non-spare" receptors

C. A single drug-receptor interaction results in many cellular response elements being activated

A 76 year old female with renal insufficiency presents to the clinic with severe pain secondary to a compression fracture in the lumbar spine. She reports that the pain has been uncontrolled with tramadol, and it is decided to start treatment with an opioid. Which of the following is the best opioid for this patient? A. Meperidine B. Fentanyl transdermal patch C. Hydrocodone D. Morphine

C. Hydrocodone

In Alzheimer's disease, there is a deficiency of cholinergic neuronal function in the brain. Theoretically, which of the following strategies will be useful in treating the symptoms of Alzheimer's disease? A. Inhibiting cholinergic receptors in the brain B. Inhibiting the release of acetylcholine in the brain C. Inhibiting the acetylcholinesterase enzyme in the brain D. Activating the acetylcholinesterase enzyme in the brain

C. Inhibiting the acetylcholinesterase enzyme in the brain

Which of the following is correct regarding adrenergic neurotransmission? A. Epinephrine is the major neurotransmitter released from sympathetic nerve terminals B. Norepinephrine is mainly released from the adrenal glands C. Tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine prevent reuptake of norepinephrine in the nerve terminal D. Monoamine oxidases (MAO) converts dopamine to norepinephrine in the nerve terminal

C. Tricyclic antidepressants and cocaine prevent reuptake of norepinephrine in the nerve terminal

Which of the following is true about the blood-brain barrier? A. Endothelial cells of the blood-brain barrier have slit junctions B. Ionized or polar drugs can cross the blood-brain barrier easily C. Drugs cannot cross the blood-brain barrier through specific transporters D. Lipid soluble drugs readily cross the blood-brain barrier E. The capillary structure of the blood-brain barrier is similar to that of the liver and spleen

D. Lipid soluble drugs readily cross the blood-brain barrier

Which of the following opioids is the LEAST lipophilic? A. Fentanyl B. Methadone C. Meperidine D. Morphine

D. Morphine

A 70 year old male needs to be treated with an α-blocker for overflow incontinence due to his enlarged prostate. Which of the following drugs would you suggest in this patient that will not affect his blood pressure significantly? A. Prazosin B. Doxazosin C. Phentolamine D. Tamsulosin E. Terazosin

D. Tamsulosin

Head and neck irradiation in cancer patients can decrease salivary secretion and cause dry mouth. All of the following drugs of classes of drugs are theoretically useful in improving secretion of saliva in these patients except: A. Muscarinic antagonists B. Muscarinic agonists C. Anticholinesterase agents D. Pilocarpine E. Neostigmine

A. Muscarinic antagonists

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems? A. Acetylcholine activates muscarinic receptors B. Acetylcholine activates adrenergic receptors C. Norepinephrine activates muscarinic receptors D. Activation of the sympathetic system causes a drop in blood pressure

A. Acetylcholine activates muscarinic receptors

Which of the following is correct regarding ganglion blocking drugs? A. Blockade of sympathetic ganglia could result in reduced blood pressure B. Blockade of parasympathetic ganglia could result in reduced heart rate C. Nicotine is a nondepolarizing ganglion blocker D. Atropine is a nondepolarizing ganglion blocker

A. Blockade of sympathetic ganglia could result in reduced blood pressure

Isoproterenol produces maximal contraction of cardiac muscle in a manner similar to epinephrine. Which of the following best describes isoproterenol? A. Full agonist B. Partial agonist C. Competititve antagonist D. Irreversible antagonist E. Inverse agonist

A. Full agonist

In the presence of naloxone, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Naloxone by itself has no effect. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications? A. Naloxone is a competitive antagonist B. Morphine is a full agonist, and naloxone is a partial agonist C. Morphine is less efficacious than is naloxone D. Morphine is less potent than is naloxone E. Naloxone is a noncompetitive antagonist

A. Naloxone is a competitive antagonist

Which of the following is correct regarding neurotransmitters and neurotransmission? A. Neurotransmitters are released from the presynaptic nerve terminals B. Neurotransmitter release is triggered by the arrival of action potentials in the postsynaptic cell C. Intracellular calcium levels drop in the neuron before the neurotransmitter is released D. Serotonin and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters in the ANS

A. Neurotransmitters are released from the presynaptic nerve terminals

A patient was administered a neuromuscular blocker (NMB) prior to a surgical procedure to produce skeletal paralysis. This NMB drug affected small, rapidly contracting muscles of the face and eyes first and diaphragm muscles last. The effect of this drug was easily reversed with neostigmine. Which of the following neuromuscular blockers was most likely administered to this patient? A. Rocuronium B. Succinylcholine C. Diazepam D. Tubocurarine

