BV Pharmacology Questions

A nurse is caring for a client who is due to receive general anesthesia. The client asks the nurse, "What is the difference between an analgesic and anesthesia?" Which of the following statements should the nurse make? "Analgesics can cause a lack of sensation." "Anesthesia is specifically for eliminating pain perception." "Analgesics treat pain without causing sedation." "Anesthesia can cause loss of consciousness."

"Anesthesia can cause loss of consciousness." General anesthesia reduces or causes a complete loss of consciousness.

A nurse is caring for a client who is pregnant and inquiring about alternative, non-pharmacological therapies for nausea and vomiting of pregnancy (NVP). Which of the following options should the nurse recommend? "Be sure to eat at least 3 large meals each day." "If you're experiencing nausea when you wake up, wait to eat until lunchtime." "You may need to take additional supplements to alleviate nausea." "Ginger is effective in the treatment of nausea and vomiting."

"Ginger is effective in the treatment of nausea and vomiting." The nurse should recommend seasoning foods with ginger to alleviate the client's nausea and vomiting. Ginger is derived from the ginger root and is an alternative treatment to prescribed medication for treating nausea and vomiting during pregnancy.

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has been taking feverfew. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a therapeutic effect of the supplement? "I am having fewer migraine headaches since I started taking feverfew." "My memory seems to be getting better since I started taking feverfew." "I have fewer infections when I take feverfew." "I have not had another urinary tract infection since starting feverfew."

"I am having fewer migraine headaches since I started taking feverfew." Feverfew is an herb that is used for the prophylaxis of migraine headaches. It can reduce the frequency of migraines and decrease the severity of accompanying manifestations such as nausea and photophobia.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching about lithium toxicity to a client who has a new prescription for lithium. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? "I should take naproxen if I have a headache because aspirin can cause lithium toxicity." "I can develop lithium toxicity if I eat foods with lots of sodium." "I can develop lithium toxicity if I experience vomiting or diarrhea." "I might need to take a daily diuretic along with my lithium to prevent lithium toxicity."

"I can develop lithium toxicity if I experience vomiting or diarrhea." Vomiting or diarrhea can cause electrolyte imbalances. If serum sodium decreases, lithium is retained by the kidneys, and the risk of lithium toxicity increases.

A nurse is teaching a client who has a new ezetimibe prescription for hyperlipidemia. Which of the following client statements should indicate to the nurse that the teaching was effective? "I should let my doctor know if I have yellowing of my eyes." "This medication will stop my liver from making cholesterol." "I should expect to experience some bruising when I begin this medication." "I will take this medication at the same time as my gemfibrozil."

"I should let my doctor know if I have yellowing of my eyes." The nurse should include in the teaching that jaundice can be an adverse effect of ezetimibe as a result of hepatitis. The client should notify the provider if this occurs

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a urinary tract infection and new prescriptions for phenazopyridine and ciprofloxacin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching? "If phenazopyridine upsets my stomach, I can take it with meals." "Phenazopyridine will relieve my discomfort, but ciprofloxacin will get rid of the infection." "I need to drink 2 L of fluid per day while I am taking the ciprofloxacin." "I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns an orange color."

"I should notify my provider immediately if my urine turns an orange color." Phenazopyridine is a urinary tract analgesic used to relieve pain and burning during urination. The medication can cause the client's urine to turn a reddish-orange color. This coloration is an expected effect of this medication (although it can stain clothing) and does not need to be reported to the provider.

A nurse is teaching to a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus about a new prescription for oral glucocorticoid therapy. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? "I should take a calcium supplement while on this medication." "Regular liver function studies will have to be done while I am taking this medication." "I can take NSAIDs to treat mild pain while using this medication." "I will be sure to eat 6 small meals a day to prevent hypoglycemia from this medication."

"I should take a calcium supplement while on this medication." An adverse effect of systemic glucocorticoid therapy is osteoporosis. Increasing calcium-rich foods in the diet and adding calcium and vitamin D supplements should be encouraged to prevent osteoporosis and decrease the risk of fractures.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client with chronic bronchitis about administering acetylcysteine using a hand-held nebulizer (HHN). Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching? "I should discard an open vial of the medication after 24 hr." "I should limit my fluid intake while taking this medication." "I should try to cough productively just before I begin the treatment." "If the medication becomes discolored, I should throw it out and get a new supply."

"I should try to cough productively just before I begin the treatment." A productive cough prior to beginning the treatment will clear sputum from lung surfaces, allowing better absorption of the medication.

A nurse is providing teaching to a parent of a child who has asthma and a new prescription for a cromolyn sodium metered-dose inhaler. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates the need for further teaching? "I will give my child a dose as soon as wheezing starts." "My child should rinse out his mouth after using the inhaler." "My child should exhale completely before placing the inhaler in his mouth." "If my child has difficulty breathing in the dose, a spacer can be used."

"I will give my child a dose as soon as wheezing starts." Cromolyn is a mast cell inhibitor that has a slow onset and is given for prophylactic treatment of asthma. It is not a rescue medication.

A nurse is teaching a client who has type 2 diabetes mellitus about a prescription for insulin lispro. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? "The effects of the insulin lispro can last for 8 to 12 hours." "Administer insulin lispro 30 to 60 minutes before eating." "Insulin lispro has an onset of about 15 minutes." "This insulin can be given as a continuous intravenous bolus."

"Insulin lispro has an onset of about 15 minutes." Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin and has an onset of 15 to 30 minutes.

A nurse is caring for a client who has multiple sclerosis and is receiving interferon beta-1a. The nurse should identify that which of the following client statements indicates a potential adverse effect of the medication? "My body aches all over." "I have abdominal cramping." "My hair seems to be thinning." "It hurts when I urinate."

