Capstone: Renal (NCLEX)

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Which statement by a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurses teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. I need to try to get more protein from dairy products. b. I will try to increase my intake of fruits and vegetables. c. I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink. d. I need to take the erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection.

A patient on hemodialysis develops a thrombus of a subcutaneous arteriovenous (AV) graft, requiring its removal.While waiting for a replacement graft or fistula, the patient is most likely to have what done for treatment? a. Peritoneal dialysis b. Peripheral vascular access using radial artery c. Silastic catheter tunneled subcutaneously to the jugular vein d. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line inserted into subclavian vein

C A more permanent, soft, flexible Silastic double-lumen catheter is used for long-term access when other forms of vascular access have failed. These catheters are tunneled subcutaneously and have Dacron cuffs that prevent infection from tracking along the catheter.

A male patient in the clinic provides a urine sample that is red-orange in color. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Teach correct midstream urine collection. c. Ask the patient about current medications. d. Question the patient about urinary tract infection (UTI) risk factors.

C A red-orange color in the urine is normal with some over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as phenazopyridine (Pyridium). The color would not be expected with urinary tract infection, is not a sign that poor technique was used in obtaining the specimen, and does not need to be communicated to the health care provider until further assessment is done

A patient needing vascular access for hemodialysis asks the nurse what the differences are between an arteriovenous (AV) fistula and a graft. The nurse explains that one advantage of the fistula is that it a. can accommodate larger needles. b. increases patient mobility. c. is much less likely to clot. d. can be used sooner after surgery.

C AV fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not impact on needle size or patient mobility

Two hours after a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy, the client reports a dramatic increase in pain. What is the nurse's best first action? A. Reposition the client on the operative side. B. Administer prescribed opioid analgesic. C. Assess pulse rate and blood pressure. D. Check the Foley catheter for kinks.

C An increase in the intensity of pain after a percutaneous kidney biopsy is a symptom of internal hemorrhage.

A hospitalized patient with possible renal insufficiency after coronary artery bypass surgery is scheduled for a creatinine clearance test. Which equipment will the nurse need to obtain? a. Urinary catheter b. Cleaning towelettes c. Large container for urine d. Sterile urine specimen cup

C Because creatinine clearance testing involves a 24-hour urine specimen, the nurse should obtain a large container for the urine collection. Catheterization, cleaning of the perineum with antiseptic towelettes, and a sterile specimen cup are not needed for this test

With a renal threshold for glucose of 220 mg/dL, what is the expected response when a client has a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL? A. 400 mg/dL of excreted glucose in the urine B. 220 mg/dL of excreted glucose in the urine C. 180 mg/dL of glucose is excreted in the urine D. No excreted glucose in the urine

C Blood glucose is freely filtered at the glomerulus. Therefore, if a client has a blood sugar level of 400 mg/dl, the filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule will have a glucose concentration of 400 mg/dL. With a renal threshold of 220 mg/dl, a total of 220 mg/dL of the 400 mg/dL will be reabsorbed back into the systemic circulation, and the final urine will have a glucose concentration of 180 mg/dL.

The client is scheduled to have a renogram (kidney scan). She is concerned about discomfort during the procedure. What is the nurse's best response? A. "Before the test you will be given a sedative to reduce any pain." B. "A local anesthetic agent will be used, so you might feel a little pressure but no pain." C. "Although this test is very sensitive, there is no more discomfort than you would have with an ordinary x-ray." D. "The only pain associated with this procedure is a small needle stick when you are given the radioisotope"

The client newly diagnosed with CKD recently has begun HD. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse should assess the client during dialysis for which associated manifestations? a. hypertension, tachycardia, and fever b. hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia c. restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness d. headache, deteriorating LOC, and twitching

The client with chronic renal failure who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a. during dialysis b. just before dialysis c. the day after dialysis d. on return form dialysis

The most common cause of acute renal failure in children is a. Pyelonephritis b. Tubular destruction c. Urinary tract obstruction d. Severe dehydration

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following HD. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which is the priority nursing action? a. monitor the client b. elevate the HOB c. assess the fistula site and dressing d. notify the HCP

The nurse is preparing to administer a dose of PhosLo to a patient with chronic kidney disease. This medication should have a beneficial effect on which laboratory value? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Magnesium d. Phosphorus

The nurse preparing to administer a dose of calcium acetate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which laboratory result will the nurse monitor to determine if the desired effect was achieved? a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Magnesium d. Phosphorus

What is the most appropriate snack for the nurse to offer a patient with stage 4 CKD? a. raisins b. ice cream c. dill pickles d. hard candy

Which action by a patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing pain. b. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. c. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. d. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath every day.

Which change in renal or urinary functioning as a result of the normal aging process increases the older client's risk for infection? A. Decreased glomerular filtration B. Decreased filtrate reabsorption C. Weakened sphincter muscles D. Urinary retention

Which clinical finding warrants further intervention for the child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis? a. Weight loss to within 1 lb of the pre-illness weight b. Urine output of 1 mL/kg/hr c. A positive antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer d. Inspiratory crackles

Which diagnostic finding is present when a child has primary nephrotic syndrome? a. Hyperalbuminemia b. Positive ASO titer c. Leukocytosis d. Proteinuria

Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is contraindicated for clients with renal insufficiency? a) beta-adrenergic blockers b) calcium-channel blockers c) direct-acting vasodilators d) angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors

Which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that the patient's CKD is getting worse? a. decreased BUN b. decreased sodium c. decreased creatinine d. decreased calculated GFR

Which statement by a parent of a child with nephrotic syndrome indicates an understanding of a no-added-salt diet? a. "I can give my child sweet pickles." b. "My child can put ketchup on his hotdog." c. "I can let my child have potato chips." d. "I do not put any salt in foods when I am cooking."

Which statement by a patient who had a cystoscopy the previous day should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. "My urine looks pink." b. "My IV site is bruised." c. "My sleep was restless." d. "My temperature is 101."

A client who is to have a cystectomy with creation of an ileal conduit asks the nurse why the bowel needs to be cleansed before surgery if the bladder is being removed. Which response by the nurse is the most appropriate? 1. "All clients undergo bowel preparation with major surgery." 2. "This will decrease the chance of postoperative paralytic ileus." 3. "A portion of the bowel will be used to create the conduit for urinary diversion." 4. "This will reduce the chance that the surgeon will nick the bowel during surgery."

3 The client scheduled for surgical creation of either an ileal conduit or a reservoir undergoes bowel preparation the night before the procedure. Preparation can include intake of copious clear liquids, laxatives, enemas, and antibiotics, depending on health care provider preference. This is done primarily to prevent infection because a loop of bowel will be used to create the urinary diversion.

The nurse is admitting a client from the postanesthesia care unit who has had percutaneous nephrolithotomy for calculi in the renal pelvis. The nurse anticipates that the client's care will most likely involve monitoring which device? 1. Ureteral stent 2. Suprapubic tube 3. Nephrostomy tube 4. Jackson-Pratt drain

3 A nephrostomy tube is put in place after percutaneous nephrolithotomy for calculi in the renal pelvis. The client also may have a Foley catheter to drain urine produced by the other kidney. The nurse monitors the drainage from each of these tubes and strains the urine to detect elimination of the calculous fragments. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse is teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome about managing the disorder. What should the nurse instruct the client to adjust according to the amount of edema present? 1. Salt intake 2. Water intake 3. Activity level 4. Use of diuretics

3 The client is taught to adjust the activity level according to the amount of edema. As edema decreases, activity can increase. Correspondingly, as edema increases, the client should increase rest periods and limit activity. Bed rest is recommended during periods of severe edema. The client with nephrotic syndrome usually has a standard limit set on sodium intake. Fluids are not restricted unless the client also is hyponatremic. Diuretics are prescribed on a specific schedule, and doses are not titrated according to the level of edema.

A client with a bladder injury has had surgical repair of the injured area with placement of a suprapubic catheter. Which is the most appropriate nursing action to prevent complications of this procedure? 1. Monitor urine output once per shift. 2. Measure specific gravity once per shift. 3. Encourage an excessive intake of oral fluids. 4. Ensure that the catheter tubing is not kinked.

4 A complication after surgical repair of the bladder is disruption of sutures, caused by tension on them from urine buildup. The nurse prevents this from happening by ensuring that the catheter is able to drain freely. This involves basic catheter care, including keeping the tubing free from kinks, maintaining the tubing at a level below the bladder, and monitoring the flow of urine frequently. Monitoring of urine output every shift is insufficient to detect decreased flow from catheter kinking. Measurement of urine specific gravity and an excessive intake of oral fluids do not prevent complications of bladder surgery.

A week after kidney transplantation, a client develops a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C), the blood pressure is elevated, and there is tenderness over the transplanted kidney. The serum creatinine is rising and urine output is decreased. The x-ray indicates that the transplanted kidney is enlarged. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse anticipates which treatment? 1. Antibiotic therapy 2. Peritoneal dialysis 3. Removal of the transplanted kidney 4. Increased immunosuppression therapy

4 Acute rejection most often occurs within 1 week after transplantation but can occur any time posttransplantation. Clinical manifestations include fever, malaise, elevated white blood cell count, acute hypertension, graft tenderness, and manifestations of deteriorating renal function. Treatment consists of increasing immunosuppressive therapy. Antibiotics are used to treat infection. Peritoneal dialysis cannot be used with a newly transplanted kidney due to the recent surgery. Removal of the transplanted kidney is indicated with hyperacute rejection, which occurs within 48 hours of the transplant surgery.

A client with epididymitis is upset about the extent of scrotal edema. Attempts to reassure the client that this condition is temporary have not been effective. The nurse should plan to address which client problem? 1. Pain related to fluid accumulation in the scrotum 2. Uneasiness related to inability to reduce scrotal swelling 3. Guilt related to the possibility of sterility secondary to scrotal swelling 4. Altered body appearance related to change in the appearance of the scrotum

4 Altered body appearance is a problem when the client has either a verbal or a nonverbal response to a change in the structure or the function of a body part. Pain may apply but does not correlate with the information in the question. There are no data in the question that uneasiness, inability to reduce scrotal swelling, or sterility is a client concern.

Which statement is descriptive of renal transplantation in children? a. It is an acceptable means of treatment after age 10 years. b. It is preferred means of renal replacement therapy in children. c. Children can receive kidneys only from other children. d. The decision for transplantation is difficult, since a relatively normal lifestyle isnot possible.

Which statement regarding continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) would be most important when teaching a patient new to the treatment? a. "Maintain a daily written record of blood pressure and weight." b. "It is essential that you maintain aseptic technique to prevent peritonitis." c. "You will be allowed a more liberal protein diet once you complete CAPD." d. "Continue regular medical and nursing follow-up visits while performing CAPD."

You are the nurse caring for a 4-year-old child who has developed acute renal failure as a result of hemolytic-uremic syndrome (HUS). Which bacterial infection was most likely the cause of HUS? a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Escherichia coli c. Streptococcus pneumoniae d. Staphylococcus aureus

The client is going home after urography. Which instruction or precaution should the nurse teach this client? A. "Avoid direct contact with the urine for 24 hours until the radioisotope clears." B. "You are likely to experience some dribbling of urine for several weeks after this procedure." C. "Be sure to drink at least 3 L of fluids today to help eliminate the dye faster." D. "Your skin may become slightly yellow-tinged from the dye used in this procedure."

The diet of a child with chronic renal failure is usually characterized as a. High in protein b. Low in vitamin D c. Low in phosphorus d. Supplemented with vitamins A, E, and K

The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for the child with acute glomerulonephritis is a. Risk for Injury related to malignant process and treatment b. Deficient Fluid Volume related to excessive losses c. Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume related to a decrease in plasma filtration d. Excess Fluid Volume related to fluid accumulation in tissues and third spaces

The nurse assesses that the patient has a full bladder, and the patient states that he or she is having difficulty voiding. The nurse would teach the patient to: A) Use the double-voiding technique. B) Perform Kegel exercises. C) Use Credé's method. D) Keep a voiding diary.

The nurse assessing a child with acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis should be alert for which finding? a. Increased urine output b. Hypotension c. Tea-colored urine d. Weight gain

The nurse is caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease after hemodialysis. Which patient care action should the nurse delegate to the experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Assess the patient's access site for a thrill and bruit. b. Monitor for signs and symptoms of postdialysis bleeding. c. Check the patient's postdialysis blood pressure and weight. d. Instruct the patient to report signs of dialysis disequilibrium syndrome immediately.

The nurse is instructing the client with chronic renal failure to maintain adequate nutritional intake. Which diet would be most appropriate? a. high-carbohydrate, high-protein b. high-calcium, high-potassium, high-protein c. low-protein, low-sodium, low-potassium d. low-protein, high-potassium

The patient is incontinent, and a condom catheter is placed. The nurse should take which action? A) Secure the condom with adhesive tape B) Change the condom every 48 hours C) Assess the patient for skin irritation D) Use sterile technique for placement

The patient states that she "loses urine" every time she laughs or coughs. The nurse teaches the patient measures to regain urinary control. The nurse recognizes the need for further teaching when the patient states: A) "I will perform my Kegel exercises every day." B) "I joined weight watchers." C) "I drink two glasses of wine with dinner." D) "I have tried urinating every 3 hours."

The patient with CKD is brought to the ED with Kussmaul respirations. What does the nurse know about CKD that could cause this patient's Kussmaul respirations? a. uremic pleuritis is occurring b. there is decreased pulmonary macrophage activity c. they are caused by respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis d. pulmonary edema from HF and fluid overload is occurring

Two hours after a kidney transplant, the nurse obtains all of the following data when assessing the patient. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr. b. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated. c. The patients central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. d. The patient has level 8 (on a 10-point scale) incisional pain.

What causes the GI manifestation of stomatitis in the patient with CKD? a. high serum sodium levels b. irritation of the GI tract from creatinine c. increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea d. iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake

When a patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years is started on hemodialysis, which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. b. Unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis. c. More protein will be allowed because of the removal of urea and creatinine by dialysis. d. Dietary sodium and potassium are unrestricted because these levels are normalized by dialysis.

Which condition is characterized by a history of bloody diarrhea, fever, abdominal pain, and low hemoglobin and platelet counts? a. Acute viral gastroenteritis b. Acute glomerulonephritis c. Hemolytic-uremic syndrome d. Acute nephrotic syndrome

Which data obtained when assessing a patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago and who is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone (Deltasone) will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The blood glucose is 144 mg/dL. b. The patients blood pressure is 150/92. c. There is a nontender lump in the axilla. d. The patient has a round, moonlike face.

Which information from a patient's urinalysis requires that the nurse notify the health care provider? a. pH 6.2 b. Trace protein c. WBC 20 to 26/hpf d. Specific gravity 1.021

Which of the following information obtained by the nurse who is caring for a patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) indicates the nurse should consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed epoetin alfa (Procrit)? a. Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation 89% c. Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL d. Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider when titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation? a. Heart rate b. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level c. Urine output d. Creatinine clearance

The nurse is assessing a client who has returned from the postanesthesia care unit after transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The nurse should assess for which color in the urinary drainage tubing that indicates proper irrigation and adequate functioning of the device? 1. Pale pink 2. Dark pink 3. Bright red 4. Red with clots

1 If the bladder irrigation solution is infusing at a sufficient rate, the urinary drainage will be pale pink. A dark pink color (sometimes referred to as punch-colored) indicates that the speed of the irrigation should be increased. Bright red bleeding and red urine with clots should be reported to the surgeon because either finding could indicate complications.

The nurse provides home care instructions to a client undergoing hemodialysis with regard to care of a newly created arteriovenous (AV) fistula. Which client statement indicates that teaching was effective? 1. "I should check the fistula every day by feeling it for a vibration." 2. "I am glad that the laboratory will be able to draw my blood from the fistula." 3. "I should wear a shirt with tight arms to provide some compression on the fistula." 4. "I should check my blood pressure in the arm where I have my fistula every week."

1 An AV fistula provides access to the client's bloodstream for the dialysis procedure. The client is instructed to monitor fistula patency daily by palpating for a thrill (vibration feeling). The client is instructed to avoid compressing the fistula with tight clothing or when sleeping and that blood pressure measurements and blood draws should not be performed on the arm with the fistula. The client also is instructed to assess the fistula for signs and symptoms of infection, including pain, redness, swelling, and excessive warmth.

The nurse has provided dietary instructions to a client with renal calculi who must learn about the foods that yield an alkaline residue in the urine. The nurse determines that education was effective if the client chooses which selections from a diet menu? 1. Spinach salad, milk, and a banana 2. Chicken, potatoes, and cranberries 3. Peanut butter sandwich, milk, and prunes 4. Linguini with shrimp, tossed salad, and a plum

1 In some client situations, the health care provider may prescribe a diet that consists of foods that yield either an alkaline or an acid residue in the urine. In an alkaline residue diet, all fruits are allowed except cranberries, blueberries, prunes, and plums. Options, 2, 3 and 4 represent an acid residue diet.

Before providing care for a client in the late stages of chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should review the results of which most relevant laboratory studies? 1. Serum potassium, serum calcium 2. Urinalysis, hematocrit, hemoglobin 3. Culture and sensitivity testing, serum sodium 4. Urine specific gravity, intravenous pyelogram

1 Because of the potentially life-threatening outcomes associated with hyperkalemia and hypocalcemia, they are the most relevant to nursing management of the client with CKD. The diagnostic tests in the remaining options may be helpful in diagnosing CKD or in monitoring treatment but are not the most relevant. Additionally, decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin occur in CKD because of the decreased level of erythropoietin. However, a decrease in hematocrit and hemoglobin may be reflective of various health alterations.

The nurse instructs a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which statement by the client indicates an accurate understanding of CAPD? 1. "No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities." 2. "A cycling machine is used, so the risk for infection is minimized." 3. "The drainage system can be used once during the day and a cycling machine for 3 cycles at night." 4. "A portable hemodialysis machine is used so that I will be able to ambulate during the treatment."

1 CAPD closely approximates normal renal function, and the client will need to infuse and drain the dialysis solution several times a day. No machinery is used, and CAPD is a manual procedure.

Which finding noted in the client on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) should be reported to the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Cloudy yellow dialysate output 2. Client refusal to take the stool softener 3. Previous evening's dwell time of 8 hours 4. Peritoneal catheter site is not red, and the skin has grown around the cuff

1 CAPD is a form of peritoneal dialysis in which exchanges are completed 4 or 5 times daily. Peritonitis is a major complication of this type of dialysis. Peritonitis can be recognized by cloudy dialysate outflow, fever, abdominal guarding (board-like abdomen), abdominal pain, pain on inflow, malaise, nausea, and vomiting. The client has the right to refuse medications, but it also is important for the nurse to explain the importance of medications to the client. Typically the dwell time during the night is for the entire time that the client sleeps, which could be around 7 to 9 hours. The peritoneal site should have intact skin. The skin grows around the peritoneal catheter cuff, and this prevents tunnel (around catheter) infections.

A client has chronic kidney disease (CKD) that does yet not require dialysis. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? 1. "I will reduce the sodium in my diet, and I can use salt substitutes to spice my food." 2. "The amount of fluid I can have every day depends on the amount of urine I put out." 3. "I will weigh myself on my bathroom scale every morning right after I have urinated." 4. "I should report a gain in weight, trouble with my breathing, or increased leg swelling."

1 CKD is a condition in which the kidneys have progressive problems in their ability to clear nitrogenous waste products and control fluid and electrolyte balance within the body. Conservative treatment of CKD slows progression of the disease and includes reducing the protein, sodium, potassium, and phosphorus in the diet and controlling the blood pressure. It is important to reduce the sodium in the diet. Salt substitutes usually are potassium-based and should not be used by a client with CKD because of the risk of hyperkalemia. The client should alter the fluid intake in relation to urine output. Obtaining a daily weight is an important measurement that indicates fluid volume. The client should also monitor for signs and symptoms of fluid overload, which could include an increase in weight, edema, and fluid collection in the lungs.

A client with uric acid calculi is placed on a low-purine diet. The nurse instructs the client to restrict the intake of which food? 1. Fish 2. Plum juice 3. Fruit juice 4. Cranberries

1 Clients who form uric acid calculi should be placed on a low-purine diet. Their intake of fish and meats (especially organ meats) should be restricted. Dietary modifications also may help adjust urinary pH so that stone formation is inhibited. Depending on health care provider prescription, the urine may be alkalinized by increasing the intake of bicarbonates or acidified by drinking cranberry, plum, or prune juice.

The client with chronic kidney disease has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. Which action should the nurse immediately take? 1. Change the dressing. 2. Reinforce the dressing. 3. Flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter. 4. Scrub the catheter with povidone-iodine.

1 Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.

A client with chronic kidney disease has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse should use which standard indicators to evaluate the client's status after dialysis? 1. Vital signs and weight 2. Potassium level and weight 3. Vital signs and blood urea nitrogen level 4. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels

1 Following dialysis the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's predialysis weight to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.

The nurse is monitoring a client who has just returned from surgery after a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The client has a 3-way Foley catheter in place for ongoing bladder irrigation. The nurse is observing the color of the client's urine and should expect which urine color during the immediate postoperative period? 1. Pale pink urine 2. Dark pink urine 3. Tea-colored urine 4. Bright red blood with small clots in the urine

1 If the bladder irrigation is infusing at a sufficient rate, the urinary drainage through the Foley tubing should be pale pink. Dark pink urine indicates that the rate of the irrigation solution should be increased. Tea-colored urine is not seen after TURP but may be noted in a client with other renal disorders such as renal failure. Bright red bleeding and clots could indicate a complication, and if this is noted, it should be reported to the health care provider.

The nurse is working with a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to set up a schedule for hemodialysis. The client states, "This is impossible! How can I even think about leading a normal life again if this is what I'm going to have to do?" The nurse determines that the client is exhibiting which problem? 1. Anger 2. Projection 3. Depression 4. Withdrawal

1 Psychosocial reactions to CKD and hemodialysis are varied and may include anger. Other reactions include personality changes, emotional lability, withdrawal, and depression. The individual client's response may vary depending on the client's personality and support systems. The client in this question is exhibiting anger. The client's behavior is not indicative of projection; in addition, the client's statement does not reflect withdrawal or depression.

