CE 1
Which of the following NATA position statements should a high school athletic trainer review before the start of preseason football to minimize the risk of heat related illness? a. Exertional Heat Illness b. Emergency planning in Athletics c. Inter-association task force on Exertional Heat Illness d. Youth Football and Heat-Related illness e. Appropriate Medical Care for Secondary Age Athletes
a. Exertional Heat Illness
What substance is contained in a higher percentage in white "anaerobic" muscle fibers compared with red "aerobic" muscle fibers? a. Glycogen b. Fat c. Myoglobin d. Protein e. Hemoglobin
a. Glycogen
Which of the following signs is inconsistent with the diagnosis of internal bleeding? a. Increased blood pressure b. Weak, rapid pulse c. Abdominal rigidity d. Blood in the urine, stool or vomit e. Bleeding from the ears
a. Increased blood pressure
Which of the following should be included when explaining the term "sports medicine" to the general public? a. Umbrella term b. Medical specialty c. Athlete exclusive d. Orthopedic
a. Umbrella term
If you desire to work as an athletic trainer in the industrial setting, which of the following knowledge and skill sets would be the most helpful? a. Workplace ergonomics b. Pedagogical techniques c. Mechanical systems d. Insurance Programs e. Stress management
a. Workplace ergonomics
The bat swing in baseball (movement of the arms) takes place in which of the following planes? a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Sagittal d. Reverse e. Supine
b. Transverse
When counseling an athlete with jumper's knee, which of the following activities should you recommend be minimized? a. Concentric closed kinetic-chain exercises b. Eccentric open kinetic-chain exercises c. Plyometric-type exercises d. Aquatic conditioning exercises e. Elliptical or cycling cardiovascular training
c. Plyometric-type exercises
Following an injury, an athlete is exhibiting the characteristics of the bargaining stage of the Kubler-Ross classic model of reaction to death and dying. Which stage is this athlete most likely to enter next? a. Acceptance b. Denial c. Anger d. Depression e. Recovery
d. Depression
You are performing one-person CPR respiration on an unconscious victim. What is the proper compression-to-breathe ratio? a. 5:1 b. 5:2 c.30:1 d. 15:2 e. 30:2
e. 30:2
Which of the following descriptions best defines an emergency action plan? a. A written document that defines the standard of care required in every conceivable event during emergency situation b. Procedures that are specific to the needs of each institution and athletic facility during an emergency situation c. A statement that will drive the institution's functional goals, which in turn formulate all medical operating procedures d. A detailed plan that describes the roles of involved personnel during an emergency situation e. A written site-specific plan for transporting injured athletes in an emergency situation
a. A written document that defines the standard of care required in every conceivable event during emergency situation
You refer an 8-year-old camper who has tenderness over the base of the fifth metatarsal to the emergency department for evaluation. The camper returns to camp the next day on crutches with paperwork indicating he should follow up with an orthopedist in 1 week for a repeat x-ray to rule out an occult fracture. The camper's mother inquires about the diagnosis. How would you best respond? Select one: a. An occult fracture means a hidden fracture, which is common in young athletes. b. An occult fracture is a rapidly healing fracture, which is common in young athletes because of their constant growth. c. An occult fracture is a fracture of the fifth metatarsal that is often confused with a Jones fracture. d. An occult fracture is an avulsion fracture; repeat x-ray is required to determine fragment displacement. e. An occult fracture is a growth plate injury common to young athletes participating in lower-extremity sports.
a. An occult fracture means a hidden fracture, which is common in young athletes.
According to NCAA policies, how frequently are sports rules reviewed and potentially revised? a. Annually b. Biannually c. Every other year d. Every 5 years e. When requested by an NCAA member institution
a. Annually
According to the Bloodborne Pathogen Standards, which statement best describes the persons required to receive training through their employer in regard to occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens? a. Any employee who has the potential for occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials b. Only employees involved in direct patient care who might be exposed to blood or other potentially infection materials c. All federal and state employees d. Only health-care providers dealing with high-risk patient populations e. Persons completing a first-aid and CPR course
a. Any employee who has the potential for occupational exposure to blood of other potentially infectious materials
During preseason, your football players regularly submerge themselves in cold water tubs in the locker room to cool off after practice. Which method of heat exchange is being employed? a. Convection b. Conduction c. Radiation d. Evaporation e. Conversion
a. Convection
As an athletic trainer, you are responsible for accumulating and maintaining an accurate record of all completed continuing education activities. Which of the following statements might lead you to overestimate the number of accumulated continuing education units (CEUs)? a. Each time you become re-certified in CPR, continuing CEUs are awarded. b. You can only count CEUs accumulated during a 3 year period c. CEUs may be obtained by attending workshops and seminars hosted by approved providers d. CEUs may be obtained by attending a non-approved provider workshop and seminar e. First aid is not a continuing education requirement
a. Each time you become re-certified in CPR, continuing CEUs are awarded
When designing a hydrotherapy area, which design elements are recommended to reduce risk of patient injury? a. Electrical outlets must be at least 3' off the floor and equipped with GFIs, hydrotherapy tanks should be connected directly to a floor drain b. Electrical outlets must be at least 2' off the floor; hydrotherapy tanks should be connected directly to a floor drain; and floors should be carpeted to reduce slippage. c. Electrical outlets must be equipped with GFIs; floor should be sloped toward the drains to minimize puddling; and lighting should be a minimum of 14 watts d. The area should be a minimum of 6 square feet per athlete being serviced, walls should be constructed from cinder block; and the floors should be carpeted to reduce slippage. e. The area should use only natural lighting and should be a minimum of 1 square foot per athlete being serviced and plumbing fixtures should include mixing valves and foot pedal activators.