"My body aches all over." The adverse effects of interferon beta-1a can include flu-like symptoms such as general body and muscle aches.

A nurse is administering a client's first dose of sucralfate. Which of the following explanations should the nurse provide about the action of sucralfate? "Sucralfate decreases gastric acid secretions." "Sucralfate forms a gel-like substance that protects ulcers." "Sucralfate inactivates Helicobacter pylori." "Sucralfate inhibits the production of gastric acid."

"Sucralfate forms a gel-like substance that protects ulcers." The primary action of sucralfate is the formation of a gel-like protectant that adheres to the ulcer surface. This protective mechanism lasts for 6 hours and allows the ulcer to heal.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide 50 mg PO daily to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? "Take hydrochlorothiazide as needed for edema." "Check your weight once each week." "Take hydrochlorothiazide on an empty stomach." "Take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning."

"Take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning." The client should take hydrochlorothiazide in the morning to allow for diuresis during the day and to prevent nocturia.

A nurse is teaching the guardian of a school-aged child about growth hormone therapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? "Your child will grow an extra 4 to 6 inches while receiving hormone therapy." "Hormone injection therapy will occur for 2 to 3 years." "Your child will receive hormone injections no more often than 1 to 2 times each week." "The hormone injections are administered subcutaneously."

"The hormone injections are administered subcutaneously." The nurse should include in the teaching that growth hormone therapy is administered subcutaneously, which is the preferred route of administration since the injections are more painful when administered intramuscularly.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who is scheduled to start taking hydrochlorothiazide for hypertension. The nurse instructs the client to eat foods that are rich in potassium. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? "This medication will not work unless I have enough potassium." "Potassium will increase the therapeutic effect of my blood pressure medication." "Potassium will lower my blood pressure." "This medication can cause a loss of potassium."

"This medication can cause a loss of potassium." Hydrochlorothiazide can result in hypokalemia caused by excessive potassium excretion from the kidneys. The client should supplement his diet with potassium-rich foods to avoid the occurrence of hypokalemia. Foods that are high in potassium include bananas, raisins, baked potatoes, pumpkins, and milk.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client with a seizure disorder who has a new prescription for carbamazepine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? "This medication will decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives." "Once you are seizure-free for a month, you will be able to stop taking the medication." "You can cut the dose in half if gastrointestinal upset occurs." "This medication might initially increase the frequency of your seizures."

"This medication will decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives."

A nurse is teaching a client who has allergic rhinitis about a new prescription for brompheniramine. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse include in the teaching? "Report gastrointestinal disturbances immediately." "You might find that you develop a dry mouth." "You should not experience any central nervous system alterations." "Increased urinary frequency is an expected effect."

"You might find that you develop a dry mouth."

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who had a bleeding duodenal ulcer and has been prescribed omeprazole. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? "You will need to take this medication for the next 6 months." "Taking this medication will decrease your risk of acquiring pneumonia." "You should take this medication before breakfast every day." "Watch for the serious adverse effects of tachycardia and heart palpitations while taking this medication."

"You should take this medication before breakfast every day." Clients who have active duodenal ulcer or gastric reflux disease should take omeprazole once daily before a meal (usually breakfast) because the medication is less effective when taken with food.

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute glomerulonephritis and a prescription for furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects of this medication? Hypotension Diuresis Increased blood glucose level Weight gain

. Diuresis The nurse should identify that furosemide is a high-ceiling loop diuretic indicated for the treatment of clients who have severe renal impairment such as acute glomerulonephritis. Furosemide blocks the reabsorption of sodium and chloride, thereby preventing the reabsorption of water. Diuresis is a therapeutic response to the administration of furosemide.

A nurse is preparing to administer prochlorperazine 2.5 mg IV. Prochlorperazine injection 5 mg/mL is available. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Fill in the blank with the numeric value only, round the answer to the nearest tenth, and use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)

0.5

A nurse is preparing to administer 1 mg of enalapril via IV bolus to a client who is experiencing hypertension. The amount available is enalapril 1.25 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse plan to administer per dose? (Fill in the blank with the numeric value only, round the answer to the nearest tenth, and use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)

0.8

A nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving gentamicin IM and has a new prescription to obtain gentamicin peak and trough levels. At which of the following times should the nurse plan to obtain a blood sample to evaluate the gentamicin peak? 1 hour after administering the IM injection Just before administering the IM injection 12 hours after the last IM injection 30 minutes after administering the IM injection

1 hour after administering the IM injection Timing is important when drawing blood samples for aminoglycoside levels. The nurse should obtain blood samples for peak levels 1 hour after administering an IM injection or 30 minutes after completing an IV infusion.

A nurse is preparing to administer heparin 500 units/hr to a client who has a deep-vein thrombosis. Heparin is available at 25,000 units in 500 mL of 5% dextrose in water. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Fill in the blank with the numeric value only, round to the nearest whole number, use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)

10

A nurse is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 1,000 mL to infuse over 12 hr. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. The nurse should set the manual IV infusion to deliver how many gtt/min? (Fill in the blank with the numeric value only, round the answer to the nearest whole number, and use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)

14

A nurse is administering subcutaneous heparin to a client who is at risk for deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Administer the medication into the client's abdomen Inject the medication into a muscle Massage the site after administering the medication Use a 22-gauge needle to administer the medication

Administer the medication into the client's abdomen The heparin should be administered into the client's abdomen.