A. Rocuronium

An elderly female who lives in a farm house was brought to the emergency room in serious condition after ingesting a liquid from an unlabeled bottle found near her bed, apparently in a suicide attempt. She presented with diarrhea, frequent urination, convulsions, breathing difficulties, constricted pupils (miosis), and excessive salivation. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient? A. She most likely consumed an organophosphate pesticide B. The symptoms are consistent with sympathetic activation C. Her symptoms can be treated using an anitcholinesterase agent D. Her symptoms can be treated using a cholinergic agonsits

A. She most likely consumed an organophosphate pesticide

Botulinum toxin blocks the release of acetylcholine from cholinergic nerve terminals. Which of the following is a possible effect of botulinum toxin? A. Skeletal muscle paralysis B. Improvement of myasthenia gravis symptoms C. Increased salivation D. Reduced heart rate

A. Skeletal muscle paralysis

In the presence of pentazocine, a higher concentration of morphine is required to elicit full pain relief. Pentazocine by itself has a smaller analgesic effect than does morphine, even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct regarding these medications? A. Pentazocine is a competitive antagonist B. Morphine is a full agonist, and pentazocine is a partial agonist C. Morphine is less efficacious than is pentazocine D. Morphine is less potent than is pentazocine E. Pentazocine is a noncompetitive antagonist

B. Morphine is a full agonist, and pentazocine is a partial agonist

If an opthalmologist wants to dilate the pupils for an eye examination, which of the following drugs/classes of drugs could be theoretically useful? A. Muscarinic receptor activator (agonist) B. Muscarinic receptor inhibitor (antagonist) C. Acetylcholine D. Pilocarpine E. Neostigmine

B. Muscarinic receptor inhibitor (antagonist)

If 10 mg of naproxen produces the same analgesic response as 100 mg of ibuprofen, which of the following statements is correct? A. Naproxen is more efficacious than is ibuprofen B. Naproxen is more potent than ibuprofen C. Naproxen is a full agonist, and ibuprofen is a partial agonist D. Naproxen is a competitive antagonist E. Naproxen is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen

B. Naproxen is more potent than ibuprofen

A 64 year old male is preparing for a total knee replacement. He is taking many medications that are metabolized by the CYP450 enzyme system and is worried about drug interactions with the pain medication that will be used following his surgery. Which of the following opioids would have the lowest chance of interacting with his medications that are metabolized by the CYP450 enzyme system? A. Methandone B. Oxymorphone C. Oxycodone D. Hydrocodone

B. Oxymorphone

Atropa belladonna is a plant that contains atropine (a muscarinic antagonist). Which of the following drugs or classes of drugs will be useful in treating poisoning with belladona? A. Malathion B. Physostigmine C. Muscarinic antagonists D. Nicotinic antagonists

B. Physostigmine

A 50 year old male was brought to the emergecy room after being stung by a hornet. The patient was found to be in anaphylactic shock , and the medical team tried to reverse the bronchoconstriction and hypotension using epinephrine. However, the patient did not fully respond to the epinephrine treatment. The patients wife mentioned that he is taking a prescription medication for his blood pressure, the name of which she does no remember. Whch of the following medications is he most likely taking that could have prevented the effects of epinephrine? A. Doxazosin B. Propranolol C. Metoprolol d. Acebutolol

B. Propranolol

Atropine is one of the ingredients in the antidiarrheal combination diphenoxylate/atropine available in the United States. Which of the following effects is produced by atropine that contributes to its antidiarrheal effect? A. Increased in gastrointestinal motility B. Reduction in gastrointestinal motility C. Increase in salivation D. Increase in acid secretion

B. Reduction in gastrointestinal motility

Chlorothiazide is a weakly acidic drug with a PKA of 6.5. If administered orally, at which of the following sites of absorption will the drug be able to readily pass through the membrane? A. Mouth ( pH approximately 7.0) B. Stomach (pH 2.5) C. Duodenum (pH approximately 6.1) D. Jejunum (pH approximately 8.0) E. Ileum (pH approximately 7.0)