A client has been diagnosed with pyelonephritis. The nurse interprets that which health problem has placed the client at risk for this disorder? 1. Diabetes mellitus 2. Orthostatic hypotension 3. Coronary artery disease 4. Intravenous (IV) contrast medium

1 Pyelonephritis is most commonly caused by entry of bacteria, obstruction, or reflux. Risk factors associated with pyelonephritis include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, chronic renal calculi, chronic cystitis, overuse of analgesics, structural abnormalities of the urinary tract, presence of urinary stones, and indwelling or frequent urinary catheterization.

A client who has had a prostatectomy has been instructed in perineal exercises to gain control of the urinary sphincter. The nurse determines that the client demonstrates a need for further teaching when he states that he will perform which movement as part of these exercises? 1. Bearing down as if having a bowel movement 2. Tightening the muscles as if trying to prevent urination 3. Contracting the abdominal, gluteal, and perineal muscles 4. Tightening the rectal sphincter while relaxing abdominal muscles

1 The Valsalva maneuver (bearing down) is avoided after prostatectomy because it increases the risk of bleeding in the postoperative period. An acceptable exercise is to tighten the abdominal, gluteal, and perineal muscles as if trying to prevent urination. Another acceptable exercise is to tighten the rectal sphincter while relaxing the abdominal muscles; this prevents the Valsalva maneuver from occurring

The nurse is preparing to teach ostomy care to a client who has just had a urinary diversion; the client expresses concern about body appearance. Which client action indicates that the best initial positive adaptation is being made? 1. Agrees to look at the ostomy 2. Asks to defer ostomy care to the spouse 3. Asks to wait 1 more day before beginning to learn ostomy care 4. States that ostomy care is the nurse's job while the client is in the hospital

1 The best initial positive step in learning to care for an ostomy and to accept it as a part of the self is to be able to look at the ostomy. Once the client is able to look at the ostomy and touch it, the client can proceed more successfully to learn about ostomy care. The other options all indicate a deferral or refusal on the part of the client, which makes them less than optimal choices.

A client with renal cancer is being treated preoperatively with radiation therapy. What statement by the client demonstrates understanding of proper care of the skin over the treatment field? 1. "I need to avoid skin exposure to direct sunlight and chlorinated water." 2. "I need to use lanolin-based cream on the affected skin on a daily basis." 3. "I need to use the hottest water possible to wash the treatment site twice daily." 4. "I need to remove the lines or ink marks using a gentle soap after each treatment."

1 The client undergoing radiation therapy should avoid washing the site until instructed to do so. The client should then wash, using mild soap and warm or cool water, and pat the area dry. No lotions, creams, alcohol, or deodorants should be placed on the skin over the treatment site. Lines or ink marks that are placed on the skin to guide the radiation therapy should be left in place. The affected skin should be protected from temperature extremes, direct sunlight, and chlorinated water (as from swimming pools).

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been taking aluminum hydroxide gel. On the basis of this information, the nurse determines that the client is most at risk for which problem? 1. Constipation 2. Dehydration 3. Inability to tolerate activity 4. Impaired physical mobility

1 The client with CKD is almost certain to have a problem with constipation as a result of factors such as fluid restriction, fatigue that limits exercise, and dietary restrictions. In addition, phosphate-binding antacids such as aluminum hydroxide gel cause constipation as a side effect. The other problems listed are unrelated to the information in the question.

The nurse is reviewing a client's record and notes that the health care provider has documented that the client has chronic renal disease. On review of the laboratory results, the nurse most likely would expect to note which finding? 1. Elevated creatinine level 2. Decreased hemoglobin level 3. Decreased red blood cell count 4. Increased number of white blood cells in the urine

1 The creatinine level is the most specific laboratory test to determine renal function. The creatinine level increases when at least 50% of renal function is lost. A decreased hemoglobin level and red blood cell count are associated with anemia or blood loss and not specifically with decreased renal function. Increased white blood cells in the urine are noted with urinary tract infection.

The nurse is assessing the renal function of a client at risk for acute kidney injury. After noting the amount of urine output and urine characteristics, the nurse proceeds to assess which as the best indirect indicator of renal status? 1. Blood pressure 2. Apical heart rate 3. Jugular vein distention 4. Level of consciousness

1 The kidneys normally receive 20% to 25% of the cardiac output, even under conditions of rest. For kidney function to be optimal, adequate renal perfusion is necessary. Perfusion can best be estimated by the blood pressure, which is an indirect reflection of the adequacy of cardiac output. The heart rate affects the cardiac output but can be altered by factors unrelated to kidney function. Jugular vein distention and level of consciousness are unrelated items.

The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from having a cystoscopy. The nurse should recognize which as an abnormal assessment finding for this client? 1. The nurse notes bright red urine output. 2. The nurse notes pink-tinged urine output. 3. The client reports having urinary frequency. 4. The client complains of burning when urinating.

1 The main purpose of a cystoscopy is to inspect the interior of the bladder with a tubular lighted scope (cystoscope). Pink-tinged urine is a normal finding after this procedure, but bright red urine indicates hemorrhaging and is not a normal finding. The remaining options are normal findings following this procedure.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which should be included in the nursing plan of care to prevent the major complication associated with peritoneal dialysis? 1. Maintain strict aseptic technique. 2. Add heparin to the dialysate solution. 3. Change the catheter site dressing daily. 4. Monitor the client's level of consciousness.

1 The major complication of peritoneal dialysis is peritonitis. Strict aseptic technique is required in caring for the client receiving this treatment. Although changing the catheter site dressing daily may assist in preventing infection, this option relates to an external site. Adding heparin to the dialysate solution and monitoring the client's level of consciousness are unrelated to the major complication of peritoneal dialysis.

The nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? 1. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula 2. Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist 3. Visualization of enlarged blood vessels at the fistula site 4. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand

1 The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Enlarged visible blood vessels at the fistula site are a normal observation but are not indicative of fistula patency. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand indicate adequate circulation to the hand, they do not assess fistula patency.

A client is admitted to the emergency department following a fall from a horse and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes insertion of a urinary catheter. While preparing for the procedure, the nurse notes blood at the urinary meatus. The nurse should take which action? 1. Notify the HCP before performing the catheterization. 2. Use a small-sized catheter and an anesthetic gel as a lubricant. 3. Administer parenteral pain medication before inserting the catheter. 4. Clean the meatus with soap and water before opening the catheterization kit.

1 The presence of blood at the urinary meatus may indicate urethral trauma or disruption. The nurse notifies the HCP, knowing that the client should not be catheterized until the cause of the bleeding is determined by diagnostic testing. The other options include performing the catheterization procedure and therefore are incorrect.

The nurse is providing instructions regarding the complications of peritoneal dialysis. The nurse emphasizes that onset of peritonitis, a serious complication, is most likely to be associated with which clinical manifestation? 1. Fever 2. Fatigue 3. Clear dialysate output 4. Leaking around the catheter site

1 The signs of peritonitis include fever, nausea, malaise, rebound abdominal tenderness, and cloudy dialysate output. Fatigue may be associated with peritonitis, but fever is the most likely sign. Leaking around the catheter site is not an indication of peritonitis.

A client tells the nurse about a pattern of a strong urge to void, followed by incontinence before the client can get to the bathroom. Based on the data provided, which condition should the nurse suspect? 1. Urge incontinence 2. Total incontinence 3. Stress incontinence 4. Reflex incontinence

1 Urge incontinence occurs when the client experiences involuntary loss of urine soon after experiencing urgency. Total incontinence occurs when loss of urine is unpredictable and continuous. Stress incontinence occurs when the client voids in increments of less than 50 mL under conditions of increased abdominal pressure. Reflex incontinence occurs at rather predictable times that correspond to when a certain bladder volume is attained.

The nurse is working on a medical-surgical nursing unit and is caring for several clients with chronic kidney disease. The nurse interprets that which client is best suited for peritoneal dialysis as a treatment option? 1. A client with severe heart failure 2. A client with a history of ruptured diverticula 3. A client with a history of herniated lumbar disk 4. A client with a history of 3 previous abdominal surgeries

1 Peritoneal dialysis may be the treatment option of choice for clients with severe cardiovascular disease. Severe cardiac disease can be worsened by the rapid shifts in fluid, electrolytes, urea, and glucose that occur with hemodialysis. For the same reason, peritoneal dialysis may be indicated for the client with diabetes mellitus. Contraindications to peritoneal dialysis include diseases of the abdomen such as ruptured diverticula or malignancies; extensive abdominal surgeries; history of peritonitis; obesity; and a history of back problems, which could be aggravated by the fluid weight of the dialysate. Severe disease of the vascular system also may be a relative contraindication.

The nurse is monitoring the urine output of a client with low serum protein level and urinary output less than 30 mL in the last hour. Based on these data, the nurse understands that low urinary output is caused by which force within the kidneys? 1. Oncotic pressure 2. Osmotic pressure 3. Filtration pressure 4. Hydrostatic pressure

1 The pulling pressure within the capillaries that is exerted by the plasma proteins is referred to as the oncotic pressure. Osmotic pressure is the movement of water along a pressure gradient. Filtration pressure is the pressure that is exerted with ultrafiltration, in which the pressure within the capillaries is greater than the pressure outside them; this results in fluids being pushed across the membrane into Bowman's capsule. Hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries allows fluid to be filtered out of the blood in the glomerulus.

A patient is admitted to the hospital with CKD. The nurse understands that this condition is characterized by a. progressive irreversible destruction of the kidneys b. a rapid decrease in urine output with an elevated BUN c. an increasing creatinine clearance with a decrease in urine output d. prostration, somnolence, and confusion with coma and imminent death

A patient needing vascular access for hemodialysis asks the nurse what the differences are between an arteriovenous (AV) fistula and a graft. The nurse explains that one advantage of the fistula is that it a. is much less likely to clot. b. increases patient mobility. c. can accommodate larger needles. d. can be used sooner after surgery.

The nurse is conducting an interview of an older client and is concerned about the possibility of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which are characteristics of this disorder? Select all that apply. 1. Nocturia 2. Incontinence 3. Enlarged prostate 4. Nocturnal emissions 5. Decreased desire for sexual intercourse

123 Nocturia, incontinence, and an enlarged prostate are characteristics of BPH and need to be assessed for in all male clients over 50 years of age. Nocturnal emissions are commonly associated with prepubescent males. Low testosterone levels (not BPH) may be associated with a decreased desire for sexual intercourse.

A patient received a kidney transplant last month. Because of the effects of immunosuppressive drugs and CKD, what complication of transplantation should the nurse be assessing the patient for? a. infection b. rejection c. malignancy d. cardiovascular disease

A client is about to begin hemodialysis. Which measures should the nurse employ in the care of the client? Select all that apply. 1. Using sterile technique for needle insertion 2. Using standard precautions in the care of the client 3. Giving the client a mask to wear during connection to the machine 4. Wearing full protective clothing such as goggles, mask, gloves, and apron 5. Covering the connection site with a bath blanket to enhance extremity warmth

1234 Infection is a major concern with hemodialysis. For that reason, the use of sterile technique and the application of a face mask for both nurse and client are extremely important. It also is imperative that standard precautions be followed, which includes the use of goggles, mask, gloves, and apron. The connection site should not be covered; it should be visible so that the nurse can assess for bleeding, ischemia, and infection at the site during the hemodialysis procedure.

The nurse has taught the client with polycystic kidney disease about management of the disorder and prevention and recognition of complications. The nurse should determine that the client understands the instructions if the client states that which should be reported to the health care provider (HCP)? Select all that apply. 1. Frequent urination 2. Burning on urination 3. A temperature of 100.6°F (38.1°C) 4. New-onset shortness of breath 5. A blood pressure of 105/68 mm Hg

1234 The client with polycystic kidney disease should report any signs and symptoms of urinary tract infection, such as frequent urination, burning on urination, and elevated temperature so that treatment may begin promptly. Lowered blood pressure is not a complication of polycystic kidney disease, and it is an expected effect of antihypertensive therapy. The client would be concerned about increases in blood pressure because control of hypertension is essential. The client may experience heart failure as a result of hypertension, and thus any symptoms of heart failure, such as shortness of breath, are also a concern.

The nurse is performing assessment on a client with acute kidney injury who is in the oliguric phase. Which should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1. Increased serum creatinine level 2. A low and fixed specific gravity 3. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level 4. A urine output of 600 to 800 mL in a 24-hour period 5. Urine osmolarity of approximately 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg)

1235 During the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury, serum creatinine levels increase by approximately 1 mg/dL (88 mcmol/L) per day, and the BUN level increases by approximately 20 mg/dL (7.1 mmol/L) per day. The specific gravity of the urine is low and fixed, and the urine osmolarity approaches that of the client's serum level, or about 300 mOsm/kg (300 mmol/kg). Urine output is less than 100 mL in a 24-hour period.

The nurse has a prescription to obtain a urinalysis specimen from a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which actions should the nurse include in performing this procedure? Select all that apply. 1. Explaining the procedure to the client 2. Clamping the tubing of the drainage bag 3. Aspirating a sample from the port on the drainage tubing 4. Obtaining the specimen from the urinary drainage bag 5. Wiping the port with an alcohol swab before inserting the syringe

1235 A urine specimen is not taken from the urinary drainage bag. Urine undergoes chemical changes while sitting in the bag, so its properties do not necessarily reflect current client status. In addition, it may become contaminated with bacteria from opening the system. The remaining options are correct interventions for obtaining the specimen.

A client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) has the problem of ineffective coping. Which nursing interventions are appropriate in working with this client? Select all that apply. 1. Acknowledge the client's feelings. 2. Assess the client and family's coping patterns. 3. Explore the meaning of the illness with the client. 4. Set limits on mood swings and expressions of hostility. 5. Give the client information when the client is ready to listen.

1235 Clients with ESRD are likely to experience mood swings or express hostility, anger, and depression, among other responses. The nurse should acknowledge the client's feelings, allow the client to express those feelings, and be supportive. Options 1, 2, 3, and 5 are helpful and appropriate interventions for the client. Setting limits for this client is not client focused, does not allow the client to express concerns, and is nontherapeutic in this situation.

A client is diagnosed with epididymitis. The nurse checks the health care provider's prescriptions and expects that which measures will be prescribed? Select all that apply. 1. Sitz bath 2. Antibiotics 3. Scrotal elevation 4. Use of a heating pad 5. Bed rest with bathroom privileges

1235 Common interventions used in the treatment of epididymitis include bed rest with bathroom privileges, elevation of the scrotum, ice packs, sitz baths, analgesics, and antibiotics. A heating pad would not be used because direct application of heat would enhance blood flow to the area, thereby increasing the swelling.

The nurse is participating in a prostate screening clinic for men. Which complaints by a client are associated with prostatism? Select all that apply. 1. Inability to stop urinating 2. Postvoid dribbling of urine 3. Increased episodes of nocturia 4. Unusual force in urinary stream 5. Hesitancy on initiating the urinary stream

1235 Signs and symptoms of prostatism include reduced force and size of urinary stream, intermittent stream, hesitancy in beginning the flow of urine, inability to stop urinating, a sensation of incomplete bladder emptying after voiding, postvoid dribbling of urine, and an increase in episodes of nocturia. These signs and symptoms are the result of pressure of the enlarging prostate on the client's urethra.

A client with acute kidney injury has a serum potassium level of 7.0 mEq/L (7.0 mmol/L). The nurse should plan which actions as a priority? Select all that apply. 1. Place the client on a cardiac monitor. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Put the client on NPO (nothing by mouth) status except for ice chips. 4. Review the client's medications to determine if any contain or retain potassium]' 5. Allow an extra 500 mL of intravenous fluid intake to dilute the electrolyte concentration.

124 The normal potassium level is 3.5-5.0 mEq/L (3.5-5.0 mmol/L). A potassium level of 7.0 is elevated. The client with hyperkalemia is at risk of developing cardiac dysrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Because of this, the client should be placed on a cardiac monitor. The nurse should notify the HCP and also review medications to determine if any contain potassium or are potassium retaining. The client does not need to be put on NPO status. Fluid intake is not increased because it contributes to fluid overload and would not affect the serum potassium level significantly.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome whose glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is normal. Which interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Monitor daily weight. 2. Maintain sodium restrictions. 3. Maintain a diet low in protein. 4. Monitor intake and output (I&O). 5. Maintain bed rest when edema is severe.

1245 Controlling edema is a critical aspect of therapeutic management of nephrotic syndrome. If the GFR is normal, dietary intake of proteins is needed to restore normal plasma oncotic pressure and thereby decrease edema. Daily measurement of weight and abdominal girth, and careful monitoring of I&O will determine whether weight loss is caused by diuresis or protein loss. Dietary modifications may include salt restriction and fluid restriction and are based on the client's symptoms. Bed rest is prescribed to promote diuresis when edema is severe.

The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the client's outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply. 1. Check the level of the drainage bag. 2. Reposition the client to his or her side. 3. Contact the health care provider (HCP). 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. 6. Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.

1245 If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and peritoneal dialysis system are also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the HCP. Increasing the flow rate should not be done and also is not associated with the amount of outflow solution.

The nurse is caring for a client just after ureterolithotomy and is monitoring the drainage from the ureteral catheter hourly. Suddenly, the catheter stops draining. The nurse assesses the client and determines that which could be the cause of the problem? Select all that apply. 1. Blood clots 2. Mucous shreds 3. Ureteral edema 4. Chemical sediment 5. Catheter displacement

1245 After ureterolithotomy, a ureteral catheter is put in place. Urine flows freely through it for the first 2 to 3 days. As ureteral edema diminishes, urine leaks around the ureteral catheter and drains directly into the bladder. At this point, drainage through the ureteral catheter diminishes. Immediately after surgery, absence of drainage usually is caused by blockage from blood clots, mucous shreds, chemical sediment, or catheter displacement.

The nurse is reviewing the urinalysis results for a client with glomerulonephritis. Which findings should the nurse expect to note? Select all that apply. 1. Proteinuria 2. Hematuria 3. Positive ketones 4. A low specific gravity 5. A dark and smoky appearance of the urine

125 In the client with glomerulonephritis, characteristic findings in the urinalysis report are gross proteinuria and hematuria. The specific gravity is elevated, and the urine may appear dark and smoky. Positive ketones are not associated with this condition but may indicate a secondary problem.

After a transurethral prostatectomy a patient returns to his room with a triple-lumen indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation. The irrigation is normal saline at 150 mL/hr. The nurse empties the drainage bag for a total of 2520 mL after an 8-hour period. How much of the total is urine output?

1320ML

The nurse discusses plans for future treatment options with a client with symptomatic polycystic kidney disease. Which treatment should be included in this discussion? Select all that apply. 1. Hemodialysis 2. Peritoneal dialysis 3. Kidney transplant 4. Bilateral nephrectomy 5. Intense immunosuppression therapy

134 Polycystic kidney disease is a genetic familial disease in which the kidneys enlarge with cysts that rupture and scar the kidney, eventually resulting in end-stage renal disease. Treatment options include hemodialysis or kidney transplant. Clients usually undergo bilateral nephrectomy to remove the large, painful, cyst-filled kidneys. Peritoneal dialysis is not a treatment option due to the infected cysts. The condition does not respond to immunosuppression.

A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse determines that which neurological and psychosocial manifestations, if exhibited by this client, are related to the CKD? Select all that apply. 1. Agitation 2. Euphoria 3. Depression 4. Withdrawal 5. Labile emotions

1345 The client with CKD often experiences a variety of psychosocial changes. These changes are related to uremia and to the stress associated with living with a chronic disease that is life threatening. Euphoria is not part of the clinical picture for the client in renal failure. Clients with CKD may have labile emotions or personality changes and may exhibit withdrawal, depression, or agitation. Delusions and psychosis also can occur.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being managed by continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). During outflow, the nurse notes that only half of the 2-L dialysate has returned and the flow has stopped. Which interventions should the nurse take to enhance the outflow? Select all that apply. 1. Reposition the client. 2. Encourage a low-fiber diet. 3. Make sure the peritoneal catheter is not kinked. 4. Slide the peritoneal catheter farther into the abdomen. 5. Check that the drainage bag is lower than the client's abdomen. 6. Assess the stool history, and institute elimination measures if the client is constipated.

1356

A cystectomy is performed for a client with a diagnosis of bladder cancer, and a Kock pouch is created for urinary diversion. In creating a discharge teaching plan for the client, the nurse should include which instruction in the plan? 1. Dietary restrictions 2. Technique of catheterization 3. External pouch and application care 4. Proper administration of prophylactic antibiotics

2 A Kock pouch is a continent internal ileal reservoir. The nurse instructs the client about the technique of catheterization. Dietary restrictions are not required. There is no external pouch. Antibiotics are not required unless an infection is present; also, antibiotics are prescribed by the health care provider.

A female client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which problem? 1. Rupture of the bladder 2. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula 3. Extreme stress because of the diagnosis of cancer 4. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy

2 A complication of radiation therapy for bladder cancer is fistula formation. In women, this frequently is manifested as a vesicovaginal fistula, which is an opening between the bladder and the vagina. With this complication the client senses that urine is flowing out of the vagina. In men, a colovesical fistula may develop, which is an opening between the bladder and the colon. This is manifested as voiding urine that contains fecal material. The remaining options are incorrect interpretations.

The nurse provides discharge instructions to a client after prostatectomy. What is the priority discharge instruction for this client? 1. Avoid driving a car for at least 1 week. 2. Increase fluid intake to at least 2.5 L/day. 3. Avoid lifting any objects greater than 30 pounds (13.6 kg). 4. Contact the health care provider (HCP) if small clots are noticed in the urine.

2 A daily intake of 2.5 L of fluid should be maintained to limit clot formation and prevent infection. Driving a car and sitting for long periods are restricted for at least 3 weeks. The client should be instructed to avoid lifting objects heavier than 20 pounds (9 kg) for at least 6 weeks. Passing small pieces of tissue or blood clots in the urine for up to 2 weeks after surgery is expected and does not necessitate contacting the HCP.

A client with chronic kidney disease returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 38.5°C (101.2°F). Which nursing action is most appropriate? 1. Encourage fluid intake. 2. Notify the health care provider. 3. Continue to monitor vital signs. 4. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection.

2 A temperature of 101.2°F (38.5°C) is significantly elevated and may indicate infection. The nurse should notify the health care provider (HCP). Dialysis clients cannot have fluid intake encouraged. Vital signs and the shunt site should be monitored, but the HCP should be notified first.

