Cardiac

To auscultate for S3 or S4 gallops in the mitral area, the nurse listens with the a. bell of the stethoscope with the patient in the left lateral position. b. diaphragm of the stethoscope with the patient in a supine position. c. bell of the stethoscope with the patient sitting and leaning forward. d. diaphragm of the stethoscope with the patient lying flat on the left side.

A. bell of the stethoscope with the patient in the left lateral position.

While listening at the mitral area, the nurse notes abnormal heart sounds at the patients fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. a. S3 gallop heard at the aortic area b. Systolic murmur noted at mitral area c. Diastolic murmur noted at tricuspid area d. Pericardial friction rub heard at the apex

B. Systolic murmur noted at mitral area

Which laboratory finding is consistent with acute coronary syndrome (ACS)?

Troponin 3.2 ng/mL (3.2 mcg/L)

A client presents to the emergency department with a severely lacerated artery. What is the priority action for the nurse?a. Administer oxygen via non-rebreather mask.b. Ensure the client has a patent airway. c. Prepare to assist with suturing the artery.d. Start two large-bore IVs with normal saline.

b

The nurse is evaluating a 3-day diet history with a client who has an elevated lipid panel. What meal selection indicates that the client is managing this condition well with diet? a. A 4-ounce steak, French fries, iceberg lettuce b. Baked chicken breast, broccoli, tomatoes c. Fried catfish, cornbread, peas d. Spaghetti with meat sauce, garlic bread

b

A nurse cares for a client who has a heart rate averaging 56 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification would the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate? a. "Make certain that your bath water is warm." b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement." c. "Limit your intake of caffeinated drinks to one a day." d. "Avoid strenuous exercise such as running."

b. "Avoid straining while having a bowel movement."

What nonpharmacologic comfort measures would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client with severe varicose veins? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering mild analgesics for pain b. Applying elastic compression stockings c. Elevating the legs when sitting or lying d. Reminding the client to do leg exercises e. Teaching the client about surgical options f. Encouraging participation in high impact aerobic activity

bcd

A nurse assesses a client who is diagnosed with infective endocarditis. Which assessment findings should the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Weight gain b. Night sweats c. Cardiac murmur d. Abdominal bloating e. Oslers nodes

bce

After teaching a client who is recovering from a heart transplant to change positions slowly, the client asks, "Why is this important?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Rapid position changes can create shear and friction forces, which can tear out your internal vascular sutures." b. "Your new vascular connections are more sensitive to position changes, leading to increased intravascular pressure and dizziness." c. "Your new heart is not connected to the nervous system and is unable to respond to decreases in blood pressure caused by position changes." d. "While your heart is recovering, blood flow is diverted away from the brain, increasing the risk for stroke when you stand up."

c

A nurse assesses an older adult client who has multiple chronic diseases. The client's heart rate is 48 beats/min. What action would the nurse take first? a. Document the finding in the chart. b. Initiate external pacing. c. Assess the client's medications. d. Administer 1 mg of atropine.

c. Assess the client's medications.

A nurse assesses a client 2 hours after a cardiac angiography via the left femoral artery. The nurse notes that the left pedal pulse is weak. What action would the nurse take next? a. Elevate the leg and apply a sandbag to the entrance site. b. Increase the flow rate of intravenous fluids. c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg. d. Document the finding as "left pedal pulse of +1/4."

c. Assess the color and temperature of the left leg.

The nurse is assessing a client with a cardiac infection. Which nursing assessment data causes the nurse to suspect infective endocarditis instead of pericarditis or rheumatic carditis? a. Thickening of the endocardiumSplinter hemorrhages are indicative of infective endocarditis. Petechiae (pinpoint red spots) occur in many clients with endocarditis. Splinter hemorrhages appear as black longitudinal lines or small red streaks along the distal third of the nail bed.Friction rub in the left lower sternal border and pain aggravated by breathing, coughing, and swallowing are signs and symptoms indicative of chronic constrictive pericarditis. Thickening of the endocardium is indicative of rheumatic carditis. b. Pain aggravated by breathing, coughing, and swallowingSplinter hemorrhages are indicative of infective endocarditis. Petechiae (pinpoint red spots) occur in many clients with endocarditis. Splinter hemorrhages appear as black longitudinal lines or small red streaks along the distal third of the nail bed.Friction rub in the left lower sternal border and pain aggravated by breathing, coughing, and swallowing are signs and symptoms indicative of chronic constrictive pericarditis. Thickening of the endocardium is indicative of rheumatic carditis. c. Splinter hemorrhagesSplinter hemorrhages are indicative of infective endocarditis. Petechiae (pinpoint red spots) occur in many clients with endocarditis. Splinter hemorrhages appear as black longitudinal lines or small red streaks along the distal third of the nail bed.Friction rub in the left lower sternal border and pain aggravated by breathing, coughing, and swallowing are signs and symptoms indicative of chronic constrictive pericarditis. Thickening of the endocardium is indicative of rheumatic carditis. d. Friction rub auscultated at the left lower sternal borderSplinter hemorrhages are indicative of infective endocarditis. Petechiae (pinpoint red spots) occur in many clients with endocarditis. Splinter hemorrhages appear as black longitudinal lines or small red streaks along the distal third of the nail bed.Friction rub in the left lower sternal border and pain aggravated by breathing, coughing, and swallowing are signs and symptoms indicative of chronic constrictive pericarditis. Thickening of the endocardium is indicative of rheumatic carditis.

c. Splinter hemorrhages Splinter hemorrhages are indicative of infective endocarditis. Petechiae (pinpoint red spots) occur in many clients with endocarditis. Splinter hemorrhages appear as black longitudinal lines or small red streaks along the distal third of the nail bed.Friction rub in the left lower sternal border and pain aggravated by breathing, coughing, and swallowing are signs and symptoms indicative of chronic constrictive pericarditis. Thickening of the endocardium is indicative of rheumatic carditis.

A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed digoxin therapy. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Avoid taking aspirin or aspirin-containing products." b. "Increase your intake of foods that are high in potassium." c. "Hold this medication if your pulse rate is below 80 beats/min." d. "Do not take this medication within 1 hour of taking an antacid."

d

An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client should the nurse plan to assess first?

d. A 58-year-old male who describes his pain as intense stabbing that spreads across his chest

The nurse is caring for a client who experienced a recent cardiac event. Which client statement indicates maladaptive denial?

"I don't need to change. It hasn't killed me yet."

A client who is to undergo cardiac catheterization must be taught which essential information by the nurse?

"Keep your affected leg straight for 2 to 6 hours."

Which assessment data will the nurse associate with suspected pericarditis? (Select all that apply.)

-Sudden-onset chest pain relieved by anti-inflammatory agents. -Chest pain relieved by sitting upright. -Pain in the chest described as sharp or stabbing.

The nurse hears a murmur between the S1 and S2 heart sounds at the patients left fifth intercostal space and midclavicular line. How will the nurse record this information? a. Systolic murmur heard at mitral area b. Systolic murmur heard at Erbs point c. Diastolic murmur heard at aortic area d. Diastolic murmur heard at the point of maximal impulse

A. Systolic murmur heard at mitral area

The nurse is teaching a class on diagnostic cardiovascular testing. Which teaching will the nurse include?

An alternative to injecting a medium into the coronary arteries is intravascular ultrasonography.

The nurse is assessing a client with right-sided heart failure. What assessment findings will the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) a. OliguriaRight-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion; producing signs such as peripheral edema, ascites, liver enlargement, and neck vein distension. Left-sided heart failure is associated with pulmonary congestion and can produce shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue, oliguria, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop). b. AscitesRight-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion; producing signs such as peripheral edema, ascites, liver enlargement, and neck vein distension. Left-sided heart failure is associated with pulmonary congestion and can produce shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue, oliguria, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop). c. Pulmonary congestionRight-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion; producing signs such as peripheral edema, ascites, liver enlargement, and neck vein distension. Left-sided heart failure is associated with pulmonary congestion and can produce shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue, oliguria, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop). d. Peripheral edemaRight-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion; producing signs such as peripheral edema, ascites, liver enlargement, and neck vein distension. Left-sided heart failure is associated with pulmonary congestion and can produce shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue, oliguria, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop). d. Shortness of breathRight-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion; producing signs such as peripheral edema, ascites, liver enlargement, and neck vein distension. Left-sided heart failure is associated with pulmonary congestion and can produce shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue, oliguria, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop). Third heart soundRight-sided heart failure is associated with increased systemic venous pressure and congestion; producing signs such as peripheral edema, ascites, liver enlargement, and neck vein distension. Left-sided heart failure is associated with pulmonary congestion and can produce shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue, oliguria, and a third heart sound (S3 gallop).

Ascites Peripheral edema liver enlargement neck vein distention

A registered nurse (RN) is observing a student nurse who is doing a physical assessment on a patient. The RN will need to intervene immediately if the student nurse a. presses on the skin over the tibia for 10 seconds to check for edema. b. palpates both carotid arteries simultaneously to compare pulse quality. c. documents a murmur heard along the right sternal border as a pulmonic murmur. d. places the patient in the left lateral position to check for the point of maximal impulse.

B. palpates both carotid arteries simultaneously to compare pulse quality.

Which information obtained by the nurse who is admitting the patient for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will be most important to report to the health care provider before the MRI? a. The patient has an allergy to shellfish. b. The patient has a history of atherosclerosis. c. The patient has a permanent ventricular pacemaker. d. The patient took all the prescribed cardiac medications today.

C. The patient has a permanent ventricular pacemaker.

To determine the effects of therapy for a patient who is being treated for heart failure, which laboratory result will the nurse plan to review? a. Troponin b. Homocysteine (Hcy) c. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) d. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

D. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

A client with heart failure reports a 7.6-lb (3.4 kg) weight gain in the past week. What intervention does the nurse anticipate from the primary health care provider?

Daily weight monitoring

A client who is suffering from dyspnea on exertion and heart failure (HF) will most likely report which symptom during the health history?

Fatigue

Which nursing statement reflects appropriate cardiac physical assessment technique?

I will auscultate the aortic valve in the second intercostal space at the right sternal border."

Which client has the highest risk for cardiovascular disease?

Man who smokes and whose father died at 49 of myocardial infarction (MI).

Which action will the nurse delegate to experienced assistive personnel (AP) working in the cardiac catheterization laboratory?

Obtain client vital signs and a resting electrocardiogram (ECG).

A client recovering from cardiac angiography develops slurred speech. What will the nurse do first?

Perform a neurologic assessment and notify the primary care provider.

The nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client admitted with heart failure. Which laboratory result warrants a call to the primary health care provider by the nurse for further instructions?

Potassium 3.0 mEq/L (3.0 mmol/L)

Which client assessment data is most consistent with cardiac pain requiring the nurse to notify the primary health care provider?

Reports of pressure in the upper abdomen and sternum and diaphoresis

The nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of electrophysiology studies (EPS). Which teaching will the nurse include?

This test evaluates you for potentially fatal cardiac rhythms

A client has been admitted to the hospital with chest pain radiating down the left arm. Which test result best confirms that the client sustained a myocardial infarction (MI)?

Troponin of 5.2 ng/mL (5.2 mcg/L)

The nurse is assessing a client with mitral stenosis who is to undergo a transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) today. Which nursing action is essential?

Validate that the client has remained NPO

The nurse is educating a group of women about the differences in symptoms of myocardial infarction (MI) in men versus women. Which teaching will the nurse include?

Women may experience extreme fatigue and dizziness as sole symptoms.

A client had a femoral-popliteal bypass graft with a synthetic graft. What action by the nurse is most important to prevent wound infection? a. Appropriate hand hygiene before giving care b. Assessing the client's temperature every 4 hours c. Clean technique when changing dressings d. Monitoring the client's daily white blood cell count

a

A client had a percutaneous angioplasty for renovascular hypertension 3 months ago. What assessment finding by the nurse indicates that an important outcome for this client has been met? a. Client is able to decrease blood pressure medications. b. Insertion site has healed without redness or tenderness. c. Most recent lab data show BUN: 19 mg/dL and creatinine 1.1 mg/dL. d. Verbalizes understanding of postprocedure lifestyle changes.

a

A client has been diagnosed with a deep vein thrombosis and is to be discharged on warfarin. The client is adamant about refusing the drug because "it's dangerous." What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the reason behind the client's fear. b. Remind the client about laboratory monitoring. c. Tell the client that drugs are safer today than before. d. Warn the client about consequences of noncompliance.

a

A client has peripheral arterial disease (PAD). What statement by the client indicates misunderstanding about self-management activities? a. "I can use a heating pad on my legs if it's set on low." b. "I should not cross my legs when sitting or lying down." c. "I will go out and buy some warm, heavy socks to wear." d. "It's going to be really hard but I will stop smoking."

a

A client is taking warfarin and asks the nurse if taking St. John's wort is acceptable. What response by the nurse is best? a. "No, it may interfere with the warfarin." b. "There isn't any information about that." c. "Why would you want to take that?" d. "Yes, it is a good supplement for you."

a

A client with a history of heart failure and hypertension is in the clinic for a follow-up visit. The client is on lisinopril and warfarin. The client reports new-onset cough. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Assess the client's lung sounds and oxygenation. b. Instruct the client on another antihypertensive. c. Obtain a set of vital signs and document them. d. Remind the client that cough is a side effect of lisinopril.

a

A nurse admits a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. What action would the nurse take first? a. Assess the client's respiratory status. b. Draw blood to assess the client's serum electrolytes. c. Administer intravenous furosemide. d. Ask the client about current medications.

a

A nurse cares for a client with infective endocarditis. Which infection control precautions would the nurse use? a. Standard Precautions b. Bleeding Precautions c. Reverse isolation d. Contact isolation

a

A nurse cares for a client with right-sided heart failure. The client asks, "Why do I need to weigh myself every day?" How would the nurse respond? a. "Weight is the best indication that you are gaining or losing fluid." b. "Daily weights will help us make sure that you're eating properly." c. "The hospital requires that all clients be weighed daily." d. "You need to lose weight to decrease the incidence of heart failure."

a

A nurse cares for an older adult client with heart failure. The client states, "I don't know what to do. I don't want to be a burden to my daughter, but I can't do it alone. Maybe I should die." What is the best response by the nurse? a. "I can stay if you would you like to talk more about this." b. "You are lucky to have such a devoted daughter." c. "It is normal to feel as though you are a burden." d. "Would you like to meet with the chaplain?"

a

A nurse is assessing a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The client states that walking five blocks is possible without pain. What question asked next by the nurse will give the best information? a. "Could you walk further than that a few months ago?" b. "Do you walk mostly uphill, downhill, or on flat surfaces?" c. "Have you ever considered swimming instead of walking?" d. "How much pain medication do you take each day?"

a

A nurse is caring for a client with a nonhealing arterial lower leg ulcer. What action by the nurse is best? a. Consult with the wound care nurse. b. Give pain medication prior to dressing changes. c. Maintain sterile technique for dressing changes. d. Prepare the client for eventual amputation.

a

A nurse is interested in providing community education and screening on hypertension. In order to reach a priority population, to what target audience would the nurse provide this service? a. African-American churches b. Asian-American groceries c. High school sports camps d. Women's health clinics

a

A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure who has been prescribed enalapril. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Avoid using salt substitutes." b. "Take your medication with food." c. "Avoid using aspirin-containing products." d. "Check your pulse daily."

a

A nurse is teaching a female client about alcohol intake and how it affects hypertension. The client asks if drinking two beers a night is an acceptable intake. What answer by the nurse is best? a. "No, women should only have one beer a day as a general rule." b. "No, you should not drink any alcohol with hypertension." c. "Yes, since you are larger, you can have more alcohol." d. "Yes, two beers per day is an acceptable amount of alcohol."

a

A nurse is working with a client who takes atorvastatin (Lipitor). The clients recent laboratory results include a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the client eats grapefruit.b. Assess the client for dehydration. c. Facilitate admission to the hospital. d. Obtain a random urinalysis.

a

A nurse is working with a client who takes clopidogrel. The client's recent laboratory results include a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 33 mg/dL and creatinine of 2.8 mg/dL. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the client eats grapefruit. b. Assess the client for dehydration. c. Facilitate admission to the hospital. d. Obtain a random urinalysis.

