ch. 21 quizlet
The nurse suctions a patient through the endotracheal tube for 20 seconds and observes dysrhythmias on the monitor. What does the nurse determine is occurring with the patient?
The patient is hypoxic from suctioning. Explanation: Apply suction while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees (no longer than 10-15 seconds). Prolonged suctioning may result in hypoxia and dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac arrest.
Intermittent mandatory ventilation (IMV) provides
a combination of mechanically assisted breaths and spontaneous breaths
A nurse is caring for a client who recently underwent a tracheostomy. The first priority when caring for a client with a tracheostomy is:
keeping his airway patent. Explanation: Maintaining a patent airway is the most basic and critical human need. Helping the client communicate, encouraging him to perform ADLs, and preventing him from developing an infection are important to the client's well-being but not as important as having sufficient oxygen to breathe.
A nurse is caring for a client with COPD who needs teaching on pursed-lip breathing. Place the steps in order in which the nurse will instruct the client.
"Inhale through your nose." "Slowly count to 3." "Exhale slowly through pursed lips." "Slowly count to 7."
When performing endotracheal suctioning, the nurse applies suctioning while withdrawing and gently rotating the catheter 360 degrees for how long?
10 to 15 seconds Explanation: In general, the nurse should apply suction no longer than 10 to 15 seconds. Applying suction for 20-25 or 30-35 seconds is hazardous and may result in the development of hypoxia, which can lead to dysrhythmias and, ultimately, cardiac arrest. Applying suction for 0-5 seconds would provide too little time for effective suctioning of secretions.
A client has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first?
Apply a dressing over the wound and tape it on three sides. Explanation: The nurse should immediately apply a dressing over the stab wound and tape it on three sides to allow air to escape and to prevent tension pneumothorax (which is more life-threatening than an open chest wound). Only after covering and taping the wound should the nurse draw blood for laboratory tests, assist with chest tube insertion, and start an I.V. line.
Which is a potential complication of a low pressure in the endotracheal tube cuff?
Aspiration pneumonia Explanation: Low pressure in the cuff can increase the risk for aspiration pneumonia. High pressure in the cuff can cause tracheal bleeding, ischemia, and pressure necrosis.
A nurse prepares to perform postural drainage. How should the nurse ascertain the best position to facilitate clearing the lungs?
Auscultation Explanation: The nurse should assess breath sounds before doing postural drainage to determine the areas that need draining. Inspection, chest X-rays, and ABG levels are all assessment parameters that give good information about respiratory function but aren't necessary to determine lung areas requiring postural drainage.
A client with a respiratory condition is receiving oxygen therapy. While assessing the client's PaO2, the nurse knows that the therapy has been effective based on which of the following readings?
In general, clients with respiratory conditions are given oxygen therapy only to increase the arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) back to the client's normal baseline, which may vary from 60 to 95 mm Hg.
The nurse is educating a patient with COPD about the technique for performing pursed-lip breathing. What does the nurse inform the patient is the importance of using this technique?
It prolongs exhalation. Explanation: The goal of pursed-lip breathing is to prolong exhalation and increase airway pressure during expiration, thus reducing the amount of trapped air and the amount of airway resistance.
The nurse is admitting a patient with COPD. The decrease of what substance in the blood gas analysis would indicate to the nurse that the patient is experiencing hypoxemia?
PaO2 Explanation: Hypoxemic hypoxia, or hypoxemia, is a decreased oxygen level in the blood (PaO2) resulting in decreased oxygen diffusion into the tissues.
The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube (ET). Which nursing intervention is contraindicated?
Routinely deflating the cuff Explanation: Routine cuff deflation is not recommended because of the increased risk for aspiration and hypoxia. The cuff is deflated before the ET is removed. Cuff pressures should be checked every 6 to 8 hours. Humidified oxygen should always be introduced through the tube.
Which is the most reliable and accurate method for delivering precise concentrations of oxygen through noninvasive means?
Venturi mask Explanation: The Venturi mask is the most reliable and accurate method for delivering a precise concentration of oxygen through noninvasive means. The mask is constructed in a way that allows a constant flow of room air blended with a fixed flow of oxygen. Nasal cannula, T-piece, and partial-rebreathing masks are not the most reliable and accurate methods of oxygen administration.