B. Stomach (pH 2.5)

A patient was administered a neuromuscular blocker (NMB) prior to a surgical procedure to produce skeletal muscle paralysis. This NMB drug caused initial skeletal muscle fasciculations before the onset of paralysis. The effect of this drug could not be reversed with neostigmine. Which of the following neuromuscular blockers was most likely administered to the patient? A. Cisatracurium B. Succinylcholine C. Diazepam D. Tubocurarine

B. Succinylcholine

Which of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes? A. Basiliximab B. Tacrolimus C. Prednisone D. Sirolimus E. Mycophenolate mofetil

B. Tacrolimus

Which of the following opioids is the best choice for treating pain associated with diabetic peripheral neuropathy? A. Morphine B. Tapentadol C. Codeine D. Buprenorphine

B. Tapentadol

Which of the following drugs is commonly used topically in the treatment of glaucoma? A. Atropine B. Timolol C. Tropicamide D. Scopolamine

B. Timolol

A hypertensive patient was accidentally given an 2 agonists instead of an 1 blocker. Which of the following is correct in this situation? A. α2 agonists can increase the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic nerve terminals B. α2 agonists can reduce blood pressure in this patient C. α2 agonists can increase blood pressure in this patient D. α2 agonists will not affect blood pressure in this patient

B. α2 agonists can reduce blood pressure in this patient

Which of the following is correct regarding drug interactions with nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers (NMBs)? A. Desflurane reduces the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs B. Cholinesterase inhibitors increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs C. Aminoglycosides increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs D. Calcium channel blockers reduce the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs

C. Aminoglycosides increase the effects of nondepolarizing NMBs

AN is a 57 year old male who has been treated with oxycodone fro chronic nonmalignant pain for over 2 years. He is now reporting increased pain in the afternoon while at work. Which of the following opioid is a short-acting opioid and is the best choice for the patients breakthrough pain? A. Methadone B. Pentazocine C. Hydrocodone D. Nalbuphine

C. Hydrocodone

Which of the following adrenergic agonists is commonly present in nasal sprays available over the counter (OTC) to treat nasal congestion? A. Clondine B. Albuterol C. Oxymetazoline D. Dobutamine E. Norephinephrine

C. Oxymetazoline

A 60 year old female patient started on a new hypertensive medication recently. Her blood pressure seems to be under control, but she complains of fatigue, drowsiness, and fainting when she gets up from the bed (orthostatic hypotension). Which of the following drugs is she most likely taking? A. Metoprolol B. Propranolol C. Prazosin D. Clondine

C. Prazosin

Which of the following statements regarding methadone is correct? A. Methadone is an excellent choice for analgesia in most patients since there are limited drug-drug interaction B. The equilanalgesic potency of methadone is similar to that of morphine C. The duration of analgesia for methadone is much shorter than the elimination half life D. The active metabolites of methadone accumulate in patients with renal dysfunctions

C. The duration of analgesia for methadone is much shorter than the elimination half life

Which of the following is correct regarding the ANS? A. Afferent neurons carry signals from the CNS to the effector organs B. The neurotransmitter at the parasympathetic ganglion is norepinephrine C. The neurotransmitter at the sympathetic ganglion is acetylcholine D. Sympathetic neurons release ACh in the effector organs E. Parasympathetic neurons release NE in the effector organs

C. The neurotransmitter at the sympathetic ganglion is acetylcholine

A 45 year old male who received a renal transplant 3 months previously and is being maintained on prednisone, cyclosporine, and mycophenolate mofetil is found to have increased creatine levels and a kidney biopsy indicating severe rejection. Which of the following courses of therapy would be appropriate? A. Increased dose of prednisone B. Hemodialysis C. Treatment with rabbit antithymocyte globulin D. Treatment with sirolimus E. Treatment with azanthioprine

C. Treatment with rabbit antithymocyte globulin

During an ophthalmic surgical procedure, the surgeon wanted to constrict the pupil of the patient using a miotic drug. However, he accidentally used another drug that caused dilation of the pupil (mydriasis) instead. Most likely, which of the following drugs did he use? A. Acetylcholine B. Pilocarpine C. Tropicamide D. Phentolamine E. Behtanechol

C. Tropicamide

A drug with a half-life of 10 hours is administered by continuous intravenous infusion. Which of the following best approximates the time for the drug to reach steady state? A. 10 hours B. 20 hours C. 33 hours D. 40 hours E. 60 hours

D. 40 hours

Which of the following drugs or classes of drugs will be useful in treating the symptoms of myasthenia gravis? A. Nicotinic antagonists B. Muscarinic agonists C. Muscarinic antagonists D. Anticholisterase agents

