CDC, Materiel Management Volume 3,STQ

What are two instances when an RBL may be less than an approved minimum or fixed level?

(1) When there is an insufficient worldwide requirement to allocate to the minimum/fixed level. (2) When the base's minimum/fixed level is not registered in the D035 system.

What is the volume, figure, and index number for part number 53-39307-3?

1-35-40.

What is the maximum number of items authorized in a base-level I&SG?

24.

The nomenclature field is limited to how many characters?

32.

402. 1. What is an AS? 2. What is a BOI? 3. Where can you find ASs? 4. What code tells you if an equipment item is an EAID item? 5. How are non-EAID items identified? 6. What form is used to request equipment items where the approval authority is at base level or below? 7. What form is prepared to recommend/request changes to equipment ASs? 1-13 8. When are multiple items with different federal supply classes included on a single AF Form 601 requiring higher than base-level approval? 9. What AFEMS (C001) screen is used to input an AF Form 601 request? 10. List the four situations when you would not input a 601 request into AFEMS (C001). 11. What is the purpose of authorized and in-use details? 12. What TRIC is used to load, change, or delete EAID records? 13. What FCI format do you use to load an authorized/in-use detail?

402 1. A document that describes the items and quantities of equipment normally required by Air Force activities and individuals to carry out the mission. 2. The authority which establishes the number of items to be issued to an individual, activity, or military organization. 3. Through online query screens in AFEMS (C001). 4. EMC. 5. By EMC 1 (ERRCD NF1). 6. AF Form 2005. 7. AF Form 601. 8. When the request is against the same ASC and the background and justification for all the items are the same. 9. TACR. 10. EOD items, special weapons, multiple items, or if it contains classified information. 11. To control and account for EAID equipment from the time of issue to turn-in. 12. FCI. 13. 1.

403. Repair and return procedures 1. What are the two methods for processing equipment turn-ins? 2. Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN after picking up the property? 3. How are non-EAID items turned in? 4. How are EAID turn-ins processed? 5. What TRIC is used to transfer equipment from one custodian account to another? 6. What does the gaining base process to receive the shipment and establish an on-hand quantity and detail to obtain accountability?

403 1. Degraded and pre-degraded operations. 2. Degraded operations. 1-19 3. On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code P. 4. On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code E. 5. FET. 6. FED.

404 1. What listing provides the capability to ensure equipment authorizations are maintained within prescribed allowances? 2. What is identified by the Q10 as a result of comparing the authorized quantity against the in-use and due-out quantities? 3. What is the primary purpose of the CA/CRL? 4. What does a CA/CRL jacket folder consist of normally? 5. Who may sign for equipment items?

404 1. ASC listing (Q09). 2. Out-of-balance conditions. 3. Serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian. 4. Current CA/CRL and custodian appointment letter to that particular account. 5. Only the primary or alternate equipment custodian, or organization commander.403 1. Degraded and pre-degraded operations. 2. Degraded operations. 1-19 3. On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code P. 4. On AF Form 2005 using TRIC TIN and activity code E. 5. FET. 6. FED.

405. 1. Which ERRCDs identify SPRAM assets? 3. What TRIC is used to load a special-purpose asset detail record? 4. What product is used to inventory SPRAM assets and serves as a custody receipt when signed by the custodian?

405 1. XD/XF. 3. 1XA. 4. SPRAM report listing (R25).

407. 1. What are the key responsibilities of stock control? 2. What term is used for the repair rate of the current and past four quarters? 3. What term defines the average quantity used daily? 4. What type of stock level is based on past demands from users? 5. What is the term for the average elapsed time, in days, between the initiation and receipt of stock replenishment requisitions? 6. What term represents that number of units that must be stocked to meet demands during the repair cycle? 7. What term reflects the quantity that must be on hand to permit continuous operation during minor interruptions of normal replenishment?

407 1. Stockage policy and managing requisitions. 2. Average PBR. 3. DDR. 4. Demand level. 5. O&ST. 6. RCQ. 7. SLQ.

For BNR transactions, LP items will appear on the listing after how many days once the vendor bill is received and processed?