a

The nurse is assessing a client on admission to the hospital. The client's leg appears as shown below: What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's ankle-brachial index. b. Elevate the client's leg above the heart. c. Obtain an ice pack to provide comfort. d. Prepare to teach about heparin sodium.

a

The nurse is caring for four hypertensive clients. Which drug-laboratory value combination would the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Furosemide/potassium: 2.1 mEq/L b. Hydrochlorothiazide/potassium: 4.2 mEq/L c. Spironolactone/potassium: 5.1 mEq/L d. Torsemide/sodium: 142 mEq/L

a

While assessing a client on a cardiac unit, a nurse identifies the presence of an S3 gallop. What action would the nurse take next? a. Assess for symptoms of left-sided heart failure. b. Document this as a normal finding. c. Call the primary health care provider immediately. d. Transfer the client to the intensive care unit.

a

An emergency department nurse obtains the health history of a client. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the occurrence of heart failure? a. "I get short of breath when I climb stairs." b. "I see halos floating around my head." c. "I have trouble remembering things." d. "I have lost weight over the past month."

a. "I get short of breath when I climb stairs

A nurse assesses a client who had a myocardial infarction and has a blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg. Which additional assessment finding would the nurse expect? a. Heart rate of 120 beats/min b. Cool, clammy skin c. Oxygen saturation of 90% d. Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min

a. . Heart rate of 120 beats/min

A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which client would the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for the development of left-sided heart failure? a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis b. A 42-year-old man with pulmonary hypertension c. A 59-year-old woman who smokes cigarettes daily d. A 70-year-old man who had a cerebral vascular accident

a. A 36-year-old woman with aortic stenosis

For a client with an 8-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm, which assessment data must be addressed immediately? a. Blood pressure (BP) 192/102 mm HgThe problem that must be addressed immediately in a client with an 8-cm abdominal aneurysm is a BP of 192/102 mm Hg. Elevated blood pressure can increase the rate of aneurysmal enlargement and risk for early rupture.The nurse must consider the client's usual pulse. However, bradycardia does not pose a risk for aneurysm rupture. Straining at stool can elevate blood pressure and pose a risk for dissection. However, a potential problem would not be addressed before an actual problem. Anxiety may be benign or may be a symptom of something serious. However, the elevated blood pressure is an immediate risk. b. Report of constipationThe problem that must be addressed immediately in a client with an 8-cm abdominal aneurysm is a BP of 192/102 mm Hg. Elevated blood pressure can increase the rate of aneurysmal enlargement and risk for early rupture.The nurse must consider the client's usual pulse. However, bradycardia does not pose a risk for aneurysm rupture. Straining at stool can elevate blood pressure and pose a risk for dissection. However, a potential problem would not be addressed before an actual problem. Anxiety may be benign or may be a symptom of something serious. However, the elevated blood pressure is an immediate risk. c. AnxietyThe problem that must be addressed immediately in a client with an 8-cm abdominal aneurysm is a BP of 192/102 mm Hg. Elevated blood pressure can increase the rate of aneurysmal enlargement and risk for early rupture.The nurse must consider the client's usual pulse. However, bradycardia does not pose a risk for aneurysm rupture. Straining at stool can elevate blood pressure and pose a risk for dissection. However, a potential problem would not be addressed before an actual problem. Anxiety may be benign or may be a symptom of something serious. However, the elevated blood pressure is an immediate risk. d. Heart rate 52 beats/minThe problem that must be addressed immediately in a client with an 8-cm abdominal aneurysm is a BP of 192/102 mm Hg. Elevated blood pressure can increase the rate of aneurysmal enlargement and risk for early rupture.The nurse must consider the client's usual pulse. However, bradycardia does not pose a risk for aneurysm rupture. Straining at stool can elevate blood pressure and pose a risk for dissection. However, a potential problem would not be addressed before an actual problem. Anxiety may be benign or may be a symptom of something serious. However, the elevated blood pressure is an immediate risk.

a. Blood pressure (BP) 192/102 mm Hg

The nurse is teaching a client with peripheral arterial disease. What teaching will the nurse include? a. "Walk to the point of leg pain, then rest, resuming when pain stops."The teaching point the nurse include for a client with PAD is walk to the point of leg pain, rest, and then resume when pain stops. Exercise may improve arterial blood flow by building collateral circulation. Instruct the client to walk until the point of claudication, stop and rest, and then walk a little farther.Elevating the legs in PAD decreases blood flow and increases ischemia. Brown discoloration around the ankles is characteristic of venous disease. Application of heat must be avoided in clients with PAD due to a lack of sensation and possible burns to the legs. b. "Inspect your legs daily for brownish discoloration around the ankles."The teaching point the nurse include for a client with PAD is walk to the point of leg pain, rest, and then resume when pain stops. Exercise may improve arterial blood flow by building collateral circulation. Instruct the client to walk until the point of claudication, stop and rest, and then walk a little farther.Elevating the legs in PAD decreases blood flow and increases ischemia. Brown discoloration around the ankles is characteristic of venous disease. Application of heat must be avoided in clients with PAD due to a lack of sensation and possible burns to the legs. c. "Apply a heating pad to the legs if they feel cold."The teaching point the nurse include for a client with PAD is walk to the point of leg pain, rest, and then resume when pain stops. Exercise may improve arterial blood flow by building collateral circulation. Instruct the client to walk until the point of claudication, stop and rest, and then walk a little farther.Elevating the legs in PAD decreases blood flow and increases ischemia. Brown discoloration around the ankles is characteristic of venous disease. Application of heat must be avoided in clients with PAD due to a lack of sensation and possible burns to the legs. d. "Elevate your legs above heart level to prevent swelling."The teaching point the nurse include for a client with PAD is walk to the point of leg pain, rest, and then resume when pain stops. Exercise may improve arterial blood flow by building collateral circulation. Instruct the client to walk until the point of claudication, stop and rest, and then walk a little farther.Elevating the legs in PAD decreases blood flow and increases ischemia. Brown discoloration around the ankles is characteristic of venous disease. Application of heat must be avoided in clients with PAD due to a lack of sensation and possible burns to the legs. Question

a. "Walk to the point of leg pain, then rest, resuming when pain stops."

The nurse caring for a client with heart failure who is taking digoxin. What assessment data requires that nurse notify the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. AnorexiaThe signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity that the nurse notifies the provider include: blurred vision, fatigue, and anorexia. Changes in mental status, especially in older adults, may also occur.Sinus bradycardia and not tachycardia is a sign of digoxin toxicity. A serum digoxin level between 0.8 and 2.0 (1.02 and 2.56 nmol/L) is considered normal and is not a symptom. b. Blurred visionThe signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity that the nurse notifies the provider include: blurred vision, fatigue, and anorexia. Changes in mental status, especially in older adults, may also occur.Sinus bradycardia and not tachycardia is a sign of digoxin toxicity. A serum digoxin level between 0.8 and 2.0 (1.02 and 2.56 nmol/L) is considered normal and is not a symptom. c. Fatigue The signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity that the nurse notifies the provider include: blurred vision, fatigue, and anorexia. Changes in mental status, especially in older adults, may also occur.Sinus bradycardia and not tachycardia is a sign of digoxin toxicity. A serum digoxin level between 0.8 and 2.0 (1.02 and 2.56 nmol/L) is considered normal and is not a symptom. d. Heart rate 110/beats/minThe signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity that the nurse notifies the provider include: blurred vision, fatigue, and anorexia. Changes in mental status, especially in older adults, may also occur.Sinus bradycardia and not tachycardia is a sign of digoxin toxicity. A serum digoxin level between 0.8 and 2.0 (1.02 and 2.56 nmol/L) is considered normal and is not a symptom. e. Serum digoxin level of 1.5 ng/mL (1.92 nmol/L)The signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity that the nurse notifies the provider include: blurred vision, fatigue, and anorexia. Changes in mental status, especially in older adults, may also occur.Sinus bradycardia and not tachycardia is a sign of digoxin toxicity. A serum digoxin level between 0.8 and 2.0 (1.02 and 2.56 nmol/L) is considered normal and is not a symptom.

a. Anorexia b. Blurred vision c. Fatigue

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What assessment data will the nurse anticipate? (Select all that apply.) CORRECT a. FatigueWhen caring for a client with heart failure, the nurse needs to assess for chest discomfort or pain, tachycardia, and fatigue. Decreased tissue perfusion with heart failure may cause chest pain or angina. Tachycardia may occur as compensation for or as a result of decreased cardiac output. Fatigue is a symptom of poor tissue perfusion in clients with heart failure.Presence of a cough or dyspnea results as pulmonary venous congestion ensues. Clients with acute heart failure have dry cough and, when severe, pink, frothy sputum. Thick, yellow sputum is indicative of infection. Position for sleeping isn't a symptom. Clients usually find it difficult to lie flat because of dyspnea symptoms. b. Sleeping on back without a pillowWhen caring for a client with heart failure, the nurse needs to assess for chest discomfort or pain, tachycardia, and fatigue. Decreased tissue perfusion with heart failure may cause chest pain or angina. Tachycardia may occur as compensation for or as a result of decreased cardiac output. Fatigue is a symptom of poor tissue perfusion in clients with heart failure.Presence of a cough or dyspnea results as pulmonary venous congestion ensues. Clients with acute heart failure have dry cough and, when severe, pink, frothy sputum. Thick, yellow sputum is indicative of infection. Position for sleeping isn't a symptom. Clients usually find it difficult to lie flat because of dyspnea symptoms. c. Chest discomfort or painWhen caring for a client with heart failure, the nurse needs to assess for chest discomfort or pain, tachycardia, and fatigue. Decreased tissue perfusion with heart failure may cause chest pain or angina. Tachycardia may occur as compensation for or as a result of decreased cardiac output. Fatigue is a symptom of poor tissue perfusion in clients with heart failure.Presence of a cough or dyspnea results as pulmonary venous congestion ensues. Clients with acute heart failure have dry cough and, when severe, pink, frothy sputum. Thick, yellow sputum is indicative of infection. Position for sleeping isn't a symptom. Clients usually find it difficult to lie flat because of dyspnea symptoms. d. Tachycardia When caring for a client with heart failure, the nurse needs to assess for chest discomfort or pain, tachycardia, and fatigue. Decreased tissue perfusion with heart failure may cause chest pain or angina. Tachycardia may occur as compensation for or as a result of decreased cardiac output. Fatigue is a symptom of poor tissue perfusion in clients with heart failure.Presence of a cough or dyspnea results as pulmonary venous congestion ensues. Clients with acute heart failure have dry cough and, when severe, pink, frothy sputum. Thick, yellow sputum is indicative of infection. Position for sleeping isn't a symptom. Clients usually find it difficult to lie flat because of dyspnea symptoms. e. Expectorating thick, yellow sputumWhen caring for a client with heart failure, the nurse needs to assess for chest discomfort or pain, tachycardia, and fatigue. Decreased tissue perfusion with heart failure may cause chest pain or angina. Tachycardia may occur as compensation for or as a result of decreased cardiac output. Fatigue is a symptom of poor tissue perfusion in clients with heart failure.Presence of a cough or dyspnea results as pulmonary venous congestion ensues. Clients with acute heart failure have dry cough and, when severe, pink, frothy sputum. Thick, yellow sputum is indicative of infection. Position for sleeping isn't a symptom. Clients usually find it difficult to lie flat because of dyspnea symptoms.

a. Fatigue c. Chest discomfort or pain d. Tachycardia

The nurse is caring for a client who had abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) repair. Which assessment data is most concerning to the nurse? a. Urine output of 20 mL over 2 hoursThe nurse caring for a client who had an AAA repair would be most alarmed with the client's urine output of 20 mL over 2 hours. Complications post AAA stent repair include bleeding, which may manifest as signs of hypovolemia and oliguria.Reduction of systolic blood pressure to 100 to 120 mm Hg is appropriate. Paralytic ileus may be a complication of AAA repair, but is not a priority over decreased urine output. +3 pedal pulses is a normal physical assessment finding. b. Blood pressure of 106/58 mm HgThe nurse caring for a client who had an AAA repair would be most alarmed with the client's urine output of 20 mL over 2 hours. Complications post AAA stent repair include bleeding, which may manifest as signs of hypovolemia and oliguria.Reduction of systolic blood pressure to 100 to 120 mm Hg is appropriate. Paralytic ileus may be a complication of AAA repair, but is not a priority over decreased urine output. +3 pedal pulses is a normal physical assessment finding. c. +3 pedal pulsesThe nurse caring for a client who had an AAA repair would be most alarmed with the client's urine output of 20 mL over 2 hours. Complications post AAA stent repair include bleeding, which may manifest as signs of hypovolemia and oliguria.Reduction of systolic blood pressure to 100 to 120 mm Hg is appropriate. Paralytic ileus may be a complication of AAA repair, but is not a priority over decreased urine output. +3 pedal pulses is a normal physical assessment finding. d. Absent bowel soundsThe nurse caring for a client who had an AAA repair would be most alarmed with the client's urine output of 20 mL over 2 hours. Complications post AAA stent repair include bleeding, which may manifest as signs of hypovolemia and oliguria.Reduction of systolic blood pressure to 100 to 120 mm Hg is appropriate. Paralytic ileus may be a complication of AAA repair, but is not a priority over decreased urine output. +3 pedal pulses is a normal physical assessment finding.

a. Urine output of 20 mL over 2 hours

A nurse is caring for a client with a nonhealing arterial ulcer. The primary health care provider has informed the client about possibly needing to amputate the client's leg. The client is crying and upset. What actions by the nurse are best? (Select all that apply.) a. Ask the client to describe his or her current emotions. b. Assess the client for support systems and family. c. Offer to stay with the client if he or she desires. d. Relate how smoking contributed to this situation. e. Tell the client that many people have amputations. f. Arrange for an amputee to come visit the client.

abc

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a heart transplant. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of heart transplant rejection? (Select all that apply.) a. Shortness of breath b. Abdominal bloating c. New-onset bradycardia d. Increased ejection fraction e. Hypertension f. Fatigue

abcf

A client has been bedridden for several days after major abdominal surgery. What action does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prevention? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply compression stockings. b. Assist with ambulation. c. Encourage coughing and deep breathing. d. Offer fluids frequently. e. Teach leg exercises.

abd

A nurse assesses clients on a cardiac unit. Which clients would the nurse identify as at greatest risk for the development of acute pericarditis? (Select all that apply.) a. A 36-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) b. A 42-year-old man recovering from coronary artery bypass graft surgery c. A 59-year-old woman recovering from a hysterectomy d. An 80-year-old man with a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract e. An 88-year-old woman with a stage III sacral ulcer

abd

A nurse is caring for a client on IV infusion of heparin. What actions does this nurse include in the client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess the client for bleeding. b. Monitor the daily activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) results. c. Stop the IV for aPTT above baseline. d. Use an IV pump for the infusion. e. Weigh the client daily on the same scale.

abd

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Which questions would the nurse ask to ensure this client's safety prior to discharging home? (Select all that apply.) a. "Are your bedroom and bathroom on the first floor?" b. "What social support do you have at home?" c. "Will you be able to afford your oxygen therapy?" d. "What spiritual beliefs may impact your recovery?" e. "Are you able to accurately weigh yourself at home?"

abd

The nurse is reviewing risk factors in a client who has atherosclerosis. Which findings are most concerning? (Select all that apply.) a. Elevated low-density lipoprotein (LDL-C) b. Decreased levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C) c. Asian ethnicity d. History of smoking e. Blood pressure: 142/92 mm Hg on one occasion

abd

A nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. For which clinical manifestations would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Pulmonary crackles b. Confusion c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Dependent edema e. Cough that worsens at night f. Jugular venous distention

abe

A nurse evaluates laboratory results for a client with heart failure. Which results would the nurse expect? (Select all that apply.) a. Hematocrit: 32.8% b. Serum sodium: 130 mEq/L (130 mmol/L) c. Serum potassium: 4.0 mEq/L (4.0 mmol/L) d. Serum creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L) e. Proteinuria f. Microalbuminuria

abef

A nurse collaborates with assistive personnel (AP) to provide care for a client with congestive heart failure. Which instructions would the nurse provide to the AP when delegating care for this client? (Select all that apply.) a. "Reposition the client every 2 hours." b. "Teach the client to perform deep-breathing exercises." c. "Accurately record intake and output." d. "Use the same scale to weigh the client each morning." e. "Place the client on oxygen if the client becomes short of breath."

