Care of Patients with Problems with HIV Disease Ch 19 (Elsevier)

Which features of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) virus convert HIV's RNA into DNA and insert it into the host's DNA? 1 RNA and lipid bilayer 2 P17 matrix and p24 capsid 3 Gp41 and gp120 docking proteins 4 Reverse transcriptase and integrase enzymes

4 The HIV enzyme reverse transcriptase converts HIV's RNA into DNA, which makes the viral genetic material the same as human DNA. HIV then uses its enzyme integrase to get its DNA into the nucleus of the host's. The RNA and lipid bilayer, p17 matrix and p24 capsid, and gp41 and gp120 docking proteins are other features of the HIV viral particle that do not convert HIV's RNA into DNA and insert it into the host's DNA.

Abnormal functioning of which body system is responsible for the signs and symptoms of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease? 1 Immune 2 Respiratory 3 Cardiovascular 4 Gastrointestinal

1 Immune system Abnormal functioning of the immune system is responsible for the signs and symptoms of HIV disease. Signs and symptoms may occur in the respiratory, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal symptoms, but abnormal functioning of the immune system is the underlying mechanism.

The number of CD4+ T-cells is reduced in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease. How many CD4+ T-cells are usually present in a cubic millimeter (mm 3) of a healthy adult's blood? 1 200-499 2 500-799 3 800-1000 4 More than 1000

3 800-1000 A healthy adult usually has 800-1000 CD4+T-cells/mm 3. A patient with 200-499 CD4+T-cells/mm 3 meets the criteria for stage 2 of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Case Definition of HIV disease. A patient with greater than 500 CD4+T-cells/mm 3 meets the criteria for stage 1 CDC Case Definition of HIV disease. More than 1000 CD4+T-cells/mm 3 may be present in a healthy adult but are not typical.

A nurse is educating an immunocompromised patient about preventing infection. Which should the patient report to the health care provider immediately? 1 Foul-smelling or cloudy urine 2 Missing a dose of prescribed drugs 3 An intermittent cough without sputum 4 Temperature greater than 98°F

1 The patient should report to the physician immediately if there is foul-smelling or cloudy urine, because this may indicate infection. The patient should take all prescribed drugs but does not need to call the physician if he or she misses a dose; rather, he or she can read the drug's instructions that describe when to take the next dose. A persistent cough with or without sputum indicates an infection, but an intermittent cough does not. The patient only needs to contact the physician if his or her is about 100°F.

In human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections, more virus particles are created when the virus enters which type of host cell? 1 CD4+ T-cell 2 CD8+ T-cell 3 Natural killer T-cell 4 Gamma delta T-cell

1 To infect the host, HIV must first enter the bloodstream and then "hijack" certain cells, especially the CD4+ T-cell, also known as the CD4+ cell, helper/inducer T-cell, or T4-cell. This cell directs immunity and regulates the activity of all immune system cells. When HIV enters a CD4+ T-cell, it can then create more virus particles. CD8+ T-cells, natural killer T-cells, and gamma delta T-cells are other immune cells but are not involved directly in the replication of HIV.

What class of drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection prevents viral binding? 1 Entry inhibitors 2 Protease inhibitors 3 Integrase inhibitors 4 Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

1 Viral binding to the CD4 receptor and to either of the co-receptors is needed for the HIV virus to enter the cell. Entry inhibitors prevent the interaction needed for entry of HIV into the CD4+ T-cell. New virus particles are made in the form of one long protein strand that is clipped by the enzyme HIV protease into smaller functional pieces. Protease inhibitors work here to inhibit HIV protease. HIV then uses its enzyme integrase to get its DNA into the nucleus of the host's CD4+ T-cell and insert it into the host's DNA. Integrase inhibitors prevent viral DNA from integrating into the host's DNA. NRTIs prevent viral replication by reducing how well reverse transcriptase can convert HIV genetic material into human genetic material.

How often should the patient taking tenofovir/emtricitabine for pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) be tested for HIV? 1 Every three months 2 Every 12 months 3 Once before beginning PrEP 4 After each contact that puts the patient at risk for infection

1 Every three months The patient taking tenofovir/emtricitabine for PrEP for HIV should be tested for HIV every three months. Every 12 months is longer than recommended. The patient should be tested once before beginning PrEP, but the patient must continue getting screened. After each contact that carries a risk of infection is more than necessary.

