CCNA 3 v7.0 Final Exam Answers Full - Enterprise Networking, Security, and Automation

5. Which two scenarios are examples of remote access VPNs? (Choose two.) - All users at a large branch office can access company resources through a single VPN connection. - A small branch office with three employees has a Cisco ASA that is used to create a VPN connection to the HQ. - A toy manufacturer has a permanent VPN connection to one of its parts suppliers. - A mobile sales agent is connecting to the company network via the Internet connection at a hotel. - An employee who is working from home uses VPN client software on a laptop in order to connect to the company network.

- A mobile sales agent is connecting to the company network via the Internet connection at a hotel. - An employee who is working from home uses VPN client software on a laptop in order to connect to the company network.

11. Which two statements are characteristics of a virus? (Choose two.) - A virus has an enabling vulnerability, a propagation mechanism, and a payload. - A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date. - A virus provides the attacker with sensitive data, such as passwords. - A virus replicates itself by independently exploiting vulnerabilities in networks. - A virus typically requires end-user activation.

- A virus can be dormant and then activate at a specific time or date. - A virus typically requires end-user activation.

12. Which public WAN access technology utilizes copper telephone lines to provide access to subscribers that are multiplexed into a single T3 link connection? - ISDN - DSL - cable - dialup

- DSL

18. Refer to the exhibit. A technician is configuring R2 for static NAT to allow the client to access the web server. What is a possible reason that the client PC cannot access the web server? - The IP NAT statement is incorrect. - Interface Fa0/1 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. - Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface. - The configuration is missing a valid access control list.

- Interface S0/0/0 should be identified as the outside NAT interface.

6. What are three benefits of cloud computing? (Choose three.) - It utilizes end-user clients to do a substantial amount of data preprocessing and storage. - It uses open-source software for distributed processing of large datasets. - It streamlines the IT operations of an organization by subscribing only to needed services. - It enables access to organizational data anywhere and at any time. - It turns raw data into meaningful information by discovering patterns and relationships. - It eliminates or reduces the need for onsite IT equipment, maintenance, and management.

- It streamlines the IT operations of an organization by subscribing only to needed services. - It enables access to organizational data anywhere and at any time. - It eliminates or reduces the need for onsite IT equipment, maintenance, and management.

19. In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices. Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office devices to access the internet? - UPnP - MAC filtering - NAT - QoS

- NAT

15. Consider the following output for an ACL that has been applied to a router via the access-class in command. What can a network administrator determine from the output that is shown? R1# Standard IP access list 2 10 permit 192.168.10.0, wildcard bits 0.0.0.255 (2 matches) 20 deny any (1 match) - Two devices connected to the router have IP addresses of 192.168.10. x . - Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router. - Traffic from one device was not allowed to come into one router port and be routed outbound a different router port. - Traffic from two devices was allowed to enter one router port and be routed outbound to a different router port.

- Two devices were able to use SSH or Telnet to gain access to the router.

17. What are two characteristics of video traffic? (Choose two.) - Video traffic consumes less network resources than voice traffic consumes. - Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms. - Video traffic is more resilient to loss than voice traffic is. - Video traffic requires a minimum of 30 kbs of bandwidth. - Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.

- Video traffic latency should not exceed 400 ms. - Video traffic is unpredictable and inconsistent.

4. What are three advantages of using private IP addresses and NAT? (Choose three.) - hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to the Internet - permits LAN expansion without additional public IP addresses - reduces CPU usage on customer routers - creates multiple public IP addresses - improves the performance of the router that is connected to the Internet - conserves registered public IP addresses

- conserves registered public IP addresses - hides private LAN addressing from outside devices that are connected to the Internet - permits LAN expansion without additional public IP addresses

2. Which two things should a network administrator modify on a router to perform password recovery? (Choose two.) - the system image file - the NVRAM file system - the configuration register value - the startup configuration file - system ROM

- the configuration register value - the startup configuration file

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address? - 192.168.0.100 - 10.1.1.2 - any address in the 10.1.1.0 network - 209.165.20.25

209.165.20.25

29. What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two ) A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF C. Thrift D. CORBA E. DSC

A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF Explanation/Reference: OpenFlow is a well-known southbound API. OpenFlow defines the way the SDN Controller should interact with the forwarding plane to make adjustments to the network, so it can better adapt to changing business requirements.The Network Configuration Protocol (NetConf) uses Extensible Markup Language (XML) to install, manipulate and delete configuration to network devices.Other southbound APIs are:+ onePK: a Cisco proprietary SBI to inspect or modify the network element configuration without hardware upgrades.+ OpFlex: an open-standard, distributed control system. It send "summary policy" to network elements.