a. Electrical outlets must be at least 3' off the floor and equipped with GFIs, hydrotherapy tanks should be connected directly to the floor drain
For which of the following actions would a certified athletic trainer found to be non-compliant with the BOC standards of Practice? a. Endorsing a student's application to sit for the BOC certification examination in an examination window before the student's last semester of coursework. b. Completing an institutional review board application before conducting research c. Attending an educational conference sponsored by the American Physical Therapy Association d. Following standing orders provided by your supervising physician when providing care e. Refusing a coach who insists on returning an athlete with a head injury to practice before athlete meets RTP criteria
a. Endorsing a student's application to sit for the BOC certification examination in an exam window before the student's last semester of coursework
An athletic trainer for a collegiate ice hockey team has requested in writing that protective barriers be constructed around the rink to protect spectators and to comply with local regulations. The request was denied by the administration of the institution due to lack of available funding. During a game, an inattentive fan is struck in the head by a puck and suffers a skull fracture. What liability factor might the school be found guilty should the spectator choose to sue for damages? a. Failure to act b. Failure to warn c. Ignoring the law d. Ignorance of the law e. Intentional harm
a. Failure to act
Axial loading is the primary mechanism for cervical spine injury. What is the only technique that results in axial loading? a. Head-down contact b. Face mask-to-face mask contact c. Shoulder pad-to-face mask contact d. Shoulder pad-to-posterior helmet contact e. Face-forward contact
a. Head-down contact
According to the NATA position statement on Management of the Cervical Spine Injured Athlete, which of the following statements is correct regarding face mask removal? a. If the face mask cannot be removed in a reasonable amount of time, the helmet should be removed in the safest manner possible. b. If the face mask cannot be removed in a reasonable amount of time, a pocket mask should be inserted under the face mask while ensuring cervical stabilization. c. If the face mask must be removed, cutting tools are generally faster and produce less head movement than powered "cordless" screwdrivers. d. Once the decision to immobilize and transport has been made, the athletic trainer should allow the paramedics to determine whether the face mask should be removed. e. The face mask should be removed prior to a primary assessment to ensure the most accurate evaluation of the airway.
a. If the face mask cannot be removed in a reasonable amount of time, the helmet should be removed in the safest manner possible.
An athlete would like to decrease body fat percentage. What advice would you give? a. Include cardiovascular training in aerobic training zone for prolonged periods b. Work intensely for short periods with rest in between c. Work for prolonged periods with a slight oxygen debt d. Discontinue any resistance training programs e. Exercise for prolonged periods over the lactate threshold
a. Include cardiovascular training in aerobic training zone for prolonged periods
Why is horizontal adduction limited when an athlete has sustained an acromioclavicular separation? a. It approximates the joint surfaces, creating pressure and pain b. It distracts the joint surfaces, stretching damaged tissue and creating pain c. Horizontal adduction is not limited d. It causes impingement of the rotator cuff in the subacromial space, creating pain e. It causes the biceps tendon to create a traction force at the joint, creating pain
a. It approximates the joint surfaces, creating pressure and pain
An athlete is being seen the team physician because she is unable to bear weight due to pain and complains of swelling and tenderness localized over the dorsum of the foot. Based on this presentation, which of the following would be included in the physician's DDX? a. Lisfranc's Injury b. Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome c. Plantar fasciitis d. Extensor tendinosis e. Sesamoiditis
a. Lisfranc's injury
What is primary goal when providing emergency care? a. Maintain cardiovascular function and, indirectly, central nervous system function b. Maintain central nervous system, and indirectly respiratory system integrity c. Maintain adequate blood supply, and indirectly brain function d. Maintain breathing, and indirectly, central nervous system function e. Maintain visceral organs, and indirectly peripheral function
a. Maintain cardiovascular function and, indirectly, central nervous system function
What is the largest structural feature of a muscle? a. Myofilament b. Myofibril c. Sacromere d. Cross-bridge e. Z line
a. Myofilament
A resisted range-of-motion evaluation reveals weakness in the absence of pain. What are the clinical indications of these findings? a. Neurological deficit or chronic contractile soft-tissue injury b. Normal findings for contractile tissue c. Minor contractile soft-tissue injury d. Significant contractile-tissue injury or chronic noncontractile soft-tissue injury e. Minor contractile soft-tissue injury or chronic contractile soft-tissue injury
a. Neurological deficit or chronic contractile soft-tissue injury
An athlete with a pre-conditioning stroke volume of 70 mL/beat has just completed an 8-week cardiovascular training program. His stroke volume is now 105 mL/beat. How would you characterize this? a. Normal secondary to training effects b. High secondary to over-training c. Low secondary to training effects d. Unexplainable because stroke volume should not change with training e. Normal only for power anaerobic athletes
a. Normal secondary to training effects
Which individual is ultimately responsible for determining the athlete's medical ability to return to competition? a. Physician b. Athletic trainer c. Parent d. Coach e. Athletic Director
a. Physician
You refer an athlete to the team orthopedist to rule out Jones fracture. The physician calls you to confirm that the athlete has a fifth metatarsal fracture but not a Jones fx. In what case would a fifth metatarsal fracture not be a Jones fracture? a. The fracture is more than 1 em from the proximal diaphysis of the fifth metatarsal b. The fracture is a transverse fracture c. The fracture is an avulsion fracture d. The fracture is non-displaced e. The fracture is where the bone changes shape and direction.
a. The fracture is more than 1 em from the proximal diaphysis of the fifth metatarsal.