D. Anticholisterase agents

A dentist would like to reduce salivation in a patient in preparation for an oral surgical procedure. Which of the following strategies will be useful in reducing salivation? A. Activate nicotinic receptors in the salivary glands B. Block nicotinic receptors in the salivary glands C. Activate muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands D. Block muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands

D. Block muscarinic receptors in the salivary glands

Which of the following changes could theoretically happen in a person when the parasympathetic system is inhibited using a pharmacological agent? A. Reduction in heart rate B. Constriction of the pupils (miosis) C. Increase in gastric motility D. Dry mouth (xerostomia) E. Contraction of detrusor muscle in bladder

D. Dry mouth (xerostomia)

One of you patients who is hypertensive and gets mild asthma attacks occasionally brought an herbal remedy online to help with his asthma. He is not on any asthma medication currently but is receiving a β1-selective blocker for his hypertension. The herbal remedy seems to relieve his asthma attacks, but his blood pressure seems to increase despite the β-blocker therapy. Which of the following drugs is most likely present in the herbal remedy he is taking? A. Phenylephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Dobutamine D. Ephedrine E. Salmeterol

D. Ephedrine

A 12 year old boy who is allergic to peanuts was brought to the emergency room after accidentally consuming peanuts contained in fast food. He is in anaphylactic shock. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to treat this patient? A. Norepinephrine B. Phenylephrine C. Dobutamine D. Epinephrine

D. Epinephrine

A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was prescribed a Beta 2 agonist for the relief of bronchospasm. However, the patient did not respond to this treatment. Which of the following drugs or classes of drugs would suggest for this patient as the next option? A. Beta 1 Agonist B. Muscarinic Agonist C. Physostigmine D. Ipratropium E. Phentolamine

D. Ipratropium

A 56 year old patient who has suffered with severe chronic pain with radiculopathy secondary to spinal stenosis for years presents to the clinic for pain management. Over the years, this patient has failed to receive relief from the neurpathic pain from the radiculopathy with traditional agents such as tricyclics or anticonvulsants. Based on the mechanism of action, which opioid might be beneficial in this patient to treat both nociceptive and neuropathic pain? A. Meperidine B. Oxymorphone C. Morphine D. Methadone

D. Methadone

Which of the following is correct regarding somatic motor neurons? A. The neurotransmitter at the somatic motor neuron ganglion is acetylcholine B. The neurotransmitter at the somatic motor neuron ganglion is norepinephrine C. Somatic motor neurons innervate smooth muscles D. Somatic motor neurons do not have ganglia E. Responses in the somatic motor neurons are generally slower than in the ANS

D. Somatic motor neurons do not have ganglia

All of the following are reasonable combinations of immunosuppressive drugs except: A. Basiliximab, belatacept, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone B. Thymoglobulin, cyclosporine, azathioprine, and prednisone C. Tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil, and prednisone D. Tacrolimus, cyclosporine, and prednisone E. Tacrolimus, sirolimus, and prednisone

D. Tacrolimus, cyclosporine, and prednisone

All of the following are correct regarding adrenergic receptors, except? A. α1 receptors are primarily located on the postsynaptic membrane in the effector organs B. α2 receptors are primarily located on the presynaptic sympathetic nerve terminals C. β1 receptors are found mainly in the heart D. β2 receptors are found mainly in adipose tissue

D. β2 receptors are found mainly in adipose tissue

Which of the following would up-regulate postsynaptic β1 adrenergic receptors? A. Daily use of amphetamine that causes norepinephrine to be released B. A disease that causes an increase in the activity of norepinephrine neurons C. Daily use of isoproterenol, a β1 receptor agonist D. Daily use of formoterol, a β2 receptor agonist E. Daily use of propranolol, a β1 receptor antagonist

E. Daily use of propranolol, a β1 receptor antagonist

Which of the following adrenergic agonists is most likely to cause CNS side effects when administered systemically? A. Epinephrine B. Norepinephrine C. Isoproterenol D. Dopamine E. Ephedrine

E. Ephedrine

An 18 year old female patient is brought to the emergency department due to drug overdose. Which of the following routes of administration is the most desirable for administering the antidote for the drug overdose? A. Intramuscular B. Subcutaneous C. Transdermal D. Oral E. Intravenous