A patient is diagnosed with mild obstructive sleep apnea after having a sleep study performed. What treatment modality will be the most effective for this patient?
Continuous positive airway pressure Explanation: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) provides positive pressure to the airways throughout the respiratory cycle. Although it can be used as an adjunct to mechanical ventilation with a cuffed endotracheal tube or tracheostomy tube to open the alveoli, it is also used with a leak-proof mask to keep alveoli open, thereby preventing respiratory failure. CPAP is the most effective treatment for obstructive sleep apnea because the positive pressure acts as a splint, keeping the upper airway and trachea open during sleep. To use CPAP, the patient must be breathing independently.
The nurse is preparing to perform chest physiotherapy (CPT) on a client. Which statement by the client tells the nurse that the procedure is contraindicated.
"I just finished eating my lunch, I'm ready for my CPT now." Explanation: When performing CPT, the nurse ensures that the client is comfortable, is not wearing restrictive clothing, and has not just eaten. The nurse gives medication for pain, as prescribed, before percussion and vibration, splints any incision, and provides pillows for support, as needed. A goal of CPT is for the client to be able to mobilize secretions; the client who has an unproductive cough is a candidate for CPT.
The nurse is preparing to assist the health care provider to remove a client's chest tube. Which instruction will the nurse correctly give to the client?
"When the tube is being removed, take a deep breath, exhale, and bear down." Explanation: When assisting in removal of a chest tube, instruct the client to perform a gentle Valsalva maneuver or to breathe quietly. The chest tube is then clamped and quickly removed. Simultaneously, a small bandage is applied and made airtight with petrolatum gauze covered by a 4 × 4-inch gauze pad and thoroughly covered and sealed with nonporous tape. The other options are incorrect instructions for the client.
A client with a respiratory condition is receiving oxygen therapy. While assessing the client's PaO2, the nurse knows that the therapy has been effective based on which of the following readings?
84 mm Hg Explanation: In general, clients with respiratory conditions are given oxygen therapy only to increase the arterial oxygen pressure (PaO2) back to the client's normal baseline, which may vary from 60 to 95 mm Hg.
A patient with emphysema informs the nurse, "The surgeon will be removing about 30% of my lung so that I will not be so short of breath and will have an improved quality of life." What surgery does the nurse understand the surgeon will perform?
A lung volume reduction Explanation: Lung volume reduction is a surgical procedure involving the removal of 20%-30% of a patient's lung through a midsternal incision or video thoracoscopy. The diseased lung tissue is identified on a lung perfusion scan. This surgery leads to significant improvements in dyspnea, exercise capacity, quality of life, and survival of a subgroup of people with end-stage emphysema (Oey, Morgan, Spyt, et al., 2010).
The nurse is caring for a client following a wedge resection. While the nurse is assessing the client's chest tube drainage system, constant bubbling is noted in the water seal chamber. This finding indicates which problem?
Air leak Explanation: The nurse needs to observe for air leaks in the drainage system; they are indicated by constant bubbling in the water seal chamber, or by the air leak indicator in dry systems with a one-way valve. Tidaling is fluctuation of the water level in the water seal that shows effective connection between the pleural cavity and the drainage chamber and indicates that the drainage system remains patent.
A nurse provides care for a client receiving oxygen from a nonrebreather mask. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
Assessing the client's respiratory status, orientation, and skin color Explanation: A nonrebreather mask can deliver high concentrations of oxygen to the client in acute respiratory distress. Assessment of a client's status is a priority for determining the effectiveness of therapy. There is no need for the nurse to post a "No smoking" sign over the client's bed. Smoking is a fire hazard and is prohibited in hospitals regardless of whether the client is receiving oxygen from a nonrebreather mask. Oil-based lubricants can cause pneumonia by promoting bacteria growth. Equipment should be changed daily, but this is a lower priority than assessing respiratory status, orientation, and skin color.
Which ventilator mode provides full ventilatory support by delivering a preset tidal volume and respiratory rate?
Assist control
A new ICU nurse is observed by her preceptor entering a patient's room to suction the tracheostomy after performing the task 15 minutes before. What should the preceptor educate the new nurse to do to ensure that the patient needs to be suctioned?