The client diagnosed with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is scheduled for a transrectal ultrasound examination and a test to measure the level of prostate-specific antigen (PSA). The client says to the nurse, "I can't remember . . . can you tell me again why I need these tests to be done?" The nurse responds, knowing that these tests are done for which purpose? 1. Specifically to predict the course of BPH 2. Help to rule out the possibility of cancer 3. Pinpoint the likelihood of developing urinary obstruction 4. Give an indication of whether intermittent self-catheterization is needed

2 A transrectal ultrasound examination and PSA level determination help to rule out the possibility of prostate cancer. They do not specifically predict the course of BPH or the development of complications such as urinary obstruction. These tests have nothing to do with determining need for self-catheterization.

A client with glomerulonephritis has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) as a complication. The nurse should expect to note which abnormal finding documented on the client's medical record? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Decreased cardiac output 4. Decreased central venous pressure

2 AKI caused by glomerulonephritis is classified as an intrinsic or intrarenal cause of renal failure. It is commonly manifested by hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria, lethargy, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. AKI from a prerenal cause is characterized by decreased blood pressure, tachycardia, decreased cardiac output, and decreased central venous pressure. Bradycardia is not part of the clinical picture for any form of kidney failure.

A client has developed acute kidney injury (AKI) as a complication of glomerulonephritis. Which should the nurse expect to observe in the client? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Decreased cardiac output 4. Decreased central venous pressure

2 AKI caused by glomerulonephritis is classified as intrinsic or intrarenal failure. This form of AKI commonly manifests with hypertension, tachycardia, oliguria, lethargy, edema, and other signs of fluid overload. AKI from prerenal causes is characterized by decreased blood pressure or a recent history of the same, tachycardia, and decreased cardiac output and central venous pressure. Bradycardia is not part of the clinical picture for any form of renal failure.

The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of which complication? 1. Peritonitis 2. Hyperglycemia 3. Hyperphosphatemia 4. Disequilibrium syndrome

2 An extended dwell time increases the risk of hyperglycemia in the client with diabetes mellitus as a result of absorption of glucose from the dialysate and electrolyte changes. Diabetic clients may require extra insulin when receiving peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a risk associated with breaks in aseptic technique. Hyperphosphatemia is an electrolyte imbalance that occurs with renal dysfunction. Disequilibrium syndrome is a complication associated with hemodialysis.

The nurse is providing instructions to a client who is scheduled for cystoscopy and possible biopsy under general anesthesia. Which information should the nurse include? 1. The procedure will take about 4 hours. 2. Intravenous fluids may be started on the day of the procedure. 3. Preprocedure sedatives are never administered with general anesthesia. 4. Only a full liquid breakfast may be allowed on the day of the procedure.

2 Client preparation for cystoscopy and possible biopsy includes informing the client that intravenous fluids will be started the day of the procedure to ensure adequate hydration and flow of urine. The procedure will take approximately 30 minutes to 1 hour. An informed consent is obtained from the client, and preprocedure sedatives are administered as prescribed. If a general anesthetic is to be used, the client is told that fasting is necessary after midnight before the procedure.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) experiencing metabolic acidosis. When performing an assessment, the nurse should expect to note which breathing pattern? 1. Apnea 2. Kussmaul respirations 3. Decreased respirations 4. Cheyne-Stokes respirations

2 Clinical manifestations associated with AKI occur as a result of metabolic acidosis. The nurse would expect to note Kussmaul respirations as a result of the metabolic acidosis because the bodily response is to exhale excess carbon dioxide. The breathing patterns noted in options 1, 3, and 4 are not characteristic of AKI.

The nurse is planning teaching for a female client diagnosed with urethritis caused by chlamydial infection. Which information should the nurse plan to include in the teaching session? 1. Alter the perineal pH by using a spermicide with a condom. 2. Keep follow-up appointments for repeat cultures in 4 to 7 days. 3. Discontinue antibiotics after 3 weeks of uninterrupted administration. 4. Identify sexual partners for the past 12 months so they can be treated.

2 Follow-up cultures are typically done in 4 to 7 days to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication. Using a spermicide does not change the perineal pH. The infection can be prevented by the use of latex condoms. Chlamydial infection is treated with antibiotics, which are not discontinued until the prescribed course is completed. All sexual partners during the 30 days before diagnosis should be notified, examined, and treated as necessary

The nurse provides instructions to a client about newly prescribed furosemide. Which information should the nurse use to provide instructions in this teaching session? 1. The medication acts on the distal tubule of the nephron. 2. The medication acts on the loop of Henle in the nephron. 3. The collecting duct of the nephron will be affected by this medication. 4. The site of action for furosemide is the proximal tubule of the nephron.

2 Furosemide works by acting to excrete sodium, potassium, and chloride in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle; therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client after a cystoscopy. Which assessment finding indicates a need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. A temperature of 99.4°F (37.4°C) 2. Grossly bloody urine with clots 3. A bluish or green tinge to the urine 4. A blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg

2 Grossly bloody urine with clots following cystoscopy is always an abnormal finding and should be reported to the HCP immediately. The client may have clear or blood-tinged urine after cystoscopy. If a contrast agent such as methylene blue is used, the urine may have an unusual bluish or green tinge. A blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg and a temperature of 99.4°F (37.4°C) are not abnormal findings at this time.

The nursing student is caring for a client with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The nursing instructor asks the student to identify the clinical manifestations associated with this condition. The student needs further teaching if the student states that which finding is an early symptom of BPH? 1. Nocturia 2. Hematuria 3. Decreased force of urine stream 4. Difficulty initiating urine stream

2 Hematuria is not an early sign of BPH. Nocturia, decreased force of urine stream, and difficulty initiating urine stream are all early signs of BPH.

The nurse is caring for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The nurse should test the client's urine for proteinuria to determine which type of AKI? 1. Prerenal 2. Intrinsic 3. Atypical 4. Postrenal

2 In intrinsic failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and the urine tests positive for proteinuria. In prerenal failure, the specific gravity is high, and there is very little or no proteinuria. In postrenal failure, there is a fixed specific gravity and little or no proteinuria. There is no disorder known as atypical renal failure.

The nursing student is assigned to care for a client with a diagnosis of acute kidney injury (AKI), diuretic phase. The nursing instructor asks the student about the primary goal of the treatment plan for this client. Which goal, if stated by the nursing student, indicates an adequate understanding of the treatment plan for this client? 1. Prevent fluid overload. 2. Prevent loss of electrolytes. 3. Promote the excretion of wastes. 4. Reduce the urine specific gravity.

2 In the diuretic phase, fluids and electrolytes are lost in the urine. As a result, the plan of care focuses on fluid and electrolyte replacement and monitoring. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not the primary concerns in this phase of AKI.

A client diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease has been taught about the treatment plan for this disease. The nurse should determine that the client needs further teaching if the client states that which is included in the treatment plan? 1. Genetic counseling 2. Sodium restriction 3. Increased water intake 4. Antihypertensive medications

2 Individuals with polycystic kidney disease seem to waste rather than retain sodium. Unless the client has problems with uncontrolled hypertension, increased sodium and water intake is needed. Antihypertensive medications are prescribed to control hypertension. Genetic counseling is advisable because of the hereditary nature of the disease.

A client who is performing peritoneal dialysis at home calls the clinic and reports that the outflow from the dialysis catheter seems to be decreasing in amount. The clinic nurse should ask which question first? 1. "Have you had any diarrhea?" 2. "Have you been constipated recently?" 3. "Have you had any abdominal discomfort?" 4. "Have you had an increased amount of flatulence?"

2 Reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter may be caused by the catheter position, infection, or constipation. Constipation may contribute to a reduced outflow because peristalsis seems to aid in drainage. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the causes of reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with a diagnosis of pyelonephritis. Which disorder, if noted on the client's record, should the nurse identify as a risk factor for this disorder? 1. Hypoglycemia 2. Diabetes mellitus 3. Coronary artery disease 4. Orthostatic hypotension

2 Risk factors associated with pyelonephritis include diabetes mellitus, hypertension, chronic renal calculi, chronic cystitis, structural abnormalities of the urinary tract, presence of urinary stones, and presence of an indwelling urinary catheter or frequent catheterization. The conditions noted in the remaining options are not associated risk factors.

The nurse checks the serum myoglobin level for a client with a crush injury to the right lower leg because the client is at risk for developing which type of acute kidney injury? 1. Prerenal 2. Intrarenal 3. Postrenal 4. Extrarenal

2 Serum myoglobin levels increase in crush injuries when large amounts of myoglobin and hemoglobin are released from damaged muscle and blood cells. The accumulation may cause acute tubular necrosis, an intrarenal cause of renal failure. Prerenal causes are conditions that interfere with the perfusion of blood to the kidney. Postrenal causes include conditions that cause urinary obstruction distal to the kidney. The cause and the type of renal failure may determine the interventions used in treatment.

The nurse caring for a client immediately after transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) notices that the client has suddenly become confused and disoriented. Which is the priority nursing action for this client? 1. Reorient the client. 2. Notify the health care provider (HCP). 3. Ensure that a clock and calendar are in the room. 4. Increase the flow rate of the intravenous infusion.

2 The client who suddenly becomes disoriented and confused after TURP could be experiencing early signs of hyponatremia. This may occur because the flushing solution used during the operative procedure is hypotonic. If the solution is absorbed through the prostate veins during surgery, the client experiences increased circulating volume and dilutional hyponatremia. The nurse should notify the HCP of these symptoms. Reorienting the client and ensuring that a clock and calendar are visible may be helpful but do not correct the problem. The nurse does not increase the flow rate of an intravenous infusion without a prescription from the HCP. In addition, speeding up the flow rate could potentially worsen the problem, depending on the solution that is infusing.

A client with benign prostatic hyperplasia undergoes a transurethral resection of the prostate. Postoperatively the client is receiving continuous bladder irrigations. The nurse assesses the client for manifestations of transurethral resection syndrome. Which assessment data would indicate the onset of this syndrome? 1. Tachycardia and diarrhea 2. Bradycardia and confusion 3. Increased urinary output and anemia 4. Decreased urinary output and bladder spasms

2 Transurethral resection syndrome is caused by increased absorption of nonelectrolyte irrigating fluid used during surgery. The client may show signs of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure, such as increased blood pressure, bradycardia, confusion, disorientation, muscle twitching, visual disturbances, and nausea and vomiting

The nurse has performed a nutritional assessment on a client with cystitis. The nurse should tell the client to consume which beverage to minimize recurrence of cystitis? 1. Tea 2. Water 3. Coffee 4. White wine

2 Water helps flush bacteria out of the bladder, and an intake of 6 to 8 glasses per day is encouraged. Caffeine and alcohol can irritate the bladder. Therefore, alcohol- and caffeine-containing beverages such as coffee, tea, and wine are avoided to minimize risk.

The nurse is instructing a client with diabetes mellitus about peritoneal dialysis. The nurse tells the client that it is important to maintain the prescribed dwell time for the dialysis because of the risk of: 1. Infection. 2. Hyperglycemia. 3. Hypophosphatemia. 4. Disequilibrium syndrome.

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who will be undergoing long-term hemodialysis is receiving discharge instructions from the nurse in regard to the insertion of a new arteriovenous (AV) fistula in her left arm. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I will avoid sleeping on my left arm at night." 2. "I will continue my daily weight training exercise program to stay fit and healthy." 3. "I should have my blood pressure checked on my right arm from now on." 4. "I will avoid wearing constrictive clothing or jewelry on my left arm."

2 It is recommended that patients lift no more than 5-10 pounds with their fistula arms. Exercise for people with CKD is important because of the many health benefits, but weight lifting exercises should be discussed with a doctor first. Patients should avoid sleeping on their fistula arm because doing so can restrict blood flow distal to the fistula site. Likewise, constrictive clothing or jewelry should be avoided as well. Patients should avoid IV insertion and blood pressure monitoring on their fistula arms to prevent damage to the delicate blood vessel graft site.

The nurse has provided instructions to a client with a urinary tract infection regarding foods and fluids to consume that will acidify the urine. Which fluids should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan that will aid in acidifying the urine? Select all that apply. 1. Milk 2. Prune juice 3. Apricot juice 4. Cranberry juice 5. Carbonated drinks

234 Acidification of the urine inhibits multiplication of bacteria. Fluids that acidify the urine include prune, apricot, cranberry, and plum juice. Carbonated drinks should be avoided because they increase urine alkalinity. Two glasses of milk a day can make the urine more alkaline, which could aid in the development of kidney stones.

The nurse monitoring a client receiving peritoneal dialysis notes that the clietn's outflow is less than the inflow. Select all nursing actions in the situation that apply. 1. Contact the physician. 2. Check the level of the drainage bag. 3. Reposition the client to his or her side. 4. Place the client in good body alignment. 5. Check the peritoneal dialysis system for kinks. 6. Increase the flow rate of the peritoneal dialysis solution.

2345 If outflow drainage is inadequate, the nurse attempts to stimulate outflow by changing the client's position. Turning the client to the other side or making sure that the client is in good body alignment may assist with outflow drainage. The drainage bag needs to be lower than the client's abdomen to enhance gravity drainage. The connecting tubing and peritoneal dialysis system are also checked for kinks or twisting and the clamps on the system are checked to ensure that they are open. There is no reason to contact the physician. Increasing the flow rate is an inappropriate action and is not associated with the amount of outflow solution.

The client diagnosed with ARF is admitted to the intensive care unit and placed on a therapeutic diet. Which diet is most appropriate for the client? 1.A high-potassium and low-calcium diet. 2.A low-fat and low-cholesterol diet. 3.A high-carbohydrate and restricted-protein diet. 4.A regular diet with six (6) small feedings a day.

The nurse is urging a client to cough and deep breathe after nephrectomy. The client tells the nurse, "That's easy for you to say! You don't have to do this." The nurse interprets that the client's statement is most likely to be a result of which factor? 1. A stress response to the ordeal of surgery 2. A latent fear of needing dialysis if the surgery is unsuccessful 3. Pain that is intensified because of the location of the incision near the diaphragm 4. Effects of circulating metabolites that have not been excreted by the remaining kidney

3 After nephrectomy, the client may be in considerable pain. This is because of the size of the incision and its location near the diaphragm, which make coughing and deep breathing very uncomfortable. For this reason, opioids are used liberally and may be most effective when provided as patient-controlled analgesia or through epidural analgesia. The items in the other options are not likely factors for the client's statement.

A client is scheduled for surgical creation of an internal arteriovenous (AV) fistula on the following day. The client says to the nurse, "I'll be so happy when the fistula is made tomorrow. This means I can have that other hemodialysis catheter pulled right out." Which interpretation should the nurse make based on the client's statement? 1. The client has an accurate understanding of the procedure and aftercare. 2. The client does not realize how painful removal of the dialysis catheter will be. 3. The client does not understand that the site needs to mature or develop for 1 to 2 weeks before use. 4. The client is not aware that the alternative access site is left in place prophylactically for 2 months.

3 An AV fistula is the internal creation of an arterial-to-venous anastomosis. This causes engorgement of the vein, allowing both the artery and the vein to be easily cannulated for hemodialysis. Fistulas take 1 to 2 weeks to mature (engorgement) or develop before they can be used for dialysis, so the current method of access must remain in place to be used during that period. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect interpretations of the client's statement.

A client arrives at the emergency department with complaints of low abdominal pain and hematuria. The client is afebrile. The nurse next assesses the client to determine a history of which condition? 1. Pyelonephritis 2. Glomerulonephritis 3. Trauma to the bladder or abdomen 4. Renal cancer in the client's family

3 Bladder trauma or injury should be considered or suspected in the client with low abdominal pain and hematuria. Glomerulonephritis and pyelonephritis would be accompanied by fever and are thus not applicable to the client described in this question. Renal cancer would not cause pain that is felt in the low abdomen; rather, the pain would be in the flank area.

A client is being evaluated as a potential kidney donor for a family member. The client asks the nurse why separate teams are evaluating donor and recipient. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse? 1. Helps reduce the cost of the preoperative workup 2. Saves the client and the recipient valuable preoperative time 3. Avoids a conflict of interest between the team evaluating the recipient and the team evaluating the donor 4. Provides for a sufficient number of persons reviewing the case so that no information is overlooked

3 Both the kidney donor and the kidney recipient need thorough medical and psychological evaluation before transplant surgery. Separate teams evaluate the donor and the recipient to avoid a conflict of interest in providing care for the 2 clients. Options 1, 2, and 4 are not related to the purpose of this approach.

In performing a physical assessment of a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD), which finding should the nurse anticipate? 1. Glycosuria 2. Polyphagia 3. Crackles auscultated in the lungs 4. Blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg

3 CKD is a condition in which the kidneys have progressive problems in clearing nitrogenous waste products and controlling fluid and electrolyte balance within the body. Cardiovascular symptoms of heart failure and hypertension are caused by the fluid volume overload resulting from the kidneys' inability to excrete water. Signs and symptoms of heart failure include jugular venous distention, S3 heart sound, pedal edema, increased weight, shortness of breath, and crackles auscultated in the lungs. The typical signs and symptoms of CKD include proteinuria or hematuria, not glycosuria. The nurse would observe anorexia and nausea in this client, not polyphagia.

Which client is most at risk for developing a Candida urinary tract infection (UTI)? 1. An obese woman 2. A man with diabetes insipidus 3. A young woman on antibiotic therapy 4. A male paraplegic on intermittent catheterization

3 Candida infections, which are fungal infections, develop in persons who are on long-term antibiotic therapy because an alteration of normal flora occurs. These infections also are commonly seen in clients with blood dyscrasias, diabetes mellitus, cancer, or immunosuppression and in those with a drug addiction.

The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a client with an oxalate kidney stone. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which food? 1. Breads 2. Poultry 3. Chocolate 4. Prune juice

3 Clients with oxalate stones should avoid foods high in oxalate, such as tea, instant coffee, cola drinks, beer, rhubarb, beans, asparagus, spinach, cabbage, chocolate, citrus fruits, apples, grapes, cranberries, and peanuts and peanut butter. Large doses of vitamin C may help increase oxalate excretion in the urine.

A client who is undergoing peritoneal dialysis calls the nurse at the renal unit and reports the presence of severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. The client also informs the nurse that the peritoneal dialysis returns are brown-tinged in color. Which would the nurse suspect? 1. Infection 2. An intact catheter 3. Bowel perforation 4. Bladder perforation

3 Complications of a peritoneal catheter include infection, perforation of the bowel or bladder, and bleeding. Brown-tinged returns suggest bowel perforation, which usually is accompanied by severe abdominal pain and diarrhea. Cloudy or opaque returns suggest possible infection. Urine-colored returns suggest possible bladder perforation. An intact catheter is unrelated to the information provided in the question.

When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula? a. Check the fistula site for a bruit and thrill. b. Assess the rate and quality of the left radial pulse. c. Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.

A client with renal cell carcinoma of the left kidney is scheduled for nephrectomy. The right kidney appears normal at this time. The client is anxious about whether dialysis will ultimately be needed. The nurse should plan to use which information in discussions with the client to alleviate anxiety? 1. There is a strong likelihood that the client will need dialysis within 5 to 10 years. 2. There is absolutely no chance of needing dialysis because of the nature of the surgery. 3. One kidney is adequate to meet the needs of the body as long as it has normal function. 4. Dialysis could become likely, but it depends on how well the client complies with fluid restriction after surgery.

3 Fears about having only 1 functioning kidney are common in clients who must undergo nephrectomy for renal cancer. These clients need emotional support and reassurance that the remaining kidney should be able to fully meet the body's metabolic needs, as long as it has normal function. Therefore, the remaining options are incorrect.

A home care nurse is making home visits to an older client with urinary incontinence who is very concerned about the incontinent episodes. Which finding by the nurse indicates that the client has an environmental barrier to normal voiding? 1. Presence of hand railings in the bathroom 2. Having 1 bathroom on each floor of the home 3. Bathroom located on the second floor, bedroom on the first floor 4. Night light present in the hall between the bedroom and bathroom

3 Having the bathroom on the second floor and the bedroom on the first floor may pose a problem for the older client with incontinence. The need to negotiate the stairs and the distance both may interfere with reaching the bathroom in a timely fashion. It is more helpful to the incontinent client to have a bathroom on the same floor as the bedroom or to have a commode rented for use. Hand railings and night lights are helpful to the client in reaching the bathroom quickly and safely.

The nurse is reviewing the list of components contained in the peritoneal dialysis solution with the client. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of the glucose contained in the solution. The nurse should base the response on knowing that which is the action of the glucose in the solution? 1. Decreases the risk of peritonitis 2. Prevents disequilibrium syndrome 3. Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration 4. Prevents excess glucose from being removed from the client

3 Increasing the glucose concentration makes the solution more hypertonic. The more hypertonic the solution, the higher the osmotic pressure for ultrafiltration and thus the greater the amount of fluid removed from the client during an exchange. The remaining options do not identify the purpose of the glucose.

The nurse is planning a teaching session with a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) about managing the condition between dialysis treatments. The nurse should plan to include the instruction that weight gain between dialysis treatments should be ideally what value? 1. 11 to 13 lbs (5 to 6 kg) 2. 4.5 to 9 lbs (2 to 4 kg) 3. 2 to 3 lbs (1 to 1.5 kg) 4. 1 to 2 lbs (0.5 to 1.0 kg)

3 Limiting weight gain to 2 to 3 lbs (1 to 1.5 kg) between dialysis treatments helps prevent the hypotension that occurs with the removal of large volumes of fluid during dialysis. The nurse instructs the client in how to manage daily fluid allotment to assist the client in staying within a low fluid intake range to prevent excess weight gain. Options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect.

The nurse has administered a dose of meperidine hydrochloride to a client with renal colic as treatment for pain. The nurse carefully monitors this client for which side and adverse effect of this medication? 1. Bradycardia 2. Hypertension 3. Urinary retention 4. Increased respirations

3 Meperidine hydrochloride is an opioid analgesic. Side effects of meperidine hydrochloride include respiratory depression, orthostatic hypotension, tachycardia, drowsiness and mental clouding, constipation, and urinary retention.

A client undergoing hemodialysis begins to experience muscle cramping. What is the best action by the hemodialysis nurse in this situation? 1. Administer hypotonic saline. 2. Increase the ultrafiltration rate. 3. Decrease the ultrafiltration rate. 4. Administer magnesium sulfate.