While you are working in a baseball tournament, a storm approaches. The flash-to-bang count is 30 seconds. How should you apply this information? Select one: a. The storm is 6 miles away, and all individuals should immediately seek safe shelter. b. The storm is 6 miles away, and individuals should be informed of the possibility of lightning and should begin making plans for eventual evacuation of the field. c. The storm is 5 miles away, and officials should be alerted of a possible storm in the area. d. The storm is 5 miles away, and players should be removed from the field and kept in the dugouts until the flash-to-bang number increases. e. The storm is 3 miles away, and officials, coaches, and spectators should be informed of the possibility of lightning and instructed to keep an eye to the sky and await further instructions.
a. The storm is 6 miles away, and all individuals should immediately seek safe shelter.
You are progressing an athlete who is recovering from a femoral stress fx by transitioning him from non-weight-bearing activities to partial WB activities. The basis of your progression is to place controlled stresses on bone and soft tissue, causing them to remodel and realign along the lines of tensile force. Which principle of rehabilitation are you applying to this athlete? a. Wolff's Law b. SAID principle c. Watkins' progression d. Oxford technique e. DAPRE principle
a. Wolff's Law
A student graduating with an undergraduate major in the Department of Athletic Training and Sport Studies asks about eligibility to sit for the Board of Certification (BOC) examination. What is the correct response? Select one: a. Yes, if the student is graduating from a Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Educationaccredited program b. Yes, if the student's degree is in sports medicine and the student has all the prerequisite courses required by the BOC c. Yes, if the student has taken all the athletic training classes listed on the Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education's Web site and has spent at least 800 hours working under the supervision of a certified athletic trainer d. No, because a master's degree is required to sit for the BOC certification examination e. No, because the student is not graduating from a degree program in a department of sports medicine or rehabilitation sciences
a. Yes, if the student is graduating from a Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Educationaccredited program
A physician holds a weekly clinic in your athletic training room two mornings per week. The physician has requested permission to store and dispense a few select prescription medications from the athletic training room. How would you best respond to the request? Select one: a. You agree with the stipulation that a Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) facility certificate be obtained and that in the signed physician agreement you be listed as an agent assigned by the DEA. b. You agree, with the only stipulation being that the physician must install a locked cabinet for which the physician has the only key and is the only one to dispense medications. c. You decline, stating that the athletic training rooms are not permitted to house prescription drugs because doing so would put the facility in violation of DEA laws. d. You decline, stating you believe doing so would put the staff in violation of state pharmacology laws. e. You decline, stating that dispensing medication is outside the scope of practice of an athletic trainer
a. You agree with the stipulation that a Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) facility certificate be obtained and that in the signed physician agreement you be listed as an agent assigned by the DEA.
An adolescent athlete sustains a fall on an outstretched hand and is seen by his pediatrician. He returns the next day and reports that the x-ray in the pediatrician's office was negative, and he can play as tolerated; however he still presents with exquisite pain in the anatomical snuffbox. You are hesitant to allow him to return to play because you feel he may have a fracture . How would you best communicate to the athlete's physician your concern that yesterday's x-ray may be a false-negative? a. The navicular bone is too dense for x-rays to pass through b. A fracture line may not show on x-rays for several weeks c. The wrists cannot be stabilized because of a chronic or acute irritation of the proximal radial condyle d. It may take several months for a fracture line to show on x-rays e. The navicular bone is too small to be seen by x-ray
b. A fracture line may not show on x-rays for several weeks
An adolescent athlete has been told she has chondromalacia patellae. Which of the following best describes this condition? a. An inflammation and bony outgrowth from the attachment of the thigh muscles to the lower leg b. An abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella or kneecap c. Pain and swelling of the tendon between the kneecap and the lower leg d. Abnormal movement of the kneecap in its groove when you bend and straighten your leg e. Tearing of the cartilage cushions inside the knee joint
b. An abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella or kneecap
The women's soccer team is unable to use the practice field and has been relocated to a new practice site. A fire hydrant is found to be located 1' from the sideline of the temporary practice field. What would be the best action to address this safety hazard? a. Apply warning cones around the area b. Apply mats/padding to the hydrant, and place warning cones around the area c. Inform the athletes about the hydrant and ask them to use caution when playing nearby d. Stand beside the hydrant during the entire practice e. Place your kit in front of the hydrant, and ask the coach to limit practice time on that end of the field
b. Apply mats/padding to the hydrant, and place warning cones around the area
Which of the following correctly defines the application of the term "direct supervision" ? a. As the responsible athletic trainer, I can communicate in person or by phone with the student at any time. b. As the responsible athletic trainer, I can intervene on behalf of the athlete and the student at any time. c. As the responsible athletic trainer, I can see and touch the athletic training student at all times. d. As the responsible athletic trainer, I should provide the student autonomy to make non-life-threatening mistakes. e. As the responsible athletic trainer, I am able to decrease the number of athletes I see per hour.
b. As the responsible athletic trainer, I can intervene on the behalf of the athlete and the student at any time.