A nurse is preparing to administer desmopressin 0.3 mcg/kg in 0.9% sodium chloride 50 mL IV over 30 min to a client who weighs 154 lb. How many mcg of medication should the client receive? (Fill in the blank with the numeric value only, round the answer to the nearest whole number, and use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)

21

A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium hydroxide 1.5 oz PO to a client who has constipation. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the whole number and use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)

45

A nurse is preparing to administer 150 units/hr of regular insulin to a client. Regular insulin is available at 1,500 units in 0.9% sodium chloride 500 mL. The nurse should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Fill in the blank with the numeric value only, round to the nearest whole number, and use a leading zero if applicable. Do not use a trailing zero.)

50

How many gtts per minute should you administer intravenously when the doctor has ordered 250 mL/h and the intravenous tubing delivers 10 gtts/mL? 41gtts/min 42 gtts/min 16 gtts/min 17 gtts/min

42 gtts/min

A nurse is administering subcutaneous epinephrine for a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? Hypotension Hyperthermia Hypoglycemia Tachycardia

Tachycardia Adverse effects of epinephrine, an adrenergic agonist, can include tachycardia and dysrhythmias due to cardiac stimulation.

A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to administer alendronate 40 mg PO for an older adult client who has Paget's disease of the bone. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority? Administer the medication to the client before breakfast in the morning Ambulate the client to a chair prior to administering the medication Give the medication to the client with water rather than milk Teach the client how to take the medication at home

Ambulate the client to a chair prior to administering the medication The nurse should ambulate the client to a chair and ensure that the client is sitting upright before administering the alendronate to prevent esophagitis from occurring. The client must also be able to sit or stand upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. The nurse should apply the safety and risk-reduction priority-setting framework, which assigns priority to the factor or situation posing the greatest safety risk to the client. When there are several risks to safety, the one posing the greatest threat is the highest priority. The nurse should use Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, the ABC priority-setting framework, and/or nursing knowledge to identify which risk poses the greatest threat to the client.

A nurse is caring for a client who has COPD and has been taking fluticasone via inhaler for many years. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of long-term use of this medication? Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) <60 Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 82 units/L Anorexia and weakness Varicose veins in the lower extremities

Anorexia and weakness The nurse should identify adrenal insufficiency as an adverse effect of the long-term use of an inhaled corticosteroid such as fluticasone. Manifestations can include anorexia, weakness, nausea, hypotension, and hypoglycemia.

A nurse working in the emergency department is admitting a client who has a gastric ulcer and gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. Which of the following factors in the client's medical history should the nurse report to the provider? Arthritis treated with ibuprofen every 8 hours as needed Previous tobacco smoking with cessation 5 years ago Negative H. pylori breath test 1 year prior Prescribed bismuth subsalicylate as needed for GI upset

Arthritis treated with ibuprofen every 8 hours as needed The nurse should identify that ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). NSAIDs can cause GI bleeding and are contraindicated for clients who have ulcer disease. NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin secretion, which decreases blood flow in the GI tract and decreases bicarbonate and mucus secretion. This environment promotes the secretion of gastric acid and needs to be reported to the provider.

A nurse is caring for a client who has chronic back pain and requests pain medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? Determine the time the client last received pain medication. Measure the client's vital signs. Ask the client to rate the level of pain on a scale from 0 to 10. Assess the client for any allergies to medications

Ask the client to rate the level of pain on a scale from 0 to 10. the first action the nurse should take is to ask the client to rate the pain level on a scale from 0 to 10 to determine the severity of the client's pain.

A nurse is preparing to administer pancrelipase (Lipancreatin) to a client with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following should the nurse include when administering this drug? (Select all that apply) Assess for lactose intolerance Monitor renal function Monitor blood coagulation studies Provide antidiuretic hormone Assess for shortness of breath and leg swelling Monitor for joint pain

Assess for lactose intolerance Assess for shortness of breath and leg swelling Monitor for joint pain Pancrelipase (Lipancreatin) is used to treat clients with pancreatic impairment due to cystic fibrosis. It enhances the digestion of proteins, fats, and carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract, by supplying the enzymes protease, amylase, and lipas check for allergies to pork protein and/or lactose intolerance, since pancrelipase contains both. stool should be monitored for changes that reflect GI disturbance. Shortness of breath and joint pain are signs of toxicity high-calorie, high-protein, low-fat diet is usually recommended for clients with pancreatic insufficiency who are treated with pancrelipase.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking an agonist medication. The nurse should expect which of the following actions from this type of medication? Acts with a partial agonist molecule to block receptors fully Temporarily occupies receptors instead of other competitive molecules Blocks receptors and prevents them from activating with a regulatory molecule Binds to receptors and mimics regulatory molecule

Binds to receptors and mimics regulatory molecules Full agonist medications act by binding to receptors and mimicking the actions of the body's regulatory molecules. Agonists activate receptors to produce the expected effects. Hormones are an example of agonists.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking an agonist medication. The nurse should expect which of the following actions from this type of medication? Acts with a partial agonist molecule to block receptors fully Temporarily occupies receptors instead of other competitive molecules Blocks receptors and prevents them from activating with a regulatory molecule Binds to receptors and mimics regulatory molecules

Binds to receptors and mimics regulatory molecules Full agonist medications act by binding to receptors and mimicking the actions of the body's regulatory molecules. Agonists activate receptors to produce the expected effects. Hormones are an example of agonists.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects? Insomnia Hypotension Bleeding Constipation

Bleeding Clopidogrel is an antithrombotic medication that inhibits platelet aggregation. It is used to prevent stenosis of coronary stents, myocardial infarctions, and strokes. The nurse should monitor for coffee-ground emesis, black tarry stools, ecchymosis, or any indication of bleeding.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving IV famotidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse report to the provider immediately? Nausea Bloody stools Drowsiness Headache

Bloody stools When using the urgent vs nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority finding is bloody stools because adverse effects of treatment with famotidine might include blood dyscrasias (e.g. thrombocytopenia), which can lead to bleeding. This finding should be reported to the provider immediately.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing cycloplegia following the administration of atropine eye drops during an eye examination. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect as a result of cycloplegia? Inability to tolerate bright lights Pinpoint pupils Blurred vision Inability to perform an upward gaze

Blurred vision Assessment findings of cycloplegia include blurred vision because focusing for near vision is impaired. This action occurs following the administration of atropine because the paralysis of the ciliary muscle prevents near-vision focus. Accommodation, or looking from far to near and vice-versa, is also temporarily impaired.

