CCNA

Port 53

DNS (Domain Name System)

Port 138

NetBIOS Datagram Service

What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window? to ensure that segments arrive in order at the destination to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data to inform a source to retransmit data from a specific point forward to end communication when data transmission is complete

to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data

What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk? terminating the cable with special grounded connectors twisting the wires together into pairs wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath

twisting the wires together into pairs To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.

Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.) web peer to peer file transfer video voice

video voice

Private Addresses (IPv4)

10.0.0.0/8 172.16.0.0/12 192.168.0.0/16

Loopback Addresses

127.0.0.0/8

link-local address (IPv4) range

169.254.0.0/16

TEST-NET Address

192.0.2.0/24

What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process? 1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8 C16F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8 0C6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8 106F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8

Experimental Addresses

240.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.254

A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network? 255.255.255.224 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.192 255.255.255.0

255.255.255.0

An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space? 4096 256 512 1024

256

Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer? A) A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window. B) A student is using a classroom VoIP phone to call home. The unique identifier burned into the phone is a transport layer address used to contact another network device on the same network. C) A corporate worker is accessing a web server located on a corporate network. The transport layer formats the screen so the web page appears properly no matter what device is being used to view the web site. D) A student is playing a short web-based movie with sound. The movie and sound are encoded within the transport layer header.

A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window. The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.

What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.) A) A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table. B) The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet. C)Switches become overloaded because they concentrate all the traffic from the attached subnets. D) All ARP request messages must be processed by all nodes on the local network. E) The network may become overloaded because ARP reply messages have a very large payload due to the 48-bit MAC address and 32-bit IP address that they contain.

A) A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table. B) The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet.

What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.) A) After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired. B) A jam signal indicates that the collision has cleared and the media is not busy. C) All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium. D) The device with the electronic token is the only one that can transmit after a collision. E) Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority. F) A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

A) After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired. C) All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium. F) A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting.

Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.) A) Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. B) Perform the capture on different network segments. C) Only capture WAN traffic because traffic to the web is responsible for the largest amount of traffic on a network. D) Only capture traffic in the areas of the network that receive most of the traffic such as the data center. E) Capture traffic on the weekends when most employees are off work.

A) Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. B) Perform the capture on different network segments. Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.

Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)​ A) Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S . B) The netstat -r command can be used to display the routing table of a router.​ C) If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table. D) The routing table lists the MAC addresses of each active interface. E) If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S . F) It stores information about routes derived from the active router interfaces.

A) Directly connected interfaces will have two route source codes in the routing table: C and S . E) If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S .

What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.) A) If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply. B) When a host is encapsulating a packet into a frame, it refers to the MAC address table to determine the mapping of IP addresses to MAC addresses. C) If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will broadcast the data packet to all devices on the network segment. D) An ARP request is sent to all devices on the Ethernet LAN and contains the IP address of the destination host and its multicast MAC address. E) If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast.

A) If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply. E) If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast. When a node encapsulates a data packet into a frame, it needs the destination MAC address. First it determines if the destination device is on the local network or on a remote network. Then it checks the ARP table (not the MAC table) to see if a pair of IP address and MAC address exists for either the destination IP address (if the destination host is on the local network) or the default gateway IP address (if the destination host is on a remote network). If the match does not exist, it generates an ARP broadcast to seek the IP address to MAC address resolution. Because the destination MAC address is unknown, the ARP request is broadcast with the MAC address FFFF.FFFF.FFFF. Either the destination device or the default gateway will respond with its MAC address, which enables the sending node to assemble the frame. If no device responds to the ARP request, then the originating node will discard the packet because a frame cannot be created.

What service is provided by Internet Messenger? An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users. Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses. Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers. Allows remote access to network devices and servers.