In 1992, what piece of equipment did the Occupational Safety and Health Administration mandate athletic trainers used while performing CPR? a. Bag-valve mask to provide standard quantity of oxygen delivery b. Barrier device or pocket mask to minimize transmission of bloodborne pathogens c. Gloves to minimize transmission of bloodborne pathogens d. Supplemental oxygen to increase oxygen saturation e. Watch with a second hand to more accurately perform compressions at the recommended rate
b. Barrier device or pocket mask to minimize transmission of bloodborne pathogens
During a visit to the physician's office, an athlete is diagnosed with myositis ossificans of the biceps. By what other name is this condition referred? a. Burner b. Blocker's exostosis c. Thrower's shoulder d. Tennis elbow e. Speed's syndrome
b. Blocker's exostosis
Which of the following best describes an athlete's macrocycle? a. Preseason training period b. Complete training period c. Transition period d. Competition season e. Strength phase
b. Complete training period
What does the designation FNATA indicate? a. Foundation status in the NATA b. Fellow status in the NATA c. Founding member of the NATA d. Future member of the NATA e. Former member of the NATA
b. Fellow status in the NATA
An athlete with a 3-week history of knee pain and mild joint effusion develops Baker's cyst. After discussions with the team physician, which test would best reveal the cause of the cyst? a. X-ray b. Magnetic Resonance Imaging c. Bone scan d. Diagnostic ultrasound e. Complete blood count
b. Magnetic Resonance Imaging
In conjunction with the medical director at your school's student health services, you are planning an informational session for student athletes on the topic of sickle cell trait. Athletes of what descent should be targeted for this information? a. European, Indian and African-American b. Mediterranean, African-American and Caribbean c. African-American, Asian and Central American d. Middle Eastern, African-American and eastern European e. South American, African-American and North American
b. Mediterranean, African-American, and Caribbean
You find out that a certified athletic trainer at another school in your school in your town has been consuming alcohol during working hours. Which of the following codes is the individual violating? a. Board of Certification Code of Honor b. NATA Code of Ethics c. Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education Code of Professionalism d. NCAA Code of Sports Medicine Practice e. American Medical Association Code of Heath Care
b. NATA Code of Ethics
you are hosting a lecture series for students in your athletic training education program. The speakers are all credentialed medical and allied health professionals. You have invited all the approved clinical instructors in your program to attend as well. Based on Board of Certification (BOC) guidelines, can these clinical instructors count these lectures toward continuing education unit credits? a. Yes, as nonapproved provider credit as long as the presentation is made by a credentialed medical professional b. No, because the primary audience is students c. Yes; as long as you submit a list of their names and certification numbers to the BOC d. No, because it is not being conducted at a conference center e. Yes; as long as the content of the lecture falls within the Role Delineation Study
b. No, because the primary audience is students
An athlete reports experiencing a minor seizure over the weekend. The team physician orders an electroencephalogram to assist in ruling out the presence of epilepsy and asks you to explain of the test to the athlete. How would you best explain the purpose of this test? a. Records electrical activity of the heart b. Records electrical activity of the brain c. Measures electrical activity in peripheral nerve tissue d. Measures electrical activity in contracting muscle tissue. e. Measures electrical activity in autonomic nerve tissue
b. Records electrical activity of the brain
An athlete presents with sudden onset of complete unconsciousness. Her pulse is fast, and weak, and respirations are quick and shallow. Her pupils are equal and dilated, and her skin is pale, cold and clammy. Which of the following conditions is most associated with this presentation? a. Diabetic Coma b. Syncope c. Heatstroke d. Insulin shock e. Brain injury
b. Syncope
An athlete who recently sustained a concussion and remains symptomatic is anxious to return for tomorrow's game. As his athletic trainer you are receiving pressure from the athlete, his parents, and the coaching staff to clear for full participation. Which of the following is the best reason for withholding this athlete from participation? a. The athlete is at increased risk for cerebral blood clots b. The athlete is at increased risk for sustaining second-impact syndrome c. The athlete is at increased risk for sustaining a stroke d. The athlete is at increased risk for sustaining a brain aneurysm e. The athlete is at increased risk for post-concussive syndrome.
