CH 15
11. A diabetic patient is admitted for evaluation of renal function because of recent fatigue, weakness, and elevated BUN and serum creatinine levels. While obtaining a nursing history, the nurse identifies an early symptom of renal insufficiency when the patient states, a. "I get up several times every night to urinate." b. "I wake up in the night feeling short of breath." c. "My memory is not as good as it used to be." d. "My mouth and throat are always dry and sore."
Answer: A Rationale: Polyuria occurs early in chronic kidney disease (CKD) as a result of the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine. The other symptoms would be expected later in the progression of CKD. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1206 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
13. A patient with CKD has a nursing diagnosis of disturbed sensory perception related to central nervous system changes induced by uremic toxins. An appropriate nursing intervention for this problem is to a. convey a caring attitude and foster the nurse-patient relationship. b. keep the patient on bed rest to avoid possible falls or other injuries. c. ensure restricted protein intake to prevent nitrogenous product accumulation. d. provide an opportunity for the patient to discuss concerns about the condition.
Answer: C Rationale: Uremia is caused by the products of protein breakdown, and protein restriction is used to decrease uremia. Because the primary cause of the patient's disturbed sensory perception is the uremia, conveying a caring attitude and providing opportunities for the patient to discuss concerns will not be as helpful as protein restriction. Although safety is a concern for the patient, bed rest is likely to promote weakness. The patient should be supervised when out of bed. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1211 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
33. A new order for IV gentamicin (Garamycin) 60 mg BID is received for a patient with diabetes who has pneumonia. When evaluating for adverse effects of the medication, the nurse will plan to monitor the patient's a. blood glucose. b. serum potassium. c. BUN and creatinine. d. urine osmolality.
Answer: C Rationale: When a patient at risk for CKD receives a nephrotoxic medication, it is important to monitor renal function with BUN and creatinine levels. The other laboratory values would not be useful in determining the effect of the gentamicin. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1213 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
The patient is on intake and output (I&O) as well as daily weights. The nurse notes that output is considerably less than intake over the last shift, and daily weight is 1 kg more than yesterday. The nurse should: a. draw a trough level after the next dose of antibiotic. b. obtain an order to place the patient on fluid restriction. c. assess the patient's lungs. d. insert an indwelling catheter.
c. assess the patient's lungs.
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient's temperature is elevated. The nurse should: a. assess peritoneal dialysate return. b. check the patient's blood sugar. c. evaluate the patient's neurological status. d. inform the provider of probable visceral perforation.
a. assess peritoneal dialysate return.
The patient gets hemodialysis 3 days a week. He is 74 inches tall and weighs 100 kg. In planning the care for this patient, the nurse recommends: a. 2500 to 3500 kcal diet per day. b. protein intake less than 50 grams per day. c. potassium intake of 10 mEq per day. d. fluid intake of less than 500 mL per day.
a. 2500 to 3500 kcal diet per day.
The most common reasons for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Acidosis b. Hypokalemia c. Volume overload d. Hyperkalemia e. Uremia
a. Acidosis c. Volume overload d. Hyperkalemia e. Uremia
Noninvasive diagnostic procedures used to determine kidney function include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray b. Renal ultrasound c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) d. Intravenous pyelography (IVP) e. Renal angiography
a. Kidney, ureter, bladder (KUB) x-ray b. Renal ultrasound c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation by: a. activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade. b. suppressing angiotensin production. c. decreasing sodium reabsorption. d. inhibiting aldosterone release.
a. activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade.
The critical care nurse is responsible for monitoring the patient receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). In doing so, the nurse should: a. assess that the blood tubing is warm to the touch. b. assess the hemofilter every 6 hours for clotting. c. cover the dialysis lines to protect them from light. d. use clean technique during vascular access dressing changes.
a. assess that the blood tubing is warm to the touch.
Daily weights are being recorded for the patient. His urine output has been less than his intravenous and oral intake. His weight yesterday was 97.5 kg. This morning it is 99 kg. The nurse understands that this corresponds to a(n): a. fluid retention of 1.5 liters. b. fluid loss of 1.5 liters. c. equal intake and output due to insensible losses. d. fluid loss of 0.5 liters.
a. fluid retention of 1.5 liters.
Acute kidney injury from post renal etiology is caused by: a. obstruction of the flow of urine. b. conditions that interfere with renal perfusion. c. hypovolemia or decreased cardiac output. d. conditions that act directly on functioning kidney tissue.
a. obstruction of the flow of urine.
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to: a. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload. b. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection. c. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate. d. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis.
a. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload.
