C400 Quizzes
Domain
(C401) A/An __________ is a physically defined portion of an operational environment requiring a unique set of warfighting capabilities and skills
Corps
(C401) What Army echelon is the most versatile due to its ability to operate at both the tactical and operational levels?
Main effort and supporting effort
(C401) What components of the operational framework describe the operation in terms of resources and priorities of support?
BCT
(C401) What is the Army's primary combined arms, close-combat maneuver force that can maneuver against, close with, and destroy enemy forces?
MDO
(C401) What is the combined arms employment of joint and Army capabilities to create and exploit relative advantages that achieve objectives, defeat enemy forces, and consolidate gains on behalf of joint force commanders.
LSCO
(C401) What term means extensive joint combat operations involving multiple corps and divisions?
Execution decisions
(C402) What type of decisions are based upon anticipated conditions (CCIRs) and captured on the unit's decision support matrix to aid the commander?
Counterreconnaissance
(C403) If the commander as part of planning considerations wants to destroy, defeat or repel all enemy reconnaissance, which tactical mission task would you assign a formation?
Enemy forces that are well covered or concealed
(C403) UAS platforms have limited effectiveness in locating which of the following?
Reconnaissance handover
(C403) What is the action that occurs between two elements to coordinate the transfer of information and responsibility for observation of potential threat contact, or the transfer of an assigned area from one element to another?
Mobile defense
(C405) Identify this defensive operations symbol.
Retain decisive terrain or deny a vital area to an enemy force
(C405) Which of the following is a purpose of the defense?
Retrograde
(C405) Which type of defensive operation is an organized movement away from the enemy? It may be forced by enemy actions, or it may be made voluntarily. In either case, the higher echelon commander of the force must approve this type of defensive operation prior to execution.
Use approved contractors for all projects
(C406) Army units must do which of the following to prevent the perception of favoritism to an ethnic or political group during the conduct of Army stability operations tasks?
Imperatives
(C401) What are actions Army forces must take to defeat enemy forces and achieve objectives at acceptable cost?
Dual status command
(C407) During a recent natural disaster covering multiple areas and jurisdictions of Kansas and Oklahoma, National Guard forces from both states were mobilized in a Title 32 status and the President along with both governors agreed to the commitment of federal forces (Title 10 status). During a recent IPR involving all military and civilian representatives, it was determined that a lack of integration was hindering recovery efforts. To better unify military efforts what type of command status would you recommend to the governors and the President?
American Samoa, Guam, Hawaii
(C407) USNORTHCOM does NOT conduct DSCA in which US states and territories?
Sector
(C405) This operational area is assigned to a unit in the defense that has rear and lateral boundaries with interlocking fires.
Transitional military authority
(C406) Units assigned responsibilities for governance, law and order, and providing essential services are referred to as which of the following?
The two sub-categories of a fragile state are crisis and vulnerable. A crisis state is a state the does not exert effective control over its sovereign territory. A vulnerable state is a state cannot or does not want to provide security and basic services to significant portion of its population.
(C406) What are the two sub-categories of a fragile state?
Building host-nation capacity and capabilities
(C406) What fundamental of stabilization includes gaining buy-in, coordinating training and operations, and conducting foreign military sales with the host-nation government?
Civil unrest in US territory
(C406) Which of the following conditions would NOT initiate stability operations?
USNORTHCOM and USINDOPACOM
(C407) During a catastrophic event when the demand for resources exceeds the National Guard capacity, requests for federal Army forces are supported by?
Immediate response authority
(C407) What allows/authorizes a local commander to temporarily support a local community's civil authority's request for military assistance in an emergency situation for a limited duration without higher authority approval?
30 days
(C407) Whenever state National Guard forces respond in support of another state, each JFHQ-State (supporting and supported) ensures certain coordination requirements are met. Most National Guard commitments are for how long?
Provide support for domestic CBRN incidents
(C407) Which of the following is a DSCA primary/key task?
Turning movement
(C404) What is your commander describing if he tells the staff to conduct undetected movement through or into an area occupied by enemy forces to occupy a position of advantage behind those enemy positions while exposing only small elements to enemy defensive fires?
exploitation
(C404) What type of offensive operation would an ABCT execute to disorganize the enemy in depth following a successful attack?
attack
(C404) What type of offensive operation would an ABCT most likely use if the unit knows some or all of the enemy's disposition?
Turning movement
(C404) Which of the following is a form of maneuver that seeks to cause the enemy force to move out of its position?
To destroy enemy forces
(C404) Which of the following is a purpose for why the US Army conducts offensive operations?
Mass and concentration
(C405) Arriving in your area of operations ahead of your attacker, the commander wants to create overwhelming combat power at specific locations to support the main effort. What characteristic of the defense is being described?
C2
(C405) As part of defensive operations planning, commanders ensure that subordinate unit defensive plans are compatible and that control measures, such as contact points and phase lines, are sufficient for coordination when assigning areas. This best describes which warfighting function?
Mobile
(C405) In a/an _________ defense, transitioning to the offense generally follows the striking force's counterattack.
A purpose of defensive operations
(C405) Increasing the enemy's vulnerability by forcing the enemy to concentrate subordinate forces is an example of what?