The nurse has been exposed to the blood of a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive. What is the window of opportunity to begin postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) for the best possible outcome in preventing HIV infection? 1 Two hours 2 72 hours 3 Two weeks 4 One month

1 Two hours Once the exposure has been discovered, PEP with combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) within two hours of the exposure has the best possible outcome in preventing HIV infection. The window of opportunity for best outcome closes when prophylaxis is started after 72 hours. The professional receiving prophylaxis must return for complete electrolytes, creatinine, and blood counts two weeks after starting cART and periodic HIV testing at one, three, and six months.

Which gastrointestinal (GI) signs and symptoms may occur in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply. 1 Nausea 2 Diarrhea 3 Dementia 4 Confusion 5 Lymphadenopathy 6 Hypergammaglobulinemia

1, 2 Nausea and diarrhea are GI signs and symptoms that may occur in a patient with AIDS. Dementia and confusion are central nervous system signs and symptoms. Lymphadenopathy and hypergammaglobulinemia are immunologic signs.

What disease- and treatment-related endocrine complications may occur in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive men? Select all that apply. 1 Lipoatrophy 2 Lipodystrophy 3 Decreased energy 4 Adrenal insufficiency 5 Increased testosterone

1, 2, ,3, 4 Disease- and treatment-related endocrine complications that may occur in HIV-positive men include lipoatrophy, lipodystrophy, decreased energy, adrenal insufficiency, and decreased, not increased, testosterone.

Which are required elements of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing process? Select all that apply. 1 Counseling 2 Interpretation 3 Confidentiality 4 Written consent 5 Health insurance coverage

1, 2, 3 HIV testing requires counseling, interpretation, and confidentiality. Written consent and health insurance coverage are not required.

Some adults develop an acute infection within four weeks of first being infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). What symptoms may indicate this acute HIV infection? Select all that apply. 1 Fever 2 Night sweats 3 Memory loss 4 Muscle aches 5 Purplish lesions

1, 2, 4 Some adults develop an acute infection within four weeks of first being infected with HIV. Symptoms are similar to those seen with any virus and include fever, night sweats, and muscle aches. Memory loss is a central nervous system symptom that may occur with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Purplish lesions are a sign of Kaposi sarcoma that may occur with AIDS.

Which are common means of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission? Select all that apply. 1 Sexual 2 Casual 3 Perinatal 4 Household 5 Parenteral 6 Workplace

1, 3, 5 Common means of HIV transmission include sexual (genital, anal, or oral sexual contact with exposure of mucous membranes to infected semen or vaginal secretions); perinatal (from the placenta, from contact with maternal blood and body fluids during birth or from breast milk from an infected mother to child); and parenteral (sharing of needles or equipment contaminated with infected blood or receiving contaminated blood products). HIV is not transmitted by casual contact in the home, school, or workplace. Sharing household utensils, towels and linens, and toilet facilities does not transmit HIV.

Higher incidences of which conditions occur among pregnant women with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Select all that apply. 1 Preterm delivery 2 Shoulder dystocia 3 Gestational diabetes 4 Vertical transmission 5 Low-birth-weight infants

1, 4, 5 The effect of HIV on pregnancy outcomes includes higher incidences of premature delivery, vertical transmission of the disease from the mother to the infant, and low-birth-weight infants. HIV in pregnancy is not associated with a higher risk of shoulder dystocia or gestational diabetes.

What laboratory changes are most likely in a patient whose immune system is being overwhelmed by human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? 1 CD4+ T-cell counts and viral numbers fall 2 CD4+ T-cell counts fall, viral numbers rise 3 CD4+ T-cell counts rise, viral numbers fall 4 CD4+ T-cell counts and viral numbers rise

2 In early HIV infection before the disease is evident, the immune system can still attack and destroy most of the newly created virus particles. However, with time, the number of HIV particles overwhelms the immune system. Gradually CD4+ T-cell counts fall, viral numbers (viral load) rise, and without treatment, the patient eventually dies of opportunistic infection or cancer. Laboratory findings in a patient whose immune system is being overwhelmed by HIV would not show both CD4+ T-cell counts and viral numbers falling, CD4+ T-cell counts rising while viral numbers fall, or both CD4+ T-cell counts and viral numbers rising.