E. Intravenous

If 10 mg of morphine produces a greater analgesic response than can be achieved by Ibuprofen at any dose, which of the following statements is correct? A. Morphine is less efficacious than is ibuprofen B. Morphine is less potent than is ibuprofen C. Morphine is a full agonist, and ibuprofen is a partial agonist D. Ibuprofen is a competitive antagonist E. Morphine is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen

E. Morphine is a better drug to take for pain relief than is ibuprofen

In the presence of picrotoxin, diazepam is less efficacious at causing sedation, regardless of the dose. Picrotoxin by itself has no sedative effect even at the highest dose. Which of the following is correct? A.Picrotoxin is a competitive antagonist B. Diazepam is a full agonist, and picrotoxin is a partial agonist C. Diazepam is less efficacious than is picrotoxin D. Diazepam is less potent than is picrotoxin E. Picrotoxin is a noncompetitive antagonist

E. Picrotoxin is a noncompetitive antagonist

A 65 year old female patient (60 kg) with a history of ischemic stroke was prescribed clopidogrel for stroke prevention. She was hospitalized again after 6 months due to recurrent ischemic stroke. Which of the following is a likely reason she did not respond to clopidogrel therapy? She is a: A. Poor CYPD26 metabolizer B. Fast CYP1A2 metabolizer C. Poor CYP2E1 metabolizer D. Fast CYP3A4 metabolizer E. Poort CYP2C19 metabolizer

E. Poort CYP2C19 metabolizer

Which of the following drugs used to prevent allograft rejection can cause hyperlipidemia? A. Azathioprine B. Basiliximab C. Belatacept D. Mycophenolate mofetil E. Sirolimus

E. Sirolimus

A 55 year old male patient (70 kg) is going to be treated with an experimental drug, Drug X, for an irregular heart rhythm. If the Vd is 1 L/kg and the desired steady state plasma concentration is 2.5 mg/L, which of the following is the most appropriate intravenous loading dose for Drug X? A. 175 mg B. 70 mg C. 28 mg D. 10 mg E. 1 mg

A. 175 mg

Which of the following is correct regarding membrane receptors and signal transduction? A. ANS neurotransmitters bind to membrane receptors on the effector cells, which leads to intracellular events B. Cholinergic muscarinic receptors are examples of ionotropic receptors C. Cholinergic nicotinic receptors are examples of metabotropic receptors D. Metabotropic receptors activate ion channels directly

A. ANS neurotransmitters bind to membrane receptors on the effector cells, which leads to intracellular events

A 30 year old male patient was brought to the ER with amphetamine overdose. He presented with high blood pressure and arrhythmias. Which of the following is correct regarding this patient? A. Amphetamine can activate all types of adrenergic receptors B. β-Blockers are the ideal antidotes for amphetamine poisoning C. α-Blockers can normalize the blood pressure in this patient D. Miosis could be a possible symptom of amphetamine poisoning

A. Amphetamine can activate all types of adrenergic receptors

Which of the following statements about fentanyl is correct? A. Fentanyl is 100 times more potent than morphine B. Its withdrawal symptoms can be relieved by naloxone C. The active metabolites of fentanyl can cause seizures D. It is most effective by oral admission

A. Fentanyl is 100 times more potent than morphine

Which of the following is correct regarding responses mediated by adrenergic receptors? A. Stimulation of α1 receptors increases blood pressure B. Stimulation of α1 receptors reduces blood pressure C. Stimulation of sympathetic presynaptic α2 receptors increases norepinephrine release D. Stimulation of β2 receptors increases heart rate (tachycardia) E. Stimulation of β2 receptors causes bronchoconstriction

A. Stimulation of α1 receptors increases blood pressure

A β-Blocker was prescribed for hypertension in a female asthma patient. After about a week of treatment, the asthma attacks got worse, and the patient was asked to stop taking the β-Blocker. Which of the following β-Blockers would you suggest as an alternative in this patient that is less likely to worsen her asthma? A. Propranolol B. Metoprolol C. Labetalol D. Carvedilol

B. Metoprolol

A young woman is brought into the emergency room. She is unconscious, and she has pupillary constriction and depressed respiration. Based on reports, an opioid overdose is almost certain. Which of the listed phenanthrene opioid will exhibit a full and immediate response to treatment with naloxone? A. Meperidine B. Morphine C. Buprenorphine D. Fentanyl

B. Morphine

An asthma patient was given a nonselective β agonist to relieve bronchoconstriction. Which of the following adverse effects would you expect to see in this patient? A. Bradycardia B. Tachycardia C. Hypotension (reduction in blood pressure) D. Worsening bronchoconstriction