3 Muscle cramps during hemodialysis result from either too rapid removal of water and sodium or neuromuscular hypersensitivity. The nurse corrects this situation by either slowing down the ultrafiltration rate on the hemodialyzer or administering hypertonic or isotonic normal saline. Magnesium sulfate is not prescribed to correct this occurrence.

A client passes a urinary stone, and laboratory analysis of the stone indicates that it is composed of calcium oxalate. On the basis of these data, which should the nurse specifically include in the dietary instructions? 1. Increase intake of dairy products. 2. Avoid citrus fruits and citrus juices. 3. Avoid green, leafy vegetables such as spinach. 4. Increase intake of meat, fish, plums, and cranberries.

3 Oxalate is found in dark green foods such as spinach. Other foods that raise urinary oxalate are rhubarb, strawberries, chocolate, wheat bran, nuts, beets, and tea. The food items in options 1, 2, and 4 are acceptable to consume.

Which nursing action for a patient who has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session is most appropriate for the RN to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Educate patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for reasons for increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

The nurse has completed teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse should determine that education was effective if the client states to record which parameters daily? 1. Pulse and respiratory rate 2. Amount of activity and sleep 3. Intake and output (I&O) and weight 4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

3 The client on hemodialysis should monitor fluid status between hemodialysis treatments by recording I&O and measuring weight daily. Ideally, the hemodialysis client should not gain more than 0.5 kg of weight per day. It is not necessary to record the pulse and respiratory rate or the amount of activity and sleep; these parameters are not specifically related to hemodialysis. BUN and creatinine levels are not measured on a daily basis.

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which factor will enhance the educational process? 1. Anxiety 2. Memory deficits 3. Presence of family 4. Short attention span

3 The client with CKD may have several barriers to learning. The presence of family members is helpful because they need to understand the disease and treatment and may help reinforce information with the client after the formal teaching session is over. Anxiety about the disease and its ramifications frequently interferes with learning. Physiological effects of the disease process also impair the client's mental functioning. Specifically, the client may exhibit a short attention span and have memory deficits. Mental functioning usually improves once hemodialysis has begun.

A client is experiencing the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion. When explaining this disorder to the client and family, the nurse recalls that ADH works to reabsorb water in which parts of the nephron? 1. The glomerulus and the calices 2. The loop of Henle and the distal tubule 3. The distal tubule and the collecting duct 4. The proximal tubule and the loop of Henle

3 The distal tubule and the collecting duct of the nephron require the presence of ADH for water reabsorption. The hormone increases the permeability of the membranes to allow water to flow more easily along the concentration gradient. The glomerulus filters but does not reabsorb. The calices are responsible for collecting the urine. The proximal tubule and the loop of Henle reabsorb water without the assistance of ADH.

The nurse instructor is evaluating a nursing student for knowledge regarding care of a client with acute kidney injury. Which statement by the student demonstrates the need for further teaching about the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? 1. "The increase in urine output indicates the return of some renal function." 2. "The diuretic phase develops about 14 days after the initial insult and lasts about 10 days." 3. "The diuretic phase is characterized by an increase in urine output of about 500 mL in a 24-hour period." 4. "The blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels will continue to rise during the first few days of diuresis."

3 The diuretic phase of acute kidney injury is characterized by an increase in urine output of more than 1000 mL in a 24-hour period. This increase in urine output indicates the return of some renal function; however, blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels continue to rise during the first few days of diuresis. The diuretic phase develops about 14 days after the initial insult and lasts about 10 days.

A client is being discharged to home while recovering from acute kidney injury (AKI). Reduced dietary intake of which substance indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary teaching? 1. Fats 2. Vitamins 3. Potassium 4. Carbohydrates

3 The excretion of potassium and maintenance of potassium balance are normal functions of the kidneys. In the client with AKI or chronic kidney disease, potassium intake must be restricted as much as possible (to 60 to 70 mEq/day). The primary mechanism of potassium removal during AKI is dialysis. Vitamins, carbohydrates, and fats are not normally restricted in the client with AKI unless a secondary health problem warrants the need to do so. The amount of fluid permitted is generally calculated to be equal to the urine volume plus the insensible loss volume of 500 mL.

The nurse measures the cardiac output of a client and finds it to be 6 L/min. Which amount of kidney perfusion should the nurse anticipate? 1. 100 to 300 mL/min 2. 500 to 1000 mL/min 3. 1200 to 1500 mL/min 4. 2000 to 2500 mL/min

3 The kidneys normally receive about 20% to 25% of the cardiac output when the client is at rest. If the cardiac output is 6 L/min, the kidneys receive 1.2 to 1.5 L/min, which is equal to 1200 to 1500 mL/min.

A client has been diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. On assessment of the client, the nurse should observe for which most common manifestation of this disorder? 1. Headache 2. Hypotension 3. Flank pain and hematuria 4. Complaints of low pelvic pain

3 The most common findings with polycystic kidney disease are hematuria and flank or lumbar pain that is either colicky in nature or dull and aching. Other common findings include proteinuria, calculi, uremia, and palpable kidney masses. Hypertension is another common finding and may be associated with cardiomegaly and heart failure. The client may complain of a headache, but this is not a specific assessment finding in polycystic kidney disease.

The nurse is caring for a client who was prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor the client for damage of which kidney structure? 1. Pelvis 2. Calyx 3. Nephron 4. Renal artery

3 The nephron is the functional unit of the kidney that is responsible for clearance of excess fluid and waste products of metabolism. The renal pelvis and calices collect urine to send to the ureter. The renal artery brings blood to the kidney for filtering by the nephron.

The nurse is caring for a client whose urine output was 25 mL per hour for 2 consecutive hours. The nurse reviews the health care provider's prescriptions and plans care, knowing that which client-related factor would increase the amount of blood flow to the kidneys? 1. Physiological stress 2. Release of norepinephrine 3. Release of low levels of dopamine 4. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation

3 The release of low levels of dopamine exerts a vasodilating effect on the renal arteries, increasing urinary output. The other options cause renal vasoconstriction.

The nurse is preparing to perform a discharge teaching with a client who is started on hemodialysis. Which information should the nurse provide regarding the hemodialysis schedule? 1. 5 hours of treatment 2 days per week 2. 2 hours of treatment 6 days per week 3. 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week 4. 2 to 3 hours of treatment 5 days per week

3 The typical schedule for hemodialysis is 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week. Individual adjustments are made according to variables such as the size of the client, type of dialyzer, rate of blood flow, personal client preferences, and other factors.

A client with prostatitis following kidney infection has received instructions on management of the condition at home and prevention of recurrence. The nurse determines that education was effective if the client makes which statement? 1. "I will stop antibiotic therapy when pain subsides." 2. "I will exercise as much as possible to stimulate circulation." 3. "I should use warm tub baths and analgesics to increase comfort." 4. "I will keep fluid intake to a minimum to decrease the need to void."

3 Treatment of prostatitis includes medication with antibiotics, analgesics, and stool softeners. The nurse also teaches the client to rest, increase fluid intake, and use sitz baths or warm tub baths for comfort. Antimicrobial therapy is always continued until the prescription is finished.

The nurse is assessing a client with epididymitis. The nurse anticipates which findings on physical examination? 1. Fever, diarrhea, groin pain, and ecchymosis 2. Nausea, painful scrotal edema, and ecchymosis 3. Fever, nausea, vomiting, and painful scrotal edema 4. Diarrhea, groin pain, testicular torsion, and scrotal edema

3 Typical signs and symptoms of epididymitis include scrotal pain and edema, which often are accompanied by fever, nausea and vomiting, and chills. Epididymitis most often is caused by infection, although sometimes it can be caused by trauma. The remaining options do not present all of the accurate manifestations.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client with chronic kidney disease and uremia. The nurse is developing interventions to assist in promoting an increased dietary intake while at the same time maintaining necessary dietary restrictions. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Increase the amount of protein in the diet. 2. Increase the amount of potassium in the daily diet. 3. Maintain a diet high in calories with frequent snacks. 4. Encourage the client to eat a large breakfast and smaller meals later in the day.

3 Uremia usually is accompanied by nausea, anorexia, and an unpleasant taste in the mouth. Most clients experience more nausea and vomiting in the morning. Therefore, to maintain optimal nutrition, it is best for these clients to eat a diet that is high in calories with frequent snacks and a light breakfast in the morning and larger meals later in the day. Dietary management usually is aimed at restricting protein, sodium, and potassium.

A client with urolithiasis (struvite stones) has a history of chronic urinary tract infections. What should the nurse plan to teach the client to avoid? 1. Antibiotics 2. Foods that make the urine more acidic 3. Wearing synthetic underwear and pantyhose 4. Fruits such as currants, blueberries, and cranberries

3 Urolithiasis (struvite stones) can result from chronic infections. They form in urine that is alkaline and rich in ammonia, such as with a urinary tract infection. Teaching should focus on preventing infections and ingesting foods to make the urine more acidic. Foods such as currants, blueberries, and cranberries are acidic. The client should wear cotton, not synthetic, underclothing to prevent the accumulation of moisture and to prevent irritation of the perineal area, which can lead to infection. Antibiotics are not associated with chronic urinary tract infections.

The health care provider writes prescriptions for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which prescription should the nurse question? 1. Insert a saline lock. 2. Obtain a daily weight. 3. Provide a high-protein diet. 4. Administer a calcium supplement with each meal.

3 When a client experiences CKD, the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels rise. The client also experiences increased potassium, increased phosphates, and decreased calcium. BUN and creatinine are the byproducts of protein metabolism, so monitoring protein intake is important, with care taken to include proteins of high biological value. Clients with CKD will have protein restricted early in the disease to preserve kidney function. In end-stage disease, protein is restricted according to the client's weight, the type of dialysis, and protein loss. With CKD, the nurse is concerned about fluid volume overload and accumulation of waste products. Because of the kidneys' inability to excrete fluid, it is important for the nurse to prevent as well as assess for early signs of fluid volume excess. Infusing an intravenous (IV) solution into a client with CKD significantly increases the risk for overload. If an IV access is needed, it usually involves only a saline lock. Obtaining the client's daily weight is one of the most important assessment tools for evaluating changes in fluid volume. The kidneys also are responsible for removing waste products. The client also receives phosphate binders, calcium supplements, and vitamin D to prevent bone demineralization (osteodystrophy) from chronically elevated phosphate levels.

A nurse instructs a client about continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). Which of the following statements if made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of CAPD? 1. A portable hemodialysis machine is used so that I will be able to ambulate during the treatment. 2. A cycling machine is used so the risk for infection is minimized. 3. No machinery is involved, and I can pursue my usual activities. 4. The drainage system can be used once during the day and a cycling machine for 3 cycles at night.

3 CAPD closely approximates normal renal function, and the client will need to infuse and drain the dialysis solution several times a day. No machinery is used, and CAPD is a manual procedure.

The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2 L inflows. Which information should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL. b. The patients peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient complains of feeling bloated after the inflow.

The nurse notes that the patient's Foley catheter bag has been empty for 4 hours. The priority action would be to: A) Irrigate the Foley. B) Check for kinks in the tubing. C) Notify the health care provider. D) Assess the patient's intake.

Which of the following conditions are associated with oversecretion of rennin? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Diabetes insipidus

When the nurse is taking a history for a patient who is a possible candidate for a kidney transplant, which information about the patient indicates that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for transplantation? a. The patient has metastatic lung cancer. b. The patient has poorly controlled type 1 diabetes. c. The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection. d. The patient is infected with the human immunodeficiency virus.

The registered nurse is instructing a new nursing graduate about hemodialysis. Which statement made by the new nursing graduate indicates an understanding of the procedure for hemodialysis? Select all that apply. 1. "Sterile dialysate must be used." 2. "Dialysate contains metabolic waste products." 3. "Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis." 4. "Dialysis cleanses the blood of accumulated waste products." 5. "Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion."

345 Heparin sodium is used during dialysis, and it inhibits the tendency of blood to clot when it comes in contact with foreign substances. Option 4 is the purpose of dialysis. The dialysate is warmed to approximately 100°F to increase the efficiency of diffusion and to prevent a decrease in the client's blood temperature. Dialysate is made from clear water and chemicals and is free from any metabolic waste products or medications. Bacteria and other microorganisms are too large to pass through the membrane; therefore, the dialysate does not need to be sterile.

A client with end-stage renal disease is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse is monitoring the client for signs of complications associated with peritoneal dialysis. Select all that apply. 1. Pruritus 2. Oliguria 3. Tachycardia 4. Cloudy outflow 5. Abdominal pain

345 Tachycardia can be caused by peritonitis, a complication of peritoneal dialysis; the heart rate increases to meet the metabolic demands associated with infection. Cloudy or opaque dialysate outflow (effluent) is the earliest sign of peritonitis; it is caused by the constituents associated with an infectious process. Abdominal pain is associated with peritonitis, a complication of peritoneal dialysis; pain results from peritoneal inflammation, abdominal distention, and involuntary muscle spasms. Severe itching (pruritus) is caused by metabolic waste products that are deposited in the skin; dialysis removes metabolic waste products, preventing this adaptation associated with kidney failure. The production of abnormally small amounts of urine (oliguria) is a sign of kidney failure, not a complication of peritoneal dialysis.

A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia, and a transurethral resection of the prostate is performed. Four hours after surgery, the nurse takes the client's vital signs and empties the urinary drainage bag. Which assessment finding indicates the need to notify the health care provider (HCP)? 1. Red, bloody urine 2. Pain rated as 2 on a 0-10 pain scale 3. Urinary output of 200 mL higher than intake 4. Blood pressure, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse, 130 beats/minute

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has been on dialysis for 3 years. The client is receiving the usual combination of medications for the disease, including aluminum hydroxide as a phosphate-binding agent. The client now presents with mental cloudiness, dementia, and complaints of bone pain. The nurse determines that these assessment data are compatible with which condition? 1. Advancing uremia 2. Phosphate overdose 3. Folic acid deficiency 4. Aluminum intoxication

4 Aluminum hydroxide may be prescribed as a phosphate-binding agent. Aluminum intoxication can occur when there is an accumulation of aluminum, an ingredient in many phosphate-binding antacids. It results in mental cloudiness, dementia, and bone pain from infiltration of the bone with aluminum. It can be treated with aluminum-chelating agents, which make aluminum available to be dialyzed from the body. It can be prevented by avoiding or limiting the use of phosphate-binding agents that contain aluminum. The data in the question are not specifically associated with the other conditions noted in the options.

A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is prescribed aluminum hydroxide. Which information should the nurse include while instructing the client regarding the action of this medication? 1. It prevents ulcers. 2. It prevents constipation. 3. It promotes the elimination of potassium from the body. 4. It combines with phosphorus and helps eliminate phosphates from the body.

4 Aluminum hydroxide may be prescribed for a client with CKD. It binds with phosphate in the intestines for excretion in the feces, thus lowering phosphorus levels. It can cause constipation, and it does not promote the elimination of potassium. It may be used in the treatment of hyperacidity associated with gastric ulcers, but this is not the purpose of its use in the client with renal failure.

A client experiencing end-stage kidney disease has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula placed surgically for hemodialysis. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to document in the plan for care of the AV fistula? 1. Palpate the bruit of the AV fistula weekly to assess for thrombosis. 2. Use the AV fistula site for blood draws to prevent increased pain of multiple blood draws. 3. Take the blood pressure readings in the extremity with the AV fistula to get a more accurate reading. 4. Teach the client to avoid carrying heavy objects that would compress the AV fistula and cause thrombosis.

4 An AV fistula is a vascular access system that is required for hemodialysis. It is a device established for clients who need long-term hemodialysis. It is created by connecting an artery to a vein inside the body to create a vessel that can handle the amount of blood flow necessary for effective dialysis. Bleeding, clotting, and infection are risks with all vascular devices. It also is very important to avoid any activity that would promote the status of blood or increase the risk for infection. Taking the blood pressure in the affected arm, carrying heavy objects in the arm, and lying on the arm at night could increase the risk for clotting in the fistula. To check circulation of the fistula, the nurse should palpate or feel for the thrill or auscultate (listen with a stethoscope) for the bruit. It is important to do this at least daily to ascertain the patency of the fistula. To avoid infection, that extremity is never used for peripheral intravenous access (placement of an intravenous line) or for blood draws. Strict aseptic technique is used in accessing the fistula for dialysis.

A client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. Which is the priority nursing intervention? 1. Check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill. 2. Observe the site once during the shift as time permits. 3. Check the results of the prothrombin time as they are determined. 4. Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing.

4 An external arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because 2 ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours. Checking the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill relates to patency of the shunt. Although checking the results of the prothrombin time is important, it is not the priority nursing action.

A client with chlamydial infection has received instructions on self-care and prevention of further infection. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching if the client states that he or she will take which action? 1. Use latex condoms to prevent disease transmission. 2. Return to the clinic as requested for follow-up culture in 1 week. 3. Reduce the chance of reinfection by limiting the number of sexual partners. 4. Take an antibiotic so as to prophylactically prevent symptoms of Chlamydia.

4 Antibiotics are not taken prophylactically to prevent acquisition of chlamydial infection. The risk of reinfection can be reduced by limiting the number of sexual partners and by the use of condoms. In some cases, follow-up culture is requested in 4 to 7 days to confirm a cure. The remaining options are correct measures.

A client with chronic kidney disease who is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril. When should the nurse plan to administer this medication? 1. During dialysis 2. Just before dialysis 3. The day after dialysis 4. On return from dialysis

4 Antihypertensive medications such as enalapril are given to the client following hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. No rationale exists for waiting an entire day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.

The nurse is caring for an older client. Which finding should the nurse expect to note in this client while evaluating renal function? 1. Tubular reabsorption increases 2. Urine-concentrating ability increases 3. Medications are metabolized in larger amounts 4. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) diminishes

4 As part of the normal aging process, the GFR decreases, along with each of the other functional abilities of the kidney. Tubular reabsorption and urine-concentrating ability also decrease. The kidneys have decreased ability to metabolize medications.

The nurse is preparing to care for a client after a renal scan. Which intervention should the nurse include in the postprocedure plan of care? 1. Limit contact with the client to 20 minutes per hour. 2. Place the client on radiation precautions for 18 hours. 3. Save all urine in a radiation-safe container for 18 hours. 4. Wear gloves if contact with the client's urine will occur.

4 No specific precautions are necessary after a renal scan. Urination into a commode is acceptable without risk from the small amount of radioactive material to be excreted. The nurse wears gloves to maintain body secretion precautions. Options 1, 2, and 3 are unnecessary.

The nurse has provided instructions regarding home care measures for a client with acute pyelonephritis. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I should try to maintain an acid ash diet." 2. "I should increase my fluid intake to 3 L per day." 3. "I should take my daily dose of vitamin C to acidify the urine." 4. "I need to avoid alcohol and highly spiced foods but may continue to drink my coffee every day."

4 Clients with acute pyelonephritis should be instructed to try to maintain an acid ash diet, which may be of some benefit. Also, they should increase fluid intake to 3 L per day; this helps relieve dysuria and flushes bacteria out of the bladder. However, for clients with chronic pyelonephritis and renal dysfunction, an increase in fluid intake may be contraindicated. Medications such as vitamin C help acidify the urine. Juices such as cranberry, plum, and prune juice will leave an acid ash in the urine. Caffeine, alcohol, chocolate, and highly spiced foods are avoided to prevent potential bladder irritation.

The nurse is collecting data from a client. Which symptom described by the client is characteristic of an early symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia? 1. Nocturia 2. Scrotal edema 3. Occasional constipation 4. Decreased force in the stream of urine

4 Decreased force in the stream of urine is an early symptom of benign prostatic hyperplasia. The stream later becomes weak and dribbling. The client then may develop hematuria, frequency, urgency, urge incontinence, and nocturia. If untreated, complete obstruction and urinary retention can occur. Constipation or scrotal edema is not associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia.

The client newly diagnosed with chronic kidney disease recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse should assess the client during dialysis for which associated manifestations? 1. Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever 2. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia 3. Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness 4. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching

4 Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing increased intracranial pressure and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates. Tachycardia and fever are associated with infection. Generalized weakness is associated with low blood pressure and anemia. Restlessness and irritability are not associated with disequilibrium syndrome.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which is the priority nursing action? 1. Monitor the client. 2. Elevate the head of the bed. 3. Assess the fistula site and dressing. 4. Notify the health care provider (HCP).

4 Disequilibrium syndrome may be caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs and symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsive medications and barbiturates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The HCP must be notified. Monitoring the client, elevating the head of the bed, and assessing the fistula site are correct actions, but the priority action is to notify the HCP.

The graduate nurse is caring for a client with decreased renal perfusion. The registered nurse determines that the graduate nurse demonstrates understanding of why this is occurring if which statement is made? 1. "It can be due to an increase in serotonin levels." 2. "It may be due to overhydration with intravenous fluids." 3. "It may be due to the client's hemoglobin of 13.2 g/dL (132 mmol/L)." 4. "It may be a consequence of decreased dopaminergic receptor stimulation."

4 Dopaminergic receptors are found in the renal blood vessels and in the nerves. When stimulated, they dilate renal arteries and help modulate release of the neurotransmitter dopamine. Renal artery dilation helps improve urine output by increasing blood flow through the kidneys. Serotonin is a local hormone that is released from platelets after an injury; it constricts arterioles but dilates capillaries. Dehydration, not overhydration, would decrease renal perfusion. A hemoglobin of 13.2 g/dL (132 mmol/L) is a normal value.

The nurse assessing the ureterostomy of a postoperative client interprets that the stoma has normal characteristics if which is observed? 1. Dry 2. Pale 3. Dark-colored 4. Red and moist

4 Following ureterostomy, the stoma should be red and moist. A dry stoma may indicate fluid volume deficit. A pale stoma may indicate an inadequate vascular supply. Any darkness or duskiness of the stoma may mean loss of vascular supply and must be corrected immediately to prevent necrosis.