An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.) A) end-device installation B) media selection C) message encoding D) delivery options E) connector specifications F) message size

C) message encoding D) delivery options F) message size

What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network? CSMA/CD priority ordering CSMA/CA token passing

CSMA/CA

An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.) Configure the IP domain name on the router. Enable inbound vty Telnet sessions. Configure DNS on the router. Generate the SSH keys. Generate two-way pre-shared keys. Enable inbound vty SSH sessions

Configure the IP domain name on the router. Generate the SSH keys. Enable inbound vty SSH sessions There are four steps to configure SSH support on a Cisco router: Step 1: Set the domain name. Step 2: Generate one-way secret keys. Step 3: Create a local username and password. Step 4: Enable SSH inbound on a vty line.

Port 68

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) Client

Port 67

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) Server

UDP Protocols

DHCP, TFTP

Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services? email file web DNS

DNS A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host names. Some DNS record types include the following: A - an end device IPv4 address NS - an authoritative name server AAAA - an end device IPv6 address MX - a mail exchange record

A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.) source port number HTTP server source MAC address DNS server default gateway

DNS server default gateway

Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.) Destination MAC addresses will never change in a frame that goes across seven routers. A packet that has crossed four routers has changed the destination IP address four times. Every time a frame is encapsulated with a new destination MAC address, a new destination IP address is needed. Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another. Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.

Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another. Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host.

MAC Sublayer

Ethernet MAC sublayer has two primary responsibilities: Data encapsulation Media access control

Unique Local Address (IPv6) range

FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7

Link Local Address (IPv6) range

FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10

Multicast (IPv6) range

FF00::/8.

Port 21

FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

Port 80

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

TCP Protocols

HTTP, HTTPs, FTP, SMTP, Telnet

Port 143

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

What is one main characteristic of the data link layer? It generates the electrical or optical signals that represent the 1 and 0 on the media. It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code. It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication. It accepts Layer 3 packets and decides the path by which to forward the packet to a remote network.

It converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code.

What service is provided by BOOTP? A) Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server. B) Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network. C) Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web. D) A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.

Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.

fast-forward switching

Lowest level of latency immediately forwards a packet after reading the destination address, typical cut-through method of switching

What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP? IMAP sends and retrieves email, but POP only retrieves email. POP only allows the client to store messages in a centralized way, while IMAP allows distributed storage. Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client. When the user connects to a POP server, copies of the messages are kept in the mail server for a short time, but IMAP keeps them for a long time.

Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client. IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.

Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.) NAT will impact negatively on switch performance. NAT causes routing tables to include more information. NAT improves packet handling. NAT adds authentication capability to IPv4. NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion. NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion. NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.

Port 137

NetBIOS Name Service

Port 110

POP3 (Post Office Protocol)

Multicast (IPv6)

Packets addressed to multicast addresses are delivered to all interfaces tuned into the multicast address. One to many. Always start with FF!

What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.) Router Advertisement Destination Unreachable Neighbor Solicitation Route Redirection Host Confirmation Time Exceeded

Router Advertisement Neighbor Solicitation

Port 22

SSH (Secure Shell)

Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping? The default gateway is not operational. The default gateway device is configured with the wrong IP address. The TCP/IP stack on the default gateway is not working properly. Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.

Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.

Port 49

TACACS (Terminal Access Controllers Access)

Port 69

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol)

What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command? ​A) Each router interface will generate an IPv6 link-local address.​ B) The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages. C) It statically creates a global unicast address on this router.​ D) All router interfaces will be automatically activated

The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.

Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.) The Destination Address field is new in IPv6. The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6. The Version field from IPv4 is not kept in IPv6. The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6. The Header Checksum field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.

The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6. The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6.

Bandwidth

The amount of data that can be transmitted over a network in a given amount of time.

A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows? The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application. The data flow is being tracked based on the destination IP address that is used by the PC of the technician. The data flow is being tracked based on the source IP address that is used by the PC of the technician. The data flow is being tracked based on the destination MAC address of the technician PC

The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application. The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to individually keep track of each session connecting out to the Internet. Each application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous communication from multiple applications through the Internet.

cut-through switching

The data packet is forwarded to the destination as soon as the destination MAC address has been read; cut through switching doesn't read the entire frame, just the MAC address. Low latency

The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command? The switch can communicate with other hosts on the 172.16.100.0 network. The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network. The switch will have a management interface with the address 172.16.100.1. The switch is limited to sending and receiving frames to and from the gateway 172.16.100.1.