B. Tachycardia

An elderly man was brought to the emergency room after he ingested a large quantity of carvedilol tablets, a drug that blocks alpha 1, beta 1, and beta 2 adrenergic receptors, which mainly mediate the cardiovascular effects of epinephrine and norepinephrine in the body. Which of the following symptoms would you expect in this patient? A. increased heart rate (tachycardia) B. reduced heart rate (bradycardia) C. dilation of the pupil (mydriasis) D. increased blood pressure

B. reduced heart rate (bradycardia)

Which of the following is correct regarding α-adrenergic blockers? A. α-Adrenergic blockers are used in the treatment of hypotension in anaphylactic shock B. α-Adrenergic blockers are used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia C. α-Adrenergic blockers may cause bradycardia D. α-Adrenergic blockers reduce the frequency of urination

B. α-Adrenergic blockers are used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia

Sarin is a nerve gas that is an organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor. Which of the following could be used as an antidote to sarin poisoning? A. Pilocarpine B. Carbachol C. Atropine D. Physostigmine E. Nicotine

C. Atropine

Which of the following is correct regarding carvedilol? A. Carvedilol is a cardioselective β-Blocker B. Carvedilol is safe for use in asthma patients C. Carvedilol has α1 blocking activity D. Carvedilol is contraindicated in the treatment of stable chronic heart failure

C. Carvedilol has α1 blocking activity

Sarin is a volatile nerve agent that inhibits cholinesterase enzymes. Which of the following symptoms would you expect to see in a patient exposed to sarin? A. Urinary retention B. Tachycardia C. Constriction of pupils (miosis) D. Dilation of the pupils (mydriasis) E. Dry mouth

C. Constriction of pupils (miosis)

A 70 year old patient was brought to the emergency room with a blood pressure of 76/60 mm Hg, tachycardia, and low cardiac output. He was diagnosed with acute heart failure. Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate to improve his cardiac function? A. Epinephrine B. Fenoldopam C. Dobutamine D. Isoproterenol

C. Dobutamine

KM is a 64 year old male who has been hospitalized following a car accident in which he sustained a broken leg and broken arm. He had been converted to oral morphine in anticipation of his dischargee. What other medication should he receive with his morphine upon discharge? A. Diphenhydramine B. Methylphenidate C. Docusate sodium with senna D. Docusate sodium

C. Docusate sodium with senna

Which of the following phase II metabolic reactions makes phase I metabolites readily excretable in urine? A. Oxidation B. Reduction C. Glucuronidation D. Hydrolysis E. Alcohol Dehydrogenation

C. Glucuronidation

Which of the following types of drugs will have a maximum oral bioavailabilty? A. Drugs with high first pass metabolism B. Highly hydrophilic drugs C. Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqueous solutions D. Chemically unstable drugs E. Drugs that are P glycoprotein substrates

C. Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqueous solutions

Which of the following drugs would be the most effective anti-motion sickness drug for a person planning to go on a cruise? A. Atropine B. Tropicamide C. Scopolamine D. Darifenacin E. Tiotropium

C. Scopolamine

Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic nervous system is correct? A. The parasympathetic system uses norepinephrine as a neurotransmitter B. The parasympathetic system often discharges as a single, functional system C. The parasympathetic division is involved in accommodation of near vision, movement of food, and urination D. The postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic division are long compared to those of the sympathetic nervous system E. The parasympathetic system controls the secretion of the adrenal medulla

C. The parasympathetic division is involved in accommodation of near vision, movement of food, and urination

A new antihypertensive drug was tested in an an animal model of hypertension. The drug when given alone reduces blood pressure in the animal. Norepinephrine when given in the presence of this drug did not cause any significant change in blood pressure or heart rate in the animal. The new drug is similar to which of the following drugs in terms of its pharmacological mechanism of action? A. Prazosin B. Clondine C. Propranolol D. Metoprolol E. Carvedilol

E. Carvedilol


Conjuntos de estudio relacionados

Animal Research Project (Cheetah)

View Set

Investigating Career Opportunities Unit Test Review (Career Planning)

View Set

US Government, Chapters 1,2,3, & 4

View Set

CompTIA Security+ Textbook Chapter 1 Review Questions

View Set

Accounting General Journal, 11E-Chapter 4

View Set

Ch.7 Quiz (Possible questions and actual quiz)

View Set

Social and Economic Effects of the Black Death

View Set

Chapter 33: all Disorders of Renal Function no explanation

View Set