b. The athlete is at increased risk for sustaining second-impact syndrome
An athlete sustains an uncomplicated crown fracture. There is obvious tooth deformity and bleeding but not pain. How would you explain the absence of pain to the athlete? a. The dentin is not affected by this fracture, and it is the primary sit of nerve endings in the tooth. b. The fracture affects only the enamel portion of the tooth, and the enamel contains no nerve endings c. This type of fracture exposes the pulp cavity; after the pulp cavity is exposed to air, the nerve endings cease to fire. d. The fracture is through the gum, which causes bleeding but not pain. e. The fracture line is through the root, which results in significant bleeding but no pain because the area is not innervated
b. The fracture affects only the enamel portion of the tooth, and the enamel contains no nerve endings
According to the NATA position statement on environmental cold injuries, three layers of clothing are recommended to minimize risk of hypothermia. Which of the following is correct regarding these layers a. The external layer allows evaporation of sweat with minimal absorption b. The internal layer allows evaporation of sweat with minimal absorption c. The middle layer provides resistance against wind d. The external layer provides insulation e. The internal layer provides insulation
b. The internal layer allows evaporation of sweat with minimal absorption
An athlete returns from the physician with a diagnosis of an "unhappy triad". Why was the definition of this condition recently revised? a. The medial meniscus is involved in this type of injury more frequently than the lateral meniscus b. The lateral meniscus is involved in this type of injury more frequently than the medial meniscus c. The lateral collateral ligament is involved in this type of injury more frequently than the MCL. d. The lateral collateral ligament was added because it is injured as frequently as the MCL. e. The PCL was added because it is injured as frequently as the ACL
b. The lateral meniscus is involved in this type of injury more frequently than the medial meniscus
How do lower extremity closed kinetic chain exercises minimize anterior tibial translation forces? a. The shear force is negated by the compressive forces created in a closed kinetic posture b. The shear force is counteracted by a co-contraction of the hamstrings c. The shear force is counterweighted by the ground reaction forces created by foot contact. d. The anterior tibial translation forces are counteracted by a co-contraction of the quadriceps and the IT band e. The anterior tibial translation forces are negated by the simultaneous rotational forces about the tibia
b. The shear force is counteracted by a co-contraction of the hamstrings
You are conducting an educational session for your student athletes on substance abuse. Which of the following s/sx may indicate a substance use disorder? a. Increasing mistakes through inattention or poor judgement and unexplained weight loss b. Increased appetite and increasing physical complaints of unknown origin or evidence of injury c. Arriving late to practice or class and overreacting to real or imagined criticisms d. Increasing complaints from teammates and desire to change academic major e. Minimizing relationship with parents and bragging about a vibrant social life
c. Arriving late to practice or class and overreacting to real or imagined criticisms
Which of the following types of listening should a health-care professional employ when communicating with a patient? a. Passive b. Moderate c. Critical d. Active e. Cynical
c. Critical
A middle aged coach falls unconscious on the sideline. Her skin is cool and dry, and she is gasping. Her face is flushed, her lips are cherry red, and there is a sweet odor on her breath. What do you suspect? a. Cerebral hemorrhage b. Stroke c. Diabetic coma d. Insulin shock e. Anaphylactic shock
c. Diabetic Coma
Which of the following is classified as a saddle joint and is capable of 2 degrees of freedom? a. Fourth carpometacarpal joint b. First metacarpophalangeal joint c. First carpometacarpal joint d. Fifth carpometacarpal joint e. Fifth metacarpophalangeal joint
c. First carpometacarpal joint
Which of the following job characteristics is least likely to result in an athletic trainer experiencing burn out? a. Long work hours b. Role ambiguity c. High expectations from superiors d. High number of athletes to care for e. Time away from family
c. High expectations from superiors
How should you instruct an athlete to breathe while performing a bench press? a. Inhale as the bar is thrust upward and exhale as bar is lowered b. Hold the breath as the bar is lowered and inhale as the bar is thrust upward c. Inhale as the bar is lowered and exhale as the bar is thrust upward d. Hold the breath until one repetition is complete e. Inhale as the bar is lowered and hold the breath as the bar is thrust upward
c. Inhale as the bar is lowered and exhale as the bar is thrust upward
Which statement describes the pressures during inhalation? a. Atmospheric pressure is lower than intrapleural pressure b. Intra-alveolar pressure is lower than intrapleural pressure c. Intra-alveolar pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure d. Intrapleural is higher than atmospheric pressure
c. Intra-alveolar pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure
A male referee running down the sidelines during a punt return suddenly grasps at his chest and collapses. His face becomes ashen and his breathing is difficult. Because you are trained in first aid, you suspect heart attack. What should you do? a. Treat for shock, and send someone to get an AED b. Begin artificial respirations, monitor pulse, and activate EMS. c. Monitor the patient's vital signs, send someone to get an AED and activate EMS d. Administer CPR, monitor vitals and activate EMS. e. Place the patient in a semi-reclining position, provide electrolyte fluids along with low-dose aspirin, send someone for AED and activate EMS.
c. Monitor the patient's vital signs, send someone to get an AED and activate EMS.
Why are automated external defibrillators effective in preventing sudden death from a cardiac emergency during sport activity? a. Most cardiac emergencies in sport involve atrial fibrillation b. Most cardiac emergencies in sport involve cardiac arrest. c. Most cardiac emergencies in sport involve ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest. d. Most cardiac emergencies in sport involve cardiac arrhythmia and congestive heart failure e. Most cardiac emergencies in sport involve valve dysfunction
c. Most cardiac emergencies in sport involve ventricular fibrillation and cardiac arrest.