With sudden cessation of renal function, all body systems are affected by the inability to maintain fluid and electrolyte balance and eliminate metabolic waste. In critically ill patients, renal dysfunction: a. is a very rare problem. b. affects nearly two thirds of patients. c. has a low mortality once renal replacement therapy has been initiated. d. has little effect on morbidity, mortality, or quality of life.
b. affects nearly two thirds of patients.
The patient is admitted to the unit with the diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis. The patient is started on intravenous (IV) fluids and IV mannitol. Because mannitol is an osmotic diuretic, the nurse should: a. assess the patient's hearing. b. assess the patient's lungs. c. decrease IV fluids once the diuretic has been administered. d. give extra doses prior to giving radiological contrast agents.
b. assess the patient's lungs.
The patient has a temporary percutaneous catheter in place for treatment of acute kidney injury. The catheter has been in place for 5 days. The nurse should: a. prepare to assist with a routine dialysis catheter change to replace the existing catheter. b. evaluate the patient for signs and symptoms of infection. c. teach the patient that the catheter is designed for long-term use. d. use one of the three lumens for fluid administration.
b. evaluate the patient for signs and symptoms of infection.
The patient undergoes a cardiac catheterization that requires the use of contrast dyes during the procedure. To detect signs of contrast-induced kidney injury, the nurse should: a. not be concerned unless urine output decreases. b. evaluate the patient's serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure. c. obtain an order for a renal ultrasound. d. evaluate the patient's post void residual volume to detect intrarenal injury.
b. evaluate the patient's serum creatinine for up to 72 hours after the procedure.
The patient has been admitted to the hospital with nausea and vomiting that started 5 days earlier. His blood pressure is 80/44 mm Hg and heart rate is 122 beats/min; he has not voided in 8 hours and his bladder is not distended. The nurse anticipates an order for "stat" administration of: a. a blood transfusion. b. fluid replacement with 0.45% saline. c. infusion of an inotropic agent. d. an antiemetic.
b. fluid replacement with 0.45% saline.
The patient is complaining of severe flank pain when he tries to urinate. His urinalysis shows sediment and crystals along with a few bacteria. Using this information along with the clinical picture, the nurse realizes that the patient's condition is: a. prerenal. b. postrenal. c. intrarenal. d. not renal related.
b. postrenal
Peritoneal dialysis is different from hemodialysis in that peritoneal dialysis: a. is more frequently used for acute kidney injury. b. uses the patient's own semipermeable membrane (peritoneal membrane). c. is not useful in cases of drug overdose or electrolyte imbalance. d. is not indicated in cases of water intoxication.
b. uses the patient's own semipermeable membrane (peritoneal membrane).
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter in place. In caring for this patient, the nurse should: a. apply a sterile gauze dressing to maintain sterility. b. replace the transparent dressing every 10 days to prevent manipulation. c. assess the catheter site for redness and/or swelling. d. use the catheter for drawing blood samples to reduce patient discomfort.
c. assess the catheter site for redness and/or swelling.
Which of the following patients is at the greatest risk of developing acute kidney injury? A patient who: a. has been on aminoglycosides for the past 6 days. b. has a history of controlled hypertension with a blood pressure of 138/88 mm Hg. c. was discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy of 2 weeks. d. has a history of fluid overload as a result of heart failure.
c. was discharged 2 weeks earlier after aminoglycoside therapy of 2 weeks.
The patient is in progressive care unit following arteriovenous fistula implantation in his left upper arm, and is due to have blood drawn with his next set of vital signs and assessment. When the nurse assesses the patient, the nurse should: a. draw blood from the left arm. b. take blood pressures from the left arm. c. start a new intravenous line in the left lower arm. d. auscultate the left arm for a bruit and palpate for a thrill.
d. auscultate the left arm for a bruit and palpate for a thrill.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has sustained blunt trauma to the left flank area, and is evaluating the patient's urinalysis results. The nurse should become concerned when a. creatinine levels in the urine are similar to blood levels of creatinine. b. sodium and chloride are found in the urine. c. urine uric acid levels have the same values as serum levels. d. red blood cells and albumin are found in the urine.
d. red blood cells and albumin are found in the urine.
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) differs from conventional intermittent hemodialysis in that: a. a hemofilter is used to facilitate ultrafiltration. b. it provides faster removal of solute and water. c. it does not allow diffusion to occur. d. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
d. the process removes solutes and water slowly.
The removal of plasma water and some low-molecular weight particles by using a pressure or osmotic gradient is known as: a. dialysis. b. diffusion. c. clearance. d. ultrafiltration.
d. ultrafiltration.