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has venous thrombosis and a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching? Take ibuprofen as needed for headaches or other minor pains Carry a medical alert ID card Report to the laboratory weekly to have blood drawn for aPTT Increase intake of dark green vegetables

Carry a medical alert ID card A client who is taking warfarin is at increased risk for bleedig

A nurse is checking a client who is receiving an IV infusion of telavancin for Streptococcus pyogenes. Which of the following actions should the nurse include? Check to see if the client's urine is blue in color Check the client for pruritus Check for hypertension Check for numbness in the limbs

Check the client for pruritus The nurse should monitor a client who receives telavancin for pruritus, which can occur if the client develops generalized exfoliative dermatitis from infusing the medication too rapidly. Manifestations of this condition can include flushing, rash, pruritus, urticaria, tachycardia, and hypotension.

A nurse is completing the admission history for a client who reports drinking 1 pint of whiskey every day for 6 years. The client's last drink was 10 hr ago. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer upon admission? Chlordiazepoxide Disulfiram Naloxone Acetaminophen

Chlordiazepoxide The nurse should anticipate the client will experience manifestations of alcohol withdrawal. Benzodiazepines are the most effective medications used to facilitate alcohol withdrawal, and chlordiazepoxide is preferred because it has a longer half-life than other benzodiazepines. Benzodiazepines are safe and can stabilize vital signs, reduce the intensity of symptoms, and decrease the risk of seizures and delirium tremens.

A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following medications? Disulfiram Chlordiazepoxide Methadone Varenicline

Chlordiazepoxide The nurse should expect to administer chlordiazepoxide to a client who is experiencing manifestations of acute alcohol withdrawal. Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine; this class of medications is often used to facilitate withdrawal. Chlordiazepoxide assists with decreasing withdrawal manifestations, stabilizing vital signs, and preventing seizures and delirium tremens.

A client with myocardial ischemia is scheduled for treatment with bile acid sequestrant. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed? (Select all that apply) Pravastatin Cholestyramine Atorvastatin Colestipol Fenofibrate

Cholestyramine Colestipol Bile acid sequestrant is a class of drug that lowers LDL (low density lipoproteins) by binding bile acids in the intestine, reducing their reabsorption and reducing cholesterol production in the liver. Constipation and bloating are the major side effects that can occur when taking these drugs.

A nurse is caring for a client who takes sulfasalazine twice daily for rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following values should the nurse review prior to the administration of the medication? Respirations Serum creatinine level Blood pressure Complete blood count

Complete blood count The nurse should identify that sulfasalazine can cause bone marrow suppression, which can lead to agranulocytosis, hemolytic anemia, and macrocytic anemia. As a result, the client's complete blood count should be periodically monitored, and the nurse should review it prior to administering this medication.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for meperidine 500 mg PO q 4 to 6 hr to manage pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Notify the pharmacist Administer the prescribed amount Contact the provider for clarification of the prescription Clarify the dose with the charge nurse

Contact the provider for clarification of the prescription The nurse should call the provider and request clarification of the prescription. This dose is significantly outside the recommended range of 50 mg every 3 to 4 hours, not to exceed 600 mg within 24 hours. Only the provider can clarify this prescription.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory data for a client who has Alzheimer's disease and a new prescription for memantine. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings increases the client's risk for reduced clearance of the medication? Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 60 international units/L Creatinine clearance 35 mL/min HbA1c 5% BMI 31

Creatinine clearance 35 mL/min Creatinine clearance is an estimate of the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) and the kidneys' ability to filter waste. A creatinine clearance of 35 mL/min is below the expected reference range of 87 to 139 mL/min and indicates moderate renal impairment. Memantine is excreted by the kidneys, and decreased clearance occurs with moderate renal impairment

A nurse is preparing to administer raloxifene to a client. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication for the administration of this medication? Osteoporosis Hyperthyroidism Myocardial infarction Deep-vein thrombosis

Deep-vein thrombosis The nurse should identify that raloxifene, like estrogen, increases the risk of deep-vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and stroke. Raloxifene is contraindicated for clients who have a history of venous thrombotic events.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ). The nurse should expect to find an improvement in which of the following conditions as a result of this medication? Gouty arthritis Dehydration Diabetes insipidus Hypokalemia

Diabetes insipidus A thiazide diuretic such as HCTZ is administered to treat diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus is a condition in which there is an overproduction of urine. Thiazides reduce urine production by 30% to 50%.

A nurse is admitting a client who has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 155/min. The nurse should anticipate a prescription from the provider for which of the following medications? Atropine Diltiazem Epinephrine Vasopressin

Diltiazem The nurse should anticipate the provider to prescribe diltiazem for a client who is experiencing atrial fibrillation. Diltiazem is an antiarrhythmic agent that reduces the ventricular rate in atrial fibrillation.