acd

A client is being discharged on warfarin therapy. What discharge instruction is the nurse required to provide? (Select all that apply.) a. Dietary restrictions b. Driving restrictions c. Follow-up laboratory monitoring d. Possible drug-drug interactions e. Reason to take medication f. Wearing a Medic Alert bracelet

acde

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM). What interprofessional care does the nurse anticipate providing? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering beta blockers b. Administering high-dose furosemide c. Preparing for a cardiac catheterization d. Loading the client on digitalis e. Instructing the client to avoid strenuous exercise f. Teaching the client how to use the CardioMEMSTM

ace

After teaching a client with congestive heart failure (CHF), the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to nutritional intake? (Select all that apply.) a. "I'll read the nutritional labels on food items for salt content." b. "I will drink at least 3 L of water each day." c. "Using salt in moderation will reduce the workload of my heart." d. "I will eat oatmeal for breakfast instead of ham and eggs." e. "Substituting fresh vegetables for canned ones will lower my salt intake." f. "Salt substitutes are a good way to cut down on sodium in my diet."

ade

The nurse working in the emergency department knows that which factors are commonly related to aneurysm formation? (Select all that apply.) a. Atherosclerosis b. Down syndrome c. Frequent heartburn d. History of hypertension e. History of smoking f. Hyperlipidemia

adef

A client has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What comfort measure does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? a. Ambulate the client. b. Apply a warm moist pack. c. Massage the client's leg. d. Provide an ice pack.

b

A client has been diagnosed with hypertension but does not take the antihypertensive medications because of a lack of symptoms. What response by the nurse is best? a. "Do you have trouble affording your medications?" b. "Most people with hypertension do not have symptoms." c. "You are lucky; most people get severe morning headaches." d. "You need to take your medicine or you will get kidney failure."

b

A client has hypertension and high risk factors for cardiovascular disease. The client is overwhelmed with the recommended lifestyle changes. What action by the nurse is best? a. Assess the client's support system. b. Assist in finding one change the client can control. c. Determine what stressors the client faces in daily life. d. Inquire about delegating some of the client's obligations.

b

A client is 4 hours postoperative after a femoral-popliteal bypass. The client reports throbbing leg pain on the affected side, rated as 7/10. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Administer pain medication as ordered. b. Assess distal pulses and skin color. c. Document the findings in the client's chart. d. Notify the surgeon immediately.

b

A client is receiving an infusion of alteplase for an intra-arterial clot. The client begins to mumble and is disoriented. What action by the nurse is most important? a. Assess the client's neurologic status. b. Notify the Rapid Response Team. c. Prepare to administer vitamin K. d. Turn down the infusion rate.

b

A nurse assesses a client admitted to the cardiac unit. Which statement by the client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure? a. "I sleep with four pillows at night." b. "My shoes fit really tight lately." c. "I wake up coughing every night." d. "I have trouble catching my breath."

b

A nurse assesses a client who has a history of heart failure. Which question would the nurse ask to assess the extent of the client's heart failure? a. "Do you have trouble breathing or chest pain?" b. "Are you still able to walk upstairs without fatigue?" c. "Do you awake with breathlessness during the night?" d. "Do you have new-onset heaviness in your legs?"

b

A nurse assesses a client who has mitral valve regurgitation. For which cardiac dysrhythmia would the nurse assess? a. Preventricular contractions b. Atrial fibrillation c. Symptomatic bradycardia d. Sinus tachycardia

b

A nurse assesses a client with mitral valve stenosis. What clinical sign or symptom would alert the nurse to the possibility that the client's stenosis has progressed? a. Oxygen saturation of 92% b. Dyspnea on exertion c. Muted systolic murmur d. Upper extremity weakness

b

A nurse assesses a client with pericarditis. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to find? a. Heart rate that speeds up and slows down. b. Friction rub at the left lower sternal border. c. Presence of a regular gallop rhythm. d. Coarse crackles in bilateral lung bases.

b

A nurse cares for a client recovering from prosthetic valve replacement surgery. The client asks, "Why will I need to take anticoagulants for the rest of my life?" What is the best response by the nurse? a. "The prosthetic valve places you at greater risk for a heart attack." b. "Blood clots form more easily in artificial replacement valves." c. "The vein taken from your leg reduces circulation in the leg." d. "The surgery left a lot of small clots in your heart and lungs."

b

A nurse is caring for a client with a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). What nursing assessment indicates that an important outcome has been met? a. Ambulates with assistance b. Oxygen saturation of 98% c. Pain of 2/10 after medication d. Verbalizing risk factors

b

A nurse is caring for four clients. Which one would the nurse see first? a. Client who needs a beta blocker, and has a blood pressure of 98/58 mm Hg. b. Client who had a first dose of captopril and needs to use the bathroom. c. Hypertensive client with a blood pressure of 188/92 mm Hg. d. Client who needs pain medication prior to a dressing change of a surgical wound.

b

A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client recovering from a heart transplant. Which statement would the nurse include? a. "Use a soft-bristled toothbrush and avoid flossing." b. "Avoid large crowds and people who are sick." c. "Change positions slowly to avoid hypotension." d. "Check your heart rate before taking the medication."

b

A nurse teaches a client with heart failure about energy conservation. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Walk until you become short of breath, and then walk back home." b. "Begin walking 200 feet a day three times a week." c. "Do not lift heavy weights for 6 months." d. "Eat plenty of protein to build your strength."

b

A nurse wants to provide community service that helps meet the goals of Healthy People 2020 (HP2020) related to cardiovascular disease and stroke. What activity would best meet this goal? a. Teach high school students heart-healthy living. b. Participate in blood pressure screenings at the mall. c. Provide pamphlets on heart disease at the grocery store. d. Set up an "Ask the nurse" booth at the pet store.

b

After administering the first dose of captopril to a client with heart failure, the nurse implements interventions to decrease complications. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement? a. Provide food to decrease nausea and aid in absorption. b. Instruct the client to ask for assistance when rising from bed. c. Collaborate with assistive personnel to bathe the client. d. Monitor potassium levels and check for symptoms of hypokalemia.

b

After teaching a client who is being discharged home after mitral valve replacement surgery, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statement indicates a need for additional teaching? a. "I'll be able to carry heavy loads after 6 months of rest." b. "I will have my teeth cleaned by my dentist in 2 weeks." c. "I must avoid eating foods high in vitamin K, like spinach." d. "I must use an electric razor instead of a straight razor to shave."

b

The nurse discusses the importance of restricting sodium in the diet for a client with heart failure. Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching? a. "I won't put the salt shaker on the table anymore."Further teaching about restricting sodium in the diet for a client with heart failure is needed when the client says, "I need to avoid eating hamburgers." Cutting out beef or hamburgers made at home is not necessary, but fast-food hamburgers are to be avoided owing to higher sodium content.Bacon, canned foods, lunchmeats, and processed foods are high in sodium, which promotes fluid retention, and must be avoided. The client correctly understands that adding salt to food must be avoided. b. "I need to avoid eating hamburgers."Further teaching about restricting sodium in the diet for a client with heart failure is needed when the client says, "I need to avoid eating hamburgers." Cutting out beef or hamburgers made at home is not necessary, but fast-food hamburgers are to be avoided owing to higher sodium content.Bacon, canned foods, lunchmeats, and processed foods are high in sodium, which promotes fluid retention, and must be avoided. The client correctly understands that adding salt to food must be avoided. c. "I need to avoid lunchmeats but may cook my own turkey."Further teaching about restricting sodium in the diet for a client with heart failure is needed when the client says, "I need to avoid eating hamburgers." Cutting out beef or hamburgers made at home is not necessary, but fast-food hamburgers are to be avoided owing to higher sodium content.Bacon, canned foods, lunchmeats, and processed foods are high in sodium, which promotes fluid retention, and must be avoided. The client correctly understands that adding salt to food must be avoided. d. "I must cut out bacon and canned foods."Further teaching about restricting sodium in the diet for a client with heart failure is needed when the client says, "I need to avoid eating hamburgers." Cutting out beef or hamburgers made at home is not necessary, but fast-food hamburgers are to be avoided owing to higher sodium content.Bacon, canned foods, lunchmeats, and processed foods are high in sodium, which promotes fluid retention, and must be avoided. The client correctly understands that adding salt to food must be avoided.

b. "I need to avoid eating hamburgers."Further teaching about restricting sodium in the diet for a client with heart failure is needed when the client says, "I need to avoid eating hamburgers." Cutting out beef or hamburgers made at home is not necessary, but fast-food hamburgers are to be avoided owing to higher sodium content.Bacon, canned foods, lunchmeats, and processed foods are high in sodium, which promotes fluid retention, and must be avoided. The client correctly understands that adding salt to food must be avoided.

A nurse teaches a client with diabetes mellitus and a body mass index of 42 who is at high risk for coronary artery disease. Which statement related to nutrition would the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "The best way to lose weight is a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet." b. "You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients." c. "A nutritionist will provide you with information about your new diet." d. "If you exercise more frequently, you won't need to change your diet."

b. "You should balance weight loss with consuming necessary nutrients."

A nurse is assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client would the nurse identify as being at greatest risk for atrial fibrillation? a. A 45-year-old who takes an aspirin daily. b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery. c. A 78-year-old who had a carotid endarterectomy. d. An 80-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

b. A 50-year-old who is post coronary artery bypass graft surgery.

The nurse is caring for a client with dark-colored toe ulcers and blood pressure (BP) of 190/100 mm Hg. Which nursing action does the nurse delegate to the LPN/LVN? a. Obtain a request from the primary health care provider for a dietary consult.The action the nurse delegates to the LPN/LVN caring for a client with dark-colored toe ulcers and a BP of 190/100 mm Hg is to administer a clonidine patch for hypertension. Administering medication is within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN.The RN is responsible for physical assessments, making referrals for other services, and developing the plan of care for the hospitalized client. b. Administer a clonidine patch for hypertension.The action the nurse delegates to the LPN/LVN caring for a client with dark-colored toe ulcers and a BP of 190/100 mm Hg is to administer a clonidine patch for hypertension. Administering medication is within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN.The RN is responsible for physical assessments, making referrals for other services, and developing the plan of care for the hospitalized client. c. Develop a plan for discharge, and assess home care needs.The action the nurse delegates to the LPN/LVN caring for a client with dark-colored toe ulcers and a BP of 190/100 mm Hg is to administer a clonidine patch for hypertension. Administering medication is within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN.The RN is responsible for physical assessments, making referrals for other services, and developing the plan of care for the hospitalized client. d. Assess leg ulcers for signs of infection.The action the nurse delegates to the LPN/LVN caring for a client with dark-colored toe ulcers and a BP of 190/100 mm Hg is to administer a clonidine patch for hypertension. Administering medication is within the scope of practice for the LPN/LVN.The RN is responsible for physical assessments, making referrals for other services, and developing the plan of care for the hospitalized client.

b. Administer a clonidine patch for hypertension

The nurse is assessing a 54-year-old male client for risk of atherosclerosis. What assessment data is associated with an increase in risk? (Select all that apply.) a. Takes acetylsalicylic acid daily.Risk factors that contribute to atherosclerosis include: an increase in LDL (160 mg/dL is high), obesity (as indicated by a BMI is 32), smoking, and type 2 diabetes.ASA is used as prophylaxis for atherosclerotic disease/coronary artery disease to prevent platelet adhesion. While atherosclerosis can be genetic, the fact that the client's father has lung cancer does not increase his risk for atherosclerosis. b. BMI is 32.Risk factors that contribute to atherosclerosis include: an increase in LDL (160 mg/dL is high), obesity (as indicated by a BMI is 32), smoking, and type 2 diabetes.ASA is used as prophylaxis for atherosclerotic disease/coronary artery disease to prevent platelet adhesion. While atherosclerosis can be genetic, the fact that the client's father has lung cancer does not increase his risk for atherosclerosis. c. History of type 2 diabetes mellitus.Risk factors that contribute to atherosclerosis include: an increase in LDL (160 mg/dL is high), obesity (as indicated by a BMI is 32), smoking, and type 2 diabetes.ASA is used as prophylaxis for atherosclerotic disease/coronary artery disease to prevent platelet adhesion. While atherosclerosis can be genetic, the fact that the client's father has lung cancer does not increase his risk for atherosclerosis. d. LDL of 160 mg/dL.Risk factors that contribute to atherosclerosis include: an increase in LDL (160 mg/dL is high), obesity (as indicated by a BMI is 32), smoking, and type 2 diabetes.ASA is used as prophylaxis for atherosclerotic disease/coronary artery disease to prevent platelet adhesion. While atherosclerosis can be genetic, the fact that the client's father has lung cancer does not increase his risk for atherosclerosis. e. The client's father has lung cancer.Risk factors that contribute to atherosclerosis include: an increase in LDL (160 mg/dL is high), obesity (as indicated by a BMI is 32), smoking, and type 2 diabetes.ASA is used as prophylaxis for atherosclerotic disease/coronary artery disease to prevent platelet adhesion. While atherosclerosis can be genetic, the fact that the client's father has lung cancer does not increase his risk for atherosclerosis. f. Current smoking history.Risk factors that contribute to atherosclerosis include: an increase in LDL (160 mg/dL is high), obesity (as indicated by a BMI is 32), smoking, and type 2 diabetes.ASA is used as prophylaxis for atherosclerotic disease/coronary artery disease to prevent platelet adhesion. While atherosclerosis can be genetic, the fact that the client's father has lung cancer does not increase his risk for atherosclerosis.

b. BMI is 32. c. History of type 2 diabetes mellitus d. LDL of 160 mg/dL. f. Current smoking history

An emergency department nurse assesses a female client. Which assessment findings would alert the nurse to request a prescription for an electrocardiogram? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypertension b. Fatigue despite adequate rest c. Indigestion d. Abdominal pain e. Shortness of breath

b. Fatigue despite adequate rest c. Indigestion e. Shortness of breath

The nurse is teaching the client dietary methods to reduce LDL levels. What teaching will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.) a. Aim for 10% of calories from saturated fatThe American Heart Association publishes dietary recommendations to decrease LDL levels. These recommendations include: emphasizing the intake of whole grains, vegetables, and fruits; consuming poultry without the skin; consuming low-fat dairy products and nuts; cooking with nontropical oils (e.g. Canola); limiting trans-fat intake and aiming for a dietary pattern that includes 5% to 6% of calories from saturated fat. b. Limit trans-fat intake.The American Heart Association publishes dietary recommendations to decrease LDL levels. These recommendations include: emphasizing the intake of whole grains, vegetables, and fruits; consuming poultry without the skin; consuming low-fat dairy products and nuts; cooking with nontropical oils (e.g. Canola); limiting trans-fat intake and aiming for a dietary pattern that includes 5% to 6% of calories from saturated fat. c. Emphasize the intake of whole grains.The American Heart Association publishes dietary recommendations to decrease LDL levels. These recommendations include: emphasizing the intake of whole grains, vegetables, and fruits; consuming poultry without the skin; consuming low-fat dairy products and nuts; cooking with nontropical oils (e.g. Canola); limiting trans-fat intake and aiming for a dietary pattern that includes 5% to 6% of calories from saturated fat. c. Avoid cooking with all oil.The American Heart Association publishes dietary recommendations to decrease LDL levels. These recommendations include: emphasizing the intake of whole grains, vegetables, and fruits; consuming poultry without the skin; consuming low-fat dairy products and nuts; cooking with nontropical oils (e.g. Canola); limiting trans-fat intake and aiming for a dietary pattern that includes 5% to 6% of calories from saturated fat. d. Nuts are a good snack food.The American Heart Association publishes dietary recommendations to decrease LDL levels. These recommendations include: emphasizing the intake of whole grains, vegetables, and fruits; consuming poultry without the skin; consuming low-fat dairy products and nuts; cooking with nontropical oils (e.g. Canola); limiting trans-fat intake and aiming for a dietary pattern that includes 5% to 6% of calories from saturated fat. e. Try to purchase skinless chicken to cook with.The American Heart Association publishes dietary recommendations to decrease LDL levels. These recommendations include: emphasizing the intake of whole grains, vegetables, and fruits; consuming poultry without the skin; consuming low-fat dairy products and nuts; cooking with nontropical oils (e.g. Canola); limiting trans-fat intake and aiming for a dietary pattern that includes 5% to 6% of calories from saturated fat.