27. In the immediate postoperative period, the nurse caring for a patient who is a recipient of a kidney transplant would expect that fluid therapy would involve administration of IV fluids a. to be determined hourly, based on every milliliter of urine output. b. at a minimum rate of 100 ml/hr to perfuse the kidney. c. titrated to keep blood pressure within a normal range. d. at a rate to keep urine clear and without blood clots.
Answer: A Rationale: Fluid volume is replaced based on urine output after transplant because the urine output can be as high as a liter an hour. Fluid infusion rate is titrated rather than being at a set rate. Blood pressure and urine appearance are not the major parameters considered when titrating fluid infusion. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1228 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
18. Before administration of calcitriol (Rocaltrol) to a patient with CKD, the nurse should check the laboratory value for a. serum phosphate. b. total cholesterol. c. creatinine. d. potassium.
Answer: A Rationale: If serum phosphate is elevated, the calcium and phosphate can cause soft tissue calcification. The calcitriol should not be given until the phosphate level is lowered. Total cholesterol, creatinine, and potassium values do not impact whether calcitriol should be administered. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1210 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
31. A patient with CKD brings all home medications to the clinic to be reviewed by the nurse. Which medication being used by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required? a. Milk of magnesia 30 ml administered orally b. Oral acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg c. Multivitamin with iron d. Calcium phosphate (PhosLo)
Answer: A Rationale: Magnesium is excreted by the kidneys, and patients with CKD should not use over-the-counter products containing magnesium. The other medications are appropriate for a patient with CKD. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1207 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
24. A patient with diabetes who has chronic kidney disease (CKD) is considering using continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). In discussing this treatment option with the patient, the nurse informs the patient that a. patients with diabetes who use CAPD have fewer dialysis-related complications than those on hemodialysis. b. home CAPD requires more extensive equipment than does home hemodialysis. c. CAPD is contraindicated for patients who might eventually want a kidney transplant. d. dietary restrictions are stricter for patients using CAPD than for those having hemodialysis.
Answer: A Rationale: Patients with diabetes have better control of blood pressure, less hemodynamic instability, and fewer problems with retinal hemorrhages when using peritoneal dialysis than when using hemodialysis. CAPD is less expensive and has fewer dietary restrictions than hemodialysis. CAPD is not a contraindication for a kidney transplant. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1220 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
17. The nurse has instructed a patient who is receiving hemodialysis about dietary management. Which diet choices by the patient indicate that the teaching has been successful? a. Scrambled eggs, English muffin, and apple juice b. Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice c. Split-pea soup, whole-wheat toast, and nonfat milk d. Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea
Answer: A Rationale: Scrambled eggs would provide high-quality protein, and apple juice is low in potassium. Cheese is high in salt and phosphate, and tomato soup would be high in potassium. Split-pea soup is high in potassium, and dairy products are high in phosphate. Bananas are high in potassium, and the cream would be high in phosphate. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1211-1212 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
10. A patient with renal insufficiency is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following orders for the patient will the nurse question? a. Ibuprofen (Advil) 400 mg PO PRN for pain b. Dulcolax suppository 4 hours before IVP procedure c. Normal saline 500 ml IV before procedure d. NPO for 6 hours before IVP procedure
Answer: A Rationale: The contrast dye used in IVPs is nephrotoxic, and concurrent use of other nephrotoxic medications such as the NSAIDs should be avoided. The suppository and NPO status are necessary to ensure that adequate visualization during the IVP. IV fluids are used to ensure adequate hydration, which helps reduce the risk for contrast-induced renal failure. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1203 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
12. A patient is diagnosed with stage 3 CKD. The patient is treated with conservative management, including erythropoietin injections. After teaching the patient about management of CKD, the nurse determines teaching has been effective when the patient states, a. "I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink." b. "I need to take the erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection." c. "I need to try to get more protein from dairy products." d. "I will try to increase my intake of fruits and vegetables."
Answer: A Rationale: The patient with CKD who is not receiving dialysis is generally taught to restrict fluids. The patient would need to measure urine output and then add 600 ml for insensible losses to calculate an appropriate oral intake. Erythropoietin is given to increase red blood cell count and will not offer any benefit for immune function. Dairy products are restricted because of the high phosphate level. Many fruits and vegetables are high in potassium and should be restricted in the patient with CKD. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1212 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance
21. In preparation for hemodialysis, a patient has an AV native fistula created in the left forearm. When caring for the fistula postoperatively, the nurse should a. check the fistula site for a bruit and thrill. b. assess the rate and quality of the left radial pulse. c. compare blood pressures in the left and right arms. d. irrigate the fistula site daily with low-dose heparin.