What class of drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection prevents new virus particles from splitting into functional pieces? 1 Entry inhibitors 2 Protease inhibitors 3 Integrase inhibitors 4 Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

2 New virus particles are made in the form of one long protein strand that is clipped by the enzyme HIV protease into smaller functional pieces. Protease inhibitors work here to inhibit HIV protease. Viral binding to the CD4 receptor and to either of the co-receptors is needed for the HIV virus to enter the cell. Entry inhibitors prevent the interaction needed for entry of HIV into the CD4+ T-cell. HIV then uses its enzyme integrase to get its DNA into the nucleus of the host's CD4+ T-cell and insert it into the host';s DNA. Integrase inhibitors prevent viral DNA from integrating into the host's DNA. NRTIs prevent viral replication by reducing how well reverse transcriptase can convert HIV genetic material into human genetic material.

How does the assessment of the financial resources of the patient with AIDS help the nurse? 1 It helps in assessing the neurologic status of the patient. 2 It helps in assessing the nutritional status of the patient. 3 It helps in assessing the cardiovascular status of the patient. 4 It helps in assessing the gastrointestinal status of the patient.

2 The financial resources of an AIDS patient may give the nurse insight into the patient's food intake, weight loss or gain, general condition of skin, and overall nutritional status of the patient. Cognitive changes, motor changes, and sensory disturbances are part of the assessment of the neurologic status of the patient. The cardiovascular status is assessed via the heart, veins, and arteries. The gastrointestinal status is assessed through the mouth and oropharynx, presence of dysphagia, presence of abdominal pain, or the presence of nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifications, what stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is marked by CD4+ T-cell count greater than 500 cells/mm 3 (0.5 × 109/L) or 29% or greater? 1 Stage 0 2 Stage 1 3 Stage 2 4 Stage 3

2 Stage 1 Stage 1 CDC Case Definition describes a patient with CD4+ T-cell count greater than 500 cells/mm 3 (0.5 × 109 /L) or 29% or greater. An adult at this stage has no AIDS-defining illnesses. Stage 0 CDC Case Definition describes a patient who develops a first positive HIV test result within six months after a negative HIV test result. Changing the patient';s status to stage 1, 2, or 3 does not occur until six months have elapsed since the stage 0 designation, even when CD4+ T-cell counts decrease or an AIDS-defining condition is present. Stage 2 CDC Case Definition describes a patient with CD4+ T-cell count between 200-499 cells/mm 3 (0.2-0.449 × 109/L) or 14-28%. An adult at this stage has no AIDS-defining illnesses. Stage 3 CDC Case Definition describes any patient with CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm 3 (0.2 × 109/L) or less than 14%. An adult who has higher CD4+ T-cell counts or percentages but who also has an AIDS-defining illness meets the Stage 3 CDC Case Definition.

What safer sex methods can reduce the risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission? Select all that apply. 1 Oral sex 2 Abstinence 3 Monogamy 4 Condom use 5 Heterosexual sex

2, 3, 4 Safer sex methods of A, abstinence; B, be faithful (monogamous); and C, condom use can reduce HIV transmission. Abstinence and mutually monogamous sex with a noninfected partner are the only absolutely safe methods of preventing HIV infection from sexual contact. Oral sex and heterosexual sex are not considered safer sex methods.

In patients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which type of laboratory test measures the patient's response to the virus rather than parts of the virus? 1 Stool testing 2 Skin biopsies 3 Antibody testing 4 Viral load testing

3 Antibody tests are used to measure the patient's response to the virus (the antigen) rather than parts of the virus. Stool testing and skin biopsies test for opportunistic infections. Viral load testing directly measures the actual amount of HIV viral RNA particles present in the blood.