7 days.

What series of requisition serial numbers are used for off-line requisitions?

9000-9899.

What is an I&SG?

A group of items with similar physical and functional characteristics that provide compatible functional performance.

Explain the difference between a stock number change and a stock number merge.

A stock number change exists when the change to stock number is not in the materiel management system database. A stock number merge exists when the change to stock number is loaded in the materiel management system database.

Which subgroup within I&SG is the least desired for retention: AA, AB, AC, or AD?

AA.

How are supply difficulties reported?

AF Form 1667, message, or e-mail

Which form is used to request an ASL? How many copies are needed?

AF Form 1996. Two (2) copies.

Stock number changes are made normally as a result of what conditions?

AF Form 86 action, stock list changes, or to correct erroneous file maintenance data on original FIL inputs.

What type of ASL maintains an item's stockage position at a constant level?

Adjusted fixed level.

What agencies are required to use MILSTRIP procedures?

All branches of the Service.

On 22 June 12, your base reported it had three excess connector cables. You issued two of these before receiving disposition instructions. What occurs when the RDO is input?

An RDO denial (DIC B7*) is produced.

How often must you reconcile weapons and COMSEC detail records?

Annually for weapons (30 April) and semiannually for COMSEC (15 March and 15 September).

How often are ASLs validated?

At least every two years.

What are the two main types of requisitions?

Automatic and special.

What are the two methods of releasing due-outs?

Automatically and forced.

Why must you ensure a part number is correct before you load it?

Because the part number cannot be edited under program control.

What is the NHA for figure and index number 2-9-12?

Bell crank assembly, main landing gear shrink LH.

What CICs are used to identify weapons?

CICs N, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, or 8.

What status types are generated by program control at base level?

Cancellation requests and follow-up.

What status type has the worst effect on an account?

Cancellation.

What action occurs during the validation of ASLs?

Complete line item review in which the requesting activity certifies that the requirement and authority for each level is still valid.

Information on I&SGs are provided by what system?

D043B.

Normally, in what format are requisitions submitted to the SOS?

DIC AO*.

By what DIC are RBLs received at each base?

DIC XCA.

What TRIC is used to process a due-out cancellation?

DOC.

What three TRICs may be used to force release a due-out?

DOR, REC, TIN.

How are IPBs normally identified and published?

Dash four (-4) series of TOs.

What are supply difficulties?

Deficiencies resulting in a delay of item support that cannot be corrected locally and can ultimately affect the operational capability of the base or unit involved.

What action does the supply source take when they receive a cancellation request?

Either confirm the cancellation or furnish shipping status.

What section must be notified of all cancellations of equipment due-outs?

Equipment Management.

What combinations of codes determine the requisition priority to be used at the SOS?

FAD and UND.

What input changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack?

FCU.

What input is used to change the stock number, ERRCD, EMC, RID and budget code?

FIC.

What input loads or changes the item record nomenclature, shelf life code, quantity unit pack, and the DEMIL code?

FNL.

Within what period must ARC images be worked before another is output?

Five days.

When 100-percent status is required for a priority 03 requisition, when is an in-line follow-up performed?

Four days after the requisition date.

How are the two types of deletes processed?

Internal deletes by program control and external deletes by FID processing.

IPBs are normally broken down into what three sections?

Introduction, group assembly parts list, and numerical index.

What benefit is provided by establishing a part number detail record?

It automates the part number to stock number cross-reference file and reduces external research action.

What does position 7 of an NC number indicate?

It identifies the ALC assigning the NC number.

What does the second position of an ERRCD signify?

It identifies those items recoverable through repair or those items not normally subject to repair.

What is a transfer?

It is the movement of materiel to the DLADS.

What records are established by processing a FIL input?

Item record and repair cycle record.

What RICs are used on lateral support shipments?

JLS or D**.

What type detail is used to control and manage ASLs?

L type ASL details.

What does the term MILSTRIP stand for?

MILSTRIPs.

What type of ASL restricts stockage?

Maximum ASL.

What type of ASL should you establish for seasonal items?