b. Limit trans-fat intake c. Emphasize the intake of whole grains d. Nuts are a good snack food e. Try to purchase skinless chicken to cook with

The nurse is assessing a client with arterial insufficiency. What assessment data would cause the nurse to suspect an acute arterial occlusion of the right lower extremity? (Select all that apply.) a. TachycardiaSigns/symptoms of acute arterial occlusion of the right lower extremity include cold right foot, numbness and tingling of the right foot, and mottling and tingling of the right foot. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia (cool limb), and mottled color are characteristics of acute arterial occlusion.Hypertension presents risk for atherosclerosis, but not for acute arterial occlusion. The pulse rate does not indicate occlusion, but rather quality. Absence of pulse, rather than bounding pulse, is a symptom of acute arterial occlusion. b. Mottling of right foot and lower legSigns/symptoms of acute arterial occlusion of the right lower extremity include cold right foot, numbness and tingling of the right foot, and mottling and tingling of the right foot. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia (cool limb), and mottled color are characteristics of acute arterial occlusion.Hypertension presents risk for atherosclerosis, but not for acute arterial occlusion. The pulse rate does not indicate occlusion, but rather quality. Absence of pulse, rather than bounding pulse, is a symptom of acute arterial occlusion. c. Bounding right pedal pulsesSigns/symptoms of acute arterial occlusion of the right lower extremity include cold right foot, numbness and tingling of the right foot, and mottling and tingling of the right foot. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia (cool limb), and mottled color are characteristics of acute arterial occlusion.Hypertension presents risk for atherosclerosis, but not for acute arterial occlusion. The pulse rate does not indicate occlusion, but rather quality. Absence of pulse, rather than bounding pulse, is a symptom of acute arterial occlusion. d. Numbness and tingling of right footSigns/symptoms of acute arterial occlusion of the right lower extremity include cold right foot, numbness and tingling of the right foot, and mottling and tingling of the right foot. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia (cool limb), and mottled color are characteristics of acute arterial occlusion.Hypertension presents risk for atherosclerosis, but not for acute arterial occlusion. The pulse rate does not indicate occlusion, but rather quality. Absence of pulse, rather than bounding pulse, is a symptom of acute arterial occlusion. e. HypertensionSigns/symptoms of acute arterial occlusion of the right lower extremity include cold right foot, numbness and tingling of the right foot, and mottling and tingling of the right foot. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia (cool limb), and mottled color are characteristics of acute arterial occlusion.Hypertension presents risk for atherosclerosis, but not for acute arterial occlusion. The pulse rate does not indicate occlusion, but rather quality. Absence of pulse, rather than bounding pulse, is a symptom of acute arterial occlusion. f. Cold right footSigns/symptoms of acute arterial occlusion of the right lower extremity include cold right foot, numbness and tingling of the right foot, and mottling and tingling of the right foot. Pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, poikilothermia (cool limb), and mottled color are characteristics of acute arterial occlusion.Hypertension presents risk for atherosclerosis, but not for acute arterial occlusion. The pulse rate does not indicate occlusion, but rather quality. Absence of pulse, rather than bounding pulse, is a symptom of acute arterial occlusion.

b. Mottling of right foot and lower leg d. Numbness and tingling of right foot f. Cold right foot

The nurse is caring for a client who is being treated for hypertensive crisis. Which prescribed medication would the nurse question? a. EnalaprilThe nurse would question the prescription for dopamine. Dopamine is used for its inotropic and vasoconstrictive properties to raise blood pressure, and would not be used in hypertensive crisis.Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, may be used intravenously in hypertensive emergencies. Sodium nitroprusside, a direct-acting vasodilator, may be used intravenously to lower blood pressure quickly in hypertensive emergencies. Labetalol, an intravenous calcium channel blocker, is used in hypertensive crisis when oral therapy is not feasible. b. DopamineThe nurse would question the prescription for dopamine. Dopamine is used for its inotropic and vasoconstrictive properties to raise blood pressure, and would not be used in hypertensive crisis.Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, may be used intravenously in hypertensive emergencies. Sodium nitroprusside, a direct-acting vasodilator, may be used intravenously to lower blood pressure quickly in hypertensive emergencies. Labetalol, an intravenous calcium channel blocker, is used in hypertensive crisis when oral therapy is not feasible. c. LabetalolThe nurse would question the prescription for dopamine. Dopamine is used for its inotropic and vasoconstrictive properties to raise blood pressure, and would not be used in hypertensive crisis.Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, may be used intravenously in hypertensive emergencies. d. Sodium nitroprusside, a direct-acting vasodilator, may be used intravenously to lower blood pressure quickly in hypertensive emergencies. Labetalol, an intravenous calcium channel blocker, is used in hypertensive crisis when oral therapy is not feasible. Sodium nitroprussideThe nurse would question the prescription for dopamine. Dopamine is used for its inotropic and vasoconstrictive properties to raise blood pressure, and would not be used in hypertensive crisis.Enalapril, an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor, may be used intravenously in hypertensive emergencies. Sodium nitroprusside, a direct-acting vasodilator, may be used intravenously to lower blood pressure quickly in hypertensive emergencies. Labetalol, an intravenous calcium channel blocker, is used in hypertensive crisis when oral therapy is not feasible.

b. Dopamine

A nurse prepares a client for a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram. What actions would the nurse take when preparing this client for the procedure? (Select all that apply.) a. Assist the primary health care provider to place a central venous access device. b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. c. Administer the client's prescribed beta blocker. d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure. e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination.

b. Prepare for continuous blood pressure and pulse monitoring. d. Give the client nothing by mouth 3 to 6 hours before the procedure. e. Explain to the client that dobutamine will simulate exercise for this examination.

A nurse assesses a client with atrial fibrillation. Which manifestation would alert the nurse to the possibility of a serious complication from this condition? a. Sinus tachycardia b. Speech alterations c. Fatigue d. Dyspnea with activity

b. Speech alterations

A nurse prepares to discharge a client who has heart failure. Based on national quality measures, what actions would the nurse complete prior to discharging this client? (Select all that apply.) a. Teach the client about energy conservation techniques. b. Ensure that the client is prescribed a beta blocker. c. Document a discussion about advanced directives. d. Confirm that a postdischarge nurse visit has been scheduled. e. Consult a social worker for additional resources. f. Care transition record transmitted to next level of care within 7 days of discharge.

bcdf

A client with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm reports dizziness and severe abdominal pain. The nurse assesses the client's blood pressure at 82/40 mm Hg. What actions by the nurse are most important? (Select all that apply.) a. Administer pain medication. b. Assess distal pulses every 10 minutes. c. Have the client sign a surgical consent. d. Notify the Rapid Response Team. e. Take vital signs every 10 minutes.

bde

A client presents to the emergency department with a thoracic aortic aneurysm. Which findings are most consistent with this condition? (Select all that apply.) a. Abdominal tenderness b. Difficulty swallowing c. Changes in bowel habits d. Shortness of breath e. Hoarseness

be

A client asks what "essential hypertension" is. What response by the registered nurse is best? a. "It means it is caused by another disease." b. "It means it is 'essential' that it be treated." c. "It is hypertension with no specific cause." d. "It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension."

c

Which assessment by a new nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene? a. Assessing pedal pulses by DopplerThe vascular assessment by the new nurse that requires intervention by the charge nurse is simultaneously palpating bilateral carotids. Carotid arteries are palpated separately because of the risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion and the risk for causing the client to faint.Prolonged capillary filling generally indicates poor circulation, and is an appropriate assessment. Many clients with vascular disease have poor blood flow. Pulses that are not palpable may be heard with a Doppler probe. Because of the high incidence of hypertension in clients with atherosclerosis, blood pressure is often assessed in both arms. b. Simultaneously palpating bilateral carotids The vascular assessment by the new nurse that requires intervention by the charge nurse is simultaneously palpating bilateral carotids. Carotid arteries are palpated separately because of the risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion and the risk for causing the client to faint.Prolonged capillary filling generally indicates poor circulation, and is an appropriate assessment. Many clients with vascular disease have poor blood flow. Pulses that are not palpable may be heard with a Doppler probe. Because of the high incidence of hypertension in clients with atherosclerosis, blood pressure is often assessed in both arms. c. Measuring blood pressure in both armsThe vascular assessment by the new nurse that requires intervention by the charge nurse is simultaneously palpating bilateral carotids. Carotid arteries are palpated separately because of the risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion and the risk for causing the client to faint.Prolonged capillary filling generally indicates poor circulation, and is an appropriate assessment. Many clients with vascular disease have poor blood flow. Pulses that are not palpable may be heard with a Doppler probe. Because of the high incidence of hypertension in clients with atherosclerosis, blood pressure is often assessed in both arms. d. Measuring capillary refill in the fingertipsThe vascular assessment by the new nurse that requires intervention by the charge nurse is simultaneously palpating bilateral carotids. Carotid arteries are palpated separately because of the risk for inadequate cerebral perfusion and the risk for causing the client to faint.Prolonged capillary filling generally indicates poor circulation, and is an appropriate assessment. Many clients with vascular disease have poor blood flow. Pulses that are not palpable may be heard with a Doppler probe. Because of the high incidence of hypertension in clients with atherosclerosis, blood pressure is often assessed in both arms.

b. Simultaneously palpating bilateral carotids

A nurse assesses a client in an outpatient clinic. Which statement alerts the nurse to the possibility of left-sided heart failure? a. "I have been drinking more water than usual." b. "I am awakened by the need to urinate at night." c. "I must stop halfway up the stairs to catch my breath." d. "I have experienced blurred vision on several occasions."

c

A nurse is assessing an obese client in the clinic for follow-up after an episode of deep vein thrombosis. The client has lost 20 lb (9.09 Kg) since the last visit. What action by the nurse is best? a. Ask if the weight loss was intended. b. Encourage a high-protein, high-fiber diet. c. Measure for new compression stockings. d. Review a 3-day food recall diary.

c

A nurse prepares a client for cardiac catheterization. The client states, "I am afraid I might die." What is the nurse's best response? a. "This is a routine test and the risk of death is very low." b. "Would you like to speak with a chaplain prior to test?" c. "Tell me more about your concerns about the test." d. "What support systems do you have to assist you?"

c. "Tell me more about your concerns about the test."

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client states, "I will need to stop eating so much chili to keep that indigestion pain from returning." What is the nurse's best response? a. "Chili is high in fat and calories; it would be a good idea to stop eating it." b. "The primary health care provider has prescribed an antacid every morning." c. "What do you understand about what happened to you?" d. "When did you start experiencing this indigestion?"

c. "What do you understand about what happened to you?"

A nurse assesses clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client would the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease? a. An 86-year-old man with a history of asthma. b. A 32-year-old man with colorectal cancer. c. A 65-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus. d. A 53-year-old postmenopausal woman who takes bisphosphonates.

c. A 65-year-old woman with diabetes mellitus.

The nurse in the cardiology clinic is reviewing teaching provided at the client's last appointment regarding hypertension management. Which actions by the client indicate that teaching has been effective? (Select all that apply.) a. Reports walking the neighborhood once weekly.Teaching about hypertension has been effective when the nurse notes that the client has been on a low-sodium, diet has lost 3 lb (1.4 kg) since the last clinic visit, and has cut down on caffeine. Clients with hypertension need to consume low-sodium foods and would avoid adding salt. Weight loss can result in lower blood pressure. Caffeine promotes vasoconstriction, thereby elevating blood pressure.Although eating out may be cost-saving, fast food is often higher in saturated fat. The goal is to exercise three times and not once weekly. b. Reports eating fast food frequently to cut down on food costs.Teaching about hypertension has been effective when the nurse notes that the client has been on a low-sodium, diet has lost 3 lb (1.4 kg) since the last clinic visit, and has cut down on caffeine. Clients with hypertension need to consume low-sodium foods and would avoid adding salt. Weight loss can result in lower blood pressure. Caffeine promotes vasoconstriction, thereby elevating blood pressure.Although eating out may be cost-saving, fast food is often higher in saturated fat. The goal is to exercise three times and not once weekly. c. Weight loss of 3 lb (1.4 kg) since last seen in the clinic.Teaching about hypertension has been effective when the nurse notes that the client has been on a low-sodium, diet has lost 3 lb (1.4 kg) since the last clinic visit, and has cut down on caffeine. Clients with hypertension need to consume low-sodium foods and would avoid adding salt. Weight loss can result in lower blood pressure. Caffeine promotes vasoconstriction, thereby elevating blood pressure.Although eating out may be cost-saving, fast food is often higher in saturated fat. The goal is to exercise three times and not once weekly. d. Reports eating a low-sodium diet.Teaching about hypertension has been effective when the nurse notes that the client has been on a low-sodium, diet has lost 3 lb (1.4 kg) since the last clinic visit, and has cut down on caffeine. Clients with hypertension need to consume low-sodium foods and would avoid adding salt. Weight loss can result in lower blood pressure. Caffeine promotes vasoconstriction, thereby elevating blood pressure.Although eating out may be cost-saving, fast food is often higher in saturated fat. The goal is to exercise three times and not once weekly. e. Reports drinking one less cup of coffee daily.Teaching about hypertension has been effective when the nurse notes that the client has been on a low-sodium, diet has lost 3 lb (1.4 kg) since the last clinic visit, and has cut down on caffeine. Clients with hypertension need to consume low-sodium foods and would avoid adding salt. Weight loss can result in lower blood pressure. Caffeine promotes vasoconstriction, thereby elevating blood pressure.Although eating out may be cost-saving, fast food is often higher in saturated fat. The goal is to exercise three times and not once weekly.

c. Weight loss of 3 lb (1.4 kg) since last seen in the clinic d. Reports eating a low-sodium diet e. Reports drinking one less cup of coffee daily

Which statements by the client indicate good understanding of foot care in peripheral vascular disease? (Select all that apply.) a. "A good abrasive pumice stone will keep my feet soft." b. "I'll always wear shoes if I can buy cheap flip-flops." c. "I will keep my feet dry, especially between the toes." d. "Lotion is important to keep my feet smooth and soft." e. "Washing my feet in room-temperature water is best." f. "I will inspect my feet daily."

cde

A new nurse is caring for a client with an abdominal aneurysm. What action by the new nurse requires the nurse's mentor to intervene? a. Assesses the client for back pain. b. Auscultates over abdominal bruit. c. Measures the abdominal girth. d. Palpates the abdomen in four quadrants.

d

A nurse assesses a client after administering the first dose of a nitrate. The client reports a headache. What action would the nurse take? a. Initiate oxygen therapy. b. Hold the next dose. c. Instruct the client to drink water. d. Administer PRN acetaminophen.

d

A nurse cares for a client with end-stage heart failure who is awaiting a transplant. The client appears depressed and states, "I know a transplant is my last chance, but I don't want to become a vegetable." How would the nurse respond? a. "Would you like to speak with a priest or chaplain?" b. "I will arrange for a psychiatrist to speak with you." c. "Do you want to come off the transplant list?" d. "Would you like information about advance directives?"

d

A nurse is assessing the peripheral vascular system of an older adult. What action by the nurse would cause the supervising nurse to intervene? a. Assessing blood pressure in both upper extremities b. Auscultating the carotid arteries for any bruits c. Classifying capillary filling of 4 seconds as normal d. Palpating both carotid arteries at the same time

d

A nurse is caring for a client with acute pericarditis who reports substernal precordial pain that radiates to the left side of the neck. Which nonpharmacologic comfort measure would the nurse implement? a. Apply an ice pack to the client's chest. b. Provide a neck rub, especially on the left side. c. Allow the client to lie in bed with the lights down. d. Sit the client up with a pillow to lean forward on.

d

A nurse teaches a client who has a history of heart failure. Which statement would the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Avoid drinking more than 3 quarts (3 L) of liquids each day." b. "Eat six small meals daily instead of three larger meals." c. "When you feel short of breath, take an additional diuretic." d. "Weigh yourself daily while wearing the same amount of clothing."