The nurse is monitoring the fluid balance of an assigned client. The nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if which 24-hour intake and output totals are noted? 1. Intake 1500 mL, output 800 mL 2. Intake 3000 mL, output 2000 mL 3. Intake 2400 mL, output 2900 mL 4. Intake 1800 mL, output 1750 mL

4 For the client on a normal diet, the normal fluid intake is approximately 1200 to 1800 mL of measurable fluids per day. The client's output in the same period should be about the same and does not include insensible losses, which are extra. Insensible losses are offset by the fluid in solid foods, which also is not measured.

A client with an arteriovenous fistula in the left arm who is undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for infection. Which should the nurse formulate as the best outcome goal for this client problem? 1. The client washes hands at least once per day. 2. The client's temperature remains lower than 101°F (38.3°C). 3. The client avoids blood pressure (BP) measurement in the left arm. 4. The client's white blood cell (WBC) count remains within normal limits.

4 General indicators that the client is not experiencing infection include a temperature and WBC count within normal limits. The client also should use proper hand-washing technique as a general preventive measure. Hand washing once per day is insufficient. It is true that the client should avoid BP measurement in the affected arm; however, this would relate more closely to the problem of risk for injury.

Which complication of CKD is treated with erythropoietin? a. anemia b. hypertension c. hyperkalemia d. mineral and bone disorder

Which dietary modification is appropriate for a child with chronic renal failure? a. Decreased protein b. Decreased fat c. Increased potassium d. Increased phosphorus

The spouse of a client with acute kidney injury secondary to heart failure asks the nurse how a heart problem can affect the kidneys. The nurse should formulate a response using what fact about the kidneys? 1. The kidneys get fatigued from having to filter too much fluid. 2. The kidneys can react adversely to moderate doses of furosemide. 3. The kidneys will shut down easily if serum levels of digoxin are high. 4. The kidneys generally require and receive about 20% to 25% of the resting cardiac output.

4 Heart failure is referred to as a prerenal cause of acute kidney injury because heart failure results in decreased blood flow to the kidneys. The kidneys normally receive about 20% to 25% of the cardiac output and require adequate perfusion to function properly. With a significant or prolonged decrease in blood supply, the kidneys can fail. Options 1 and 3 are incorrect. As for option 2, large doses of furosemide resulting in severe dehydration may lead to decreased kidney perfusion, but moderate doses of furosemide do not cause prerenal acute kidney injury, and furosemide may be used to treat acute kidney injury.

The nurse is analyzing the posthemodialysis laboratory test results for a client with chronic kidney disease. The nurse interprets that the dialysis is having an expected but nontherapeutic effect if which value is decreased? 1. Potassium 2. Creatinine 3. Phosphorus 4. Red blood cell (RBC) count

4 Hemodialysis typically lowers the amounts of fluid, sodium, potassium, urea nitrogen, creatinine, uric acid, magnesium, and phosphate levels in the blood. Hemodialysis also worsens anemia because RBCs are lost during dialysis from blood sampling and anticoagulation and from residual blood left in the dialyzer. Although all of these results are expected, only the lowered RBC count is nontherapeutic and worsens the anemia already caused by the disease process.

A client undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding from the heparin used during the hemodialysis treatment. The nurse assesses for this occurrence by periodically checking the results of which laboratory test? 1. Bleeding time 2. Thrombin time 3. Prothrombin time (PT) 4. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

4 Heparin is the anticoagulant used most often during hemodialysis. The hemodialysis nurse monitors the extent of anticoagulation by checking the PTT, which is the appropriate measure of heparin effect. Thrombin and bleeding times are not used to measure the effect of heparin therapy, although they are useful in the diagnosis of other clotting abnormalities. The PT is a test used to monitor the effect of warfarin therapy.

The nurse is caring for a client immediately after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. What is the most appropriate datum to use in planning administration of intravenous fluids to this client? 1. A strict hourly rate of 100 mL 2. A strict hourly rate of 150 mL 3. One half of the previous hour's urine output 4. The number of milliliters in the previous hour's urine output

4 Intravenous fluids are managed very carefully after nephrectomy and renal transplantation. Fluids are usually given according to a formula that takes into account the previous hour's urine output. The desired urine output is generally high; therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 are incorrect.

The nurse has given instructions about Kegel exercises to a female client with a cystocele. The nurse determines that the client needs further instruction if she makes which statement? 1. "I should stop and start my stream of urine during a voiding." 2. "I should tighten my perineal muscles for up to 10 seconds several times a day." 3. "I should tighten my perineal muscles for up to 5 minutes 3 or 4 times a day." 4. "I should begin voiding and then stop the stream, holding residual urine for an hour."

4 Kegel muscles strengthen the perineal floor and are useful in the prevention and management of cystocele, rectocele, and enterocele. Several ways to perform Kegel exercises are acceptable. One method entails starting and stopping the flow of urine during a single voiding for about 5 seconds. Also, these exercises may be done by holding perineal muscles taut for up to 10 seconds several times a day or for 5 minutes 3 or 4 times a day. Residual urine should not be held in the bladder for long periods because this could promote urinary tract infection.

A client with nephrolithiasis arrives at the clinic for a follow-up visit. Laboratory analysis of the stone that the client passed 1 week earlier indicates that the stone is composed of calcium oxalate. Based on these data, what food item does the nurse instruct the client to avoid? 1. Pasta 2. Lentils 3. Lettuce 4. Spinach

4 Many kidney stones are composed of calcium oxalate. Foods that raise urinary oxalate excretion include spinach, rhubarb, strawberries, chocolate, wheat bran, nuts, beets, and tea. Pasta, lentils, and lettuce are acceptable to consume.

The nurse is giving general instructions to a client receiving hemodialysis. Which statement would be most appropriate for the nurse to include? 1. "It is acceptable to eat whatever you want on the day before hemodialysis." 2. "It is acceptable to exceed the fluid restriction on the day before hemodialysis." 3. "Medications should be double-dosed on the morning of hemodialysis because of potential loss." 4. "Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure."

4 Many medications are dialyzable, which means that they are extracted from the bloodstream during dialysis. Therefore, many medications may be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. It is not typical for medications to be double-dosed because there is no way to be certain how much of each medication is cleared by dialysis. Clients receiving hemodialysis are not routinely taught that it is acceptable to disregard dietary and fluid restrictions.

A client has just had a Foley catheter removed and is to be started on a bladder retraining program. Which intervention will provide the most useful information about the client's ability to empty the bladder? 1. Calculating total fluid intake for the shift 2. Recording the amount of the client's voidings 3. Assisting the client to the bathroom every 2 hours 4. Measuring postvoid residual using a bladder scan

4 Measuring postvoid residual gives specific information about the ability of the bladder to empty completely. Recording intake and output and assisting the client to the bathroom are general interventions but do not provide information about the client's ability to empty the bladder.

The nurse is reviewing the assessment findings for a client with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Which should the nurse expect to note in this client? 1. Decreased serum lipids 2. Signs of fluid volume deficit 3. Decreased protein in the urine 4. Decreased serum albumin levels

4 Nephrotic syndrome describes a variety of signs and symptoms that accompany any condition that markedly impairs filtration by glomerular capillary membranes and results in increased permeability to protein. Hallmark signs and symptoms of this syndrome include increased serum lipids, edema, increased excretion of protein in the urine, and decreased serum albumin levels.

The nurse is admitting a client who has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the right arm for hemodialysis. Which nursing intervention is the best way to prevent injury to the AV site? 1. Putting a large note about the access site on the front of the medical record 2. Applying an allergy bracelet to the right arm, indicating the presence of the fistula 3. Telling the client to inform all caregivers who enter the room about the presence of the access site 4. Placing a sign at the bedside that reads "No blood pressure measurements or venipunctures in the right arm"

4 No venipunctures or blood pressure measurements should be performed in a limb with a hemodialysis access device. This commonly is communicated to all caregivers by placing a sign at the client's bedside. Placing a note on the front of the medical record does not ensure that everyone caring for the client is aware of the access device. An allergy bracelet is placed on the client with an allergy. The client should not be assigned the responsibility for informing caregivers. Some agencies use special bracelets for clients with an AV fistula to alert health care providers. Agency guidelines should always be followed in the care of the client.

Which of the following client responses shows a correct understanding of continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)? a) I am expected to perform the procedure at home b) the procedure lasts for one hour c) I have to sit and raise my legs during the procedure d) I have to go to the hospital for this procedure

Which of the following problems is expected in a client who is in end-stage renal failure? a) anemia b) thalassemia c) renal calculi d) hypotension

Which patient information will the nurse plan to obtain in order to determine the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium carbonate (Caltrate) for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Blood pressure b. Phosphate level c. Neurologic status d. Creatinine clearance

To prevent the most common serious complication of PD, what is most important for the nurse to do? a. infuse the dialysate slowly b. use strict aseptic technique in the dialysis procedures c. have the patient empty the bowel before the inflow phase d. reposition the patient frequently and promote deep breathing

The nurse is teaching a client with renal cancer who is scheduled for a renal artery embolization about the procedure. Which statement by the client indicates that the educational session was effective? 1. "This will reduce the time needed for surgery by at least half because it provides hemostasis." 2. "This will cause the tumor to become tougher and easier to resect in surgery with the scalpel." 3. "This will prevent the risk of pulmonary embolism by occluding the renal artery and its branches." 4. "This will decrease the size of the tumor because its blood supply will be removed after placement of an absorbable gelatin sponge.

4 Renal artery embolization may be done instead of radiation therapy to shrink the kidney tumor by cutting off its blood supply and impairing its overall vascularity. A secondary benefit is that it reduces the risk of hemorrhage during surgery. This procedure can be accomplished in a number of ways, including placement of an absorbable gelatin sponge, a balloon, a metal coil, or any of various other substances.

A hemodialysis client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse should assess for which manifestations of this complication? 1. Warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand 2. Ecchymosis and audible bruit over the fistula 3. Edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm 4. Pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand

4 Steal syndrome results from vascular insufficiency after creation of a fistula. The client exhibits pallor and a diminished pulse distal to the fistula. The client also complains of pain distal to the fistula, caused by tissue ischemia. Warmth and redness probably would characterize a problem with infection. Ecchymosis and a bruit are normal findings for a fistula.

The ambulatory care nurse is providing instructions to a client after a cystoscopy. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching? 1. "I should increase my fluid intake." 2. "I can apply heat to my lower abdomen." 3. "I may have some burning on urination for the next few days." 4. "If I notice any pink-tinged urine, I should contact the health care provider."

4 The client is instructed that pink-tinged urine and burning on urination are expected for 1 to 2 days after the procedure. Increased fluid intake is encouraged. Application of heat to the lower abdomen, administration of mild analgesics, and the use of sitz baths may relieve discomfort. The client also is advised to avoid alcoholic beverages for 2 days after the test.

A client newly diagnosed with renal failure has just been started on peritoneal dialysis. During the infusion of the dialysate, the client complains of abdominal pain. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? 1. Stop the dialysis. 2. Slow the infusion. 3. Decrease the amount to be infused. 4. Explain that the pain will subside after the first few exchanges.

4 Pain during the inflow of dialysate is common during the first few exchanges because of peritoneal irritation; however, the pain usually disappears after 1 to 2 weeks of treatment. The infusion amount should not be decreased, and the infusion should not be slowed or stopped.

A client being discharged home after renal transplantation has a risk for infection related to immunosuppressive medication therapy. The nurse determines that the client needs further teaching on measures to prevent and control infection if the client states that it is necessary to take which action? 1. Take an oral temperature daily. 2. Use good hand-washing technique. 3. Take all scheduled medications exactly as prescribed. 4. Monitor urine character and output at least 1 day each week.

4 The client receiving immunosuppressive medication therapy must learn and use infection control methods for use at home. The client self-monitors urine output and its characteristics on a daily basis. The client must learn proper hand-washing technique and should take the temperature daily to detect early infection. This is especially important because the client also takes corticosteroids, which mask signs and symptoms of infection. All medications should be taken exactly as prescribed.

A client is having difficulty coughing and deep-breathing because of pain after a nephrectomy. Which action by the nurse is helpful in promoting optimal respiratory function? 1. Administering pain medication just before ambulation 2. Administering pain medication when the client asks for it 3. Encouraging the use of the incentive spirometer every 8 hours 4. Assisting the client to splint the incision during respiratory exercise

4 The client who has had a nephrectomy may have pain with coughing and deep breathing and other respiratory exercises because the location of the incision is so close to the diaphragm. The nurse assists the client by offering opioid analgesics when due, encouraging incentive spirometer use hourly, and assisting the client to splint the incision during coughing. If the client takes pain medication only before ambulation, control of pain may be insufficient, which will not promote optimal respiratory function (pain medication should be offered 30 to 45 minutes before the client ambulates). Laparoscopic nephrectomy can also be performed. Compared to conventional nephrectomy, the laparoscopic approach is less painful and requires no sutures or staples, involves a shorter hospital stay, and has a much faster recovery.

A client complains of fever, perineal pain, and urinary urgency, frequency, and dysuria. To assess whether the client's problem is related to bacterial prostatitis, the nurse reviews the results of the prostate examination for which characteristic of this disorder? 1. Soft and swollen prostate gland 2. Swollen, and boggy prostate gland 3. Tender and edematous prostate gland 4. Tender, indurated prostate gland that is warm to the touch

4 The client with bacterial prostatitis has a swollen and tender prostate gland that is also warm to the touch, firm, and indurated. Systemic symptoms include fever with chills, perineal and low back pain, and signs of urinary tract infection, which often accompany the disorder.

The client with a crush injury to the leg has a highly positive urine myoglobin level. The nurse should assess this client carefully for signs and symptoms of which problem? 1. Brain attack 2. Respiratory failure 3.Myocardial infarction 4. Acute tubular necrosis

4 The normal urine myoglobin level is negative. After extensive muscle destruction or damage, myoglobin is released into the bloodstream, where it is cleared from the body by the kidneys. When a large amount of myoglobin is being cleared from the body, there is a risk of the renal tubules being clogged with myoglobin, causing acute tubular necrosis. This is one form of acute kidney injury. The remaining options are unrelated to a positive myoglobin level.

The home health nurse is planning to make a home visit to a client who has undergone surgical creation of an ileal conduit. The nurse should include which information on ostomy care in discussion with the client? 1. Plan to do appliance changes in the late evening hours. 2. Cut an opening that is slightly smaller than the stoma in the face plate of the appliance. 3. Appliance odor from urine breakdown to ammonia can be minimized by limiting fluids. 4. Cleanse the skin around the stoma, using gentle soap and water, and then rinse and dry well.

4 The skin around the stoma is cleansed at each appliance change using a gentle, nonresidue soap and water. The skin is rinsed and then dried thoroughly. The appliance should be changed early in the morning because urine production is slowest from no fluid intake during sleep. The appliance is cut so that the opening is not more than 3 mm larger than the stoma. An opening smaller than the stoma will prevent application of the appliance. Generous fluid intake is encouraged to dilute the urine, decreasing the intensity of odor.

The nurse is caring for a client with a bladder infection. The nurse plans care understanding that the primary risk factor for spread of infection in this client is dysfunction of which structure? 1. Urethra 2. Nephron 3. Glomerulus 4. Ureterovesical junction

4 The ureterovesical junction is the point at which the ureters enter the bladder. At this juncture, the ureter runs obliquely for 1.5 to 2 cm through the bladder wall before opening into the bladder. This anatomical pathway prevents reflux of urine back into the ureter and, in essence, acts as a valve to prevent urine from traveling back into the ureter and up to the kidney.

A client has urinary calculi composed of uric acid. The nurse is teaching the client dietary measures to prevent further development of uric acid calculi. The nurse should inform the client that it is acceptable to consume which item? 1. Steak 2. Shrimp 3. Chicken liver 4. Cottage cheese

4 With a uric acid stone, the client should limit intake of foods high in purines. Organ meats, sardines, herring, and other high-purine foods are eliminated from the diet. Intake of foods with moderate levels of purines, such as red and white meats and some seafood, also is limited. Avoiding the consumption of milk and dairy products is a recommended dietary change for calculi composed of calcium stones but is acceptable for the client with a uric acid stone.

The client diagnosed with ARF has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which collaborative treatment should the nurse anticipate for the client? 1.Administer a phosphate binder. 2.Type and crossmatch for whole blood. 3.Assess the client for leg cramps. 4.Prepare the client for dialysis.

4 Normal potassium level is 3.5 to5.5 mEq/L. A level of 6.8 mEq/L is life threatening and could lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the client may be dialyzed to decrease the potassium level quickly. This requires a health-care provider order, so it is a collaborative intervention.

A male client has a tentative diagnosis of urethritis. The nurse should assess the client for which manifestation of the disorder? 1. Hematuria and pyuria 2. Dysuria and proteinuria 3. Hematuria and urgency 4. Dysuria and penile discharge

4 Urethritis in the male client often results from chlamydial infection and is characterized by dysuria, which is accompanied by a clear to mucopurulent discharge. Because this disorder often coexists with gonorrhea, diagnostic tests are done for both and include culture and rapid assays. Hematuria is not associated with urethritis. Proteinuria is associated with kidney dysfunction.

A 78-yr-old patient has stage 3 CKD and is being taught about a low-potassium diet. The nurse knows the patient understands the diet when the patient selects which foods to eat? a. Apple, green beans, and a roast beef sandwich b. Granola made with dried fruits, nuts, and seeds c. Watermelon and ice cream with chocolate sauce d. Bran cereal with ½ banana and milk and orange juice

A client is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). The nurse should assess the client for which sign of peritoneal infection? a. cloudy dialysate fluid b. swelling in the legs c. poor drainage of the dialysate fluid d. redness at the catheter insertion site

A kidney transplant recipient complains of having fever, chills, and dysuria over the past 2 weeks. What is the first action the nurse should take? a. assess temperature and initiate workup to rule out infection b. reassure the patient that this is common after transplantation c. provide warm cover for the patient and give 1 g acetaminophen orally d. notify the nephrologist that the patient has developed symptoms of acute rejection

A major advantage of peritoneal dialysis is a. the diet is less restricted and dialysis can be performed at home b. the dialysate is biocompatible and causes no long-term consequences c. high glucose concentrations of the dialysate causes a reduction in appetite, promoting weight loss d. no medications are required because of the enhances efficiency of the peritoneal membrane in removing toxins

A male patient returned from the operating room 6 hours ago with a cast on his right arm. He has not yet voided. Which action would be the most beneficial in assisting the patient to void? A) Suggest he stand at the bedside B) Stay with the patient C) Give him the urinal to use in bed D) Tell him that, if he doesn't urinate, he will be catheterized

What is an appropriate intervention for a child with nephrotic syndrome who is edematous? a. Teach the child to minimize body movements. b. Change the child's position every 2 hours. c. Avoid the use of skin lotions. d. Bathe every other day.

What is the most serious electrolyte disorder associated with kidney disease? a. hypocalcemia b. hyperkalemia c. hyponatremia d. hypermagnesemia

Which finding indicates that a child receiving prednisone for primary nephrotic syndrome is in remission? a. Urine is negative for casts for 5 days. b. Urine is up to a trace for protein for 5 to 7 days. c. Urine is positive for glucose for 1 week. d. Urine is up to a trace for blood for 1 week.

A man with ESRD is scheduled for HD following healing of an arteriovenous fistula. What should the nurse explain to him that will occur during dialysis? a. he will be able to visit, read, sleep, or watch TV while reclining in a chair b. he will be placed on a cardiac monitor to detect any adverse effects that may occur c. the dialyzer will remove and hold part of his blood for 20-30 minutes to remove the waste products d. a large catheter with two lumens will be inserted into the fistula to send blood to and return it from the dialyzer

Which should be included in the client's plan of care during dialysis therapy? a. limit the client's visitors b. monitor the client's blood pressure c. pad the side rails of the bed d. keep the client on NPO status

A client with severe back pain and hematuria is found to have hydronephrosis due to urolithiasis. The nurse anticipates which treatment will be done to relieve the obstruction? Select all that apply. 1. Peritoneal dialysis 2. Analysis of the urinary stone 3. Intravenous opioid analgesics 4. Insertion of a nephrostomy tube 5. Placement of a ureteral stent with ureteroscopy

45 Urolithiasis is the condition that occurs when a stone forms in the urinary system. Hydronephrosis develops when the stone has blocked the ureter and urine backs up and dilates and damages the kidney. Priority treatment is to allow the urine to drain and relieve the obstruction in the ureter. This is accomplished by placement of a percutaneous nephrostomy tube to drain urine from the kidney and placement of a ureteral stent to keep the ureter open. Peritoneal dialysis is not needed since the kidney is functioning. Stone analysis will be done later when the stone has been retrieved and analyzed. Opioid analgesics are necessary for pain relief but do not treat the obstruction.

A school age child with Chronic Renal Failure has suffered extreme brain and heart damage from a hypoxic episode while in the ICU for severe peritonitis. The parents have signed a DNR. Which statement to the parent is most appropriate when asked what they should tell their 16-year-old child about this decision? a. " It is appropriate to share this information with him. I want to call the Child Life specialist to come talk to you about how to do this so that he can better cope with this difficult decision." b. " He is very mature for his age. I think he will be able to handle it well, he understands how sick his sister has been." c. "I don't think he is going to handle this very well. You probably want to wait until after his sister has passed away to tell him what you decided." d. "This child should not be informed of the decision. You should not confuse him with having to think about such a sad choice."

An ESRD patient receiving HD is considering asking a relative to donate a kidney for transplantation. In assisting the patient to make a decision about treatment, the nurse informs the patient that a. successful transplantation usually provides a better quality of life than that offered by dialysis b. if rejection of the transplanted kidney occurs, no further treatment for the renal failure is available c. HD replaces the normal function of the kidneys, and patients do not have to live with the continual fear of rejection d. the immunosuppressive therapy following transplantation makes the person ineligible to receive other forms of treatment if the kidney fails

During the immediate postoperative care of a recipient of a kidney transplant, what is a priority for the nurse to do? a. regulate fluid intake hourly based on urine output b. monitor urine-tinged drainage on abdominal dressing c. medicate the patient frequently for incisional flank pain d. remove the urinary catheter to evaluate the ureteral implant

Since removal of the patient's Foley catheter, the patient has voided 50 to 100 mL every 2 to 3 hours. Which action should the nurse take first? A) Check for bladder distention B) Encourage fluid intake C) Obtain an order to recatheterize the patient D) Document the amount of each voiding for 24 hours

The advantage of continuous replacement therapy over hemodialysis is its ability to a. remove fluid without the use of a dialysate. b. remove fluid in less than 24 hours. c. allow the patient to receive the therapy at the work site. d. be administered through a peripheral line.