Patients with low CD4+ T-cell counts are at risk for what conditions caused by organisms that are present as part of the body's microbiome and usually kept in check by normal immunity? 1 Primary infections 2 Secondary infections 3 Opportunistic infections 4 AIDS-defining conditions

3 As the CD4+ T-cell level drops, the patient is at an increased risk for bacterial, fungal, and viral infections, as well as opportunistic cancers. Opportunistic infections are those caused by organisms that are present as part of the body's microbiome and usually are kept in check by normal immunity. These infections are not known as primary infections or secondary infections. Many opportunistic infections are also acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining conditions, but AIDS-defining conditions are not necessarily opportunistic infections.

What class of drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection prevents the virus from inserting its DNA into the host's DNA? 1 Entry inhibitors 2 Protease inhibitors 3 Integrase inhibitors 4 Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

3 HIV uses its enzyme integrase to get its DNA into the nucleus of the host's CD4+ T-cell and insert it into the host';s DNA. Integrase inhibitors prevent viral DNA from integrating into the host's DNA. Viral binding to the CD4 receptor and to either of the co-receptors is needed for the HIV virus to enter the cell. Entry inhibitors prevent the interaction needed for entry of HIV into the CD4+ T-cell. New virus particles are made in the form of one long protein strand that is clipped by the enzyme HIV protease into smaller functional pieces. Protease inhibitors work here to inhibit HIV protease. NRTIs prevent viral replication by reducing how well reverse transcriptase can convert HIV genetic material into human genetic material.

In North America, the highest rates of new human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infections occur among which population? 1 Women 2 Men who have sex with men 3 African American and Hispanic adults 4 Adults who have used injection drugs

3 In North America, the highest rates of new HIV infections occur among African American and Hispanic adults. Women, men who have sex with men, and adults who have used injection drugs have lower rates of infection.

What defines the concept known as treatment as prevention (TAP) of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? 1 Written consent for including HIV screening as part of routine testing is not required. 2 The use of HIV-specific antiretroviral drugs in an HIV-uninfected adult serves the purpose of preventing HIV infection. 3 The use of combination antiretroviral therapy (cART) reduces the viral load to undetectable levels, thereby reducing the risk of HIV transmission. 4 Expanded screening recommendations include a one-time screen for all adults ages 15-65, annual screening of those at heightened risk, routine prenatal screening, and frequent testing in adults with repeated high-risk exposures.

3 Once an adult is placed on cART, reducing the viral load to undetectable levels significantly reduces the risk that HIV will be transmitted, a concept known as TAP. TAP is not defined by a lack of written consent for routine testing, the use of HIV-specific antiretroviral drugs in an HIV-uninfected adult to prevent HIV infection, or expanded screening recommendations.

Which term describes infections caused by organisms that are present as part of the body's microbiome and usually are kept in check by normal immunity but may cause infection in patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? 1 Viral infections 2 Co-occurring infections 3 Opportunistic infections 4 Sexually transmitted infections

3 Opportunistic infections are infections caused by organisms that are present as part of the body's microbiome and usually are kept in check by normal immunity but may cause infection in patients with AIDS. Opportunistic infections may be viral infections, as well as fungal, bacterial, and protozoal infections and malignancies. Co-occurring infections is a more general term to describe infections that occur simultaneously. Opportunistic infections may be sexually transmitted but are not necessarily transmitted this way.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifications, what stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is marked by CD4+ T-cell count between 200-499 cells/mm 3 (0.2-0.449 × 109/L) or 14-28%? 1 Stage 0 2 Stage 1 3 Stage 2 4 Stage 3

3 Stage 2 CDC Case Definition describes a patient with CD4+ T-cell count between 200-499 cells/mm 3 (0.2-0.449 × 109/L) or 14-28%. An adult at this stage has no AIDS-defining illnesses. Stage 0 CDC Case Definition describes a patient who develops a first positive HIV test result within six months after a negative HIV test result. Stage 1 CDC Case Definition describes a patient with CD4+ T-cell count greater than 500 cells/mm 3 (0.5 × 109 /L) or 29% or greater. An adult at this stage has no AIDS-defining illnesses. Stage 3 CDC Case Definition describes any patient with CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm 3 (0.2 × 109/L) or less than 14%. An adult who has higher CD4+ T-cell counts or percentages but who also has an AIDS-defining illness meets the Stage 3 CDC Case Definition.