d

An older client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) is explaining the daily foot care regimen to the family practice clinic nurse. What statement by the client may indicate a barrier to proper foot care? a. "I nearly always wear comfy sweatpants and house shoes." b. "I'm glad I get energy assistance so my house isn't so cold." c. "My daughter makes sure I have plenty of lotion for my feet." d. "My hands shake when I try to do things requiring coordination."

d

The nurse is reviewing the lipid panel of a male client who has atherosclerosis. Which finding is most concerning? a. Cholesterol: 126 mg/dL b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C): 48 mg/dL c. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C): 122 mg/dL d. Triglycerides: 198 mg/dL

d

A client with hypertension is started on verapamil. What teaching will the nurse provide for this client? a. "Consume foods high in potassium."The nurse teaches the client who is taking verapamil to avoid grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice must be avoided with calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil, because it can enhance the action of the drug.Foods high in potassium would be encouraged for clients taking diuretics, not calcium channel blockers such as verapamil. Bradycardia, not irregular pulse, is a typical side effect of verapamil. Muscle cramping may occur with statins, not with calcium channel blockers. b. "Monitor for muscle cramping."The nurse teaches the client who is taking verapamil to avoid grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice must be avoided with calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil, because it can enhance the action of the drug.Foods high in potassium would be encouraged for clients taking diuretics, not calcium channel blockers such as verapamil. Bradycardia, not irregular pulse, is a typical side effect of verapamil. Muscle cramping may occur with statins, not with calcium channel blockers. c. "Monitor for irregular pulse."The nurse teaches the client who is taking verapamil to avoid grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice must be avoided with calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil, because it can enhance the action of the drug.Foods high in potassium would be encouraged for clients taking diuretics, not calcium channel blockers such as verapamil. Bradycardia, not irregular pulse, is a typical side effect of verapamil. Muscle cramping may occur with statins, not with calcium channel blockers. d. "Avoid grapefruit juice."The nurse teaches the client who is taking verapamil to avoid grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice must be avoided with calcium channel blockers, such as verapamil, because it can enhance the action of the drug.Foods high in potassium would be encouraged for clients taking diuretics, not calcium channel blockers such as verapamil. Bradycardia, not irregular pulse, is a typical side effect of verapamil. Muscle cramping may occur with statins, not with calcium channel blockers.

d. "Avoid grapefruit juice."

The nurse is teaching a client the precautions to take while on warfarin therapy. Which client statement demonstrates that teaching has been effective? a. "I can use an electric razor or a regular razor."Teaching about the precautions of warfarin has been effective when the client says "that eating foods like green beans won't interfere with my Coumadin therapy." Vitamin K is not found in foods such as green beans, so these foods will not interfere with the anticoagulant effects of Coumadin.Warfarin "thins" the blood, so the risk for cutting oneself and bleeding is very high with the use of a regular razor. The client needs to use an electric razor. Clients must apply pressure to bleeding wounds and must seek medical assistance immediately. While they may need to discontinue warfarin therapy, the priority is to apply pressure to the bleeding area and seek medical care. Blood in the urine of a client taking warfarin therapy is not a side effect. The client must notify the primary health care provider immediately if this occurs. c. "When taking warfarin, I may notice some blood in my urine."Teaching about the precautions of warfarin has been effective when the client says "that eating foods like green beans won't interfere with my Coumadin therapy." Vitamin K is not found in foods such as green beans, so these foods will not interfere with the anticoagulant effects of Coumadin.Warfarin "thins" the blood, so the risk for cutting oneself and bleeding is very high with the use of a regular razor. The client needs to use an electric razor. Clients must apply pressure to bleeding wounds and must seek medical assistance immediately. While they may need to discontinue warfarin therapy, the priority is to apply pressure to the bleeding area and seek medical care. Blood in the urine of a client taking warfarin therapy is not a side effect. The client must notify the primary health care provider immediately if this occurs. d. "Eating foods like green beans won't interfere with my warfarin therapy."Teaching about the precautions of warfarin has been effective when the client says "that eating foods like green beans won't interfere with my Coumadin therapy." Vitamin K is not found in foods such as green beans, so these foods will not interfere with the anticoagulant effects of Coumadin.Warfarin "thins" the blood, so the risk for cutting oneself and bleeding is very high with the use of a regular razor. The client needs to use an electric razor. Clients must apply pressure to bleeding wounds and must seek medical assistance immediately. While they may need to discontinue warfarin therapy, the priority is to apply pressure to the bleeding area and seek medical care. Blood in the urine of a client taking warfarin therapy is not a side effect. The client must notify the primary health care provider immediately if this occurs. "If I notice I am bleeding a lot, I should stop taking warfarin right away."Teaching about the precautions of warfarin has been effective when the client says "that eating foods like green beans won't interfere with my Coumadin therapy." Vitamin K is not found in foods such as green beans, so these foods will not interfere with the anticoagulant effects of Coumadin.Warfarin "thins" the blood, so the risk for cutting oneself and bleeding is very high with the use of a regular razor. The client needs to use an electric razor. Clients must apply pressure to bleeding wounds and must seek medical assistance immediately. While they may need to discontinue warfarin therapy, the priority is to apply pressure to the bleeding area and seek medical care. Blood in the urine of a client taking warfarin therapy is not a side effect. The client must notify the primary health care provider immediately if this occurs.

d. "Eating foods like green beans won't interfere with my warfarin therapy."

When caring for a client with an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), the nurse suspects dissection of the aneurysm when the client makes which statement? a. "I have a headache. May I have some acetaminophen?"The nurse suspects dissection of an AAA when the client says that "I just started to feel a tearing pain in my belly." Severe pain of sudden onset in the back or lower abdomen, which may radiate to the groin, buttocks, or legs, is indicative of impending rupture of AAA.The sensation of feeling the heartbeat in the abdomen is a symptom of AAA but not of dissection or rupture. Headache may be benign or indicative of cerebral aneurysm or increased intracranial pressure. Hoarseness, shortness of breath, and difficulty swallowing may be symptoms of thoracic aortic aneurysm. b. "I have had hoarseness for a few weeks."The nurse suspects dissection of an AAA when the client says that "I just started to feel a tearing pain in my belly." Severe pain of sudden onset in the back or lower abdomen, which may radiate to the groin, buttocks, or legs, is indicative of impending rupture of AAA.The sensation of feeling the heartbeat in the abdomen is a symptom of AAA but not of dissection or rupture. Headache may be benign or indicative of cerebral aneurysm or increased intracranial pressure. Hoarseness, shortness of breath, and difficulty swallowing may be symptoms of thoracic aortic aneurysm. c. "I feel my heart beating in my abdominal area."The nurse suspects dissection of an AAA when the client says that "I just started to feel a tearing pain in my belly." Severe pain of sudden onset in the back or lower abdomen, which may radiate to the groin, buttocks, or legs, is indicative of impending rupture of AAA.The sensation of feeling the heartbeat in the abdomen is a symptom of AAA but not of dissection or rupture. Headache may be benign or indicative of cerebral aneurysm or increased intracranial pressure. Hoarseness, shortness of breath, and difficulty swallowing may be symptoms of thoracic aortic aneurysm. d. "I just started to feel a pain in my belly and low back."The nurse suspects dissection of an AAA when the client says that "I just started to feel a tearing pain in my belly." Severe pain of sudden onset in the back or lower abdomen, which may radiate to the groin, buttocks, or legs, is indicative of impending rupture of AAA.The sensation of feeling the heartbeat in the abdomen is a symptom of AAA but not of dissection or rupture. Headache may be benign or indicative of cerebral aneurysm or increased intracranial pressure. Hoarseness, shortness of breath, and difficulty swallowing may be symptoms of thoracic aortic aneurysm.

d. "I just started to feel a pain in my belly and low back.

An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client should the nurse plan to assess first? a. A 42-year-old female who describes her pain as a dull ache with numbness in her fingers b. A 49-year-old male who reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration c. A 53-year-old female who reports substernal pain that radiates to her abdomen d. A 58-year-old male who describes his pain as intense stabbing that spreads across his chest

d. A 58-year-old male who describes his pain as intense stabbing that spreads across his chest

Which client who has just arrived in the emergency department does the nurse assess as emergent and in need of immediate medical evaluation? a. A 64 year old with chronic venous ulcers who has a temperature of 100.1° F (37.8° C).The client who just arrived in the ED and needs immediate medical evaluation is the 70 year old with a history of diabetes who has "tearing" back pain and is diaphoretic. This client's history and clinical signs and symptoms suggest possible aortic dissection. The nurse will immediately assess the client's blood pressure and plan for IV antihypertensive therapy, rapid diagnostic testing, and possible transfer to surgery.The 64 year old is most stable and can be seen last. The 60 year old and the 69 year old would both be seen soon, but the 70-year-old client must be seen first. b. A 60 year old with venous insufficiency who has new-onset right calf pain and tenderness.The client who just arrived in the ED and needs immediate medical evaluation is the 70 year old with a history of diabetes who has "tearing" back pain and is diaphoretic. This client's history and clinical signs and symptoms suggest possible aortic dissection. The nurse will immediately assess the client's blood pressure and plan for IV antihypertensive therapy, rapid diagnostic testing, and possible transfer to surgery.The 64 year old is most stable and can be seen last. The 60 year old and the 69 year old would both be seen soon, but the 70-year-old client must be seen first. c. A 69 year old with a 40-pack-year cigarette history who is reporting foot numbness.The client who just arrived in the ED and needs immediate medical evaluation is the 70 year old with a history of diabetes who has "tearing" back pain and is diaphoretic. This client's history and clinical signs and symptoms suggest possible aortic dissection. The nurse will immediately assess the client's blood pressure and plan for IV antihypertensive therapy, rapid diagnostic testing, and possible transfer to surgery.The 64 year old is most stable and can be seen last. The 60 year old and the 69 year old would both be seen soon, but the 70-year-old client must be seen first. d. A 70 year old with a history of diabetes who has "tearing" back pain and is diaphoretic.The client who just arrived in the ED and needs immediate medical evaluation is the 70 year old with a history of diabetes who has "tearing" back pain and is diaphoretic. This client's history and clinical signs and symptoms suggest possible aortic dissection. The nurse will immediately assess the client's blood pressure and plan for IV antihypertensive therapy, rapid diagnostic testing, and possible transfer to surgery.The 64 year old is most stable and can be seen last. The 60 year old and the 69 year old would both be seen soon, but the 70-year-old client must be seen first.

d. A 70 year old with a history of diabetes who has "tearing" back pain and is diaphoretic.

A nurse assesses a client who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Which assessment would the nurse complete as the priority prior to this procedure? a. Client's level of anxiety b. Ability to turn self in bed c. Cardiac rhythm and heart rate d. Allergies to iodine-based agents

d. Allergies to iodine-based agents

A client is receiving unfractionated heparin (UFH) by infusion. What laboratory data will the nurse report to the primary health care provider (PCP)? a. Hemoglobin 12.2 g/dL (122 mmol/L)When caring for a client receiving UFH, the nurse notifies the PCP of a platelet level of 32,000/mm3 (32 × 109/L). UFH can decrease platelet counts. The PCP must be notified if the platelet count is below 100,000 to 120,000/mm3 (100 to 120 × 109/L). A 60-second PTT reflects a therapeutic value within 1.5 to 2 times the normal value. Mild leukocytosis (increased white blood cells) may be expected with deep vein thrombosis. A hemoglobin of 12.2 g/dL (122 mmol/L) reflects a normal reading. b. White blood cells 11,000/mm3 (11 × 109/L)When caring for a client receiving UFH, the nurse notifies the PCP of a platelet level of 32,000/mm3 (32 × 109/L). UFH can decrease platelet counts. The PCP must be notified if the platelet count is below 100,000 to 120,000/mm3 (100 to 120 × 109/L). A 60-second PTT reflects a therapeutic value within 1.5 to 2 times the normal value. Mild leukocytosis (increased white blood cells) may be expected with deep vein thrombosis. A hemoglobin of 12.2 g/dL (122 mmol/L) reflects a normal reading. c. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) 60 secondsWhen caring for a client receiving UFH, the nurse notifies the PCP of a platelet level of 32,000/mm3 (32 × 109/L). UFH can decrease platelet counts. The PCP must be notified if the platelet count is below 100,000 to 120,000/mm3 (100 to 120 × 109/L). A 60-second PTT reflects a therapeutic value within 1.5 to 2 times the normal value. Mild leukocytosis (increased white blood cells) may be expected with deep vein thrombosis. A hemoglobin of 12.2 g/dL (122 mmol/L) reflects a normal reading. d. Platelets 32,000/mm3 (32 × 109/L)When caring for a client receiving UFH, the nurse notifies the PCP of a platelet level of 32,000/mm3 (32 × 109/L). UFH can decrease platelet counts. The PCP must be notified if the platelet count is below 100,000 to 120,000/mm3 (100 to 120 × 109/L). A 60-second PTT reflects a therapeutic value within 1.5 to 2 times the normal value. Mild leukocytosis (increased white blood cells) may be expected with deep vein thrombosis. A hemoglobin of 12.2 g/dL (122 mmol/L) reflects a normal reading.

d. Platelets 32,000/mm3 (32 × 109/L

A nurse assesses a client's electrocardiograph tracing and observes that not all QRS complexes are preceded by a P wave. How would the nurse interpret this observation? a. The client has hyperkalemia causing irregular QRS complexes. b. Ventricular tachycardia is overriding the normal atrial rhythm. c. The client's chest leads are not making sufficient contact with the skin. d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

d. Ventricular and atrial depolarizations are initiated from different sites.

A nurse is preparing a client for a femoropopliteal bypass operation. What actions does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.) a. Administering preoperative medication b. Ensuring that the consent is signed c. Marking pulses with a pen d. Raising the side rails on the bed e. Recording baseline vital signs

de

The client asks the nurse about modifiable risk factors for heart disease. What nursing response is appropriate? (Select all that apply.)

-Cigarette smoking is one of the most significant modifiable risk factors. -Increasing physical exercise is a method to modify your risk.

The nurse is teaching a class on risk factors for cardiovascular disease. Which risk factors will the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

-Smoking history -Family history of heart disease -Elevated C-reactive protein levels -Diabetes Mellitus

The standard policy on the cardiac unit states, Notify the health care provider for mean arterial pressure (MAP) less than 70 mm Hg. The nurse will need to call the health care provider about the a. postoperative patient with a BP of 116/42. b. newly admitted patient with a BP of 150/87. c. patient with left ventricular failure who has a BP of 110/70. d. patient with a myocardial infarction who has a BP of 140/86.

A. postoperative patient with a BP of 116/42.

When assessing a newly admitted patient, the nurse notes a murmur along the left sternal border. To document more information about the murmur, which action will the nurse take next? a. Find the point of maximal impulse. b. Determine the timing of the murmur. c. Compare the apical and radial pulse rates. d. Palpate the quality of the peripheral pulses.

B. Determine the timing of the murmur.

A transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE) is ordered for a patient with possible endocarditis. Which action included in the standard TEE orders will the nurse need to accomplish first? a. Start an IV line. b. Place the patient on NPO status. c. Administer O2 per nasal cannula. d. Give lorazepam (Ativan) 1 mg IV.

B. Place the patient on NPO status.

The nurse and unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) on the telemetry unit are caring for four patients. Which nursing action can be delegated to the UAP? a. Teaching a patient scheduled for exercise electrocardiography about the procedure b. Placing electrodes in the correct position for a patient who is to receive ECG monitoring c. Checking the catheter insertion site for a patient who is recovering from a coronary angiogram d. Monitoring a patient who has just returned to the unit after a transesophageal echocardiogram

B. Placing electrodes in the correct position for a patient who is to receive ECG monitoring

When admitting a patient for a cardiac catheterization and coronary angiogram, which information about the patient is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patients pedal pulses are +1. b. The patient is allergic to shellfish. c. The patient had a heart attack a year ago. d. The patient has not eaten anything today.