The client has end-stage renal disease. He had undergone kidney transplant 5 days ago. Which of the following is the most important intervention for the client to prevent infection? a) observe asepsis b) increase fluid intake c) avoid clients with flu d) avoid crowded places

The client with continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) has cloudy dialysate. Which of the following is the best initial nursing action? a) send fluid to the laboratory for culture b) administer antibiotic c) do nothing, this is expected d) stop drainage of fluid

The dialysis solution is warmed before use in peritoneal dialysis primarily to a. encourage the removal of serum urea b. force potassium back into the cells c. add extra warmth to the body d. promote abdominal muscle relaxation

The mother of a child who was recently diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis asks the nurse why the physician keeps talking about "casts" in the urine. The nurse's response is based on the knowledge that the presence of casts in the urine indicates a. Glomerular injury b. Glomerular healing c. Recent streptococcal infection d. Excessive amounts of protein in the urine

The nurse closely monitors the temperature of a child with nephrotic syndrome. The purpose of this is to detect an early sign of which possible complication? a. Infection b. Hypertension c. Encephalopathy d. Edema

The nurse has instructed a patient who is receiving hemodialysis about appropriate dietary choices. Which menu choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been successful? a. Scrambled eggs, English muffin, and apple juice b. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea c. Split-pea soup, whole-wheat toast, and nonfat milk d. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice

The nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm AV fistula prior to initiating HD. Which findings indicate that the fistula is patent? a. palpation of a thrill over the fistula b. presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist c. visualization of enlarged blood vessels at the fistula site d. capillary refill <3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand

The nurse is caring for a 68-year-old hospitalized patient with a decreased glomerular filtration rate who is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which action will be included in the plan of care? a. Monitor the urine output after the procedure. b. Assist with monitored anesthesia care (MAC). c. Give oral contrast solution before the procedure. d. Insert a large size urinary catheter before the IVP.

The nurse is caring for a patient who had kidney transplantation several years ago. Which assessment finding may indicate that the patient is experiencing adverse effects to the prescribed corticosteroid? a. Joint pain b. Tachycardia c. Postural hypotension d. Increase in creatinine level

The nurse is reviewing a client's record and notes that the HCP has documented that the client has CKD. On review of the laboratory results, the nurse most likely would expect to note which finding? a. elevated creatinine level b. decreased hemoglobin level c. decreased RBC d. increased number of WBC in the urine

The primary clinical manifestations of acute renal failure are a. Oliguria and hypertension b. Hematuria and pallor c. Proteinuria and muscle cramps d. Bacteriuria and facial edema

What glomerular filtration rate (GFR) would the nurse estimate for a 30-year-old patient with a creatinine clearance result of 60 mL/min? a. 60 mL/min b. 90 mL/min c. 120 mL/min d. 180 mL/min

What should the nurse include in a teaching plan for the parents of a child with vesicoureteral reflux? a. The importance of taking prophylactic antibiotics b. Suggestions for how to maintain fluid restrictions c. The use of bubble baths as an incentive to increase bath time d. The need for the child to hold urine for 6 to 8 hours

The client with chronic renal failure has an indwelling abdominal catheter for peritoneal dialysis. The client spills water on the catheter dressing while bathing. The nurse should immediately: a) change the dressing b) reinforce the dressing c) flush the peritoneal dialysis catheter d) scrub the catheter with povidine-iodine

A Clients with peritoneal dialysis catheters are at high risk for infection. A wet dressing is a conduit for bacteria to reach the catheter insertion site. The nurse ensures that the dressing is kept dry at all times. Reinforcing the dressing is not a safe practice to prevent infection in this circumstance. Flushing the catheter is not indicated. Scrubbing the catheter with povidone-iodine is done at the time of connection or disconnection of peritoneal dialysis.

A registered nurse is instructing a new nursing graduate about hemodialysis. Which statement if made by the new nursing graduate would indicate an inaccurate understanding of the procedure for hemodialysis? a. Sterile dialysate must be used. b. Warming the dialysate increases the efficiency of diffusion. c. Heparin sodium is administered during dialysis. d. Dialysis cleanses the blood from accumulated waste products.

A Dialysate is made from clear water and chemicals and is free from any metabolic waste products or medications. Bacteria and other microorganisms are too large to pass through the membrane; therefore, the dialysate does not need to be sterile. The dialysate is warmed to approximately 100° F to increase the efficiency of diffusion and to prevent a decrease in the client's blood temperature. Heparin sodium inhibits the tendency of blood to clot when it comes in contact with foreign substances. Option 4 is the purpose of dialysis.

A patient on a medical unit has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What is the priority action thatthe nurse should take? a. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. b. Check the patient's blood pressure (BP). c. Instruct the patient to avoid high-potassium foods. d. Call the lab and request a redraw of the lab to verify results.

A Dysrhythmias may occur with an elevated potassium level and are potentially lethal. Monitor the rhythm while contacting the physician or calling the rapid response team. Vital signs should be checked. Depending on the patient's history and cause of increased potassium, instruct the patient about dietary sources of potassium; however, this would not help at this point. The nurse may want to recheck the value but until then the heart rhythm needs to be monitored.

A client with chronic renal failure has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse would use which of the following standard indicators to evaluate the client's status after dialysis? a. Vital signs and weight. b. Potassium level and weight. c. Vital signs and BUN. d. BUN and creatinine levels.

A Following dialysis, the client's vital signs are monitored to determine whether the client is remaining hemodynamically stable. Weight is measured and compared with the client's predialysis weight to determine effectiveness of fluid extraction. Laboratory studies are done as per protocol but are not necessarily done after the hemodialysis treatment has ended.

Which statement by a school-age girl indicates the need for further teaching about theprevention of urinary tract infections (UTIs)? a. "I always wear cotton underwear." b. "I really enjoy taking a bubble bath." c. "I go to the bathroom every 3 to 4 hours." d. "I drink four to six glasses of fluid every day."

A client undergoing hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding from the heparin used during the hemodialysis treatment. The nurse assesses for this occurrence by periodically checking the results of which of the following lab tests? a. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) b. Prothrombin time (PT) c. Thrombin time (TT) d. Bleeding time

A Heparin is the anticoagulant used most often during hemodialysis. The hemodialysis nurse monitors the extent of anticoagulation by checking the PTT, which is the appropriate measure of heparin effect. The PT is used to monitor the effect of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Thrombin and bleeding times are not used to measure the effect of heparin therapy, although they are useful in the diagnosis of other clotting abnormalities.

A patient has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels. Which bowel preparation order would the nurse question for this patient who is scheduled for a renal arteriogram? a. Fleet enema b. Tap-water enema c. Senna/docusate (Senokot-S) d. Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablets

A High-phosphate enemas, such as Fleet enemas, should be avoided in patients with elevated BUN and creatinine because phosphate cannot be excreted by patients with renal failure. The other medications for bowel evacuation are more appropriate.

The client being hemodialyzed suddenly becomes short of breath and complains of chest pain. The client is tachycardic, pale, and anxious. The nurse suspects air embolism. The priority action for the nurse is to: a. Discontinue dialysis and notify the physician. b. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour. c. Continue dialysis at a slower rate after checking the lines for air. d. Bolus the client with 500 mL of normal saline to break up the embolus.

A If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should terminate dialysis immediately, notify the physician, and administer oxygen as needed.

The nurse has completed client teaching with the hemodialysis client about self-monitoring between hemodialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the client best understands the information if the client states to record daily the: a. Amount of activity. b. Pulse and respiratory rate. c. Intake and output and weight. d. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels.

A If the client experiences air embolus during hemodialysis, the nurse should terminate dialysis immediately, notify the physician, and administer oxygen as needed.

A nurse is giving general instructions to a client receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following statements would be appropriate for the nurse to include? a. Several types of medications should be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. b. Medications should be double-dosed on the morning of hemodialysis to prevent loss. c. It's acceptable to exceed the fluid restriction on the day before hemodialysis. d. It's acceptable to eat whatever you want on the day before hemodialysis.

A Many medications are dialyzable, which means they are extracted from the bloodstream during dialysis. Therefore, many medications may be withheld on the day of dialysis until after the procedure. It is not typical for medications to be "double-dosed," because there is no way to be certain how much of each medication is cleared by dialysis. Clients receiving hemodialysis are not routinely taught that it is acceptable to disregard dietary and fluid restrictions.

Metabolic acidosis occurs in the oliguric phase of AKI as a result of impairment of a. ammonia synthesis. b. excretion of sodium. c. excretion of bicarbonate. d. conservation of potassium.

A Metabolic acidosis occurs in AKI because the kidneys cannot synthesize ammonia or excrete acid products of metabolism, resulting in an increased acid load. Sodium is lost in urine because the kidneys cannot conserve sodium. Impaired excretion of potassium results in hyperkalemia. Bicarbonate is normally generated and reabsorbed by the functioning kidney to maintain acid base balance.

A nurse is teaching a client who is scheduled for a kidney transplant about organ rejection. Which of the following statements should the nurse include? Select all that apply a. "expect an immediate removal of the donor kidney for a hyperacute rejection" b. "you might need to begin dialysis to monitor your kidney function for a hyperacute reaction" c. "a fever is a manifestation of an acute rejection" d. "fluid retention is a manifestation of an acute rejection" e. "your provider will increase your immunosuppressive medications for a chronic rejection"

ACD

The client scheduled to have an intravenous urogram is a diabetic and taking the antidiabetic agent metformin. What should the nurse tell this client? A. "Call your diabetes doctor and tell him or her that you are having an intravenous urogram performed using dye." B. "Do not take your metformin the morning of the test because you are not going to be eating anything and could become hypoglycemic." C. "You must start on an antibiotic before this test because your risk of infection is greater as a result of your diabetes." D. "You must take your metformin immediately before the test is performed because the IV fluid and the dye contain a significant amount of sugar."

A Metformin can cause a lactic acidosis and renal impairment as an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established.

The nurse instructs a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary modifications. The nurse determines that the client understands these dietary modifications if the client selects which items from the menu? a. Cream of wheat, blueberries, coffee b. Sausage and eggs, banana, orange juice. c. Bacon, cantaloupe melon, tomato juice. d. Cured pork, grits, strawberries, orange juice.

A The diet for a client with renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis should include controlled amounts of sodium, phosphorus, calcium, potassium, and fluids. Options 2, 3, and 4 are high in sodium, phosphorus and potassium.

What would be the response if a person's nephrons were not able to filter normally due to scarring of the proximal convoluted tubule leading to inhibition of reabsorption? A. Increased urine output, fluid volume deficit B. Decreased urine output, fluid volume deficit C. Increased urine output, fluid volume overload D. Decreased urine output, fluid volume overload

A The nephrons filter about 120 mL/min. Most of this filtrate is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule. If the tubule were not able to reabsorb the fluid that has been filtered, urine output would greatly increase, leading to rapid and severe dehydration.

Which medication taken at home by a 47-year-old patient with decreased renal function will be of most concern to the nurse? a. ibuprofen (Motrin) b. warfarin (Coumadin) c. folic acid (vitamin B9) d. penicillin (Bicillin LA)

A The nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications (NSAIDs) are nephrotoxic and should be avoided in patients with impaired renal function. The nurse also should ask about reasons the patient is taking the other medications, but the medication of most concern is the ibuprofen.

A nurse is assessing the patency of a client's left arm arteriovenous fistula prior to initiating hemodialysis. Which finding indicates that the fistula is patent? a. Palpation of a thrill over the fistula. b. Presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist. c. Absence of a bruit on auscultation of the fistula. d. Capillary refill less than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers of the left hand.

A The nurse assesses the patency of the fistula by palpating for the presence of a thrill or auscultating for a bruit. The presence of a thrill and bruit indicate patency of the fistula. Although the presence of a radial pulse in the left wrist and capillary refill shorter than 3 seconds in the nail beds of the fingers on the left hand are normal findings, they do not assess fistula patency.

A man with end-stage kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis following healing of an arteriovenous fistula(AVF). What should the nurse explain to him that will occur during dialysis? a. He will be able to visit, read, sleep, or watch TV while reclining in a chair. b. He will be placed on a cardiac monitor to detect any adverse effects that might occur. c. The dialyzer will remove and hold part of his blood for 20 to 30 minutes to remove the waste products. d. A large catheter with two lumens will be inserted into the fistula to send blood to and return it from the dialyzer.

A While patients are undergoing hemodialysis, they can perform quiet activities that do not require the limb that has the vascular access. Blood pressure is monitored frequently and the dialyzer monitors dialysis function but cardiac monitoring is not usually indicated. The hemodialysis machine continuously circulates both the blood and the dialysate past the semipermeable membrane in the machine.Graft and fistula access involve the insertion of two needles into the site: one to remove blood from and the other to return blood to the dialyzer.

Which of the following should be considered in the diet of the client with end-stage-renal-disease (ESRD)? a) limit fluid intake during anuric phase b) limit phosphorus and vitamin D-rich food c) limit calcium-rich food d) limit carbohydrates

A during ESRD, fluid intake of the client should be limited during anuric phase to prevent fluid overload. Fluid overload increases renal workload, pulmonary edema, and congestive heart failure.

A nurse is planning postprocedure care for a client who received hemodialysis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply a. check BUN and blood creatinine b. administer medications the nurse withheld prior to dialysis c. observe for findings of hypovolemia d. assess the access site for bleeding e. evaluate BP on the arm with AV access

ABCD

The nurse is educating a client who recently had a kidney transplant about the dietary changes that will be necessary. Which of the following statements could the nurse make to the client? Select all that apply. a. additional calcium may be needed b. carbohydrates may be restricted c. extra protein may be needed d. fats may be limited e. protein may be restricted f. sodium may be restricted

ABCDEF

A nurse is assessing a client who has end-stage kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? Select all that apply a. anuria b. marked azotemia c. crackles in the lungs d. increased calcium level e. proteinuria

ABCE

A nurse is planning postoperative care for a client following a kidney transplant. Which of the following actions should the nurse include? Select all that apply a. obtain daily weights b. assess dressings for bloody drainage c. replace hourly urine output with IV fluids d. expect oliguria in the first 4 hours e. monitor blood electrolytes

ABCE

Patients with CKD experience an increase incidence of cardiovascular disease related to Select all that apply a. hypertension b. vascular calcifications c. a genetic predisposition d. hyperinsulinemia causing dyslipidemia e. increased high-density lipoprotein levels

ABD

The patient with CKD is receiving dialysis, and the nurse observes excoriations on the patient's skin. What pathophysiologic changes in CKD most likely occur that can contribute to this finding? Select all that apply a. dry skin b. sensory neuropathy c. vascular calcifications d. calcium-phosphate skin deposits e. uremic crystallization from high BUN

ABD

The patient with CKD is receiving dialysis, and the nurse observes excoriations on the patient's skin. Whatpathophysiologic changes in CKD can contribute to this finding (select all that apply)? a. Dry skin b. Sensory neuropathy c. Vascular calcifications d. Calcium-phosphate skin deposits e. Uremic crystallization from high BUN

ABD Pruritus is common in patients receiving dialysis.It causes scratching from dry skin, sensory neuropathy, and calcium-phosphate deposition in the skin. Vascular calcifications contribute to cardiovascular disease, not to itching skin. Uremic frost rarely occurs without BUN levels greater than 200 mg/dL, which should not occur in a patient on dialysis; urea crystallizes on the skin and also causes pruritis.

A nurse is planning care for a client who will undergo PD. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply a. monitor blood glucose levels b. report cloudy dialysate return c. warm the dialysate in a microwave oven d. assess for SOB e. check the access site dressing for wetness

ABDE

A nurse is preparing to initiate hemodialysis for a client who has AKI. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply a. review the medications the client currently takes b. assess the AV fistula for a bruit c. calculate the client's hourly urine output d. measure the client's weight e. check blood electrolytes

ABDE

The client performs self PD. What should the nurse teach the client about preventing peritonitis? Select all that apply a. broad-spectrum antibiotics may be administered to prevent infection b. antibiotics may be added to the dialysate to treat peritonitis c. clean technique is permissible for prevention of peritonitis d. peritonitis is characterized by cloudy dialysate drainage and abdominal discomfort e. peritonitis is the most common and serious complication of peritoneal dialysis

ABDE

The nurse monitoring the client receiving PD notes that the client's outflow is less than the inflow. Which actions should the nurse take? Select all that apply a. check the level of the drainage bag b. reposition the client to their side c. contact the HCP d. place the client in good body alignment e. check the PD system for kinks

ABDE

Select the results that are normal in a urinalysis. A. pH 6 B. Specific gravity 1.015 C. Protein small D. Sugar negative E. Nitrate small F. Leukocyte esterase positive G. Bilirubin negative

ABDG Rationale: The abnormal values are indicative of a urinary tract infection. As a result of protein, nitrates, and leukoesterase in the urine, the nurse can expect the laboratory to analyze microscopic sediment including evaluating the sample for the presence of crystals, casts, WBCs, and RBCs.

The client with chronic renal failure is on chronic hemodialysis. Which of the following indicate improvement of the client's condition due to hemodialysis? Select all that apply a) the client's BP is 130/90 b) the client's serum potassium is 4.8 mEq/L c) the client's hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL d) the client's serum calcium is 7.7 mg/dL e) the client's serum sodium is 140 mEg/L f) the client's serum magnesium is 4 mEq/L g) the client's weight has increased from 60 kg to 63 kg

ABE

A patient undergoing hemodialysis starts to become hypotensive and is experiencing muscle cramps. What are the correct nursing actions that should be taken? (Select all that apply) A. Decrease the blood flow into the dialyzer B. Give a hypertonic saline solution C. Administer a hypertonic glucose solution D. Start an infusion of 0.9% normal saline

ACD Hypotension and muscle cramps occurring during hemodialysis usually occur because of rapid removal of vascular volume; therefore, slowing down the blood flow in the dialyzer will help reverse the hypotension and cramping. It is not recommended to give a hypertonic saline solution for treatment of hypotension and muscle cramps during hemodialysis because the high sodium load can be more problematic. Administering a hypertonic glucose solution helps with muscle cramps when undergoing hemodialysis. Starting an infusion of 0.9% normal saline is part of the usual treatment for hypotension and muscle cramps associated with hemodialysis.

A nurse is assessing an infant for urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? Select all that apply. a. Change in urine odor or color b. Enuresis c. Fever or hypothermia d. Voiding urgency e. Poor weight gain

ACE

Which findings will the nurse expect when caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD)? Select all that apply a. Anemia b. Dehydration c. Hypertension d. Hypercalcemia e. Increased risk for fractures

ACE

A patient with a Foley catheter carries the collection bag at waist level when ambulating. The nurse tells the patient that he or she is at risk for: (Select all that apply.) A) Infection. B) Retention. C) Stagnant urine. D) Reflux of urine.

The patient is to have an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following apply to this procedure? (Select all that apply.) A) Note any allergies. B) Monitor intake and output. C) Provide for perineal hygiene. D) Assess vital signs. E) Encourage fluids after the procedure.

The client's urine specific gravity is 1.018. What is the nurse's best action? A. Ask the client for a 24-hour recall of liquid intake. B. Document the finding as the only action. C. Obtain a specimen for culture. D. Notify the physician.

The female client's urinalysis shows all the following characteristics. Which should the nurse document as abnormal? A. pH 5.6 B. Ketone bodies present C. Specific gravity is 1.030 D. Two white blood cells per high-power field

The home care nurse visits a 34-yr-old woman receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which statement indicates a need for immediate follow-up by the nurse? a. "Drain time is faster if I rub my abdomen." b. "The fluid draining from the catheter is cloudy." c. "The drainage is bloody when I have my period." d. "I wash around the catheter with soap and water."

A 24-yr-old woman donated a kidney via a laparoscopic donor nephrectomy to a nonrelated recipient. The patient is experiencing significant pain and refuses to get up to walk. How should the nurse respond? a. Have the transplant psychologist convince her to walk. b. Encourage even a short walk to avoid complications of surgery. c. Tell the patient that no other patients have ever refused to walk. d. Tell the patient she is lucky she did not have an open nephrectomy.

A child is admitted with acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse expects the urinalysis during this acute phase to show a. Bacteriuria and hematuria b. Hematuria and proteinuria c. Bacteriuria and increased specific gravity d. Proteinuria and decreased specific gravity

A client is receiving peritoneal dialysis. While the dialysis solution is dwelling in the client's abdomen, the nurse should a. assess for urticaria b. observe respiratory status c. check capillary refill time d. monitor electrolyte status

A client with CKD returns to the nursing unit following a HD treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 101.2. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. encourage fluid intake b. notify the HCP c. continue to monitor vital signs d. monitor the site of the shunt for infection

A client with chronic renal failure has asked to be evaluated for a home continuous ambulatory PD program (CAPD). The nurse should explain that the major advantage of this approach is that it a. is relatively low in cost b. allows the client to be more independent c. is faster and more efficient than standard PD d. has fewer potential complications than does standard PD

A client with chronic renal failure is receiving hemodialysis three times a week. In order to protect the fistula, the nurse should a. take the BP in the arm with the fistula b. report the loss of a thrill or bruit on the arm with the fistula c. maintain a pressure dressing on the shunt d. start a second IV in the arm with the fistula

A nurse is caring for a 3-year-old child weighing 13kg, who has been diagnosed with Nephrotic Syndrome. When completing orders for this client, which of the following should the nurse question? a. 25% Albumin 3g IV x 1 b. D51/2NS at maintenance rate of 60cc/hr c. Furosemide 4mg IV q6h d. Methylprednisolone 6mg IV BID

A nurse is caring for a child who has acute glomerulonephritis. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority? a. Maintain a saline lock on the peripheral IV b. Check the child's daily weight c. Educate the parents about potential complications d. Place the child on a no salt added diet

A patient with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) secondary to diabetes mellitus has arrived at the outpatient dialysis unit for hemodialysis. Which assessments should the nurse perform as a priority before, during, and after the treatment? a. Level of consciousness b. Blood pressure and fluid balance c. Temperature, heart rate, and blood pressure d. Assessment for signs and symptoms of infection

After completion of PD, the nurse should assess the client for a. hematuria b. weight loss c. hypertension d. increased urine output

After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Elevate the patients arm above the level of the heart. b. Report the patients symptoms to the health care provider. c. Remind the patient about the need to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. d. Educate the patient about the normal vascular response after AVG insertion.