Which features of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) virus assist the viral particle in finding a host? 1 RNA and lipid bilayer 2 P17 matrix and p24 capsid 3 Gp41 and gp120 docking proteins 4 Reverse transcriptase and integrase enzymes

3 Viral particle features include an outer envelope with special "docking proteins," known as gp41 and gp120, which assist in finding a host. The RNA and lipid bilayer, p17 matrix and p24 capsid, and reverse transcriptase and integrase enzymes are other features of the HIV viral particle that do not assist in finding a host.

Which sexual act carries the highest risk for the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? 1 Kissing 2 Oral sex 3 Anal sex 4 Vaginal sex

3 Anal sex Sexual acts or practices that permit infected seminal fluid to come into contact with mucous membranes or nonintact skin carry the highest risk for sexual transmission of HIV. The practice with the highest risk is anal intercourse with the penis and seminal fluid of an infected adult coming into contact with the mucous membranes of the uninfected partner's rectum. Anal intercourse allows seminal fluid to make contact with the rectal mucous membranes and also tears the mucous membranes, making infection more likely. Kissing is considered low risk for transmission unless obvious blood is present. Oral sex and vaginal sex are risky sexual acts for the transmission of HIV but less so than anal sex.

What phase of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) life cycle involves separating from the infected cell's membrane to search for another CD4+ T-cell to infect? 1 Virion 2 Fusion 3 Budding 4 Uncoating

3 Budding The budding phase of the HIV life cycle involves separating from the infected cell's membrane to search for another CD4+ T-cell to infect. Virion, fusion, and uncoating phases occur earlier in the HIV life cycle.

When the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) virus enters the patient's CD4+ T-cell, what is the new role served by the immune cell? 1 Antigen 2 Antibody 3 HIV factory 4 Natural killer cell

3 HIV factory Effects of HIV infection are related to the new genetic instructions that now direct CD4+ T-cells to change their role in immune system defenses. The new role is to be an "HIV factory," making up to 10 billion new viral particles daily. The CD4+ cell does not become an antigen, antibody, or natural killer cell.

Which central nervous system (CNS) signs and symptoms may occur in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply. 1 Nausea 2 Diarrhea 3 Dementia 4 Confusion 5 Lymphadenopathy 6 Hypergammaglobulinemia

3, 4 Dementia and confusion are CNS signs and symptoms that may occur in a patient with AIDS. Nausea and diarrhea are gastrointestinal signs and symptoms. Lymphadenopathy and hypergammaglobulinemia are immunologic signs.

To prevent infection in the patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), the nurse should educate the patient to avoid which foods? Select all that apply. 1 Salty foods 2 Cooked fruits 3 Raw vegetables 4 Undercooked meat 5 Pepper and paprika

3, 4, 5 To prevent infection, the patient with HIV should avoid eating raw vegetables, undercooked meats, and pepper and paprika. Salty foods and cooked fruits do not have a high risk of causing infection.

The nurse is caring for a patient who recently had a first positive human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test result within six months after a negative HIV test result. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifications, when should the patient's status be changed from stage 0 to stage 1, 2, or 3? 1 When 12 months have elapsed 2 When CD4+ T-cell counts decrease 3 When an acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)-defining condition is present 4 When six months have elapsed and the conditions for another stage are met

4 According to CDC classifications, Stage 0 CDC Case Definition describes a patient who develops a first positive HIV test result within six months after a negative HIV test result. Changing the patient';s status to stage 1, 2, or 3 does not occur until six months have elapsed since the stage 0 designation, even when CD4+ T-cell counts decrease or an AIDS-defining condition is present. This status change is not based on a condition of time, CD4+ T-cell count, or presence of an AIDS-defining condition alone.

Which factor distinguishes a diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection and acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? 1 Viral load 2 Course of treatment 3 Duration of infection 4 Number of CD4+ T-cells

4 Everyone who has AIDS has an HIV infection, but not everyone who has HIV has AIDS. The distinction is the number of CD4+ T-cells and whether any opportunistic infections have occurred. Viral load, course of treatment, and duration of infection are not distinguishing factors between HIV and AIDS diagnoses.