Answer: A Rationale: The presence of a thrill and bruit indicates adequate blood flow through the fistula. Pulse rate and quality are not good indicators of fistula patency. Blood pressures should never be obtained on the arm with a fistula. Irrigation of the fistula might damage the fistula, and typically only dialysis staff would access the fistula. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1221 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
25. A patient who has been on continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is hospitalized and is receiving CAPD with four exchanges a day. During the dialysate inflow, the patient complains of having abdominal pain and pain in the right shoulder. The nurse should a. massage the patient's abdomen and back. b. decrease the rate of dialysate infusion. c. stop the infusion and notify the health care provider. d. administer the PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Answer: B Rationale: Abdominal pain and referred shoulder pain can be caused by a rapid infusion of dialysate; the nurse should slow the rate of the infusion. Massage and administration of acetaminophen (Tylenol) would not address the reason for the pain. There is no need to notify the health care provider. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1219 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
26. The nurse is assessing a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2-L inflows. Which information should be reported immediately to the health care provider? a. The patient complains of feeling bloated after the inflow. b. The patient's peritoneal effluent appears cloudy. c. The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase. d. The patient has an outflow volume of 1600 ml.
Answer: B Rationale: Cloudy-appearing peritoneal effluent is a sign of peritonitis and should be reported immediately so that treatment with antibiotics can be started. The other problems can be addressed through nursing interventions such as slowing the inflow and repositioning the patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1219 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
19. To determine glomerular filtration rate (GFR) for a patient with chronic kidney disease, the nurse will plan to a. schedule frequent blood urea nitrogen (BUN) tests. b. initiate a 24-hour collection of the patient's urine. c. check the specific gravity on serial urine specimens. d. use a bladder scanner to check for residual urine.
Answer: B Rationale: Creatinine clearance testing, the most accurate way to assess GFR, requires a 24-hour urine collection. BUN levels may increase for other reasons, such as dehydration, and are not as accurate in determining glomerular filtration. Urine-specific gravity testing and monitoring residual urine would not be useful in determining the GFR. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1206 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
36. A patient complains of leg cramps during hemodialysis. The nurse should a. give acetaminophen (Tylenol). b. infuse a bolus of normal saline. c. massage the patient's legs. d. reposition the patient.
Answer: B Rationale: Muscle cramps during dialysis are caused by rapid removal of sodium and water. Treatment includes infusion of normal saline. The other actions do not address the reason for the cramps. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1223 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
34. A patient receiving peritoneal dialysis using 2 L of dialysate per exchange has an outflow of 1200 ml. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Infuse 1200 ml of dialysate during the inflow. b. Assist the patient in changing position. c. Administer a laxative to the patient. d. Notify the health care provider about the outflow problem.
Answer: B Rationale: Outflow problems may occur because the peritoneal catheter is collapsed by a portion of the intestine, and repositioning the patient will move the catheter and allow outflow to occur. If less than the ordered 2 L of dialysate is infused, the dialysis will be less effective. Administration of a laxative may also help if the patient's colon is full, but this should be tried after repositioning the patient. If the problem with outflow persists after the patient is repositioned, the health care provider should be notified. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1219 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
2. A patient with acute renal failure (ARF) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30. The nurse will assess the patient for a. tachycardia. b. rapid respirations. c. poor skin turgor. d. vasodilation.
Answer: B Rationale: Patients with metabolic acidosis caused by ARF may have Kussmaul respirations as the lungs try to regulate carbon dioxide. Tachycardia and vasodilation are not associated with metabolic acidosis. Because the patient is likely to have fluid retention, poor skin turgor would not be a finding in ARF. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1200-1201 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
4. When reviewing the laboratory values for a patient admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident, the nurse will be most concerned about levels of a. creatinine. b. potassium. c. white blood cells (WBCs). d. BUN.
Answer: B Rationale: The hyperkalemia associated with crushing injuries may cause cardiac arrest and should be treated immediately. The nurse will also review the other laboratory values, but abnormalities in these are not immediately life threatening. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1200 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
30. Which data obtained when assessing a patient who had a kidney transplant 8 years ago and who is receiving the immunosuppressants tacrolimus (Prograf), cyclosporine (Sandimmune), and prednisone (Deltasone) will be of most concern to the nurse? a. The blood glucose is 144 mg/dl. b. The patient has a round, moonlike face. c. There is a nontender lump in the axilla. d. The patient's blood pressure is 150/92.