Athletes who have completed the swimming leg of a triathlon go on to the biking segment. The ambient air temperature is 55 F, and the wind is steady at 15 mph. An athlete has difficulty and cannot continue riding. During your eval, you notice the following: the athlete is disoriented, and lethargic, has garbled speech, and has a core temperature of 95 F. The athlete's respirations are shallow, and the heart rate is notably slow .What would be the appropriate initial tx for this athlete? a. Cover the athlete with cool, damp towels, and send for emergency assistance. b. Administer a warm IV saline solution, and prepare for immediate transport. c. Move the athlete to a sheltered area, remove wet clothing, wrap the athlete in a warm blanket and administer warm fluids d. Position the athlete on a table with feet elevated, cover with a blanket and monitor for shock. e. Move the athlete to a sheltered area, administer cool fluids, and prepare for transport
c. Move the athlete to a sheltered area, remove wet clothing, wrap the athlete in a warm blanker, and administer warm fluids
When communicating with a patient, what type of question may result in the patient rationalizing or becoming defensive? a. Questions that begin with "what" b. Questions that begin with "How" c. Questions that begin with "why" d. Questions that begin with "who" e. Questions that begin with "where"
c. Questions that begin with "Why"
In the initial phase of throwing a ball, as the shoulder girdle and arm move from a posterior retracted position to a forward, internally rotated position, what are the primary muscles responsible for moving scapula and the arm forward? a. Subscapularis, anterior deltoid, coracobrachialis and serratus anterior b. Supraspinatus, teres major, rhomboids, and pectoralis major c. Serratus anterior, subscapularis, anterior deltoid and pectoralis major d. Serratus anterior, upper traps, latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major e. Subscapularis, upper traps, latissimus dorsi and triceps
c. Serratus anterior, subscapularis, anterior deltoid and pectoralis major
What landmark even for the athletic training profession occurred in 1990? a. NATA became a 501c corporation b. NATA-REF was established c. The American Medical Association recognized Athletic Training as an allied health-care profession d. Two educational paths to certification were eliminated e. The Board of Certification split from the NATA
c. The American Medical Association recognized Athletic Training as an allied health care profession
In which of the following situations would it be appropriate for the athletic trainer to progress from the primary survey to the secondary survey when completing on field assessment? a. Airway, breathing and circulation have been established, and the athlete is bleeding profusely from an open leg wound. b. The athlete has been stabilized, bleeding has been controlled and you are ready to make an emergency transport decision once the secondary survey is completed c. The athlete is conscious, stable and is being treated for shock. d. The athlete is unconscious, supine and breathing and vital signs are stable e. The patient is conscious with an obvious closed tib-fib fracture and is exhibiting nervousness, nausea and chills, and appears pale.
c. The athlete is conscious, stable and is being treated for shock.
During a PPE, the athletic trainer uses a tape to measure from the umbilicus to the most distal point of the medial malleolus of one limb and compares to the other. A difference of 2 cm is appreciated. What conclusions can the athletic trainer draw? a. The femur or tibia of one leg is longer than the contralateral limb b. The angle of the femoral neck inclination is greater on one leg compared with the contralateral leg c. The athlete is demonstrating abnormal pelvic positioning d. The athlete is demonstrating a positive test for the presence of a true leg length discrepancy. e. The athlete is demonstrating femoral retroversion on one leg compared with the contra-lateral leg
c. The athlete is demonstrating abnormal pelvic positioning
Which of the following athletes is demonstrating that he is acclimatized to a hot and humid environment? a. The athlete who produces the least amount of sweat after 1 hour of practice b. The athlete who consumes the least amount of water during practice session c. The athlete who is the first team member to start sweating during an outdoor practice session. d. The athlete who has the highest heart rate during the exercise session e. The athlete who has the highest heart rate during the exercise session
c. The athlete who is the first team member to start sweating during an outdoor practice session
The radius in flexion of the wrist is an example of which type of lever? a. First-class b. Second-class c. Third-class d. Fourth-class e. Fifth-class
c. Third-class
A 14 year old skateboarder falls while performing a trick and externally rotates his foot. The anterior tibiofibular ligament is intact, but you suspect he may have sustained a fracture. Which fracture is most likely based on this information? a. Salter Harris V fracture of the distal tibia b. Talar dome fracture c. Tillaux's fracture d. Fibular avulsion fracture e. Jones' fracture
c. Tillaux's fracture
Where is cyanosis best observed in a dark-skinned person? a. Eyes b. Lips and Abdomen c. Tongue and nailbeds d. Earlobes e. Pupils
c. Tongue and nail beds
Which of the following signs and symptoms best characterize hypovolemic shock? a. Slow; deep breathing; agitation and cold, pale clammy skin b. Dilated pupils, excessive urine output, and bluish lips and finger nails c. Very low blood pressure; rapid weak pulse and cold, pale clammy skin d. Profuse sweating, hot, dry skin and rapid shallow breathing e. Hyperventilation; light-headedness; and slow, thready pulse
c. Very low blood pressure, rapid weak pulse and cold, pale clammy skin
In your role as a physician extender, you evaluate a 5-year-old male tennis player complaining of bilateral sacroiliac pain. Your differential diagnosis includes ankylosing spondylitis and sacroiliac arthritis. Which of the following evaluation techniques will provide the best information for differentiating the two conditions? a. Sensation and reflex testing b. Sacral stress tests c. Palpation of SI joint d. Active and passive movements e. History of morning stiffness
d. Active and passive movements
As the sole athletic trainer providing patient care in the athletic training room, you are unexpectedly called to another area of the building to care for an injured person. Which of the following athletes receiving treatment can you most safely leave unsupervised? a. An athlete with Achilles tendonitis completing a cold whirlpool treatment b. An athlete with patellar tendonitis receiving e-stim treatment c. An athlete with IT band syndrome completing a conditioning session on the treadmill in the therapy pool d. An athlete with an acute ankle sprain receiving cryotherapy and elevation e. An athlete with a facet joint lock in the middle of a continuous mechanical traction session
d. An athlete with an acute ankle sprain receiving cryotherapy and elevation.