The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network. A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network. In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway <ip address>.

Port 37

Time Protocol

Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications? ZigBee 5G Wi-Fi LoRaWAN

ZigBee Zigbee is a specification used for low-data rate, low-power communications. It is intended for applications that require short-range, low data-rates and long battery life. Zigbee is typically used for industrial and Internet of Things (IoT) environments such as wireless light switches and medical device data collection.

fragment-free switching

a cut-through switching method that begins to forward data once the header (first 64 bytes) is received and has no errors. Compromise between store and forward and cut-through

store-and-forward switching

a switching method that receives the entire frame before forwarding and performs a CRC check to detect errors before forwarding the frame

FF02::2

all IPv6 configured routers on the local link​ (MULTICAST)

Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types? financial transactions, web page, audio conference financial transactions, audio conference, web page audio conference, financial transactions, web page audio conference, web page, financial transactions

audio conference, financial transactions, web page QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.

A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework? automation authorization accounting authentication

authorization After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.) a) integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper b) places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame c) implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection d) applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame e) enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium

b) places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame e) enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium

Port 547

client to server DHCPv6 (Dynamic Host Control Protocol) messages

Frame Check Sequence Field

created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss. It uses a cyclic redundancy check (CRC). The sending device includes the results of a CRC in the FCS field of the frame. The receiving device receives the frame and generates a CRC to look for errors. If the calculations match, no error occurred. Calculations that do not match are an indication that the data has changed; therefore, the frame is dropped. A change in the data could be the result of a disruption of the electrical signals that represent the bits.

What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.) carrying data between processes that are running on source and destination hosts directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks providing dedicated end-to-end connections placing data on the network medium providing end devices with a unique network identifier

directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks providing end devices with a unique network identifier

Peer-to-peer networks

do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations.

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.) —> Case A handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize communication between nodes

implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection applies delimiting of Ethernet frame fields to synchronize communication between nodes

Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.) —> Case B adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium

integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media

Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages through an internetwork? transport application network access internet

internet

What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.) intrusion prevention systems antivirus software antispyware strong passwords virtual private networks

intrusion prevention systems virtual private networks

What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard? An open standard protocol is not controlled or regulated by standards organizations. A company can monopolize the market. It encourages competition and promotes choices. The protocol can only be run on equipment from a specific vendor.

it encourages competition and promotes choices A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.

What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.) loss of light over long distances low-quality cable or connectors low-quality shielding in cable installing cables in conduit improper termination

low-quality shielding in cable improper termination

What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses? (Choose two.) echo requests router solicitations router advertisements neighbor advertisements echo replies neighbor solicitations

neighbor advertisements neighbor solicitations

What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.) pinouts tensile strength of plastic insulator cable lengths connector types cost per meter (foot) connector color

pinouts cable lengths connector types

What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.) ability to to carry digitized voice 3-way handshake default window size connectionless communication port numbering use of checksum

port numbering use of checksum Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.

What are proprietary protocols? protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation

protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.

An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees.What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.) integrity scalability quality of service fault tolerance powerline networking security

quality of service fault tolerance security

peer-to-peer applications

require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.

Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.) route print show ip route netstat -r netstat -s

route print netstat -r On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat -s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

Port 546

server to client DHCPv6 (Dynamic Host Control Protocol) messages

When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached? fast-forward cut-through store-and-forward fragment-free

store-and-forward

During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry? switch the packet to the directly connected interface discard the traffic after consulting the route table look up the next-hop address for the packet analyze the destination IP address

switch the packet to the directly connected interface

Latency

the amount of time, including delays, for data to travel from one given point to another.

Which information does the show startup-config command display?​ the IOS image copied into RAM the bootstrap program in the ROM the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM

the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

Throughput

the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of time.

Goodput

the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time. Goodput is throughput minus traffic overhead for establishing sessions, acknowledgments, encapsulation, and retransmitted bits.

Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior? syslog records and messages debug output and packet captures network configuration files the network performance baseline

the network performance baseline