Answer: C Rationale: A nontender lump suggests a malignancy such as a lymphoma, which could occur as a result of chronic immunosuppressive therapy. The elevated glucose, moon face, and hypertension are possible side effects of the prednisone and should be addressed, but they are not as great a concern as the possibility of a malignancy. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1230 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
20. A patient needing vascular access for hemodialysis asks the nurse what the differences are between an arteriovenous (AV) fistula and a graft. The nurse explains that one advantage of the fistula is that it a. can accommodate larger needles. b. increases patient mobility. c. is much less likely to clot. d. can be used sooner after surgery.
Answer: C Rationale: AV fistulas are much less likely to clot than grafts, although it takes longer for them to mature to the point where they can be used for dialysis. The choice of an AV fistula or a graft does not impact on needle size or patient mobility. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1221 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
28. To monitor for corticosteroid-related complications after a kidney transplant, the nurse teaches the patient to report a. pain at the donor kidney site. b. dizziness with position change. c. pain in the hips, knees, and other joints. d. changes in the character of the urine.
Answer: C Rationale: Aseptic necrosis of the weight-bearing joints can occur when patients take corticosteroids over a prolonged period. Pain at the site, orthostatic dizziness, and changes in the urine appearance are not associated with corticosteroid use. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1230 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
7. The health care provider orders IV glucose and insulin to be given to a patient in ARF whose serum potassium level is 6.3 mEq/L. To best evaluate the effectiveness of the medications, the nurse will a. monitor the patient's electrocardiograph (ECG). b. check the blood glucose level. c. obtain serum potassium levels. d. assess BUN and creatinine levels.
Answer: C Rationale: Changes in potassium will impact on the ECG and muscle strength, but the nurse should expect to recheck the serum potassium level during the infusion of glucose and insulin to determine the effectiveness of the therapy. The blood glucose level should be monitored during the infusion to assess for hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. The BUN and creatinine levels will not change with administration of glucose and insulin. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1201-1202 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
8. A patient in ARF has a gradual increase in urinary output to 3400 ml a day with a BUN of 92 mg/dl (33 mmol/L) and a serum creatinine of 4.2 mg (371 μmol/L). The nurse should plan to a. use a urine dipstick to monitor for proteinuria. b. auscultate the lungs to assess for pulmonary edema. c. take the blood pressure to check for hypotension. d. draw blood to monitor for hyperkalemia.
Answer: C Rationale: During the diuretic phase of ARF, fluid and electrolyte losses may cause hypovolemia, hypotension, hyponatremia, and hypokalemia. Proteinuria, pulmonary edema, and hyperkalemia occur during the oliguric phase. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1201 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
22. A patient begins hemodialysis after having had conservative management of chronic kidney disease. The nurse explains that one dietary regulation that will be changed when hemodialysis is started is that a. unlimited fluids are allowed since retained fluid is removed during dialysis. b. increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis. c. more protein will be allowed because of the removal of urea and creatinine by dialysis. d. dietary sodium and potassium are unrestricted because these levels are normalized by dialysis.
Answer: C Rationale: Once the patient is started on dialysis and nitrogenous wastes are removed, more protein in the diet is allowed. Fluids are still restricted to avoid excessive weight gain and complications such as shortness of breath. Glucose is not lost during hemodialysis. Sodium and potassium intake continues to be restricted to avoid the complications associated with high levels of these electrolytes. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1211 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
16. Before administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) to a patient with hyperkalemia, the nurse should assess a. the BUN and creatinine. b. the blood glucose level. c. the patient's bowel sounds. d. the level of consciousness (LOC).
Answer: C Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) should not be given to a patient with a paralytic ileus (as indicated by absent bowel sounds) because bowel necrosis can occur. The BUN and creatinine, blood glucose, and LOC would not impact on the nurse's decision to give the medication. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1202, 1210 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
29. Two hours after a kidney transplant, the nurse obtains all these data when assessing the patient. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The BUN and creatinine levels are elevated. b. The urine output is 900 to 1100 ml/hr. c. The patient's central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased. d. The patient has level 8 (on a 10-point scale) incision pain when coughing.
Answer: C Rationale: The decrease in CVP suggests hypovolemia, which must be rapidly corrected to prevent renal hypoperfusion and acute tubular necrosis. The other information is not unusual in a patient after a transplant. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1228 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
35. A patient with acute renal failure (ARF) requires hemodialysis and temporary vascular access is obtained by placing a catheter in the left femoral vein. The nurse will plan to a. restrict the patient's oral protein intake. b. discontinue the retention catheter. c. place the patient on bed rest. d. start continuous pulse oximetry.