B. The patient is allergic to shellfish.

A patient is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization with coronary angiography. Before the test, the nurse informs the patient that a. it will be important to lie completely still during the procedure. b. a flushed feeling may be noted when the contrast dye is injected. c. monitored anesthesia care will be provided during the procedure. d. arterial pressure monitoring will be required for 24 hours after the test.

B. a flushed feeling may be noted when the contrast dye is injected.

When auscultating over the patients abdominal aorta, the nurse hears a humming sound. The nurse documents this finding as a a. thrill. b. bruit. c. murmur. d. normal finding.

B. bruit

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for newly admitted patients on the cardiovascular unit. Which patient laboratory result is most important to communicate as soon as possible to the health care provider? a. Patient whose triglyceride level is high b. Patient who has very low homocysteine level c. Patient with increase in troponin T and troponin I level d. Patient with elevated high-sensitivity C-reactive protein level

C. Patient with increase in troponin T and troponin I level

Which action will the nurse implement for a patient who arrives for a calcium-scoring CT scan? a. Insert an IV catheter. b. Administer oral sedative medications. c. Teach the patient about the procedure. d. Confirm that the patient has been fasting.

C. Teach the patient about the procedure.

The nurse has received the laboratory results for a patient who developed chest pain 4 hours ago and may be having a myocardial infarction. The most important laboratory result to review will be a. myoglobin. b. low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol. c. troponins T and I. d. creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB).

C. troponins T and I.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure in a cardiac clinic. What assessment data indicates that the client has demonstrated a positive outcome related to the addition of metoprolol to the medication regimen? a. Client states, "I can sleep on one pillow."A client with heart failure has had a positive outcome to metoprolol when she states that she is able to sleep on one pillow. Improvement in activity tolerance, less orthopnea, and improved symptoms represents a positive response to beta blockers such as metoprolol.An ejection fraction of 25% is well below the normal of 50% to 70% and indicates poor cardiac output. Repeated hospitalization for acute exacerbation of left-sided heart failure does not demonstrate a positive outcome. Although metoprolol decreases the heart rate, palpitations are defined as the feeling of the heart beating fast in the chest. This is not a positive outcome. b. Current ejection fraction is 25%.A client with heart failure has had a positive outcome to metoprolol when she states that she is able to sleep on one pillow. Improvement in activity tolerance, less orthopnea, and improved symptoms represents a positive response to beta blockers such as metoprolol.An ejection fraction of 25% is well below the normal of 50% to 70% and indicates poor cardiac output. Repeated hospitalization for acute exacerbation of left-sided heart failure does not demonstrate a positive outcome. Although metoprolol decreases the heart rate, palpitations are defined as the feeling of the heart beating fast in the chest. This is not a positive outcome. c. Client reports feeling like her heart beats very fast at times.A client with heart failure has had a positive outcome to metoprolol when she states that she is able to sleep on one pillow. Improvement in activity tolerance, less orthopnea, and improved symptoms represents a positive response to beta blockers such as metoprolol.An ejection fraction of 25% is well below the normal of 50% to 70% and indicates poor cardiac output. d. Repeated hospitalization for acute exacerbation of left-sided heart failure does not demonstrate a positive outcome. Although metoprolol decreases the heart rate, palpitations are defined as the feeling of the heart beating fast in the chest. This is not a positive outcome. d. Records indicate five episodes of pulmonary edema last year.A client with heart failure has had a positive outcome to metoprolol when she states that she is able to sleep on one pillow. Improvement in activity tolerance, less orthopnea, and improved symptoms represents a positive response to beta blockers such as metoprolol.An ejection fraction of 25% is well below the normal of 50% to 70% and indicates poor cardiac output. Repeated hospitalization for acute exacerbation of left-sided heart failure does not demonstrate a positive outcome. Although metoprolol decreases the heart rate, palpitations are defined as the feeling of the heart beating fast in the chest. This is not a positive outcome.

Client states, "I can sleep on one pillow."

When reviewing the 12-lead electrocardiograph (ECG) for a healthy 79-year-old patient who is having an annual physical examination, what will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The PR interval is 0.21 seconds. b. The QRS duration is 0.13 seconds. c. There is a right bundle-branch block. d. The heart rate (HR) is 42 beats/minute.

D. The heart rate (HR) is 42 beats/minute.

During a physical examination of a 74-year-old patient, the nurse palpates the point of maximal impulse (PMI) in the sixth intercostal space lateral to the left midclavicular line. The most appropriate action for the nurse to take next will be to a. ask the patient about risk factors for atherosclerosis. b. document that the PMI is in the normal anatomic location. c. auscultate both the carotid arteries for the presence of a bruit. d. assess the patient for symptoms of left ventricular hypertrophy.

D. assess the patient for symptoms of left ventricular hypertrophy.

After noting a pulse deficit when assessing a 74-year-old patient who has just arrived in the emergency department, the nurse will anticipate that the patient may require a. emergent cardioversion. b. a cardiac catheterization. c. hourly blood pressure (BP) checks. d. electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring.

D. electrocardiographic (ECG) monitoring.

The nurse teaches the patient being evaluated for rhythm disturbances with a Holter monitor to a. connect the recorder to a computer once daily. b. exercise more than usual while the monitor is in place. c. remove the electrodes when taking a shower or tub bath. d. keep a diary of daily activities while the monitor is worn.

D. keep a diary of daily activities while the monitor is worn.

While doing the admission assessment for a thin 76-year-old patient, the nurse observes pulsation of the abdominal aorta in the epigastric area. Which action should the nurse take? a. Teach the patient about aneurysms. b. Notify the hospital rapid response team. c. Instruct the patient to remain on bed rest. d. Document the finding in the patient chart.

D. Document the finding in the patient chart.

When the nurse is monitoring a patient who is undergoing exercise (stress) testing on a treadmill, which assessment finding requires the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Patient complaint of feeling tired b. Pulse change from 87 to 101 beats/minute c. Blood pressure (BP) increase from 134/68 to 150/80 mm Hg d. Newly inverted T waves on the electrocardiogram

D. Newly inverted T waves on the electrocardiogram

While assessing a patient who was admitted with heart failure, the nurse notes that the patient has jugular venous distention (JVD) when lying flat in bed. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Document this finding in the patients record. b. Obtain vital signs, including oxygen saturation. c. Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver. d. Observe for JVD with the patient upright at 45 degrees.

D. Observe for JVD with the patient upright at 45 degrees.

The nurse is teaching a class about mechanical properties of the heart. What teaching will the nurse include?

Preload is the degree of stretch in the myocardial fibers

Which assessment data is most important for the nurse to report to the primary care provider prior to a coronary arteriogram?

The client develops wheezes and dyspnea after eating crab or lobster

A nurse is caring for a client with a history of renal insufficiency who is scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. What actions would the nurse take prior to the catheterization? (Select all that apply.) a. Assess for allergies to iodine. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results. d. Insert a Foley catheter. e. Administer a prophylactic antibiotic. f. Insert a central venous catheter.

a. Assess for allergies to iodine. b. Administer intravenous fluids. c. Assess blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine results.

The home health nurse visits a client with heart failure who has gained 5 lb (2.3 kg) in the past 3 days. The client states, "I feel so tired and short of breath." Which action does the nurse take first? a. Auscultate the client's posterior breath sounds.The action the home care nurse takes first is to auscultate the heart failure client's posterior breath sounds. Because the client is at risk for pulmonary edema and hypoxemia, the breath sounds must be assessed.Assessment of edema may be delayed until after breath sounds are assessed. After a full assessment, the nurse must notify the health care provider. After physiologic stability is attained, then ask the client about behaviors that may have caused the weight gain, such as increased sodium intake or changes in medications. b. Notify the health care provider about the client's weight gain.The action the home care nurse takes first is to auscultate the heart failure client's posterior breath sounds. Because the client is at risk for pulmonary edema and hypoxemia, the breath sounds must be assessed.Assessment of edema may be delayed until after breath sounds are assessed. After a full assessment, the nurse must notify the health care provider. After physiologic stability is attained, then ask the client about behaviors that may have caused the weight gain, such as increased sodium intake or changes in medications. c. Remind the client about dietary sodium restrictions.The action the home care nurse takes first is to auscultate the heart failure client's posterior breath sounds. Because the client is at risk for pulmonary edema and hypoxemia, the breath sounds must be assessed.Assessment of edema may be delayed until after breath sounds are assessed. After a full assessment, the nurse must notify the health care provider. After physiologic stability is attained, then ask the client about behaviors that may have caused the weight gain, such as increased sodium intake or changes in medications. d. Assess the client for peripheral edema.The action the home care nurse takes first is to auscultate the heart failure client's posterior breath sounds. Because the client is at risk for pulmonary edema and hypoxemia, the breath sounds must be assessed.Assessment of edema may be delayed until after breath sounds are assessed. After a full assessment, the nurse must notify the health care provider. After physiologic stability is attained, then ask the client about behaviors that may have caused the weight gain, such as increased sodium intake or changes in medications

a. Auscultate the client's posterior breath sounds

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a myocardial infarction. The client's blood pressure is 140/88 mm Hg. What action would the nurse take first? a. Compare the results with previous blood pressure readings. b. Increase the intravenous fluid rate because these readings are low. c. Immediately notify the primary health care provider of the elevated blood pressure. d. Document the finding in the client's chart as the only action.

a. Compare the results with previous blood pressure readings.

Which nursing action may be delegated to assistive personnel (AP) working on the medical unit? CORRECT a. Obtain daily weights for several clients with class IV heart failure.The nursing action that can be delegated to a UAP on the medical unit is to obtain daily weights for several clients with class IV heart failure. Daily weight assessment is included in the role of the nursing assistant, who will report the weights to the RN.The role of the professional nurse is to perform assessments. Determining alcohol intake, monitoring pain level, and assessing for peripheral edema would not be delegated. b. Check for peripheral edema in a client with endocarditis.The nursing action that can be delegated to a UAP on the medical unit is to obtain daily weights for several clients with class IV heart failure. Daily weight assessment is included in the role of the nursing assistant, who will report the weights to the RN.The role of the professional nurse is to perform assessments. Determining alcohol intake, monitoring pain level, and assessing for peripheral edema would not be delegated. c. Monitor the pain level for a client with acute pericarditis.The nursing action that can be delegated to a UAP on the medical unit is to obtain daily weights for several clients with class IV heart failure. Daily weight assessment is included in the role of the nursing assistant, who will report the weights to the RN.The role of the professional nurse is to perform assessments. Determining alcohol intake, monitoring pain level, and assessing for peripheral edema would not be delegated. d. Determine the usual alcohol intake for a client with cardiomyopathy.The nursing action that can be delegated to a UAP on the medical unit is to obtain daily weights for several clients with class IV heart failure. Daily weight assessment is included in the role of the nursing assistant, who will report the weights to the RN.The role of the professional nurse is to perform assessments. Determining alcohol intake, monitoring pain level, and assessing for peripheral edema would not be delegated.

a. Obtain daily weights for several clients with class IV heart failure.The nursing action that can be delegated to a UAP on the medical unit is to obtain daily weights for several clients with class IV heart failure. Daily weight assessment is included in the role of the nursing assistant, who will report the weights to the RN.The role of the professional nurse is to perform assessments. Determining alcohol intake, monitoring pain level, and assessing for peripheral edema would not be delegated.

Which intervention best assists the client with acute pulmonary edema in reducing anxiety and dyspnea? a. Place the client in high-Fowler position with the legs down.The best intervention to help the client with acute pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety and dyspnea is to place the client in high-Fowler position with the legs down. High-Fowler position and placing the legs in a dependent position will decrease venous return to the heart, thus decreasing pulmonary venous congestion.Monitoring of vital signs will detect abnormalities, but will not prevent them. Reassuring the client and a family member's presence may help alleviate anxiety, but dyspnea and anxiety resulting from hypoxemia secondary to intra-alveolar edema must be relieved. b. Reassure the client that distress can be relieved with proper intervention.The best intervention to help the client with acute pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety and dyspnea is to place the client in high-Fowler position with the legs down. High-Fowler position and placing the legs in a dependent position will decrease venous return to the heart, thus decreasing pulmonary venous congestion.Monitoring of vital signs will detect abnormalities, but will not prevent them. Reassuring the client and a family member's presence may help alleviate anxiety, but dyspnea and anxiety resulting from hypoxemia secondary to intra-alveolar edema must be relieved. c. Ask a family member to remain with the client.The best intervention to help the client with acute pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety and dyspnea is to place the client in high-Fowler position with the legs down. High-Fowler position and placing the legs in a dependent position will decrease venous return to the heart, thus decreasing pulmonary venous congestion.Monitoring of vital signs will detect abnormalities, but will not prevent them. Reassuring the client and a family member's presence may help alleviate anxiety, but dyspnea and anxiety resulting from hypoxemia secondary to intra-alveolar edema must be relieved. d. Monitor pulse oximetry and cardiac rate and rhythm.The best intervention to help the client with acute pulmonary edema to reduce anxiety and dyspnea is to place the client in high-Fowler position with the legs down. High-Fowler position and placing the legs in a dependent position will decrease venous return to the heart, thus decreasing pulmonary venous congestion.Monitoring of vital signs will detect abnormalities, but will not prevent them. Reassuring the client and a family member's presence may help alleviate anxiety, but dyspnea and anxiety resulting from hypoxemia secondary to intra-alveolar edema must be relieved.

a. Place the client in high-Fowler position with the legs down.

The nurse is assigned to all of these clients. Which client would the nurse assess first? a. The client who had percutaneous vascular intervention of the right femoral artery 30 minutes ago.The client who would be assessed first is the client who had a percutaneous vascular intervention of the right femoral artery 30 minutes ago. This client must have checks of vascular status and vital signs every 15 minutes in the first hour after the procedure.The client admitted with hypertensive crisis has stabilized and is not in need of immediate assessment. The client with peripheral vascular disease is the most stable and can be seen last. The client who had a right femoral-popliteal bypass is not in need of immediate assessment and can be assessed after the client who had a percutaneous vascular intervention. b. The client admitted with hypertensive crisis who has a nitroprusside drip and blood pressure of 149/80 mm Hg.The client who would be assessed first is the client who had a percutaneous vascular intervention of the right femoral artery 30 minutes ago. This client must have checks of vascular status and vital signs every 15 minutes in the first hour after the procedure.The client admitted with hypertensive crisis has stabilized and is not in need of immediate assessment. The client with peripheral vascular disease is the most stable and can be seen last. The client who had a right femoral-popliteal bypass is not in need of immediate assessment and can be assessed after the client who had a percutaneous vascular intervention. c. The client with peripheral vascular disease who has a left leg ulcer draining purulent yellow fluid.The client who would be assessed first is the client who had a percutaneous vascular intervention of the right femoral artery 30 minutes ago. This client must have checks of vascular status and vital signs every 15 minutes in the first hour after the procedure.The client admitted with hypertensive crisis has stabilized and is not in need of immediate assessment. The client with peripheral vascular disease is the most stable and can be seen last. The client who had a right femoral-popliteal bypass is not in need of immediate assessment and can be assessed after the client who had a percutaneous vascular intervention. d. The client who had a right femoral-popliteal bypass 3 days ago and has ongoing edema of the foot.The client who would be assessed first is the client who had a percutaneous vascular intervention of the right femoral artery 30 minutes ago. This client must have checks of vascular status and vital signs every 15 minutes in the first hour after the procedure.The client admitted with hypertensive crisis has stabilized and is not in need of immediate assessment. The client with peripheral vascular disease is the most stable and can be seen last. The client who had a right femoral-popliteal bypass is not in need of immediate assessment and can be assessed after the client who had a percutaneous vascular intervention.

a. The client who had percutaneous vascular intervention of the right femoral artery 30 minutes ago

A client admitted for heart failure has a priority problem of hypervolemia related to compromised regulatory mechanisms. Which nursing assessment data, obtained the day after admission, is the best indicator that the treatment has been effective? a. The client's weight decreases by 2.5 kg.The best indicator that treatment is effective on a client with heart failure and problems of hypervolemia is the client's weight decreased by 5.5 lb (2.5 kg) in 1 day. The best indicator of fluid volume gain or loss is daily weight. Because each kilogram represents approximately 1 L, this client has lost approximately 2500 mL of fluid.Diuresis of 400 mL in 24 hours represents oliguria. Although a blood pressure of 122/84 mm Hg is a normal finding alone, it is not significant for relief of hypervolemia. Although an apical pulse of 82 beats/min is a normal finding alone, it is not significant to determine whether hypervolemia is relieved. b. The client has diuresis of 400 mL in 24 hours.The best indicator that treatment is effective on a client with heart failure and problems of hypervolemia is the client's weight decreased by 5.5 lb (2.5 kg) in 1 day. The best indicator of fluid volume gain or loss is daily weight. Because each kilogram represents approximately 1 L, this client has lost approximately 2500 mL of fluid.Diuresis of 400 mL in 24 hours represents oliguria. Although a blood pressure of 122/84 mm Hg is a normal finding alone, it is not significant for relief of hypervolemia. Although an apical pulse of 82 beats/min is a normal finding alone, it is not significant to determine whether hypervolemia is relieved. c. The client's blood pressure is 122/84 mm Hg.The best indicator that treatment is effective on a client with heart failure and problems of hypervolemia is the client's weight decreased by 5.5 lb (2.5 kg) in 1 day. The best indicator of fluid volume gain or loss is daily weight. Because each kilogram represents approximately 1 L, this client has lost approximately 2500 mL of fluid.Diuresis of 400 mL in 24 hours represents oliguria. Although a blood pressure of 122/84 mm Hg is a normal finding alone, it is not significant for relief of hypervolemia. Although an apical pulse of 82 beats/min is a normal finding alone, it is not significant to determine whether hypervolemia is relieved. d. The client has an apical pulse of 82 beats/min.The best indicator that treatment is effective on a client with heart failure and problems of hypervolemia is the client's weight decreased by 5.5 lb (2.5 kg) in 1 day. The best indicator of fluid volume gain or loss is daily weight. Because each kilogram represents approximately 1 L, this client has lost approximately 2500 mL of fluid.Diuresis of 400 mL in 24 hours represents oliguria. Although a blood pressure of 122/84 mm Hg is a normal finding alone, it is not significant for relief of hypervolemia. Although an apical pulse of 82 beats/min is a normal finding alone, it is not significant to determine whether hypervolemia is relieved.

a. The client's weight decreases by 2.5 kg.