A nurse is preparing to administer amlodipine to a client who has hypertension. The nurse should plan to monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of the medication? (Select all that apply.) Dizziness Pale appearance Palpitations Abdominal pain Peripheral edema

Dizziness Palpitations Peripheral edema The nurse should monitor this client who is taking amlodipine for dizziness, palpitations, and peripheral edema as adverse effects of the medication. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness until the effect of the medication is known and to notify the provider if any of these adverse effects occur.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking selegiline. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of selegiline and notify the provider if it occurs? Bruising Drowsiness Coughing Constipation

Drowsiness Drowsiness can be an adverse effect of selegiline and a manifestation of serotonin syndrome. The nurse should notify the provider about this finding immediately.

A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a new prescription for amitriptyline to treat depression. Which of the following diagnostic tests should the nurse plan to perform prior to starting the client on this medication? Hearing examination Glucose tolerance test Electrocardiogram Pulmonary function tests

Electrocardiogram Amitriptyline can cause tachycardia and ECG changes. An older adult client is at risk for cardiovascular effects while using amitriptyline; therefore, an ECG should be performed prior to the start of therapy to obtain a baseline of the client's cardiovascular status.

A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following a total hip arthroplasty. Which of following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? Aspirin Warfarin Ticagrelor Enoxaparin

Enoxaparin The nurse should anticipate the administration of enoxaparin for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following surgery. Enoxaparin is low-molecular-weight (LMW) heparin that is used to prevent a DVT by inhibiting the effects of antithrombin and thrombin.

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving cefotetan 1 g via intermittent IV bolus every 12 hr to treat a postoperative infection. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse monitor for as an adverse effect of the medication? Disorientation Epistaxis Constipation Jaundice

Epistaxis Cefotetan is an antibiotic that affects vitamin K levels, which can result in bleeding and epistaxis. The nurse should monitor the client for bleeding and notify the provider if this manifestation occurs so the medication can be discontinued.

A nurse is caring for a female client who has been taking clomiphene to treat infertility. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication has been effective? Decreased serum luteinizing hormone (LH) levels Follicular enlargement and conversion to corpus luteum after ovulation Increased human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels Blocked endogenous release of LH and prevention of premature ovulation

Follicular enlargement and conversion to corpus luteum after ovulation The nurse should identify that clomiphene is a medication that promotes follicular maturation and is used in the treatment of infertility. Successful treatment reveals progressive follicular enlargement, followed by conversion of the follicle to a corpus luteum after ovulation occurs.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking streptomycin. Which of the following medications increases the client's risk of developing ototoxicity when taken with streptomycin? Cefoxitin Furosemide Naproxen Amphotericin B

Furosemide Furosemide, a high-ceiling (loop) diuretic, increases the risk of developing ototoxicity when taken with streptomycin, an aminoglycoside.

A nurse is performing a preoperative assessment of a client who is about to undergo an aneurysm clipping. The nurse should identify a risk for increased bleeding when the client reports taking which of the following dietary supplements? Soy Garlic Black cohosh Green tea

Garlic Many dietary supplements can affect clotting or interact with other medications that affect clotting, thereby increasing the client's risk of bleeding. Examples of these dietary supplements include garlic, ginger, and ginkgo biloba. The nurse should notify the provider immediately about this potential risk.

A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about caring for a client who is receiving patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching? Assessing the client's vital signs every 6 hr Instructing the client's family to press the PCA button when the client is asleep Having a second nurse check the PCA setting Administering the PCA through a free-flow infusion system

Having a second nurse check the PCA setting The nurse should have a second nurse check the PCA settings to ensure the correct amount of medication is being administered to the client.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for ergotamine. The nurse should recognize that ergotamine is administered to treat which of the following conditions? Raynaud's phenomenon Migraine headaches Ulcerative colitis Anemia

Migraine headaches Ergotamine prevents or stops a migraine headache by blocking alpha-adrenergic receptors in the cranial peripheral vascular smooth muscle, which causes vasoconstriction of dilated cerebral blood vessels.

. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking a medication and notes that the client's blood tests show an elevated level of the enzymes aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT). The nurse should recognize that these findings are potential indications of which of the following conditions? Renal dysfunction Myelotoxicity Hepatic toxicity Cardiac dysrhythmia

Hepatic toxicity The nurse should identify that elevated levels of aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) are indications the client might be at risk for hepatic toxicity. AST and ALT are enzymes that test liver function. Therefore, this should indicate to the nurse that the medication the client is taking is damaging to the liver. The client should undergo liver function tests, and the nurse should notify the provider of this finding.

A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has postmenopausal osteoporosis and a prescription for raloxifene. Which of the following findings in the client's medical record should the nurse identify as a contraindication to receiving this medication? Breast cancer History of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) Allergy to calcitonin Current diagnosis of cholecystitis

History of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) The nurse should identify that a history of DVT is a contraindication for receiving raloxifene because this medication can cause DVT in clients who have a prior history. Therefore, the nurse should notify the provider of this finding and request an alternative medication prescription for the client.

A nurse is preparing to administer a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet to a client who is reporting chest pain. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor after giving this medication? Hypotension Myalgia Diarrhea Ototoxicity

Hypotension Nitroglycerin is a coronary vasodilator and antianginal agent. A major adverse effect of this medication is hypotension; therefore, blood pressure and pulse must be monitored before and after administration.

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory reports of a client who has been taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider immediately? PT 18 seconds Platelet count 160,000/mm^3 Hct 43% INR 5.5

INR 5.5 When using the urgent vs nonurgent approach to client care, the nurse should determine that the priority laboratory result is an INR of 5.5. A client who is taking warfarin for the treatment of atrial fibrillation is expected to have an INR in the range of 2 to 3. A level of 5.5 is considered a critical value and places the client at risk of bleeding; therefore, the nurse should report this result to the provider immediately.