A tennis player reports experiencing shoulder pain during the mid portion of her forehand stroke. Which of the following muscles are responsible for this joint motion and should therefore be screened for potential injury? a. Pectoralis major and subscapularis b. Anterior deltoid and latissimus dorsi c. Infraspinatus and posterior deltoid d. Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major e. Coracobrachialis and pectoralis minor
d. Anterior deltoid and pectoralis major
What is the best location to determine the pulse rate of an athlete who has a weak radial pulse? a. Dorsal pedal b. Popliteal c. Brachial d. Carotid e. Femoral
d. Carotid
Which of the following acts may an athletic trainer be accused of committing if he or she proceeds with a therapeutic treatment before gaining patient consent? a. Failure to inform b. Negligence c. Failure to comply d. Criminal battery e. Criminal assault
d. Criminal battery
Which of the following actions falls outside the standard of care of the certified athletic trainer? a. Maintaining documentation b. Implementing rehabilitation programs c. Preventing injuries d. Dispensing medications e. Educating coaches, athletes, and parents
d. Dispensing medications
As a high-school athletic trainer, you have multiple practice sessions occurring simultaneously. Which group of athletes is most at risk for developing a heat-related illness? a. Cross country team completing speed drills b. Field hockey team preparing for tomorrow's game c. Soccer team working on corner kicks d. Football team running through offensive plays e. Volleyball team completing conditioning drills
d. Football team running through offensive plays
Which of the following exercises should be avoided during the initial stages of a rehabilitation program for an athlete with an acute subluxation of the GH joint? a. Rhythmic stabilization b. Isometric muscle strengthening c. Passive range of motion within a nonprovocative range d. Joint mobilization e. Gentle active ROM
d. Joint mobilization
When completing a primary survey, what is the first component that should be assessed? a. Airway, breathing and circulation b. Presence of spinal cord involvement c. Athlete's position and presence of deformities d. Level of consciousness e. Profuse bleeding
d. Level of consciousness
What should be the primary goal of treatment when caring for an athlete with suspected heat illness? a. Have the athlete transported to the hospital b. Rehydrate the athlete c. Move the athlete to a cooler environment d. Lower the victim's body temperature e. Replenish blood glucose levels
d. Lower the victim's body temperature
Your basketball team has reached the Sweet 16 round of the NCAA basketball tournament. In yesterday's practice session, your starting All-American point guard sprained an ankle and will not be ready for the game this coming weekend. You share this information at lunch with several close friends. After you share this info, they convince you to place a bet against your team because you are sure to make a profit. Which NATA Code of Ethics principle have you violated? a. Principle 1: Members shall respect rights, welfare and dignity of all. b. Principle 2: Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of AT c. Principle 3: Members shall maintain and promote high standards in their provision of service d. Principle 4: Members shall not engage in conduct that could be construed as a conflict of interest or that reflects negatively on the profession e. Principle 5: Members shall report illegal or unethical practices related to athletic training to the appropriate person or authorirty
d. Principle 4: Members shall not engage in conduct that could be construed as a conflict of interest or that reflects negatively on the profession.