What is true regarding the risk of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission from patients receiving combination antiretroviral therapy (cART)? 1 The patient's viral load is low, so there is no risk of transmission. 2 The patient is no longer HIV positive, so there is no risk of transmission. 3 The patient's viral load and risk of transmission remain high, although other signs and symptoms may decrease. 4 The patient's viral load may drop to undetectable levels, but there is still a risk of transmission.

4 In patients receiving cART, the patient's viral load may drop to undetectable levels, but there is still a risk of transmission. It is not true that there is no risk of transmission. The patient remains HIV positive. Viral load and risk of transmission are likely to be reduced with cART.

What class of drugs for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection reduces how well HIV genetic material can be converted into human genetic material? 1 Entry inhibitors 2 Protease inhibitors 3 Integrase inhibitors 4 Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)

4 NRTIs prevent viral replication by reducing how well reverse transcriptase can convert HIV genetic material into human genetic material. Viral binding to the CD4 receptor and to either of the co-receptors is needed for the HIV virus to enter the cell. Entry inhibitors prevent the interaction needed for entry of HIV into the CD4+ T-cell. New virus particles are made in the form of one long protein strand that is clipped by the enzyme HIV protease into smaller functional pieces. Protease inhibitors work here to inhibit HIV protease. HIV uses its enzyme integrase to get its DNA into the nucleus of the host's CD4+ T-cell and insert it into the host's DNA. Integrase inhibitors prevent viral DNA from integrating into the host's DNA.

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) classifications, what stage of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is marked by CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm 3 (0.2 × 109/L) or less than 14%? 1 Stage 0 2 Stage 1 3 Stage 2 4 Stage 3

4 Stage 3 CDC Case Definition describes any patient with CD4+ T-cell count less than 200 cells/mm 3 (0.2 × 109/L) or less than 14%. An adult who has higher CD4+ T-cell counts or percentages but who also has an AIDS-defining illness meets the Stage 3 CDC Case Definition. Stage 0 CDC Case Definition describes a patient who develops a first positive HIV test result within six months after a negative HIV test result. Stage 1 CDC Case Definition describes a patient with CD4+ T-cell count greater than 500 cells/mm 3 (0.5 × 109 /L) or 29% or greater. An adult at this stage has no AIDS-defining illnesses. Stage 2 CDC Case Definition describes a patient with CD4+ T-cell count between 200-499 cells/mm 3 (0.2-0.449 × 109/L) or 14-28%. An adult at this stage has no AIDS-defining illnesses.

Consensual and nonconsensual sexual exposures involving insertive and receptive types of sex with oral, vaginal, or anal contact are considered which type of exposure to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? 1 Perinatal 2 Parenteral 3 Occupational 4 Non-occupational

4 Non-occupational Consensual and nonconsensual sexual exposures involving insertive and receptive types of sex with oral, vaginal, or anal contact are considered non-occupational exposure. Perinatal exposure involves transmission from the mother to the infant. Parenteral transmission may occur from occupational or non-occupational exposure as a result of injection drug use. Occupational exposure is defined as contact between blood, tissue, or selected body fluids from a patient who is positive for HIV and the blood, broken skin, or mucous membranes of a health care professional.

Occupational exposure of the health care worker's broken skin or mucous membranes to which body fluids from a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive status requires postexposure prophylaxis? Select all that apply. 1 Feces 2 Saliva 3 Vomit 4 Breast milk 5 Amniotic fluid

4, 5 Occupational exposure is defined as contact between blood, tissue, or selected body fluids, including breast milk and amniotic fluid, from a patient who is positive for HIV and the blood, broken skin, or mucous membranes of a health care professional. Bodily substances not considered infectious for HIV unless obviously bloody include feces, saliva, and vomit.

Which immunologic signs and symptoms may occur in a patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Select all that apply. 1 Nausea 2 Diarrhea 3 Dementia 4 Confusion 5 Lymphadenopathy 6 Hypergammaglobulinemia

5, 6 Lymphadenopathy and hypergammaglobulinemia are immunologic signs that may occur in a patient with AIDS. Nausea and diarrhea are gastrointestinal signs and symptoms. Dementia and confusion are central nervous system signs and symptoms.