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch. C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. D. A console password must be configured on the switch. E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch.

A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.

23. Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client? A. ip address dhcp B. ip helper-address C. ip dhcp pool D. ip dhcp client

A. ip address dhcp

22. What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) A. reduced operational costs B. reduced hardware footprint C. faster changes with more reliable results D. fewer network failures E. increased network security

A. reduced operational costs C. faster changes with more reliable results

7. What is a characteristic of a single-area OSPF network? - All routers share a common forwarding database. - All routers have the same neighbor table. - All routers are in the backbone area. - All routers have the same routing table.

All routers are in the backbone area.

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two) A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center E. modular design that is upgradable as needed

B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

30. Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication? A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link. B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device. C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen. D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.

B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

28. Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch? A. enable secret B. service password-encryption C. username Cisco password encrypt D. enable password

B. service password-encryption

27. Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. global unicast B. unique local C. link-local D. multicast

B. unique local

26. Which option about JSON is true? A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays

24. Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? A. outside global B. outsdwde local C. inside global D. insride local E. outside public F. inside public

C. inside global

12. Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? A. TKIP with RC4 B. RC4 C. AES-128 D. AES-256

D. AES-256

25. When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2

D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place? A. Physical access control B. Social engineering attack C. brute force attack D. user awareness

D. user awareness

13. A customer needs a metropolitan area WAN connection that provides high-speed, dedicated bandwidth between two sites. Which type of WAN connection would best fulfill this need? - packet-switched network - Ethernet WAN - circuit-switched network - MPLS

Ethernet WAN

8. What is a WAN? - a network infrastructure that spans a limited physical area such as a city - a network infrastructure that provides access to other networks over a large geographic area a network infrastructure that provides access in a small geographic area a network infrastructure designed to provide data storage, retrieval, and replication

a network infrastructure that provides access to other networks over a large geographic area

16. What command would be used as part of configuring NAT or PAT to clear dynamic entries before the timeout has expired? - clear ip dhcp - clear ip nat translation - clear access-list counters - clear ip pat statistics

clear ip nat translation

3. What type of network uses one common infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals? - borderless - converged - managed - switched

converged

9. A network administrator has been tasked with creating a disaster recovery plan. As part of this plan, the administrator is looking for a backup site for all of the data on the company servers. What service or technology would support this requirement? - data center - virtualization - dedicated servers - software defined networking

data center

10. Which type of OSPF packet is used by a router to discover neighbor routers and establish neighbor adjacency? - link-state update - hello - database description - link-state request

hello

1. Which design feature will limit the size of a failure domain in an enterprise network? - the purchase of enterprise equipment that is designed for large traffic volume - the installation of redundant power supplies - the use of a collapsed core design - the use of the building switch block approach

the use of the building switch block approach

14. A company has contracted with a network security firm to help identify the vulnerabilities of the corporate network. The firm sends a team to perform penetration tests to the company network. Why would the team use debuggers? - to detect installed tools within files and directories that provide threat actors remote access and control over a computer or network - to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware - to obtain specially designed operating systems preloaded with tools optimized for hacking - to detect any evidence of a hack or malware in a computer or network

to reverse engineer binary files when writing exploits and when analyzing malware

20. A data center has recently updated a physical server to host multiple operating systems on a single CPU. The data center can now provide each customer with a separate web server without having to allocate an actual discrete server for each customer. What is the networking trend that is being implemented by the data center in this situation? - online collaboration - BYOD - virtualization - maintaining communication integrity

virtualization