Answer: C Rationale: The patient with a femoral vein catheter must be on bed rest to prevent trauma to the vein. Protein intake is likely to be increased when the patient is receiving dialysis. The retention catheter is likely to remain in place because accurate measurement of output will be needed. There is no indication that the patient needs continuous pulse oximetry. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1221 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
1. A patient admitted with severe dehydration has a urine output of 380 ml over the next 24 hours and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. A finding that the nurse would expect when reviewing the patient's urinalysis is a. proteinuria. b. bacteriuria. c. high specific gravity. d. tubular casts.
Answer: C Rationale: The patient's renal failure has been caused by the prerenal problem of hypovolemia. Prerenal oliguria is characterized by the ability of the kidneys to concentrate urine, resulting in a high urine specific gravity. The urinalysis in intrarenal failure would show proteins and tubular casts. Bacteriuria would be typical of a urinary tract infection (UTI), not renal failure. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1198-1199 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
14. As the nurse reviews a diet plan with a patient with diabetes and renal insufficiency, the patient states that with diabetes and kidney failure there is nothing that is good to eat. The patient says, "I am going to eat what I want; I'm going to die anyway!" The best nursing diagnosis for this patient is a. imbalanced nutrition: more than required related to knowledge deficit about appropriate diet. b. risk for noncompliance related to feelings of anger. c. grieving related to actual and perceived losses. d. risk for ineffective health maintenance related to complexity of therapeutic regimen.
Answer: C Rationale: The patient's statements that there is nothing that is good to eat and that death is unavoidable indicate grieving about the losses being experienced as a result of the diabetes and chronic kidney disease (CKD). The patient data do not indicate knowledge deficit, anger, or the complexity of the therapeutic program as being issues for this patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1215 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
6. A patient in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure has a 24-hour fluid output of 150 ml emesis and 250 ml urine. The nurse plans a fluid replacement for the following day of ___ ml. a. 400 b. 800 c. 1000 d. 1400
Answer: C Rationale: Usually fluid replacement should be based on the patient's measured output plus 600 ml/day for insensible losses. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1201-1202 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
32. A patient with hypertension and stage 2 chronic kidney disease is receiving captopril (Capoten). Before administration of the medication, the nurse will check the patient's a. creatinine. b. glucose. c. phosphate. d. potassium.
Answer: D Rationale: Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are frequently used in patients with CKD because they delay the progression of the CKD, but they cause potassium retention; therefore, careful monitoring of potassium levels is needed in patients who are at risk for hyperkalemia. The other laboratory values would also be monitored in patients with CKD but would not impact whether the captopril was given or not. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1210 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
15. The RN observes an LPN/LVN carrying out all these actions while caring for a patient with renal insufficiency. Which action requires the RN to intervene? a. The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patient's room. b. The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate in the hallway. c. The LPN/LVN administers erythropoietin subcutaneously. d. The LPN/LVN gives the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch.
Answer: D Rationale: Oral phosphate binders should not be given at the same time as iron because they prevent the iron from being absorbed. The phosphate binder should be given with a meal and the iron given at a different time. The other actions by the LPN/LVN are appropriate for a patient with renal insufficiency. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1211 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
23. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is started on hemodialysis, and after the first treatment, the patient complains of nausea and a headache. The nurse notes mild jerking and twitching of the patient's extremities. The nurse will anticipate the need to a. increase the time for the next dialysis to remove wastes more completely. b. switch to continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) to improve dialysis efficiency. c. administer medications to control these symptoms before the next dialysis. d. slow the rate for the next dialysis to decrease the speed of solute removal.
Answer: D Rationale: The patient has symptoms of disequilibrium syndrome, which can be prevented by slowing the rate of dialysis so that fewer solutes are removed during the dialysis. Increasing the time of the dialysis to remove wastes more completely will increase the risk for disequilibrium syndrome. CRRT is a less efficient means of removing wastes and, because it is continuous, would not be used for a patient with CKD. Administration of medications to control the symptoms is not an appropriate action; rather, the disequilibrium syndrome should be avoided. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1224 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
3. A patient with severe heart failure develops elevated BUN and creatinine levels. The nurse plans care for the patient based on the knowledge that collaborative care of the patient will be directed toward the goal of a. preventing hypertension. b. replacing fluid volume. c. diluting nephrotoxic substances. d. maintaining cardiac output.