A client with metastatic lung cancer has been prescribed hydromorphone (Dilaudid) per rectum as needed for analgesia. The rectal route of administration is contraindicated in which of the following circumstances? When the client has a fever If the client has thrombocytopenia If the client has difficulty swallowing If the client has nausea and vomiting

If the client has thrombocytopenia The rectal route of administration should not be used in clients with neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, mucositis, or rectal lesions.

A nurse is teaching a client who has severe chronic gout and a new prescription for pegloticase. The client has been taking allopurinol for 1 month. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include about pegloticase? "You will take this medication along with allopurinol." "You will take this medication by mouth." "There are very few adverse effects of this medication." "If you experience a flare-up, you can take an NSAID while receiving this medication."

If you experience a flare-up, you can take an NSAID while receiving this medication." The nurse should instruct this client who has chronic gout that, during the first few months of treatment, an increase in gout manifestations is expected. To reduce the intensity of these manifestations, clients are instructed to take an NSAID such as Naproxen.

A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is prescribed dobutamine hydrochloride by continuous IV infusion. The nurse should identify that which of the following is the therapeutic effect of this medication? Improves oxygen saturation rate Decreases elevated blood pressure Reduces heart rate Improves cardiac output

Improves cardiac output The nurse should identify that dobutamine is a vasopressor that improves cardiac output and hemodynamic status in clients.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has ulcerative colitis and a new prescription for sulfasalazine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication? Jaundice Constipation Oral candidiasis Sedation

Jaundice Sulfasalazine can cause a yellow discoloration of the skin and yellow/orange discoloration of the urine. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the provider if these occur.

A nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has impaired swallowing. The nurse should crush the medication when administering which of the following prescriptions? Aspirin EC 80 mg PO daily Levothyroxine 75 mcg PO q AM before breakfast Metformin XR 500 mg PO daily Nitroglycerin 0.3 mg SL PRN chest pain, may repeat q 5 min for 2 additional doses

Levothyroxine 75 mcg PO q AM before breakfast Levothyroxine can be crushed because it is not extended-release, sublingual, or enteric-coated. If crushed, the medication should be mixed with 5 to 10 mL of water.

A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a dinoprostone vaginal insert pouch to stimulate labor. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? "It is inserted using a catheter." "One pouch is given every 4 hours until labor occurs." "Lie on your back for at least 2 hours without getting up." "If labor doesn't occur within 6 hours, a second dose can be administered."

Lie on your back for at least 2 hours without getting up." The client should remain supine for at least 2 hours after the dinoprostone vaginal pouch is inserted to allow a slow release of the medication from the pouch to stimulate labor.

A charge nurse is monitoring a newly licensed nurse who is caring for a postoperative client who is receiving morphine through a PCA pump. Which of the following actions by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention? Instructing the client to administer a PCA dose prior to a dressing change Providing increased fluids while the client is using the PCA pump Informing the client's partner that only the client should administer the PCA doses Maintaining the client on bed rest while the PCA pump is in use

Maintaining the client on bed rest while the PCA pump is in use Use of a PCA pump does not prevent ambulation following surgery. Early ambulation should be encouraged. The nurse should instruct the client to sit at the side of the bed prior to standing to reduce the risks of orthostatic hypotension and falls.

A nurse is caring for a client who was recently diagnosed with Addison's disease and has been placed on long-term mineralocorticoid therapy with fludrocortisone. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse provide when explaining the purpose of this therapy? Mineralocorticoids help the body metabolize carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. Mineralocorticoids support secondary sexual development. Mineralocorticoids maintain electrolyte and fluid balance. Mineralocorticoids reduce the risk of cardiac dysrhythmias.

Mineralocorticoids maintain electrolyte and fluid balance. Mineralocorticoids (specifically aldosterone) are necessary for the regulation of fluid and electrolyte balance (particularly for sodium, potassium, and water). Addison's disease results in a deficiency of cortisol and aldosterone production and requires supplementation with glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. Fludrocortisone is the only mineralocorticoid available.

A nurse who is caring for a client in the PACU after an exploratory laparotomy knows that which of the following medications should be kept on hand? Flumazenil (Romazicon) Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) Nitroprusside (Nipride) Protamine sulfate

Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) Opioid analgesics are commonly used for the treatment of postoperative pain. Respiratory function is continuously assessed during the postoperative period since opioid overdose results in respiratory suppression. Naloxone is kept on hand to reverse overdose rapidly. After reversal by naloxone, clients may experience pain, tachycardia, or pulmonary edema

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a client who has a prescription for filgrastim. An increase in which of the following values indicates a therapeutic effect of this medication? Erythrocyte count Neutrophil count Lymphocyte count Thrombocyte count

Neutrophil count Filgrastim increases neutrophil production. It is given to treat neutropenia and reduce the risk of infection in clients who are receiving chemotherapy for cancer or who have undergone bone marrow transplant.

A nurse is teaching the parent of a child who has severe reactive airway disease about glucocorticoid therapy. The parent asks why her child has to inhale the medication instead of taking it orally. Which of the following pieces of information should the nurse provide to the parent? Inhaled glucocorticoids are less likely to cause thrush. Oral glucocorticoids are hazardous during times of stress. Oral glucocorticoids are more likely to slow linear growth in children. Inhaled glucocorticoids are more effective for acute bronchospasm

Oral glucocorticoids are more likely to slow linear growth in children. The chronic use of oral glucocorticoids in high doses by children can result in decreased linear growth. Inhaled glucocorticoids deliver the anti-inflammatory agent directly to the local target area (the client's airways), resulting in a decreased risk for adrenal suppression.