Auscultate the lung for adventitious sounds. Explanation: When a tracheostomy or endotracheal tube is in place, it is usually necessary to suction the patient's secretions because of the decreased effectiveness of the cough mechanism. Tracheal suctioning is performed when adventitious breath sounds are detected or whenever secretions are obviously present. Unnecessary suctioning can initiate bronchospasm and cause mechanical trauma to the tracheal mucosa.
For a client with an endotracheal (ET) tube, which nursing action is the most important?
Auscultating the lungs for bilateral breath sounds Explanation: For the client with an ET tube, the most important nursing action is auscultating the lungs regularly for bilateral breath sounds to ensure proper tube placement and effective oxygen delivery. Although turning the client from side to side every 2 hours, monitoring serial blood gas values every 4 hours, and providing frequent oral hygiene are appropriate actions for this client, they're secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation.
Before weaning a client from a ventilator, which assessment parameter is the most important for the nurse to obtain?
Baseline arterial blood gas (ABG) levels Explanation: Before weaning the client from mechanical ventilation, it's most important to have baseline ABG levels. During the weaning process, ABG levels will be checked to assess how the client is tolerating the procedure. Other assessment parameters are less critical. Measuring fluid volume intake and output is always important when a client is being mechanically ventilated. Prior attempts at weaning and ECG results are documented on the client's record, and the nurse can refer to them before the weaning process begins.
The nurse is caring for a client being weaned from a mechanical ventilator. Which findings would require the weaning process to be terminated?
Blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg from baseline Explanation: In collaboration with the primary provider, the nurse would terminate the weaning process if adverse reactions occur, including a heart rate increase of 20 beats/min, systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mm Hg, a decrease in oxygen saturation to <90%, respiratory rate <8 or >20 breaths/min, ventricular dysrhythmias, fatigue, panic, cyanosis, erratic or labored breathing, and paradoxical chest movement. A vital capacity of 10 to 15 mL/kg, maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP) at least -20 cm H2O, tidal volume of 7 to -9 mL/kg, minute ventilation of 6 L/min, and a rapid/shallow breathing index below 100 breaths/min/L; PaO2 >60 mm Hg with FiO2 <40% are criteria that indicate a client is ready to be weaned from the ventilator. A normal vital capacity is 10 to 15 mL/kg.
The nurse assesses a patient with a heart rate of 42 and a blood pressure of 70/46. What type of hypoxia does the nurse determine this patient is displaying?
Circulatory hypoxia Explanation: Given this patient's vital signs, he appears to be in shock. Circulatory hypoxia is hypoxia resulting from inadequate capillary circulation. It may be caused by decreased cardiac output, local vascular obstruction, low-flow states such as shock, or cardiac arrest. Although tissue partial pressure of oxygen (PO2) is reduced, arterial oxygen (PaO2) remains normal. Circulatory hypoxia is corrected by identifying and treating the underlying cause.
A client is on a positive-pressure ventilator with a synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV) setting. The ventilator is set for 8 breaths per minute. The client is taking 6 breaths per minute independently. The nurse
Continues assessing the client's respiratory status frequently Explanation: The SIMV setting on a ventilator allows the client to breathe spontaneously with no assistance from the ventilator for those extra breaths. Data in the stem suggest that the ventilator is working correctly. The nurse would continue making frequent respiratory assessments of the client. There are not sufficient data to suggest the client could be removed from the ventilator. There is no reason to increase the ventilator's setting to 14 breaths per minute or to contact respiratory therapy to report the machine is not working properly.
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy and temperature of 103° F (39.4° C). Which intervention will most likely lower the client's arterial blood oxygen saturation?
Endotracheal suctioning Explanation: Endotracheal suctioning removes secretions as well as gases from the airway and lowers the arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) level. Coughing and using an incentive spirometer improve oxygenation and should raise or maintain oxygen saturation. Because of superficial vasoconstriction, using a cooling blanket can lower peripheral oxygen saturation readings, but SaO2 levels wouldn't be affected.
Which type of oxygen therapy includes the administration of oxygen at pressure greater than atmospheric pressure?