Answer: D Rationale: The primary goal of treatment for ARF is to eliminate the cause and provide supportive care while the kidneys recover. Because this patient's heart failure is causing ARF, the care will be directed toward treatment of the heart failure. For renal failure caused by hypertension, hypovolemia, or nephrotoxins, the other responses would be correct. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1201-1202 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
5. A patient admitted with sepsis has had several episodes of severe hypotension. Laboratory results indicate a BUN 50 mg/dl (10.7 mmol/L), serum creatinine 2.0 mg/dl (177 µmol/L), urine sodium 70 mEq/L (70 mmol/L), urine specific gravity 1.010, and cellular casts and debris in the urine. The nurse knows these findings are consistent with a. chronic renal insufficiency. b. prerenal failure. c. postrenal failure. d. acute tubular necrosis.
Answer: D Rationale: The specific gravity and presence of casts and debris in the urinalysis suggest intrarenal failure and acute tubular necrosis. The sudden onset indicates that the renal failure is acute, not chronic. In prerenal failure, there would not be casts or debris in the urine. The patient does not have risk factors for postrenal failure. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1198-1199 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
9. After noting increasing QRS intervals in a patient with ARF, which action should the nurse take first? a. Notify the patient's health care provider. b. Check the chart for the most recent blood potassium level. c. Look at the patient's current BUN and creatinine levels. d. Document the QRS interval.
Answer: B Rationale: The increasing QRS interval is suggestive of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should check the most recent potassium and then notify the patient's health care provider. The BUN and creatinine will be elevated in a patient with ARF, but these would not directly affect the ECG. Documentation of the QRS interval is also appropriate, but interventions to decrease the potassium level are needed to prevent life-threatening bradycardia. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1200 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
Complications common to patients receiving hemodialysis for acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) a. Hypotension b. Dysrhythmias c. Muscle cramps d. Hemolysis e. Air embolism
a. Hypotension b. Dysrhythmias
The patient's potassium level is 7.0 mEq/L. Besides dialysis, which of the following actually reduces plasma potassium levels and total body potassium content safely in a patient with renal dysfunction? a. Kayexalate b. Kayexalate with sorbitol c. Regular insulin d. Calcium gluconate
a. Kayexalate
The patient is in need of immediate hemodialysis, but has no vascular access. The nurse prepares the patient for insertion of: a. a percutaneous catheter at the bedside. b. a percutaneous tunneled catheter at the bedside. c. an arteriovenous fistula. d. an arteriovenous graft.
a. a percutaneous catheter at the bedside.
The patient is admitted with acute kidney injury from a postrenal cause. Acceptable treatments for that diagnosis include: (Select all that apply.) a. bladder catheterization. b. increasing fluid volume intake. c. ureteral stenting. d. placement of nephrostomy tubes. e. increasing cardiac output.
a. bladder catheterization. c. ureteral stenting. d. placement of nephrostomy tubes.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone major abdominal surgery. The nurse notices that the patient's urine output has been less than 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours. It is 0200 in the morning. The patient's blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 110 beats per minute. Previously, the pulse was 90 beats per minute with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse should: a. contact the provider and expect an order for a normal saline bolus. b. wait until 0900 when the provider makes rounds to report the assessment findings. c. continue to evaluate urine output for 2 more hours. d. ignore the urine output, as this is most likely postrenal in origin.
a. contact the provider and expect an order for a normal saline bolus.
The patient is in the critical care unit and will receive dialysis this morning. The nurse will: (Select all that apply.) a. evaluate morning laboratory results and report abnormal results. b. administer the patient's antihypertensive medications. c. assess the dialysis access site and report abnormalities. d. weigh the patient to monitor fluid status. e. give all medications except for antihypertensive medications.
a. evaluate morning laboratory results and report abnormal results. c. assess the dialysis access site and report abnormalities. d. weigh the patient to monitor fluid status.
Identify which substances would indicate a problem with renal function. (Select all that apply). a. protein. b. sodium. c. creatinine. d. red blood cells. e. uric acid.
a. protein. d. red blood cells. e. uric acid.
Continuous venovenous hemofiltration is used to: a. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection. b. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload. c. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate. d. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis.
a. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection.
The most common cause of acute kidney injury in critically ill patients is: a. sepsis. b. fluid overload. c. medications. d. hemodynamic instability.
a. sepsis.
The patient is a new postoperative patient. She weighs 75 kg. The nurse expects the minimal acceptable urine output to be: a. less than 30 mL/hour. b. 37 mL/hour. c. 80 mL/hour. d. 150 mL/hour.
b. 37 mL/hour.
The patient's serum creatinine level is 0.7 mg/dL. The expected BUN level should be: a. 1-2 mg/dL. b. 7-14 mg/dL. c. 10-20 mg/dL. d. 20-30 mg/dL.
b. 7-14 mg/dL.