A hospice nurse is caring for a client who has cancer and is taking naproxen 250 mg 3 times daily PO and gabapentin 1,800 mg 3 times daily PO to manage pain. The client tells the nurse, "I'm having pain that keeps me from doing what I'd like most of the time." Which of the following additions should the nurse anticipate to the client's medication regimen? Oral meperidine Parenteral naloxone Parenteral diazepam Oral oxycodone

Oral oxycodone The client's current pain regimen consists of a nonopioid analgesic (naproxen) and an adjuvant medication for neuropathic pain (gabapentin). According to the WHO analgesic ladder for cancer pain management, the next addition to the pain regimen is an opioid for moderate pain. Oxycodone is an oral opioid that relieves moderate to moderately severe pain; therefore, it is an appropriate choice to add to the client's pain regimen.

A nurse is assessing a client who was recently admitted and has a history of alcohol use disorder. The client displays ataxia, an altered level of consciousness, and nystagmus. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to the client? Parenteral thiamine Niacin extended-release capsules Parenteral pyridoxine Riboflavin tablets

Parenteral thiamine The nurse should identify that a client who has a history of alcohol use disorder and displays ataxia, an altered level of consciousness, and nystagmus is exhibiting manifestations of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome due to a thiamine deficiency. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate administering parenteral thiamine.

A nurse is caring for a client who is taking glucocorticoids. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of the medication? Weight loss Peptic ulcer Hyperkalemia Diplopia

Peptic ulcer The nurse should monitor this client who is taking glucocorticoids for peptic ulcer disease due to irritation of the gastric mucosa. The nurse should periodically check the client's stool for occult blood and instruct the client to contact the provider if any black or tarry stools occur.

A nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about contraindications to ceftriaxone. A severe allergy to which of the following medications is a contraindication to ceftriaxone? Gentamicin Clindamycin Piperacillin Sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim

Piperacillin Clients who have a severe allergy to piperacillin, which is a penicillin, can have a cross-sensitivity reaction to ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin. Ceftriaxone is contraindicated for a client who has an allergy to cephalosporins or a severe allergy to penicillin.

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for metronidazole (Flagyl) for amoebic dysentery. Which of the following represents an adverse side effect that the client should report to the health care provider? Joint pain Diarrhea Rash Excessive sweating

Rash Metronidazole may cause negative side effects with use, some of which should be reported to a health care provider right away to prevent further complications. The client should notify the provider if a rash occurs, as Stevens-Johnson syndrome may occur with this medication.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should instruct the client that lactulose has which of the following therapeutic effects? Increases blood pressure Prevents esophageal bleeding Decreases heart rate Reduces ammonia levels

Reduces ammonia levels Lactulose is a laxative that promotes the excretion of ammonia in a client who has hepatic encephalopathy from cirrhosis of the liver.

A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis who has a prescription for an intravenous infusion of insulin. The nurse should document that which of the following types of insulin was administered intravenously to treat ketoacidosis? Regular insulin Insulin lispro Insulin aspart Insulin glargine

Regular insulin Treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis is directed at correcting hyperglycemia and acidosis. Therefore, the client's insulin levels are restored with an initial IV bolus of regular insulin followed by continuous infusion.

A nurse is caring for a client who has asthma and requires long-term treatment. The nurse should identify that which of the following medications used for long-term treatment places the client at an increased risk of asthma-related death? Salmeterol Fluticasone Budesonide Theophylline

Salmeterol The nurse should identify that salmeterol is a long-acting beta2-agonist. When this medication is used alone for the long-term treatment of asthma, this class of medication increases the client's risk of asthma-related death. To decrease this risk, the client should be prescribed both a long-acting beta2-agonist along with an inhaled corticosteroid.

A nurse is preparing a discharge teaching plan for a client who is scheduled to begin long-term oral prednisone for asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the plan? Stop taking the medication if a rash occurs. Take the medication on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects. Treat shortness of breath with an extra dose of the medication.

Schedule the medication on alternate days to decrease adverse effects. Some of the adverse effects caused by long-term glucocorticoid therapy (e.g. suppression of the adrenal gland) can be avoided by using alternate-day therapy.

A nurse is reviewing laboratory reports for a client who has Clostridium difficile infection and is receiving vancomycin. Which of the following results should the nurse report to the provider before administering the next dose? Hematocrit 46% Serum glucose 110 mg/dL Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL Serum potassium 4.8 mEq/L

Serum creatinine 2.5 mg/dL Vancomycin is nephrotoxic and can result in renal failure, which is indicated by elevated levels of creatinine above the expected reference range of 0.5 to 1.3 mg/dL. The nurse should report this laboratory value to the provider prior to administering any further doses of the medication.

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a continuous morphine IV infusion and finds the client's respiratory rate has decreased from 20/min to 12/min. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Flush the IV line with saline Administer flumazenil Lower the head of the bed Slow the rate of the infusion

Slow the rate of the infusion The nurse should decrease the infusion rate to reduce the amount of morphine the client receives and limit the risk of respiratory depression.

A nurse is caring for a client who has cystic fibrosis (CF) and has a prescription for high-dose ibuprofen daily. The nurse should identify that which of the following is an expected outcome for the client receiving this medication? Thinned pulmonary secretions that are retained in the airways Slowed progression of pulmonary damage Potentiated action of bronchodilator therapy Decreased risk of fevers associated with CF

Slowed progression of pulmonary damage The nurse should identify that clients who have CF are prescribed high-dose Ibuprofen, which is an NSAID, to slow the progression of pulmonary damage by suppressing the inflammatory response that causes pulmonary damage. CF is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the lungs, pancreas, and sweat glands.