During PD, the nurse observes that the flow of dialysate stops before all the solution has drained out. The nurse should a. have the client sit in a chair b. turn the client from side to side c. reposition the peritoneal catheter d. have the client walk

During the PD, the nurse observes that the solution draining from the client's abdomen is consistently blood tinged. The client has a permanent peritoneal catheter in place. The nurse should recognize that the bleeding a. is expected with a permanent peritoneal catheter b. indicates abdominal blood vessel damage c. can indicate kidney damage d. is caused by too-rapid infusion of the dialysate

In replying to a patient's questions about the seriousness of her CKD, the nurse knows that the stage of CKD is based on what? a. total daily urine output b. GFR c. degree of altered mental status d. serum creatinine and urea levels

The client with chronic renal failure is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. He asks why the nurse monitors his blood glucose levels. Which of the following will be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a) I have to check if you have diabetes mellitus b) the dialysate contains glucose c) the procedure may lower your blood glucose levels d) it is a routine procedure for every client who undergoes the treatment

What is the primary way that a nurse will evaluate the patency of an AVF? a. Palpate for pulses distal to the graft site. b. Auscultate for the presence of a bruit at the site. c. Evaluate the color and temperature of the extremity. d. Assess for the presence of numbness and tingling distal to the site.

B A patent arteriovenous fistula (AVF) creates turbulent blood flow that can be assessed by listening for a bruit or palpated for a thrill as the blood passes through the graft. Assessment of neurovascular status in the extremity distal to the graft site is important to determine that the graft does not impair circulation to the extremity but the neurovascular status does not indicate whether the graft is open.

In a patient with AKI, which laboratory urinalysis result indicates tubular damage? a. Hematuria b. Specific gravity fixed at 1.010 c. Urine sodium of 12 mEq/L (12 mmol/L) d. Osmolality of 1000 mOsm/kg (1000 mmol/kg)

B A urine specific gravity that is consistently 1.010 and a urine osmolality of about 300 mOsm/kg is the same specific gravity and osmolality as plasma. This indicates that tubules are damaged and unable to concentrate urine. Hematuria is more common with postrenal damage. Tubular damage is associated with a high sodium concentration (greater than 40 mEq/L).

A patient who has been on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is hospitalized and is receiving CAPD with four exchanges a day. During the dialysate inflow, the patient complains of having abdominal pain and pain in the right shoulder. The nurse should a. massage the patient's abdomen and back. b. decrease the rate of dialysate infusion. c. stop the infusion and notify the health care provider. d. administer the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol).

B Abdominal pain and referred shoulder pain can be caused by a rapid infusion of dialysate; the nurse should slow the rate of the infusion. Massage and administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) would not address the reason for the pain. There is no need to notify the health care provider.

The client is taking a medication for an endocrine problem that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. To what complications of this therapy should the nurse be alert? A. Dehydration, hypokalemia B. Dehydration, hyperkalemia C. Overhydration, hyponatremia D. Overhydration, hypernatremia

B Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid that increases the reabsorption of water and sodium in the kidney at the same time that it promotes excretion of potassium. Any drug or condition that disrupts aldosterone secretion or release increases the client's risk for excessive water loss and potassium reabsorption.

Which condition would trigger the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A. Plasma osmolarity decreased secondary to overhydration. B. Plasma osmolarity increased secondary to dehydration. C. Plasma volume decreased secondary to hemorrhage. D. Plasma volume increased with edema formation.

B Antidiuretic hormone is triggered by a rising ECF osmolarity, especially hypernatremia.

Which assessment maneuvers should the nurse perform first when assessing the renal system at the same time as the abdomen? A. Abdominal percussion B. Abdominal auscultation C. Abdominal palpation D. Renal palpation

B Auscultation precedes percussion and palpation because the nurse needs to auscultate for abdominal bruits before palpation or percussion of the abdominal and renal components of a physical assessment.

In which type of dialysis does the patient dialyze during sleep and leave the fluid in the abdomen during the day? a. Long nocturnal hemodialysis b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) c. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) d. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

B Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) is the type of dialysis in which the patient dialyzes during sleep and leaves the fluid in the abdomen during the day. Long nocturnal hemodialysis occurs while the patient is sleeping and is done up to six times per week. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) is a type of continuous renal replacement therapy used to treat AKI. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is dialysis that is done with exchanges of 1.5 to 3 L of dialysate at least four times daily.

How will the nurse assess for flank tenderness in a 30-year-old female patient with suspected pyelonephritis? a. Palpate along both sides of the lumbar vertebral column. b. Strike a flat hand covering the costovertebral angle (CVA). c. Push fingers upward into the two lowest intercostal spaces. d. Percuss between the iliac crest and ribs along the midaxillary line.

B Checking for flank pain is best performed by percussion of the CVA and asking about pain. The other techniques would not assess for flank pain

The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2-L inflows. Which information should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of feeling bloated after the inflow. b. The patient's peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient has an outflow volume of 1600 ml.

B Cloudy-appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient.

A patient has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session. Which nursing action is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a dialysis technician? a. Teach the patient about fluid restrictions. b. Check blood pressure before starting dialysis. c. Assess for causes of an increase in predialysis weight. d. Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.

B Dialysis technicians are educated in monitoring for blood pressure. Assessment, adjustment of the appropriate ultrafiltration rate, and patient teaching require the education and scope of practice of an RN.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who has returned from the dialysis unit following hemodialysis. The client is complaining of headache and nausea and is extremely restless. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action? a. Monitor the client. b. Notify the physician. c. Elevate the head of the bed. d. Medicate the client for nausea.

B Disequilibrium syndrome may be caused by the rapid decreases in the blood urea nitrogen level during hemodialysis. These changes can cause cerebral edema that leads to increased intracranial pressure. The client is exhibiting early signs of disequilibrium syndrome and appropriate treatments with anticonvulsive medications and barbiturates may be necessary to prevent a life-threatening situation. The physician must be notified.

A patient with AKI has a serum potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/L) and the following arterial blood gasresults: pH 7.28, PaCO230 mm Hg, PaO286 mm Hg, HCO3−18 mEq/L (18 mmol/L). The nurse recognizes thattreatment of the acid-base problem with sodium bicarbonate would cause a decrease in which value? a. pH b. Potassium level c. Bicarbonate level d. Carbon dioxide level

B During acidosis, potassium moves out of the cell in exchange for H+ions, increasing the serum potassium level.Correction of the acidosis with sodium bicarbonate will help to shift the potassium back into the cells. A decrease in pH and the bicarbonate and PaCO2levels would indicate worsening acidosis

The nurse is titrating the IV fluid infusion rate immediately after a patient has had kidney transplantation. Which parameter will be most important for the nurse to consider? a. Heart rate b. Urine output c. Creatinine clearance d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level

B Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. The other data will be monitored but are not the most important determinants of fluid infusion rate

A client undergoing hemodialysis has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in the left arm. A related nursing diagnosis for the client is risk for infection. The nurse should formulate which of the following outcome goals as most appropriate for this nursing diagnosis? a. The client's temperature remains less than 101F b. The client's WBC count remains within normal limits. c. The client washes hands at least once per day. d. The client states to avoid blood pressure measurement in the left arm.

B General indicators that the client is not experiencing infection include a temperature and WBC count within normal limits. The client also should use proper hand-washing technique as a general preventive measure. Hand washing once per day is insufficient. It is true that the client should avoid BP measurement in the affected arm; however, this would relate more closely to the nursing diagnosis risk for injury.

A client has been admitted to the hospital for urinary tract infection and dehydration. The nurse determines that the client has received adequate volume replacement if the blood urea nitrogen level drops to: a) 3 mg/dL b) 15 mg/dL c) 29 mg/dL d) 35 mg/dL

B the normal blood urea nitrogen level is 8 to 25 mg/dL

A dehydrated patient is in the Injury stage of the RIFLE staging of AKI. What would the nursefirst anticipate in the treatment of this patient? a. Assess daily weight b. IV administration of fluid and furosemide (Lasix) c. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate d. Urinalysis to check for sediment, osmolality, sodium, and specific gravity

B Injury is the stage of RIFLE classification when urine output is less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr for 12 hours, the serum creatinine is increased times two or the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is decreased by 50%. This stage maybe reversible by treating the cause or, in this patient, the dehydration by administering IV fluid and a low dose of a loop diuretic, furosemide (Lasix). Assessing the daily weight will be done to monitor fluid changes but it is not the first treatment the nurse should anticipate. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate would be used for hyperkalemia. Checking the urinalysis will help to determine if the AKI has a prerenal, intrarenal, orpostrenal cause by what is seen in the urine but with this patient's dehydration, it is thought to be prerenal to begin treatment.

A patient gives the nurse health information before a scheduled intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which item has the most immediate implications for the patient's care? a. The patient has not had food or drink for 8 hours. b. The patient lists allergies to shellfish and penicillin. c. The patient complains of costovertebral angle (CVA) tenderness. d. The patient used a bisacodyl (Dulcolax) tablet the previous night.

B Iodine-based contrast dye is used during IVP and for many computed tomography (CT) scans. The nurse will need to notify the health care provider before the procedures so that the patient can receive medications such as antihistamines or corticosteroids before the procedures are started. The other information is also important to note and document but does not have immediate implications for the patient's care during the procedures

A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis using 2 L of dialysate per exchange has an outflow of 1200 ml. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Infuse 1200 ml of dialysate during the inflow. b. Assist the patient in changing position. c. Administer a laxative to the patient. d. Notify the health care provider about the outflow problem.

B Outflow problems may occur because the peritoneal catheter is collapsed by a portion of the intestine, and repositioning the patient will move the catheter and allow outflow to occur. If less than the ordered 2 L of dialysate is infused, the dialysis will be less effective. Administration of a laxative may also help if the patient's colon is full, but this should be tried after repositioning the patient. If the problem with outflow persists after the patient is repositioned, the health care provider should be notified.

When a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30, the nurse will expect an assessment finding of a. persistent skin tenting b. rapid, deep respirations. c. bounding peripheral pulses. d. hot, flushed face and neck.

B Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by AKI may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Bounding pulses and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in AKI

To prevent the most common serious complication of PD, what is important for the nurse to do? a. Infuse the dialysate slowly. b. Use strict aseptic technique in the dialysis procedures. c. Have the patient empty the bowel before the inflow phase. d. Reposition the patient frequently and promote deep breathing.

B Peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis (PD) and may require catheter removal and termination of dialysis. Infection occurs from contamination of the dialysate or tubing or from progression of exit-site or tunnel infections and strict sterile technique must be used by health professionals as well as the patient to prevent contamination. Too-rapid infusion may cause shoulder pain and pain may be caused if the catheter tip touches the bowel. Difficulty breathing, atelectasis, and pneumonia may occur from pressure of the fluid on the diaphragm, which may be prevented by elevating the head of the bed and promoting repositioning and deep breathing.

The nurse caring for a patient after cystoscopy plans that the patient a. learns to request narcotics for pain. b. understands to expect blood-tinged urine. c. restricts activity to bed rest for a 4 to 6 hours. d. remains NPO for 8 hours to prevent vomiting.

B Pink-tinged urine and urinary frequency are expected after cystoscopy. Burning on urination is common, but pain that requires opioids for relief is not expected. A good fluid intake is encouraged after this procedure. Bed rest is not required following cystoscopy

In replying to a patient's questions about the seriousness of her chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse knows that the stage of CKD is based on what? a. Total daily urine output b. Glomerular filtration rate c. Degree of altered mental status d. Serum creatinine and urea levels

B Stages of chronic kidney disease are based on theGFR. No specific markers of urinary output, mental status, or azotemia classify the degree of chronic kidney disease (CKD).

A 48-year-old patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD) is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which order for the patient will the nurse question? a. NPO for 6 hours before procedure b. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain c. Dulcolax suppository 4 hours before procedure d. Normal saline 500 mL IV infused before procedure

B The contrast dye used in IVPs is potentially nephrotoxic, and concurrent use of other nephrotoxic medications such as the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) should be avoided. The suppository and NPO status are necessary to ensure adequate visualization during the IVP. IV fluids are used to ensure adequate hydration, which helps reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure

The nurse is assessing a patient 4 hours after a kidney transplant. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr. b. The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. c. The patient has a level 7 (0 to 10 point scale) incisional pain. d. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated.

B The decrease in CVP suggests hypovolemia, which must be rapidly corrected to prevent renal hypoperfusion and acute tubular necrosis. The other information is not unusual in a patient after a transplant

The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The primary collaborative treatment goal in the plan will be a. augmenting fluid volume. b. maintaining cardiac output. c. diluting nephrotoxic substances. d. preventing systemic hypertension.

B The primary goal of treatment for acute kidney injury (AKI) is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing AKI, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct

A client with chronic renal failure is about to begin hemodialysis therapy. The client asks the nurse about the frequency and scheduling of hemodialysis treatments. The nurse's response is based on an understanding that the typical schedule is: a. 5 hours of treatment 2 days per week. b. 3 to 4 hours of treatment 3 days per week c. 2 to 3 hours of treatment 5 days per week d. 2 hours of treatment 6 days per week

B The typical schedule for hemodialysis is 3 to 4 hours of treatment three days per week. Individual adjustments may be made according to variables such as the size of the client, type of dialyzer, the rate of blood flow, personal client preferences, and others.

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) brings all home medications to the clinic to be reviewed by the nurse. Which medication being used by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Multivitamin with iron b. Milk of magnesia 30 mL c. Calcium phosphate (PhosLo) d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg

B This increases the magnesium level in the patient whom already has problems with hypermagnesemia

The client in end-stage of renal failure had undergone kidney transplant. Which of the following assessment findings indicate kidney transplant rejection? a) increased urinary output, BUN = 15 mg/dL b) HCT = 50%, Hgb = 17 g/dl c) decreased urinary output, sudden weight gain d) decreased urinary output, sudden weight loss

A client with end-stage renal failure has an internal arteriovenous fistula in the left arm for vascular access during hemodialysis. What should the nurse instruct the client do to? Select all that apply a. remind the HCPs to draw blood from veins on the left side b. avoid sleeping on the left arm c. wear wristwatch on the right arm d. assess fingers on the left arm for warmth e. obtain BP from the left arm

BCD

A nurse is planning care for a child admitted with nephrotic syndrome. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? Select all that apply. a. Administration of antihypertensive medications b. Daily weights c. Salt-restricted diet d. Frequent position changes e. Teaching parents to expect tea-colored urine

BCD

The diet order for a client receiving hemodialysis is written as 80-3-3. When the nurse explains the diet to the client, which of the following will be included in the teaching? Select all that apply. a. 80 grams of fat are allowed per day b. 80 grams of protein are allowed per day c. potassium is restricted to 3 grams a day d. phosphorus is restricted to 3 grams a day e. potassium is restricted to 80 mg per day f. sodium is restricted to 3 grams per day

BCF

A client with chronic renal failure who receives hemodialysis 3 times a week is experiencing severe nausea. What should the nurse advise the client to do to manage the nausea? Select all that apply a. drink fluids before eating solid foods b. have limited amounts of fluids only when thirsty c. limit activity d. keep all dialysis appointments e. eat smaller, more frequent meals

BDE

A client has been diagnosed to have chronic renal failure. Sodium polysterene sulfonate (exchange resin kayexalate) is prescribed. The action of the medication is that it releases a) bicarbonate in exchange for primarily sodium ions b) sodium ions in exchange for primarily bicarbonate ions c) sodium ions in exchange for primarily potassium ions d) potassium ions in exchange for primarily sodium ions

A client with the diagnosis of Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) is receiving epoetin (Epogen) as ordered. Which lab value trend indicates a desired outcome from this medication? a. before medication: BUN 26mg/dL after medication: BUN 26mg/dL b. before medication: serum creatinine 0.9mg/dL after medication: serum creatinine 1.9mg/dL c. before medication: Hemoglobin 6g/dL after medication: Hemoglobin 9g/dL d. before medication: Hematocrit 36%after medication: Hematocrit 33%

A major complication in a child with chronic renal failure is a. Hypokalemia b. Metabolic alkalosis c. Water and sodium retention d. Excessive excretion of blood urea nitrogen

A nurse is caring for a client who develops disequilibrium syndrome after receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? a. administer an opioid medication b. monitor for hypertension c. assess level of consiousness d. increase the dialysis exchange rate

A patient is recovering in the intensive care unit (ICU) 24 hours after receiving a kidney transplant. What is an expected assessment finding during the earliest stage of recovery? a. Hypokalemia b. Hyponatremia c. Large urine output d. Leukocytosis with cloudy urine output

Before administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a patient with hyperkalemia, the nurse should assess the a. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine. b. blood glucose level. c. patients bowel sounds. d. level of consciousness (LOC).

During a child's admission assessment, who has a Wilms' tumor, which of these nursing actions by the floor nurse would require immediate intervention from the charge nurse? a. Palpating for lymphadenopathy b. Auscultating the lungs c. Palpating the abdomen d. Measuring blood pressure

During hemodialysis, a patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Slow down the rate of dialysis. b. Obtain blood to check the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level. c. Check the patients blood pressure. d. Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.

During hemodialysis, the patient develops light-headedness and nausea. What should the nurse do first? a. Administer hypertonic saline. b. Administer a blood transfusion. c. Decrease the rate of fluid removal. d. Administer antiemetic medications.

Measures indicated in the conservative therapy of CKD include a. decreased fluid intake, carbohydrate intake, and protein intake. b. increased fluid intake; decreased carbohydrate intake and protein intake. c. decreased fluid intake and protein intake; increased carbohydrate intake. d. decreased fluid intake and carbohydrate intake; increased protein intake.

The RN directs the LPN/LVN to remove a Foley catheter at 1300. The nurse would check if the patient has voided by: A) 1400. B) 1600 C) 1700. D) 2300.

A patient with AKI is a candidate for continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). What is the most commonindication for use of CRRT? a. Azotemia b. Pericarditis c. Fluid overload d. Hyperkalemia

C Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is indicated for the patient with AKI as an alternative or adjunct to hemodialysis to slowly remove solutes and fluid in the hemodynamically unstable patient. It is especially useful for treatment of fluid overload, but hemodialysis is indicated for treatment of hyperkalemia, pericarditis, or other serious effects of uremia.

What is the result of stimulation of erythropoietin production in the kidney tissue? A. Increased blood flow to the kidney B. Inhibition of vitamin D and loss of bone density C. Increased bone marrow production of red blood cells D. Inhibition of the active transport of sodium, leading to hyponatremia

C Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell (RBC) production in the bone marrow.

A nurse is providing education to a patient with chronic kidney disease who has a newly placed peritoneal dialysis catheter. The patient will be managing their dialysis at home. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that they understand the teaching? A) I will eat a low fiber, high protein diet. B) The fluid in the drainage bag should be clear and colorless, and equal to the amount of dialysis solution infused. C) I can slow the rate of the dialysis solution during infusion if I have pain or cramping. D) I should inspect the catheter site every few days for signs of infection, and I must wear a dressing over my catheter site at all times.

C Flow rate may be adjusted if cramping or pain is experienced during the inflow stage in order to decrease discomfort.

A 55-year-old patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which information should the nurse report to the health care provider before giving the medication? a. Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL b. Oxygen saturation 89% c. Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL d. Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg

C High hemoglobin levels are associated with a higher rate of thromboembolic events and increased risk of death from serious cardiovascular events (heart attack, heart failure, stroke) when erythropoietin (EPO) is administered to a target hemoglobin of >12 g/dL. Hemoglobin levels higher than 12 g/dL indicate a need for a decrease in epoetin alfa dose. The other information also will be reported to the health care provider but will not affect whether the medication is administered

The patient with CKD is brought to the emergency department with Kussmaul respirations. What does the nurse know about CKD that could cause this patient's Kussmaul respirations? a. Uremic pleuritis is occurring. b. There is decreased pulmonary macrophage activity. c. They are caused by respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis. d. Pulmonary edema from heart failure and fluid overload is occurring.

C Kussmaul respirations occur with severe metabolic acidosis when the respiratory system is attempting to compensate by removing carbon dioxide with exhalations.Uremic pleuritis would cause a pleural friction rub.Decreased pulmonary macrophage activity increases the risk of pulmonary infection. Dyspnea would occur with pulmonary edema.

The client has an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level and an increased ratio of blood urea nitrogen to creatinine. What is the nurse's interpretation of these laboratory results? A. The client probably has a urinary tract infection. B. The client may be overhydrated. C. The kidney may be hypoperfused. D. The kidney may be damaged.

C When dehydration or renal hypoperfusion exist, the BUN level rises more rapidly than the serum creatinine level, causing the ratio to be increased, even when no renal dysfunction is present.

A 48-year-old male with chronic kidney disease is starting peritoneal dialysis today with the help and supervision of a nurse with the plan being that he eventually will be able to do this in the comfort of his own home. The nurse knows the patient needs more education in regards to peritoneal dialysis with which statement? a. "If I notice cloudy drainage I should contact my provider as soon as possible." b. "When I am filling up my abdomen if I feel pain it's okay to slow down the infusion." c. "My dietary intake will need to change, I will need to be sure to increase my sodium intake while eating less protein since I am losing all my salt." d. "When I am draining the fluid out I want more to come out than what I put in."

C More education needs to be given to the patient because he should be increasing his protein intake. Peritoneal dialysis leads to protein loss due to the permeability of the membrane in the peritoneum so his diet should reflect that.

When a patient's urine dipstick test indicates a small amount of protein, the nurse's next action should be to a. send a urine specimen to the laboratory to test for ketones. b. obtain a clean-catch urine for culture and sensitivity testing. c. inquire about which medications the patient is currently taking. d. ask the patient about any family history of chronic renal failure.

C Normally the urinalysis will show zero to trace amounts of protein, but some medications may give false-positive readings. The other actions by the nurse may be appropriate, but checking for medications that may affect the dipstick accuracy should be done first

Confirmed by palpation and x-ray study, the client's right kidney is lower than the left kidney. What is the nurse's interpretation of this finding? A. The client has a problem involving the right kidney. B. The client has a problem involving the left kidney. C. The client has both kidneys in the normal position. D. The client is at increased risk for kidney impairment.