A normal glomerular filtration rate is: a. less than 80 mL/min. b. 80 to 125 mL/min c. 125 to 180 mL/min d. more than 189 mL/min
b. 80 to 125 mL/min
The nurse is caring for an elderly patient who was admitted with renal insufficiency. The nurse realizes that with advance age often comes declining renal function. An expected laboratory finding for this patient may be: a. an increased glomerular filtration rate (GFR). b. a normal serum creatinine level. c. increased ability to excrete drugs. d. hypokalemia.
b. a normal serum creatinine level.
The patient has elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels with a normal BUN/creatinine ratio. These levels most likely indicate: a. increased nitrogen intake. b. acute kidney injury, such as acute tubular necrosis (ATN). c. hypovolemia. d. fluid resuscitation.
b. acute kidney injury, such as acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
The term used to describe an increase in blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine is: a. oliguria. b. azotemia. c. acute kidney injury. d. prerenal disease.
b. azotemia.
The patient has just returned from having an arteriovenous fistula placed. The patient asks, "When will they be able to use this and take this other catheter out?" The nurse should reply, a. "It can be used immediately so the catheter can come out anytime." b. "It will take 2 to 4 weeks to heal before it can be used." c. "The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks." d. "The fistula was made using graft material so it depends on the manufacturer."
c. "The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks."
Conditions that produce acute kidney injury by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue are classified as intrarenal. The most common intrarenal condition is: a. prolonged ischemia. b. exposure to nephrotoxic substances. c. acute tubular necrosis (ATN). d. hypotension for several hours.
c. acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
The patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury and has been getting dialysis 3 days per week. The patient complains of general malaise and is tachypneic. An arterial blood gas is ordered and shows that the patient's pH is 7.19, with a PCO2 of 30 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 13 mEq/L. The nurse prepares to: a. administer morphine to slow the respiratory rate. b. prepare for intubation and mechanical ventilation. c. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate. d. cancel tomorrow's dialysis session.
c. administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
The patient is getting hemodialysis for the second time when he complains of a headache and nausea and, a little later, of becoming confused. The nurse realizes these are symptoms of: a. dialyzer membrane incompatibility. b. a shift in potassium levels. c. dialysis disequilibrium syndrome. d. hypothermia.
c. dialysis disequilibrium syndrome.
The patient is admitted with complaints of general malaise and fatigue, along with a decreased urinary output. The patient's urinalysis shows coarse, muddy brown granular casts and hematuria. The nurse determines that the patient has: a. acute kidney injury from a prerenal condition. b. acute kidney injury from postrenal obstruction. c. intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis. d. a urinary tract infection.
c. intrarenal disease, probably acute tubular necrosis.
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually: a. the same as for men. b. greater than that for men. c. multiplied by 0.85. d. multiplied by 1.15.
c. multiplied by 0.85.
The nurse is assessing a patient with a new arteriovenous fistula, but does not hear a bruit or feel a thrill. Pulses distal to the fistula are not palpable. The nurse should: a. reassess the patient in an hour. b. raise the arm above the level of the patient's heart. c. notify the provider immediately. d. apply warm packs to the fistula site and reassess.
c. notify the provider immediately.
Continuous venovenous hemodialysis is used to: a. remove fluids and solutes through the process of convection. b. remove plasma water in cases of volume overload. c. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate. d. combine ultrafiltration, convection and dialysis
c. remove plasma water and solutes by adding dialysate.
The nurse is caring for a patient with acute kidney injury who is being treated with hemodialysis. The patient asks if he will need dialysis for the rest of his life. Which of the following would be the best response? a. "Unfortunately, kidney injury is not reversible; it is permanent." b. "Kidney function usually returns within 2 weeks." c. "You will know for sure if you start urinating a lot all at once." d. "recovery is possible, but it may take several months."
d. "recovery is possible, but it may take several months."
A normal urine output is considered to be: a. 80 to 125 mL/min. b. 180 L/day. c. 80 mL/min. d. 1 to 2 L/day.
d. 1 to 2 L/day.
In determining the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) or creatinine clearance, a 24-hour urine is obtained. If a reliable 24-hour urine collection is not possible, a. it is not possible to determine the GFR. b. the BUN may be used to determine renal function. c. an elevated BUN/creatinine ratio can be used. d. a standardized formula may be used to calculate GFR.
d. a standardized formula may be used to calculate GFR.
An advantage of peritoneal dialysis is that: a. peritoneal dialysis is time intensive. b. a decreased risk of peritonitis exists. c. biochemical disturbances are corrected rapidly. d. the danger of hemorrhage is minimal.
d. the danger of hemorrhage is minimal.