Situational assessment
(C405) Transition from one type of operation to another requires accurate __________________ capabilities as well as mental and physical agility of all those involved.
Informationized battlefield is incredibly complex, fast moving, and intense. Proactive cooperation between different organizations is a key enabler of offensive actions on the modern battlefield
(C405) What best describes the OPFOR offensive principle of coordination?
Flexibility
(C405) Which characteristic of the defense focuses on developing plans that anticipate a range of enemy actions and allocate resources?
Enable enemy freedom of maneuver
(C405) Which of the following is NOT an objective of OPFOR offensive operations?
Commanders direct their information collection assets to determine the locations, strengths, and probable intentions of attacking enemy forces before and throughout their defense
(C405) Which one of the following is a key defensive operations intelligence warfighting function planning consideration?
Area defense
(C405) Which type of defensive operation concentrates on denying enemy forces access to designated terrain for a specific time rather than destroying the enemy outright?
the set of conditions in which a local populace regards its governance institutions as legitimate and its living situation as acceptable and predictable. Actions to maintain or reestablish stability first aim to lessen the level of violence.
(C406) Doctrinally, what conditions best describe stability?
Army design methodology
(C406) Given the inherently complex and uncertain nature of operations, particularly stability operations, what planning process assists organizations in understanding the root causes of instability?
Minimum-essential stability tasks
(C406) If, at the conclusion of offensive operations, the ABCT commander instructs his staff to acquire additional stockage of Class I and Class VIII, and to start identifying key leaders within the host nation security forces, what tasks is he most likely preparing his unit for?
Control or direct the application of force within an assigned mission or task
(C401) When commanders have tactical control (TACON) over forces, they have the authority to do which of the following?
Informational considerations
(C401) Which METT-TC (I) consideration addresses those aspects of the human, information, and physical dimensions?
Information
(C401) Which of the following is one of the five dynamics of combat power?
Attack by fire
(C401) Which of the following terms is a tactical mission task?
C2
(C401) Which warfighting function's primary purpose is to assist commanders in integrating the other warfighting functions effectively at each echelon, and to apply combat power to achieve objectives and accomplish missions?
To help commanders describe an operational approach
(C401) Why do commanders use defeat and stability mechanisms?
Current operations cell
(C402) At the division level, what integration cell is most likely responsible for conducting RDSP and issuing FRAGORDs based upon a change in the existing plan?
Running estimates
(C402) Each staff section is responsible for assisting the commander with understanding the situation, assessing progress, and making decisions. This is a continuous process. What tool best supports the staff in this responsibility?
Audacity, concentration, surprise, tempo
(C404) What are the characteristics of the offense?
Area, Maneuver, and Decentralized
(C404) What are three types of opposing force defensive operations?
Support by fire
(C404) What does this graphic control measure depict?
Assault position
(C404) If your commander emphasized the criticality of making final provisions under cover and concealment before the main effort and supporting effort advance towards the objective, what control measure should be used to graphically depict the location of the provisions your commander described?
Observation post
(C404) In opposing force defensive tactics, what formation from a Combined Arms Brigade (CA-BDE) conducts forward reconnaissance and counter-reconnaissance while screening the main body and is charged with disrupting enemy operations?
The BCT reaches a culmination point
(C404) Under which condition would a BCT most likely transition from the offense?
Depth
(C401) Which of the following is a tenet of multidomain operations (MDO)?
Through activities of understanding, visualizing, describing, directing, leading, and assessing (UVDDLA)
(C402) How does the commander drive the operations process?
Desired condition of friendly forces with relationship to the enemy, terrain, and civilian populace
(C402) What best describes the content of a doctrinally correct end state?
Conceptual planning and detailed planning
(C402) What best describes the integrated efforts of the commander's broad approach and the staff's scientific approach to produce a plan?
Security operations orient on the protected force, area, or facility to be protected, while reconnaissance is enemy, infrastructure, terrain and weather effects and society oriented
(C403) What is the main difference between security and reconnaissance operations?
Redundancy
(C403) What type of reconnaissance management should the commander employ to improve the chances the reconnaissance element collects the required information?
Require augmentation to perform effective offensive and defensive actions as an economy of force role
(C403) Which of the following is a cavalry squadron constraint?
Disruption zone, battle zone, support zone, and reserve zone
(C404) According to opposing force defensive tactics, a defensive zone consists of?
Fire superiority
(C404) If a commander was able to converge indirect fires, direct fires, and electronic warfare simultaneously against a heavily fortified enemy position what is the most likely result of this?
Initiative
(C404) If a commander was able to select the time, place and method used by his attacking force, which of the following would the commander have?
Title 32
(C407) You are an advisor to the governor of a large gulf coast state dealing with a major natural disaster from a tropical storm. The storm caused significant damage to infrastructure. The governor wants to mobilize National Guard forces in support of other state agencies and is asking the federal government for funding. He wants to retain control of those forces but is concerned about the money available to pay for those forces. What type of duty status should you recommend that best meets the governor's requirements?
National Resource Framework
(C407) You would like to review national response principles, partner roles, emergency support functions, and structures for coordinating a national disaster response. Identify which document would describe best practices for responding to specific incidents?