Maximum, type level D.

How often are priority due-outs validated?

Monthly.

What is an NC number?

NC stock numbers are numbers assigned by an ALC IM pending assignment of an NSN.

What type of redistribution results from a local management decision?

Nondirected redistribution.

What type of redistribution is a lateral support shipment?

Nondirected, special.

How often is a due-out review conducted?

On a daily basis for UND A and on a weekly basis for UND A and B due-outs.

Which data screen displays information for Identification Data, MOE Rule Coded Data, Ref/PN Data, Management Data, Phrase Data, Freight Data, and Decoded Characteristics Data?

Output Selection Views.

Which data screen displays information for Identification Data, MOE Rule Coded Data, Ref/PN Data, Management Data, Phrase Data, Freight Data, and Decoded Characteristics Data?

Output Selection Views.

What is the source code for part number 53-39303-99?

P2.

What are the different types of MILSTRIP status?

Positive supply status, cancellations, in transit/shipped, and exception/other.

What product is used to review and validate ASLs?

Program R35.

What is the purpose of UMMIPS?

Provides a standard method of ranking competing needs among activities to their overall importance.

What is the purpose of MILSTRIP?

Provides a standard method of requisitioning supplies from the SOS.

How often are RBLs updated?

Quarterly.

Which listing may be used instead of the D18 in performance of due-out review?

R01.

What REX code is used to indicate a requisition was cancelled from the SOS?

REX 1.

How can you ensure a request has been coordinated with other base users?

Research the consolidated transaction history register for the past 6 months and look for issues/due-outs.

What relationship code identifies items that can be used in place of other items only for particular uses or under certain conditions?

S.

What code provides maintenance activities with repair-level responsibilities, support methods, and disposition instructions?

SMR code.

How are COMSEC items identified on the item record?

SRC of C and MMCs of CA, CK, CL, CO, CR or CY.

Processing supply difficulty reports must not take more than how many calendar days?

Seven.

What is created whenever a referral order is honored, and credit is given to the shipping base?

Shipped not credited (SNC) details.

In what format is requisition status received?

Supply or shipment (AE*/AS* or AU*).

What TEX code is used in a DOR input to force release a due-out?

TEX 3.

What TO reference lists SMR codes and provides a complete explanation of each?

TO 00-25-195.

What TRIC is used to load a new stock number?

TRIC FIL.

Under what two TRICs may a part number detail be loaded?

TRIC FIL/1AA.

What does review code I indicate on a due-out cancellation input?

That stock control has reviewed the cancellation input.

What system is an official Air Force source for obtaining supply and cataloging management data?

The D043A system.

What does the first position of an ERRCD signify?

The expendability of an item of supply.

How are next higher assemblies determined in the TO system?

The indent dot system.

What action occurs during the review of an ASL?

The initiator confirms that the approved level is still required in the quantity described in the original justification.

What is the key to achieving and maintaining a well-balanced stock position?

Timeliness in submission of stock replenishment requisitions.

How was the order of use system designed?

To exhaust the stocks of least desirable items before the master item is used.

What are SEX codes used for?

To identify item records that require special shipping action, or to notify local management when shipping action has been taken.

What is the purpose of the D043A system?

To provide Air Force personnel with online cataloging, standardization, and other logistics management data for Air Force-managed or user items.

What type of minimum ASL has a reorder point one-third the ASL quantity?

Type level A.

Which minimum ASLs are automatically deleted once the demand level equals or exceeds the total minimum level?

Type levels A and B.

How long are expendable items accounted for on supply records?

Until they are issued for use.

What product is used for weapons or COMSEC reconciliation?

Weapon/COMSEC reconciliation (R46).

When does the materiel management system identify and requisition stock replenishment requirements?

When items have an asset position down to or below its ROL.

When is follow-up action initiated?

When supply status information is overdue or the EDD has passed.

What is the consequence of not processing status immediately?

You will create more work because of unnecessary follow-ups, receipt rejects, and incorrect cancellations and billings.

What two cancellation status codes are assigned under program control?

ZC, ZD.