C Normally, the right kidney is positioned somewhat lower than the left kidney. This anatomic difference in otherwise symmetric organs is caused by liver displacement. The significance of this difference is that the right kidney is easier to palpate in an adult than is the left kidney.

A patient begins hemodialysis after having had conservative management of chronic kidney disease. The nurse explains that one dietary regulation that will be changed when hemodialysis is started is that a. unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis. b. increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. c. more protein will be allowed because of the removal of urea and creatinine by dialysis.d. dietary sodium and potassium are unrestricted because these levels are normalized by dialysis.

C Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is allowed. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes

Which action by a 70-year-old patient who is using peritoneal dialysis (PD) indicates that the nurse should provide more teaching about PD? a. The patient leaves the catheter exit site without a dressing. b. The patient plans 30 to 60 minutes for a dialysate exchange. c. The patient cleans the catheter while taking a bath each day. d. The patient slows the inflow rate when experiencing abdominal pain.

C Patients are encouraged to take showers rather than baths to avoid infections at the catheter insertion side. The other patient actions indicate good understanding of peritoneal dialysis

Which menu choice by the patient who is receiving hemodialysis indicates that the nurse's teaching has been successful? a. Split-pea soup, English muffin, and nonfat milk b. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea c. Poached eggs, whole-wheat toast, and apple juice d. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice

C Poached eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup would be high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and the cream would be high in phosphate

The nurse at the dialysis clinic notes when she reviews a client's labs that the labs indicated hyperkalemia. She makes a note to make sure the client is adhering to all dietary restrictions. Of the following possibilities, which might the nurse ask about? a. fiber supplements b. intake of whole grains c. salt substitutes d. sugar substitutes

C Potassium may be restricted in some clients because hyperkalemia tends to occur in end-stage renal disease. Excess potassium can cause cardiac arrest. Because of this danger, renal clients should not use salt substitutes or low-sodium milk because the sodium in these products is replaced with potassium.

A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV? a. Urine volume b. Calcium level c. Cardiac rhythm d. Neurologic status

C The calcium gluconate helps prevent dysrhythmias that might be caused by the hyperkalemia. The nurse will monitor the other data as well, but these will not be helpful in determining the effectiveness of the calcium gluconate

The client with chronic renal failure returns to the nursing unit following a hemodialysis treatment. On assessment, the nurse notes that the client's temperature is 100.2F. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing action? a. Encourage fluids. b. Notify the physician. c. Continue to monitor vital signs. d. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection.

C The client may have an elevated temperature following dialysis because the dialysis machine warms the blood slightly. If the temperature is elevated excessively and remains elevated, sepsis would be suspected and a blood sample would be obtained as prescribed for culture and sensitivity determinations.

A client diagnosed with chronic renal failure (CRF) is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse assesses that which of the following neurological and psychosocial manifestations if exhibited by this client would be unrelated to the CRF? a. Labile emotions. b. Withdrawal. c. Euphoria. d. Depression.

C The client with CRF often experiences a variety of psychosocial changes. These are related to uremia, as well as the stress associated with living with a chronic disease that is life-threatening. Clients with CRF may have labile emotions or personality changes and may exhibit withdrawal, depression, or agitation. Delusions and psychosis also can occur. Euphoria is not part of the clinical picture for the client in renal failure.

Which assessment of a 62-year-old patient who has just had an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) requires immediate action by the nurse? a. The heart rate is 58 beats/minute. b. The patient complains of a dry mouth. c. The respiratory rate is 38 breaths/minute. d. The urine output is 400 mL after 2 hours.

C The increased respiratory rate indicates that the patient may be experiencing an allergic reaction to the contrast medium used during the procedure. The nurse should immediately assess the patient's oxygen saturation and breath sounds. The other data are not unusual findings following an IVP.

A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has longer QRS intervals on the electrocardiogram (ECG) than were noted on the previous shift. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Document the QRS interval measurement. c. Check the medical record for most recent potassium level. d. Check the chart for the patient's current creatinine level.

C The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patient's health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with AKI, but they would not directly affect the electrocardiogram (ECG). Documentation of the QRS interval is also appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life-threatening dysrhythmias

A patient with acute renal failure (ARF) requires hemodialysis and temporary vascular access is obtained by placing a catheter in the left femoral vein. The nurse will plan to a. restrict the patient's oral protein intake. b. discontinue the retention catheter. c. place the patient on bed rest. d. start continuous pulse oximetry.

C The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry.

Which statement by a 62-year-old patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurse's teaching about management of CKD has been effective? a. "I need to get most of my protein from low-fat dairy products." b. "I will increase my intake of fruits and vegetables to 5 per day." c. "I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink." d. "I need to take erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection."

C The patient with end-stage kidney disease is taught to measure urine output as a means of determining an appropriate oral fluid intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase the red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD.

After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a 54-year-old patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient about normal AVG function. b. Remind the patient to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet. c. Report the patient's symptoms to the health care provider. d. Elevate the patient's arm on pillows to above the heart level.

C The patient's complaints suggest the development of distal ischemia (steal syndrome) and may require revision of the AVG. Elevation of the arm above the heart will further decrease perfusion. Pain and coolness are not normal after AVG insertion. Aspirin therapy is not used to maintain grafts

A client with renal failure is undergoing continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate for this client? a) Impaired urinary elimination b) Toileting self-care deficit c) Risk for infection d) Activity intolerance

C The peritoneal dialysis catheter and regular exchanges of the dialysis bag provide a direct portal for bacteria to enter the body. If the client experiences repeated peritoneal infections, continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis may no longer be effective in clearing waste products. Impaired urinary elimination, Toileting self-care deficit, and Activity intolerance may be pertinent but are secondary to the risk of infection.

A true statement describing the differences in the pediatric genitourinary system compared with the adult genitourinary system is that a. The young infant's kidneys can more effectively concentrate urine than an adult's kidneys. b. After 6 years of age, kidney function is nearly like that of an adult. c. Unlike adults, most children do not regain normal kidney function after acuterenal failure. d. Young children have shorter urethras, which can predispose them to UTIs.

To assess the patency of a newly placed arteriovenous graft for dialysis, the nurse should Select all that apply a. monitor the BP in the affected arm b. irrigate the graft daily with low-dose heparin c. palpate the area of the graft to feel a normal thrill d. listen with a stethoscope over the graft to detect a bruit e. frequently monitor the pulses and neurovascular status distal to the graft

CDE

The patient with CKD is considering whether to use PD or HD. What are advantages of PD when compared to HD? Select all that apply a. less protein loss b. rapid fluid removal c. less cardiovascular stress d. decreased hyperlipidemia e. requires fewer dietary restrictions

An 83-year-old female patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not beenable to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI inthis patient (select all that apply)? a. Anaphylaxis b. Renal calculi c. Hypovolemia d. Nephrotoxic drugs e. Decreased cardiac output

CE Because the patient has had nothing to eat or drink for 2 days, she is probably dehydrated and hypovolemic. Decreased cardiac output (CO) is most likely because she is older and takes heart medicine, which is probably for heart failure or hypertension. Both hypovolemia and decreased CO cause prerenal AKI. Anaphylaxis is also a cause of prerenal AKI but is not likely in this situation. Nephrotoxic drugs would contribute to intrarenal causes of AKI and renal calculi would be a postrenal cause of AKI.

An 83-year-old female patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not been able to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI in this patient (select all that apply)? a. Anaphylaxis b. Renal calculi c. Hypovolemia d. Nephrotoxic drugs e. Decreased cardiac output

CE Because the patient has had nothing to eat or drink for 2 days, she is probably dehydrated and hypovolemic.Decreased cardiac output (CO) is most likely because she is older and takes heart medicine, which is probably for heart failure or hypertension. Both hypovolemia and decreased CO cause prerenal AKI. Anaphylaxis is also a cause of prerenal AKI but is not likely in this situation. Nephrotoxic drugs would contribute to intrarenal causes of AKI and renal calculi would be a postrenal cause of AKI.

The patient with chronic kidney disease is considering whether to use peritoneal dialysis (PD) or hemodialysis (HD).What are advantages of PD when compared to HD (select all that apply)? a. Less protein loss b. Rapid fluid removal c. Less cardiovascular stress d. Decreased hyperlipidemia e. Requires fewer dietary restrictions

CE Peritoneal dialysis is less stressful for the cardiovascular system and requires fewer dietary restrictions. Peritoneal dialysis actually contributes to more protein loss and increased hyperlipidemia. The fluid and creatinine removal are slower with peritoneal dialysis than hemodialysis.

A week after kidney transplantation, a client develops a temperature of 101, the BP is elevated, and there is tenderness over the transplanted kidney. The serum creatinine is rising and urine output is decreased. The x-ray indicates that the transplanted kidney is enlarged. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse anticipates which treatment? a. antibiotic therapy b. peritoneal dialysis c. removal of the transplanted kidney d. increased immunosuppression therapy

An older male patient states that he is having problems starting and stopping his stream of urine and he feels the urgency to void. The best way to assist this patient is to: A) Help him stand to void. B) Place a condom catheter. C) Have him practice Credé's method. D) Initiate Kegel exercises.

In the oliguric phase of renal failure, what is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis? a) fluid volume deficit b) activity intolerance c) ineffective breathing pattern d) fluid volume excess

A HD client with a left arm fistula is at risk for arterial steal syndrome. The nurse should assess for which manifestations of this complication? a. warmth, redness, and pain in the left hand b. ecchymosis and audible bruit over the fistula c. edema and reddish discoloration of the left arm d. pallor, diminished pulse, and pain in the left hand

A child with secondary enuresis who complains of dysuria or urgency should be evaluated for which condition? a. Hypocalciuria b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Glomerulonephritis d. UTI

A client has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in place in the right upper extremity for hemodialysis treatments. When planning care for this client, which of the following measures should the nurse implement to promote client safely? a. take blood pressures only on the right arm to ensure accuracy b. use the fistula for all venipunctures and intravenous infusions c. ensure that small clamps are attached to the AV fistula dressing d. assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and thrill every 4 hours

A client undergoing long term PD at home is currently experiencing a reduced outflow from the dialysis catheter. To determine if the catheter is obstructed, the nurse should inquire whether the client has a. diarrhea b. vomiting c. flatulence d. constipation

A nurse is teaching a client who has chronic kidney disease and is to begin hemodialysis. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? a. hemodialysis restores kidney function b. hemodialysis replaces hormonal function of the renal system c. hemodialysis allows an unrestricted diet d. hemodialysis returns a balance to blood electrolytes

A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should first a. reposition the patient. b. massage the patients legs. c. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). d. infuse a bolus of normal saline.

A patient rapidly progressing toward ESRD asks about the possibility of a kidney transplant. In responding to the patient, the nurse knows that what is a contraindication to kidney transplantation? a. hepatitis C infection b. coronary artery disease c. refractory hypertension d. extensive vascular disease

A patient with a 25-year history of type 1 diabetes mellitus is reporting fatigue, edema, and an irregular heartbeat. On assessment, the nurse notes newly developed hypertension and uncontrolled blood sugars. Which diagnostic study is most indicative of chronic kidney disease (CKD)? a. Serum creatinine b. Serum potassium c. Microalbuminuria d. Calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

Which nursing action is essential for a patient immediately after a renal biopsy? a. Check blood glucose to assess for hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. b. Insert a urinary catheter and test urine for gross or microscopic hematuria. c. Monitor the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine to assess renal function. d. Apply a pressure dressing and keep the patient on the affected side for 30 minutes.

D A pressure dressing is applied and the patient is kept on the affected side for 30 to 60 minutes to put pressure on the biopsy side and decrease the risk for bleeding. The blood glucose and BUN/creatinine will not be affected by the biopsy. Although monitoring for hematuria is needed, there is no need for catheterization

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common cause of intrarenal AKI. Which patient is most likely to develop ATN? a. Patient with diabetes mellitus b. Patient with hypertensive crisis c. Patient who tried to overdose on acetaminophen d. Patient with major surgery who required a blood transfusion

D Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is primarily the result of ischemia, nephrotoxins, or sepsis. Major surgery is most likely to cause severe kidney ischemia in the patient requiring a blood transfusion. A blood transfusion hemolytic reaction produces nephrotoxic injury if it occurs.Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and acetaminophen overdose will not contribute to ATN.

The client with an external arteriovenous shunt in place for hemodialysis is at risk for bleeding. The priority nurse action would be to: a. Check the shunt for the presence of bruit and thrill. b. Observe the site once as time permits during the shift. c. Check the results of the prothrombin times as they are determined. d. Ensure that small clamps are attached to the arteriovenous shunt dressing.

D An arteriovenous shunt is a less common form of access site but carries a risk for bleeding when it is used because two ends of an external cannula are tunneled subcutaneously into an artery and a vein, and the ends of the cannula are joined. If accidental disconnection occurs, the client could lose blood rapidly. For this reason, small clamps are attached to the dressing that covers the insertion site for use if needed. The shunt site also should be assessed at least every 4 hours

The client with chronic renal failure is scheduled for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should plan to administer this medication: a. During dialysis. b. Just before dialysis. c. The day after dialysis. d. On return from dialysis.

D Antihypertensive medications such as enalapril are given to the client following hemodialysis. This prevents the client from becoming hypotensive during dialysis and also from having the medication removed from the bloodstream by dialysis. No rationale exists for waiting an entire day to resume the medication. This would lead to ineffective control of the blood pressure.

Which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that the patient's CKD is getting worse? a. Decreased BUN b. Decreased sodium c. Decreased creatinine d. Decreased calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

D As GFR decreases, BUN and serum creatinine levels increase. Although elevated BUN and creatinine indicate that waste products are accumulating, the calculated GFR is considered a more accurate indicator of kidney function than BUN or serum creatinine.

The nurse is assessing a dialysis patient who is asking to receive continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) instead of hemodialysis. Which of the following complications of CAPD will the nurse review with the client? a. hypercalcemia b. hypertension c. hyponatremia d. hypotension

D Clients on CAPD have a more normal lifestyle than do clients on either hemodialysis or peritoneal dialysis. Complications associated with CAPD include peritonitis, hypotension, and weight gain.

The client newly diagnosed with chronic renal failure recently has begun hemodialysis. Knowing that the client is at risk for disequilibrium syndrome, the nurse assesses the client during dialysis for: a. Hypertension, tachycardia, and fever. b. Hypotension, bradycardia, and hypothermia. c. Restlessness, irritability, and generalized weakness. d. Headache, deteriorating level of consciousness, and twitching.

D Disequilibrium syndrome is characterized by headache, mental confusion, decreasing level of consciousness, nausea, vomiting, twitching, and possible seizure activity. Disequilibrium syndrome is caused by rapid removal of solutes from the body during hemodialysis. At the same time, the blood-brain barrier interferes with the efficient removal of wastes from brain tissue. As a result, water goes into cerebral cells because of the osmotic gradient, causing brain swelling and onset of symptoms. The syndrome most often occurs in clients who are new to dialysis and is prevented by dialyzing for shorter times or at reduced blood flow rates.

The client reports the regular use of all the following medications. Which one alerts the nurse to the possibility of renal impairment when used consistently? A. Antacids B. Penicillin C. Antihistamine nasal sprays D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

D NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin production and decrease blood flow to the nephrons. They can cause an interstitial nephritis and renal impairment.

A nurse is analyzing the posthemodialysis lab test results for a client with chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse interprets that the dialysis is having an expected but nontherapeutic effect if the results indicate a decreased: a. Phosphorus. b. Creatinine. c. Potassium. d. Red blood cell count

D Hemodialysis typically lowers the amounts of fluid, sodium, potassium, urea nitrogen, creatinine, uric acid, magnesium, and phosphate levels in the blood. Hemodialysis also worsens anemia, because RBCs are lost in dialysis from blood sampling and anticoagulation during the procedure, and from residual blood that is left in the dialyzer. Although all of these results are expected, only the lowered RBC count is nontherapeutic and worsens the anemia already caused by the disease process.

While caring for the patient in the oliguric phase of AKI, the nurse monitors the patient for associated collaborative problems. When should the nurse notify the health care provider? a. Urine output is 300 mL/day. b. Edema occurs in the feet, legs, and sacral area. c. Cardiac monitor reveals a depressed T wave and elevated ST segment. d. The patient experiences increasing muscle weakness and abdominal cramping.

D Hyperkalemia is a potentially life-threateningcomplication of AKI in the oliguric phase. Muscle weakness and abdominal cramping are signs of the neuromuscular impairment that occurs with hyperkalemia. In addition, hyperkalemia can cause the cardiac conduction abnormalities of peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, prolonged QRS interval, and depressed ST segment. Urine output of 300 mL/day is expected during the oliguric phase, as is the development of peripheral edema.

What indicates to the nurse that a patient with oliguria has prerenal oliguria? a. Urine testing reveals a low specific gravity. b. Causative factor is malignant hypertension. c. Urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration. d. Reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement.

D In prerenal oliguria, the oliguria is caused by a decreasein circulating blood volume and there is no damageyet to the renal tissue. It can be reversed by correcting the precipitating factor, such as fluid replacement for hypovolemia. Prerenal oliguria is characterized by urine with a high specific gravity and a low sodium concentration, whereas oliguria of intrarenal failure is characterized by urine with a low specific gravity and a high sodium concentration. Malignant hypertension causes damage to renal tissue and intrarenal oliguria.

What accurately describes the care of the patient with CKD? a. A nutrient that is commonly supplemented for the patient on dialysis because it is dialyzable is iron. b. The syndrome that includes all of the signs and symptoms seen in the various body systems in CKD is azotemia. c. The use of morphine is contraindicated in the patient with CKD because accumulation of its metabolites maycause seizures. d. The use of calcium-based phosphate binders in the patient with CKD is contraindicated when serum calcium levels are increased.

D In the patient with CKD, when serum calcium levels are increased, calcium-based phosphate binders are not used. The nutrient supplemented for patients on dialysis is folic acid. The various body system manifestations occur with uremia, which includes azotemia. Meperidine is contraindicated in patients with CKD related to possible seizures.

When working in the urology/nephrology clinic, which patient could the nurse delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Patient who is scheduled for a renal biopsy after a recent kidney transplant b. Patient who will need monitoring for several hours after a renal arteriogram c. Patient who requires teaching about possible post-cystoscopy complications d. Patient who will have catheterization to check for residual urine after voiding

D LPN/LVN education includes common procedures such as catheterization of stable patients. The other patients require more complex assessments and/or patient teaching that are included in registered nurse (RN) education and scope of practice.

In caring for the patient with AKI, what should the nurse be aware of? a. The most common cause of death in AKI is irreversible metabolic acidosis. b. During the oliguric phase of AKI, daily fluid intake is limited to 1000 mL plus the prior day's measured fluid loss. c. Dietary sodium and potassium during the oliguric phase of AKI are managed according to the patient's urinaryoutput. d. One of the most important nursing measures in managing fluid balance in the patient with AKI is taking accuratedaily weights.

D Measuring daily weights with the same scale at the same time each day allows for the evaluation and detection of excessive body fluid gains or losses. Infection is the leading cause of death in AKI, so meticulous aseptic technique is critical. The fluid limitation in the oliguric phase is 600 mL plus the prior day's measured fluid loss. Dietary sodium and potassium intake are managed according to the plasma levels.

After teaching a group of students about how to perform peritoneal dialysis, which statement would indicate to the instructor that the students need additional teaching? a) "The effluent should be allowed to drain by gravity." b) "It is important to use strict aseptic technique." c) "The infusion clamp should be open during infusion." d) "It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave."

D The dialysate should be warmed in a commercial warmer and never in a microwave oven. Strict aseptic technique is essential. The infusion clamp is opened during the infusion and clamped after the infusion. When the dwell time is done, the drain clamp is opened and the fluid is allowed to drain by gravity into the drainage bag.

A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis? a) Perform deep-breathing exercises vigorously. b) Avoid carrying heavy items. c) Auscultate the lungs frequently. d) Wear a mask when performing exchanges.

D The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.

A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is started on hemodialysis, and after the first treatment, the patient complains of nausea and a headache. The nurse notes mild jerking and twitching of the patient's extremities. The nurse will anticipate the need to a. increase the time for the next dialysis to remove wastes more completely. b. switch to continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) to improve dialysis efficiency. c. administer medications to control these symptoms before the next dialysis. d. slow the rate for the next dialysis to decrease the speed of solute removal.

D The patient has symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome, which can be prevented by slowing the rate of dialysis so that fewer solutes are removed during the dialysis. Increasing the time of the dialysis to remove wastes more completely will increase the risk for disequilibrium syndrome. CRRT is a less efficient means of removing wastes and, because it is continuous, would not be used for a patient with CKD. Administration of medications to control the symptoms is not an appropriate action; rather, the disequilibrium syndrome should be avoided.

After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange b. Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level c. Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L d. Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis and has a heart rate of 124/min

D The patient who is tachycardic after hemodialysis may be bleeding or excessively hypovolemic and should be assessed immediately for these complications. The other patients also need assessments or interventions but are not at risk for life-threatening complications

A client with chronic renal failure who is not receiving dialysis is suffering from uremia. What nutrient will the nurse tell this client to limit in an attempt to control the uremia? a. carbohydrate b. potassium c. magnesium d. protein

D Uremia is a condition in which protein wastes that should normally have been excreted are instead circulating in the blood. The diet may limit protein to as little as 40 grams a day for predialysis clients.

Which of the following may be included in the diet of the client with chronic renal failure? a) orange slices b) watermelon slices c) cantaloupe slices d) apple slices

D the client with renal failure should be given low potassium diet because of hyperkalemia. Apple contains very little potassium. So, it can be given to the client.

A child with secondary enuresis who complains of dysuria or urgency should be evaluatedfor what condition? Select all that apply. a. Hypocalciuria b. Nephrotic syndrome c. Glomerulonephritis d. UTI e. Diabetes mellitus

What indicates to the nurse that a patient with AKI is in the recovery phase? a. A return to normal weight b. A urine output of 3700 mL/day c. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels d. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels remain high during the oliguric and diuretic phases ofAKI. The recovery phase begins when the glomerular filtration returns to a rate at which BUN and creatinine stabilize and then decrease. Urinary output of 3 to 5 L/day, decreasing sodium and potassium levels, and fluid weight loss are characteristic of the diuretic phase of AKI.

Capstone: Renal (NCLEX)

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