A nurse cares for a client who is recovering from a right-sided heart catheterization. For which complications of this procedure would the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.) a. Thrombophlebitis b. Stroke c. Pulmonary embolism d. Myocardial infarction e. Cardiac tamponade f. Dysrhythmias

a. Thrombophlebitis c. Pulmonary embolism e. Cardiac tamponade

A nurse reviews a client's laboratory results. Which findings would alert the nurse to the possibility of atherosclerosis? (Select all that apply.) a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L) b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 50 mg/dL (1.3 mmol/L) c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L) d. Serum albumin: 4 g/dL (5.8 mcmol/L) e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL (4.1 mmol/L)

a. Total cholesterol: 280 mg/dL (7.3 mmol/L) c. Triglycerides: 200 mg/dL (2.3 mmol/L) e. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol: 160 mg/dL (4.1 mmol/L)

A nurse obtains the health history of a client who is newly admitted to the medical unit. Which statement by the client would alert the nurse to the presence of edema? a. "I wake up to go to the bathroom at night." b. "My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day." c. "I seem to be feeling more anxious lately." d. "I drink at least eight glasses of water a day."

b. "My shoes fit tighter by the end of the day."

The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin as prescribed to a client with heart failure and notes: Temperature: 99.8° F (37.7° C), Pulse: 48 beats/min and irregular, Respirations: 20 breaths/min, Potassium level: 3.2 mEq/L (3.2 mmol/L). What action will the nurse take? a. Hold the digoxin, and obtain a prescription for an additional dose of furosemide.The nurse needs to hold the digoxin and gets a prescription for a potassium supplement. Digoxin causes bradycardia and hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity.Furosemide decreases circulating blood volume and depletes potassium. There is no indication suggesting that the client has fluid volume excess at this time. b. Hold the digoxin, and obtain a prescription for a potassium supplement.The nurse needs to hold the digoxin and gets a prescription for a potassium supplement. Digoxin causes bradycardia and hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity.Furosemide decreases circulating blood volume and depletes potassium. There is no indication suggesting that the client has fluid volume excess at this time. c. Give the digoxin; document assessment findings in the medical record.The nurse needs to hold the digoxin and gets a prescription for a potassium supplement. Digoxin causes bradycardia and hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity.Furosemide decreases circulating blood volume and depletes potassium. There is no indication suggesting that the client has fluid volume excess at this time. d. Give the digoxin; reassess the heart rate in 30 minutes.The nurse needs to hold the digoxin and gets a prescription for a potassium supplement. Digoxin causes bradycardia and hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity.Furosemide decreases circulating blood volume and depletes potassium. There is no indication suggesting that the client has fluid volume excess at this time.

b. Hold the digoxin, and obtain a prescription for a potassium supplement.The nurse needs to hold the digoxin and gets a prescription for a potassium supplement. Digoxin causes bradycardia and hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity.Furosemide decreases circulating blood volume and depletes potassium. There is no indication suggesting that the client has fluid volume excess at this time.

A nurse cares for a client who has an 80% blockage of the right coronary artery (RCA) and is scheduled for bypass surgery. Which intervention would the nurse be prepared to implement while this client waits for surgery? a. Administration of IV furosemide b. Initiation of an external pacemaker c. Assistance with endotracheal intubation d. Placement of central venous access

b. Initiation of an external pacemaker

A nurse cares for a client who is prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the heart. The client's health history includes a previous myocardial infarction and pacemaker implantation. What action would the nurse take? a. Schedule an electrocardiogram just before the MRI. b. Notify the primary health care provider before scheduling the MRI. c. Request lab for cardiac enzymes from the primary health care provider. d. Instruct the client to increase fluid intake the day before the MRI.

b. Notify the primary health care provider before scheduling the MRI.

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure in the coronary care unit. The client is exhibiting signs of air hunger and anxiety. Which nursing intervention will the nurse perform first for this client? a. Monitor and document heart rate, rhythm, and pulses.The nurse's first action is to position the client to alleviate dyspnea. This action will help ease air hunger and anxiety. Administering oxygen therapy is also an important priority action.Determining the client's physical limitations is not a priority in this situation. Encouraging alternate rest and activity periods is not the immediate priority. Monitoring of heart rate, rhythm, and pulses is important, but is not the priority. Encourage alternate rest and activity periods.The nurse's first action is to position the client to alleviate dyspnea. This action will help ease air hunger and anxiety. Administering oxygen therapy is also an important priority action.Determining the client's physical limitations is not a priority in this situation. Encouraging alternate rest and activity periods is not the immediate priority. Monitoring of heart rate, rhythm, and pulses is important, but is not the priority. b. Position the client to alleviate dyspnea.The nurse's first action is to position the client to alleviate dyspnea. This action will help ease air hunger and anxiety. Administering oxygen therapy is also an important priority action.Determining the client's physical limitations is not a priority in this situation. Encouraging alternate rest and activity periods is not the immediate priority. Monitoring of heart rate, rhythm, and pulses is important, but is not the priority. c. Determine the client's physical limitations.The nurse's first action is to position the client to alleviate dyspnea. This action will help ease air hunger and anxiety. Administering oxygen therapy is also an important priority action.Determining the client's physical limitations is not a priority in this situation. Encouraging alternate rest and activity periods is not the immediate priority. Monitoring of heart rate, rhythm, and pulses is important, but is not the priority.

b. Position the client to alleviate dyspnea.The nurse's first action is to position the client to alleviate dyspnea. This action will help ease air hunger and anxiety. Administering oxygen therapy is also an important priority action.Determining the client's physical limitations is not a priority in this situation. Encouraging alternate rest and activity periods is not the immediate priority. Monitoring of heart rate, rhythm, and pulses is important, but is not the priority.

The nurse is caring for a client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Which symptom will the nurse anticipate? a. Decreased pain when legs are elevatedThe symptom the nurse assesses the client with PAD is reproducible leg pain with exercise. Claudication (leg pain with ambulation due to ischemia) is reproducible in similar circumstances.Unilateral swelling is typical of venous problems such as deep vein thrombosis. With PAD, pain decreases with legs in the dependent position. Pulse oximetry readings reflect the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin. PAD results from atherosclerotic occlusion of peripheral arteries. Unilateral swelling of affected legThe symptom the nurse assesses the client with PAD is reproducible leg pain with exercise. Claudication (leg pain with ambulation due to ischemia) is reproducible in similar circumstances.Unilateral swelling is typical of venous problems such as deep vein thrombosis. With PAD, pain decreases with legs in the dependent position. Pulse oximetry readings reflect the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin. PAD results from atherosclerotic occlusion of peripheral arteries. Pulse oximetry reading of 90%The symptom the nurse assesses the client with PAD is reproducible leg pain with exercise. Claudication (leg pain with ambulation due to ischemia) is reproducible in similar circumstances.Unilateral swelling is typical of venous problems such as deep vein thrombosis. With PAD, pain decreases with legs in the dependent position. Pulse oximetry readings reflect the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin. PAD results from atherosclerotic occlusion of peripheral arteries. b. Reproducible leg pain with exerciseThe symptom the nurse assesses the client with PAD is reproducible leg pain with exercise. Claudication (leg pain with ambulation due to ischemia) is reproducible in similar circumstances.Unilateral swelling is typical of venous problems such as deep vein thrombosis. With PAD, pain decreases with legs in the dependent position. Pulse oximetry readings reflect the amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin. PAD results from atherosclerotic occlusion of peripheral arteries

b. Reproducible leg pain with exercise

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a coronary catheterization. Which assessment findings in the first few hours after the procedure require immediate action by the nurse? (Select all that apply.) a. Blood pressure of 140/88 mm Hg b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) c. Warmth and redness at the site d. Expanding groin hematoma e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor f. Oxygen saturation 93% on room

b. Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L (2.9 mmol/L) d. Expanding groin hematoma e. Rhythm changes on the cardiac monitor

A new nurse is caring for four clients. Which client is at risk for secondary hypertension? a. The client who is physically inactive.The client who is most at risk for secondary hypertension is the client with kidney disease. Kidney disease is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension.Some psychiatric conditions can exacerbate essential hypertension, but secondary hypertension is caused by a disease process or drugs. High-sodium intake is a risk factor for essential hypertension, not for secondary hypertension, which is caused by disease states or medications. Physical inactivity is a risk factor for essential hypertension. b. The client with kidney disease.The client who is most at risk for secondary hypertension is the client with kidney disease. Kidney disease is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension.Some psychiatric conditions can exacerbate essential hypertension, but secondary hypertension is caused by a disease process or drugs. High-sodium intake is a risk factor for essential hypertension, not for secondary hypertension, which is caused by disease states or medications. Physical inactivity is a risk factor for essential hypertension. c. The client with depression.The client who is most at risk for secondary hypertension is the client with kidney disease. Kidney disease is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension.Some psychiatric conditions can exacerbate essential hypertension, but secondary hypertension is caused by a disease process or drugs. High-sodium intake is a risk factor for essential hypertension, not for secondary hypertension, which is caused by disease states or medications. Physical inactivity is a risk factor for essential hypertension. d. The client who eats a high-sodium diet.The client who is most at risk for secondary hypertension is the client with kidney disease. Kidney disease is one of the most common causes of secondary hypertension.Some psychiatric conditions can exacerbate essential hypertension, but secondary hypertension is caused by a disease process or drugs. High-sodium intake is a risk factor for essential hypertension, not for secondary hypertension, which is caused by disease states or medications. Physical inactivity is a risk factor for essential hypertension.

b. The client with kidney disease

After receiving change-of-shift report about these four clients, which client would the nurse assess first? a. A 79 year old admitted for possible rejection of a heart transplant who has sinus tachycardia, heart rate 104 beats/min.The nurse would first assess the 46 year old with aortic stenosis on digoxin and now has new-onset frequent PVCs. The PVCs may be indicative of digoxin toxicity. Further assessment for clinical signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity must be done and the primary health care provider notified about the dysrhythmia.The 55 year old is stable and can be assessed after the client with aortic stenosis. The 68 year old may be assessed after the client with aortic stenosis. This type of pain is expected in pericarditis. Tachycardia is expected in the 79 year old because rejection will cause signs of decreased cardiac output, including tachycardia. This client may be seen after the client with aortic stenosis. b. A 55 year old admitted with pulmonary edema who received furosemideand whose current O2 saturation is 94%.The nurse would first assess the 46 year old with aortic stenosis on digoxin and now has new-onset frequent PVCs. The PVCs may be indicative of digoxin toxicity. Further assessment for clinical signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity must be done and the primary health care provider notified about the dysrhythmia.The 55 year old is stable and can be assessed after the client with aortic stenosis. The 68 year old may be assessed after the client with aortic stenosis. This type of pain is expected in pericarditis. Tachycardia is expected in the 79 year old because rejection will cause signs of decreased cardiac output, including tachycardia. This client may be seen after the client with aortic stenosis. c. A 46 year old with aortic stenosis who takes digoxin and has new-onset frequent premature ventricular contractions.The nurse would first assess the 46 year old with aortic stenosis on digoxin and now has new-onset frequent PVCs. The PVCs may be indicative of digoxin toxicity. Further assessment for clinical signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity must be done and the primary health care provider notified about the dysrhythmia.The 55 year old is stable and can be assessed after the client with aortic stenosis. The 68 year old may be assessed after the client with aortic stenosis. This type of pain is expected in pericarditis. Tachycardia is expected in the 79 year old because rejection will cause signs of decreased cardiac output, including tachycardia. This client may be seen after the client with aortic stenosis. d. A 68 year old with pericarditis who is reporting sharp chest pain with inspiration.The nurse would first assess the 46 year old with aortic stenosis on digoxin and now has new-onset frequent PVCs. The PVCs may be indicative of digoxin toxicity. Further assessment for clinical signs and symptoms of digoxin toxicity must be done and the primary health care provider notified about the dysrhythmia.The 55 year old is stable and can be assessed after the client with aortic stenosis. The 68 year old may be assessed after the client with aortic stenosis. This type of pain is expected in pericarditis. Tachycardia is expected in the 79 year old because rejection will cause signs of decreased cardiac output, including tachycardia. This client may be seen after the client with aortic stenosis.

c. A 46 year old with aortic stenosis who takes digoxin and has new-onset frequent premature ventricular contractions.

Which client is best to assign to an LPN/LVN working on the telemetry unit? a. Client with pericarditis who has a paradoxical pulse and distended jugular veins.The best client to assign to the LPN/LVN working on the telemetry unit is the client with dilated cardiomyopathy who uses oxygen for exertional dyspnea. This client is the most stable. Administration of oxygen to a stable client is within the scope of LPN/LVN practice.The client with heart failure is receiving an intravenous inotropic agent, which requires monitoring by the RN. The client with pericarditis is displaying signs of cardiac tamponade and requires immediate lifesaving intervention. The client with a new-onset murmur requires assessment and notification of the primary health care provider, which is within the scope of practice of the RN. c. Client with heart failure who is receiving dobutamine.The best client to assign to the LPN/LVN working on the telemetry unit is the client with dilated cardiomyopathy who uses oxygen for exertional dyspnea. This client is the most stable. Administration of oxygen to a stable client is within the scope of LPN/LVN practice.The client with heart failure is receiving an intravenous inotropic agent, which requires monitoring by the RN. The client with pericarditis is displaying signs of cardiac tamponade and requires immediate lifesaving intervention. The client with a new-onset murmur requires assessment and notification of the primary health care provider, which is within the scope of practice of the RN. c. Client with dilated cardiomyopathy who uses oxygen for exertional dyspnea.The best client to assign to the LPN/LVN working on the telemetry unit is the client with dilated cardiomyopathy who uses oxygen for exertional dyspnea. This client is the most stable. Administration of oxygen to a stable client is within the scope of LPN/LVN practice.The client with heart failure is receiving an intravenous inotropic agent, which requires monitoring by the RN. The client with pericarditis is displaying signs of cardiac tamponade and requires immediate lifesaving intervention. The client with a new-onset murmur requires assessment and notification of the primary health care provider, which is within the scope of practice of the RN. d. Client with rheumatic fever who has a new systolic murmur.The best client to assign to the LPN/LVN working on the telemetry unit is the client with dilated cardiomyopathy who uses oxygen for exertional dyspnea. This client is the most stable. Administration of oxygen to a stable client is within the scope of LPN/LVN practice.The client with heart failure is receiving an intravenous inotropic agent, which requires monitoring by the RN. The client with pericarditis is displaying signs of cardiac tamponade and requires immediate lifesaving intervention. The client with a new-onset murmur requires assessment and notification of the primary health care provider, which is within the scope of practice of the RN.

c. Client with dilated cardiomyopathy who uses oxygen for exertional dyspnea.