What is the most important function of basophils? a. Combat certain parasitic infections and allergic reactions b. Extreme mobility and quick response to invasion of microorganisms c. Extreme phagocytic activity d. Release heparin into the blood stream e. Retain heparin
d. Release heparin into the blood stream
What benefits are provided by the NATA to a newly certified member employed for the first time in an athletic training position? Select one: a. 50% reduction in the registration fee for the annual meeting b. 4 years instead of 3 to complete requirements for first continuing education unit cycle c. Reduction in dues for the first full billing cycle d. Special considerations when applying for NATA sponsored grants e. Reception at the NATA annual meeting
d. Special considerations when applying for NATA sponsored grants
An athlete sustains a head injury that results in no loss of consciousness. He initially exhibits dilation of one pupil and reports a headache, dizziness, nausea and sleepiness. Upon re-evaluation, you note a rapid deterioration of symptoms. Which of the following conditions is most associated with these s/sx? a. Post-concussion syndrome b. Second Impact Syndrome c. Migraine Headache d. Subdural hematoma e. Epidural hematoma
d. Subdural hematoma
Which of the following documents identifies the primary tasks of an entry level athletic trainer? a. The NATA Education Council's Competencies in Athlete Training b. The Board of Certification Standards of Practice c. The NATA Code of Ethics d. The Board of Certification Role Delineation Study e. Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education Guidelines for Entry-Level Athletic Training
d. The Board of Certification Role Delineation Study
Before releasing an athlete, who has sustained a cerebral concussion, to the responsible adult who will be monitoring him overnight, which of the following S/Sx require immediate referral to ED? a. Headache b. Lethargy c. Inability to concentrate d. Vomiting e. Irritability
d. Vomiting
A middle-distance runner suffers from exercise-induced asthma. Which of the following environments is most likely to reduce the intensity and number of episodes of wheezing during activity? a. Cold and dry b. Warm and dry c. Cold and moist d. Warm and moist e. Hot and dry
d. Warm and moist
Your team physician is a strong supporter of athletic trainers and would like to become a member of the NATA. Is this possible? a. Yes; the physician can be a member in the category of Career Starter b. Yes; the physician can be a member in the category of Medical Professionals c. No; the physician must be a certified athletic trainer or student to be a member d. Yes; the physician can be a member in the category of associate e. No; physicians must be invited by the NATA to become members
d. Yes; the physician can be a member in the category of Associate
You suspect that a swimmer may be experiencing symptoms of over training. Which of the following situations is a significant indicator of overtraining? a. Athlete demonstrates increased whole body muscle tone b. Athlete complains of being easily agitated c. Athlete reports increased urinary output d. Athlete's blood pressure is below pre-participation baseline e. Athlete's resting heart rate is elevated above pre-participation baseline
e. Athlete's resting heart rate is elevated above pre-participation baseline
An adolescent lacrosse crease defender is struck in the chest directly over the area of the left ventricle with a shot on goal. He collapses immediately to the turf. What condition would you suspect and what is the most appropriate immediate treatment? a. Fractured sternum, activate EMS b. Spontaneous pneumothorax; rescue breathing c. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy; CPR and AED use d. Ruptured aortic aneurysm; CPR and AED use e. Commotio cordis, CPR and AED use
e. Commotio Cordis, CPR and AED use
A goalie hits her head against the post while making a save. The athlete is unconscious and unresponsive. The athlete's parent is not in attendance, and no written consent-to-treat form exists. Which of the following statements best reflects the athletic trainer's ability to treat this athlete? a. Actual consent can be obtained from the parent via phone prior to the athletic trainer administering any treatment b. The coach can act as the parent and provide consent for treatment c. The athletic trainer may not provide direct treatment to the athlete but may activate emergency medical services and communicate findings. d. Consent to treat is provided through the Good Samaritan Law e. Consent to treat is implied on part of the athlete and the parents because this is a potentially life threatening injury
e. Consent to treat is implied on the part of the athlete and the parents because this is a potentially life threatening injury
When providing primary emergency care to an unconscious athlete with a suspected cervical spine injury, what is the first action that should be taken? a. Apply a rigid cervical collar to stabilize the spine b. Place a towel in the posterior curve of the neck to establish normal lordotic curve c. Treat the athlete for shock by elevating lower extremity. d. Assess heart rate via the carotid pulse e. Establish and maintain open airway
e. Establish and maintain open airway
What is the role of the National Federation of State High School Associations as it relates to PPEs? a. Establish rules and procedures b. Mandate frequency of required examinations c. Establish disqualifying conditions d. Determine qualifications of authorizing professionals e. Make recommendations only
e. Make recommendations only
From which secondary injury should a wrestler who has sustained repetitive severe anterior thigh trauma be protected during subsequent practices and matches? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteochondritis dissecans c. Rhabdomyolysis d. Myokymia e. Myositis ossificans
e. Myositis ossificans
Which of the following continuing education credit activities would most likely be denied if submitted by a certified athletic trainer for credit? a. Attending a district athletic training symposium in the district in which the certified athletic trainer is a member b. Attending a district athletic training symposium in a district in which the certified athletic trainer is not a member c. Attending the NATA national symposium d. Reading articles and completing continuing education unit quizzes in approved journals e. Serving as an athletic trainer for a distract all-star game
e. Serving as an athletic trainer for a distract all-star game
A soccer player collides with an opponent and walks off the field in a partially flexed position with the contralateral arm splinted against his body. During your evaluation you suspect a rib fx, with possible lung involvement. Which of the following signs would confirm your suspicion? a. The athlete's respiration is 20 breaths per minute b. The athlete reports increased pain on inspiration c. The athlete's breathing is asymmetrical in appearance d. The athlete begins hyperventilating e. The athlete begins coughing up frothy red blood
e. The athlete begins coughing up frothy red blood
Which of the following is a major advantage of isokinetic resistance exercise for rehabilitating an injured athlete? a. A constant amount of resistance delivered through the full ROM. b. The ability to work through a full unrestricted ROM. c. Enhanced hyperplasia of muscle fibers compared with other types of resistance training d. Decreased lactic acid accumulation during exercise bout. e. The safety of the exercise because the resistance will not exceed the amount of force that can be produced.
e. The safety of the exercise because the resistance will not exceed the amount of force that can be produced
When an individual chooses to participate in a sport, the knowledge of the potential risks is in most cases clearly understood. Should an injury situation arise, when would the injured athlete assume none of the risk? a. When the athlete does not fully comprehend the school's assumption of risk policy b. When the athlete has never played the sport before the season in which the injury occurs c. When the athlete makes no effort to determine hazards associated with the sport d. When the athlete chooses not to sign the assumption of risk statement e. When the athlete is not warned of the dangers associated with participation
e. When the athlete is not warned of the dangers associated with partcipation