A nurse is caring for a school-aged child who has cystic fibrosis (CF) and has been using a corticosteroid inhaler for long-term treatment. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of long-term use of this medication? Small stature for age Decreased weight Poor dentition Atrophied muscles

Small stature for age The nurse should identify that an adverse effect of the long-term use of inhaled glucocorticoids can be a slowing in the rate of growth in children.

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic stable angina pectoris and a prescription for sublingual nitroglycerin tablets. What sequence of instructions should the nurse tell the client to use if he experiences chest pain? (Move the steps into the box on the right, placing them in the order of performance. Use all the steps.) Stop activity Call 911 if the pain is not relieved Place a tablet under the tongue Wait 5 min

Step 1: The client should first stop all activity Step 2: Place a tablet under his tongue. Step 3: Next, he should wait 5 minutes. Step 4: If the chest pain is not relieved, he should call 911.

A nurse is assessing a client who began taking clozapine 3 weeks ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately? Tachypnea and tachycardia Abdominal pain and constipation Enuresis and polyuria Dry mouth and blurred vision

Tachypnea and tachycardia The greatest risk to the client is the development of myocarditis, a potentially fatal adverse effect of clozapine. Myocarditis is an inflammation of the heart muscle that typically occurs within 30 days of starting the medication. Manifestations of myocarditis include chest pain, palpitations, tachycardia, cardiac arrhythmias, dyspnea, tachypnea, a fever, peripheral edema, and unexplained fatigue. Clozapine should be discontinued if a client develops myocarditis, and its use should be avoided in the future.

A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection for a client. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a potential contraindication to administering the medication via the IM route? The medication is a depot preparation. The client is taking an anticoagulant. The medication is a particulate suspension. The client has been vomiting.

The client is taking an anticoagulant. Because of the risk of bleeding from the injection site, anticoagulant therapy (e.g. warfarin) is a contraindication to receiving medications via the IM route.

A nurse is planning care for a female client who has severe irritable bowel syndrome with diarrhea (IBS-D) and a new prescription for alosetron. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? The client must sign an agreement with the provider before beginning alosetron. The client must stop taking alosetron if diarrhea continues for 1 week after beginning the medication. The client should expect to have a slower heart rate while taking alosetron. The client should use a barrier birth control method because alosetron interacts with oral contraceptives.

The client must sign an agreement with the provider before beginning alosetron. Alosetron has potentially fatal adverse effects associated with constipation and bowel obstruction. The FDA has allowed alosetron to be placed on the market only if clients sign and adhere to a risk management program, which includes signing a client-provider agreement before starting alosetron.

A nurse in a long-term care facility is administering medications to a group of older adult clients. Which of the following factors of pharmacokinetics should the nurse consider when caring for this age group? The excretion of medication is reduced. The percentage of medication absorbed is increased. The liver metabolizes medication more quickly. The rate at which the liver metabolizes medication declines with age.

The excretion of medication is reduced.

A nurse is assessing an infant who is scheduled to receive the rotavirus vaccine. Which of the following criteria should the nurse identify as a potential contraindication for administering this vaccine? The infant is teething. The infant has a history of intussusception. The infant has been constipated for 3 days. The infant is 9 weeks old.

The infant has a history of intussusception. The nurse should identify that the rotavirus vaccine is contraindicated for infants who have a history of intussusception. The rotavirus vaccine is also contraindicated for infants who have an uncorrected gastrointestinal congenital malformation that could result in intussusception.

A nurse is reviewing a new prescription for fexofenadine for a 7-year-old client who has seasonal allergies. Which of the following findings should the nurse clarify with the provider? The prescription says to avoid taking the medicine with orange juice. The prescription says to take standard tablets. The prescription says to take 30 mg twice daily. The prescription says to administer the medicine orally.

The prescription says to take standard tablets. The nurse should identify that this 7-year-old client has been prescribed a standard tablet, which is appropriate for clients 12 years of age and older. Therefore, the nurse should clarify this aspect of the prescription with the provider because a client who is 7 years old should be administered orally disintegrating tablets or a suspension.

A nurse is preparing to administer an IV injection to a client. For which of the following reasons should the nurse inject the medication slowly? To reduce toxicity risk To improve absorption pattern To prevent medication dilution To protect against embolism

To reduce toxicity risk Prior to injecting an IV medication, the nurse should plan to infuse the medication slowly over 1 minute to reduce the risk for toxicity to the central nervous system (CNS). Manifestations of CNS toxicity can become evident as soon as 15 seconds after initiating the injection. If the injection is done slowly, only a small amount of the total dose will have been administered when manifestations of toxicity appear. If the nurse is able to discontinue the administration immediately, adverse effects can be much less severe than if the entire dose had been given quickly.

A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lisinopril. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching as an adverse effect of lisinopril? Tongue swelling Low potassium level Runny nose Bruising

Tongue swelling Angioedema is a fatal response that occurs in about 1% of clients who use ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril. Manifestations of angioedema include swelling of the tongue, lips, or pharynx.

A nurse is assessing a client who reports using several herbal and vitamin supplements daily, including saw palmetto. The nurse should recognize that saw palmetto is a supplement used by clients to elicit which of the following therapeutic effects? Urinary health promotion Immune system stimulation Decreased leg pain from arterial disease Prevention of nausea caused by motion sickness

Urinary health promotion Saw palmetto is used primarily for manifestations related to prostatic conditions such as benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). Its effectiveness has not been scientifically verified, however. The nurse should instruct the client to check with the provider about interactions between saw palmetto and other medications.