A nurse assesses female client who is experiencing a myocardial infarction. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect? a. Excruciating pain on inspiration b. Left lateral chest wall pain c. Fatigue and shortness of breath d. Numbness and tingling of the arm.

c. Fatigue and shortness of breath

A client with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) has a percutaneous vascular intervention. What is the priority nursing assessment? a. Dye allergyAfter a client with PAD has had a percutaneous vascular intervention, it is essential for the nurse to assess for pedal pulses. Priority nursing care focuses on assessment for bleeding at the arterial puncture site and monitoring distal pulses to ensure adequate perfusion. Pulse checks must be assessed postprocedure to detect improvement (stronger pulses) or complications (diminished or absent pulses).Ankle-brachial index is a diagnostic study used to detect the presence of PAD. This is not necessary after percutaneous vascular intervention. It is imperative to assess for dye allergy before performing the procedure. Gag reflex is checked after procedures affecting the throat (e.g., endoscopy, bronchoscopy). b. Gag reflexAfter a client with PAD has had a percutaneous vascular intervention, it is essential for the nurse to assess for pedal pulses. Priority nursing care focuses on assessment for bleeding at the arterial puncture site and monitoring distal pulses to ensure adequate perfusion. Pulse checks must be assessed postprocedure to detect improvement (stronger pulses) or complications (diminished or absent pulses).Ankle-brachial index is a diagnostic study used to detect the presence of PAD. This is not necessary after percutaneous vascular intervention. It is imperative to assess for dye allergy before performing the procedure. Gag reflex is checked after procedures affecting the throat (e.g., endoscopy, bronchoscopy). c. Pedal pulsesAfter a client with PAD has had a percutaneous vascular intervention, it is essential for the nurse to assess for pedal pulses. Priority nursing care focuses on assessment for bleeding at the arterial puncture site and monitoring distal pulses to ensure adequate perfusion. Pulse checks must be assessed postprocedure to detect improvement (stronger pulses) or complications (diminished or absent pulses).Ankle-brachial index is a diagnostic study used to detect the presence of PAD. This is not necessary after percutaneous vascular intervention. It is imperative to assess for dye allergy before performing the procedure. Gag reflex is checked after procedures affecting the throat (e.g., endoscopy, bronchoscopy). d. Ankle-brachial indexAfter a client with PAD has had a percutaneous vascular intervention, it is essential for the nurse to assess for pedal pulses. Priority nursing care focuses on assessment for bleeding at the arterial puncture site and monitoring distal pulses to ensure adequate perfusion. Pulse checks must be assessed postprocedure to detect improvement (stronger pulses) or complications (diminished or absent pulses).Ankle-brachial index is a diagnostic study used to detect the presence of PAD. This is not necessary after percutaneous vascular intervention. It is imperative to assess for dye allergy before performing the procedure. Gag reflex is checked after procedures affecting the throat (e.g., endoscopy, bronchoscopy).

c. Pedal pulses

A nurse assesses a client who is recovering after a left-sided cardiac catheterization. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? a. Urinary output less than intake b. Bruising at the insertion site c. Slurred speech and confusion d. Discomfort in the left leg

c. Slurred speech and confusion

Which nursing intervention for a client admitted today with heart failure will assist the client to conserve energy? a. The nurse monitors the client's pulse and blood pressure frequently.The nursing intervention that can help the client admitted today with heart failure is to have a bedside commode available to the client before administering furosemide. Limiting the need for ambulation on the first day of admission to sitting in a chair or performing basic leg exercises promotes physical rest and reduced oxygen demand.Monitoring of vital signs will alert the nurse to increased energy expenditures but will not prevent them. Waiting until tachycardia occurs permits increased oxygen demand. The nurse must prevent this situation. b. The client ambulates around the nursing unit with a walker.The nursing intervention that can help the client admitted today with heart failure is to have a bedside commode available to the client before administering furosemide. Limiting the need for ambulation on the first day of admission to sitting in a chair or performing basic leg exercises promotes physical rest and reduced oxygen demand.Monitoring of vital signs will alert the nurse to increased energy expenditures but will not prevent them. Waiting until tachycardia occurs permits increased oxygen demand. The nurse must prevent this situation. c. The nurse obtains a bedside commode before administering furosemide.The nursing intervention that can help the client admitted today with heart failure is to have a bedside commode available to the client before administering furosemide. Limiting the need for ambulation on the first day of admission to sitting in a chair or performing basic leg exercises promotes physical rest and reduced oxygen demand.Monitoring of vital signs will alert the nurse to increased energy expenditures but will not prevent them. Waiting until tachycardia occurs permits increased oxygen demand. The nurse must prevent this situation. d. The nurse returns the client to bed when the client becomes tachycardia.The nursing intervention that can help the client admitted today with heart failure is to have a bedside commode available to the client before administering furosemide. Limiting the need for ambulation on the first day of admission to sitting in a chair or performing basic leg exercises promotes physical rest and reduced oxygen demand.Monitoring of vital signs will alert the nurse to increased energy expenditures but will not prevent them. Waiting until tachycardia occurs permits increased oxygen demand. The nurse must prevent this situation.

c. The nurse obtains a bedside commode before administering furosemide.The nursing intervention that can help the client admitted today with heart failure is to have a bedside commode available to the client before administering furosemide. Limiting the need for ambulation on the first day of admission to sitting in a chair or performing basic leg exercises promotes physical rest and reduced oxygen demand.Monitoring of vital signs will alert the nurse to increased energy expenditures but will not prevent them. Waiting until tachycardia occurs permits increased oxygen demand. The nurse must prevent this situation.

An emergency department nurse triages clients who present with chest discomfort. Which client would the nurse plan to assess first? a. Client who describes pain as a dull ache. b. Client who reports moderate pain that is worse on inspiration. c. Client who reports cramping substernal pain. d. Client who describes intense squeezing pressure across the chest.

d. Client who describes intense squeezing pressure across the chest.

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with heart failure, focusing on when to seek medical attention. Which client statement indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I should expect occasional chest pain."The client understands the discharge teaching about when to seek medical attention when the client says: "I will call the provider if I have a cough lasting 3 or more days." Cough, a symptom of heart failure, is indicative of intra-alveolar edema; it is important to notify the provider if this occurs.The client would call the provider for weight gain of 3 lb (1.4 kg) in a week or 1-2 lb (0.45 to 0.9 kg) overnight. The client would begin by walking 200 to 400 feet (61 to 123 m) per day. Chest pain is indicative of myocardial ischemia and worsening of heart failure. The provider must be notified if this occurs. b. "I will try walking for 1 hour each day."The client understands the discharge teaching about when to seek medical attention when the client says: "I will call the provider if I have a cough lasting 3 or more days." Cough, a symptom of heart failure, is indicative of intra-alveolar edema; it is important to notify the provider if this occurs.The client would call the provider for weight gain of 3 lb (1.4 kg) in a week or 1-2 lb (0.45 to 0.9 kg) overnight. The client would begin by walking 200 to 400 feet (61 to 123 m) per day. Chest pain is indicative of myocardial ischemia and worsening of heart failure. The provider must be notified if this occurs. c. "I will report to the provider weight loss of 2 to 3 lb (0.9 to 1.4 kg) in a day."The client understands the discharge teaching about when to seek medical attention when the client says: "I will call the provider if I have a cough lasting 3 or more days." Cough, a symptom of heart failure, is indicative of intra-alveolar edema; it is important to notify the provider if this occurs.The client would call the provider for weight gain of 3 lb (1.4 kg) in a week or 1-2 lb (0.45 to 0.9 kg) overnight. The client would begin by walking 200 to 400 feet (61 to 123 m) per day. Chest pain is indicative of myocardial ischemia and worsening of heart failure. The provider must be notified if this occurs. d. "I will call the provider if I have a cough lasting 3 or more days."The client understands the discharge teaching about when to seek medical attention when the client says: "I will call the provider if I have a cough lasting 3 or more days." Cough, a symptom of heart failure, is indicative of intra-alveolar edema; it is important to notify the provider if this occurs.The client would call the provider for weight gain of 3 lb (1.4 kg) in a week or 1-2 lb (0.45 to 0.9 kg) overnight. The client would begin by walking 200 to 400 feet (61 to 123 m) per day. Chest pain is indicative of myocardial ischemia and worsening of heart failure. The provider must be notified if this occurs.

d. "I will call the provider if I have a cough lasting 3 or more days."The client understands the discharge teaching about when to seek medical attention when the client says: "I will call the provider if I have a cough lasting 3 or more days." Cough, a symptom of heart failure, is indicative of intra-alveolar edema; it is important to notify the provider if this occurs.The client would call the provider for weight gain of 3 lb (1.4 kg) in a week or 1-2 lb (0.45 to 0.9 kg) overnight. The client would begin by walking 200 to 400 feet (61 to 123 m) per day. Chest pain is indicative of myocardial ischemia and worsening of heart failure. The provider must be notified if this occurs.

The nurse is caring a college athlete who collapsed during soccer practice. The client has been diagnosed with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and states, "This can't be. I am in great shape. I eat right and exercise." Which nursing response is appropriate? a. "How does this make you feel?"The appropriate nursing response is that this may be caused by a genetic trait. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is often transmitted as a single gene autosomal dominant trait.Exploring the client's feelings is important, but does not address the client's question. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is not caused by performance-enhancing drugs. Reminding the client that he or she is in good shape is not at all therapeutic and does not address the client's question. b. "This can be caused by taking performance-enhancing drugs."The appropriate nursing response is that this may be caused by a genetic trait. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is often transmitted as a single gene autosomal dominant trait.Exploring the client's feelings is important, but does not address the client's question. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is not caused by performance-enhancing drugs. Reminding the client that he or she is in good shape is not at all therapeutic and does not address the client's question. c. "It could be worse if you weren't in good shape."The appropriate nursing response is that this may be caused by a genetic trait. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is often transmitted as a single gene autosomal dominant trait.Exploring the client's feelings is important, but does not address the client's question. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is not caused by performance-enhancing drugs. Reminding the client that he or she is in good shape is not at all therapeutic and does not address the client's question. d. "This may be caused by a genetic trait."The appropriate nursing response is that this may be caused by a genetic trait. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is often transmitted as a single gene autosomal dominant trait.Exploring the client's feelings is important, but does not address the client's question. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is not caused by performance-enhancing drugs. Reminding the client that he or she is in good shape is not at all therapeutic and does not address the client's question.

d. "This may be caused by a genetic trait."The appropriate nursing response is that this may be caused by a genetic trait. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is often transmitted as a single gene autosomal dominant trait.Exploring the client's feelings is important, but does not address the client's question. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is not caused by performance-enhancing drugs. Reminding the client that he or she is in good shape is not at all therapeutic and does not address the client's question.

A nurse cares for a client who has advanced cardiac disease and states, "I am having trouble breathing while I'm sleeping at night." What is the nurse's best response? a. "I will consult your primary health care provider to prescribe a sleep study." b. "You become hypoxic while sleeping; oxygen therapy via nasal cannula will help." c. "A continuous positive airway pressure, or CPAP, breathing mask will help you breathe at night." d. "Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping."

d. "Use pillows to elevate your head and chest while you are sleeping."

A nurse assesses a client after administering a prescribed beta blocker. Which assessment would the nurse expect to find? a. Blood pressure increased from 98/42 to 132/60 mm Hg. b. Respiratory rate decreased from 25 to 14 breaths/min. c. Oxygen saturation increased from 88% to 96%. d. Pulse decreased from 100 to 80 beats/min.

d. Pulse decreased from 100 to 80 beats/min.

A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which assessment data concerns the nurse with this new prescription? a. Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L)The nurse is concerned with the serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) in a heart failure client taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and clients taking this drug must be monitored for potassium deficiency from diuretic therapy.A serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) is a normal value. Heart failure may cause renal insufficiency, but a serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L) represents a normal value. A diuretic may deplete magnesium, but a serum magnesium level of 1.9 mEq/L (0.95 mmol/L) represents a normal value. b. Serum magnesium level of 1.9 mEq/L (0.95 mmol/L)The nurse is concerned with the serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) in a heart failure client taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and clients taking this drug must be monitored for potassium deficiency from diuretic therapy.A serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) is a normal value. Heart failure may cause renal insufficiency, but a serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L) represents a normal value. A diuretic may deplete magnesium, but a serum magnesium level of 1.9 mEq/L (0.95 mmol/L) represents a normal value. c. Serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L)The nurse is concerned with the serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) in a heart failure client taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and clients taking this drug must be monitored for potassium deficiency from diuretic therapy.A serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) is a normal value. Heart failure may cause renal insufficiency, but a serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L) represents a normal value. A diuretic may deplete magnesium, but a serum magnesium level of 1.9 mEq/L (0.95 mmol/L) represents a normal value. d. Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L)The nurse is concerned with the serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) in a heart failure client taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and clients taking this drug must be monitored for potassium deficiency from diuretic therapy.A serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) is a normal value. Heart failure may cause renal insufficiency, but a serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L) represents a normal value. A diuretic may deplete magnesium, but a serum magnesium level of 1.9 mEq/L (0.95 mmol/L) represents a normal value.

d. Serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L)The nurse is concerned with the serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L (2.8 mmol/L) in a heart failure client taking furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic and clients taking this drug must be monitored for potassium deficiency from diuretic therapy.A serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L (135 mmol/L) is a normal value. Heart failure may cause renal insufficiency, but a serum creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL (88.4 mcmol/L) represents a normal value. A diuretic may deplete magnesium, but a serum magnesium level of 1.9 mEq/L (0.95 mmol/L) represents a normal value.

A client begins therapy with lisinopril. What does the nurse consider at the start of therapy with this medication? a. The client's ability to understand medication teachingAt the start of therapy with lisinopril, the nurse needs to consider the risk for hypotension. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like lisinopril are associated with first-dose hypotension and orthostatic hypotension, which are more likely in those older than 75 years.Although desirable, ability to understand teaching is not essential. ACE inhibitors are vasodilators and do not affect heart rate. Renal function, not liver function, may be altered by ACE inhibitors. b. The potential for bradycardiaAt the start of therapy with lisinopril, the nurse needs to consider the risk for hypotension. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like lisinopril are associated with first-dose hypotension and orthostatic hypotension, which are more likely in those older than 75 years.Although desirable, ability to understand teaching is not essential. ACE inhibitors are vasodilators and do not affect heart rate. Renal function, not liver function, may be altered by ACE inhibitors. c. Liver function testsAt the start of therapy with lisinopril, the nurse needs to consider the risk for hypotension. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like lisinopril are associated with first-dose hypotension and orthostatic hypotension, which are more likely in those older than 75 years.Although desirable, ability to understand teaching is not essential. ACE inhibitors are vasodilators and do not affect heart rate. Renal function, not liver function, may be altered by ACE inhibitors. d. The risk for hypotension At the start of therapy with lisinopril, the nurse needs to consider the risk for hypotension. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like lisinopril are associated with first-dose hypotension and orthostatic hypotension, which are more likely in those older than 75 years.Although desirable, ability to understand teaching is not essential. ACE inhibitors are vasodilators and do not affect heart rate. Renal function, not liver function, may be altered by ACE inhibitors.

d. The risk for hypotension At the start of therapy with lisinopril, the nurse needs to consider the risk for hypotension. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like lisinopril are associated with first-dose hypotension and orthostatic hypotension, which are more likely in those older than 75 years.Although desirable, ability to understand teaching is not essential. ACE inhibitors are vasodilators and do not affect heart rate. Renal function, not liver function, may be altered by ACE inhibitors.