Hyperbaric Explanation: Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is the administration of oxygen at pressures greater than atmospheric pressure. As a result, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is increased, which increases oxygen levels in the tissues. Low-flow systems contribute partially to the inspired gas the client breathes, which means that the client breathes some room air along with the oxygen. High-flow systems are indicated for clients who require a constant and precise amount of oxygen. During transtracheal oxygenation, clients achieve adequate oxygenation at lower rates, making this method less expensive and more efficient.
A home health nurse is visiting a home care client with advanced lung cancer. Upon assessing the client, the nurse discovers wheezing, bradycardia, and a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/minute. These signs are associated with which condition?
Hypoxia Explanation: As the respiratory center in the brain becomes depressed, hypoxia occurs, producing wheezing, bradycardia, and a decreased respiratory rate. Delirium is a state of mental confusion characterized by disorientation to time and place. Hyperventilation (respiratory rate greater than that metabolically necessary for gas exchange) is marked by an increased respiratory rate or tidal volume, or both. Semiconsciousness is a state of impaired consciousness characterized by limited motor and verbal responses and decreased orientation.
The nurse is assisting a client with postural drainage. Which of the following demonstrates correct implementation of this technique?
Instruct the client to remain in each position of the postural drainage sequence for 10 to 15 minutes. Explanation: Postural drainage is usually performed two to four times daily, before meals (to prevent nausea, vomiting, and aspiration) and at bedtime. Prescribed bronchodilators, water, or saline may be nebulized and inhaled before postural drainage to dilate the bronchioles, reduce bronchospasm, decrease the thickness of mucus and sputum, and combat edema of the bronchial walls. The nurse instructs the client to remain in each position for 10 to 15 minutes and to breathe in slowly through the nose and out slowly through pursed lips to help keep the airways open so that secretions can drain while in each position. If the sputum is foul-smelling, it is important to perform postural drainage in a room away from other patients or family members. (Deodorizers may be used to counteract the odor. Because aerosol sprays can cause bronchospasm and irritation, they should be used sparingly and with caution.)
A client suffers acute respiratory distress syndrome as a consequence of shock. The client's condition deteriorates rapidly, and endotracheal (ET) intubation and mechanical ventilation are initiated. When the high-pressure alarm on the mechanical ventilator sounds, the nurse starts to check for the cause. Which condition triggers the high-pressure alarm?
Kinking of the ventilator tubing Explanation: Conditions that trigger the high-pressure alarm include kinking of the ventilator tubing, bronchospasm, pulmonary embolus, mucus plugging, water in the tube, and coughing or biting on the ET tube. The alarm may also be triggered when the client's breathing is out of rhythm with the ventilator. A disconnected ventilator circuit or an ET cuff leak would trigger the low-pressure alarm. Changing the oxygen concentration without resetting the oxygen level alarm would trigger the oxygen alarm, not the high-pressure alarm.
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is intubated and placed on continuous mechanical ventilation. Which equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at this client's bedside?
Manual resuscitation bag Explanation: The client with COPD depends on mechanical ventilation for adequate tissue oxygenation. The nurse must keep a manual resuscitation bag at the bedside to ventilate and oxygenate the client in case the mechanical ventilator malfunctions. Because the client doesn't have chest tubes or a tracheostomy, keeping a water-seal chest drainage set-up or a tracheostomy cleaning kit at the bedside isn't necessary. Although the nurse may keep an oxygen analyzer (pulse oximeter) on hand to evaluate the effectiveness of ventilation, this equipment is less important than the manual resuscitation bag.
A client who is undergoing thoracic surgery has a nursing diagnosis of "Impaired gas exchange related to lung impairment and surgery" on the nursing care plan. Which of the following nursing interventions would be appropriately aligned with this nursing diagnosis? Select all that apply.
Monitor pulmonary status as directed and needed. Regularly assess the client's vital signs every 2 to 4 hours. Encourage deep breathing exercises. Explanation: Interventions to improve the client's gas exchange include monitoring pulmonary status as directed and needed, assessing vital signs every 2 to 4 hours, and encouraging deep breathing exercises. Maintainin an open airway is appropriate for improving the client's airway clearance. Monitoring and recording hourly intake and output are essential interventions for ensuring appropriate fluid balance.
A patient has been receiving 100% oxygen therapy by way of a nonrebreather mask for several days. Now the patient complains of tingling in the fingers and shortness of breath, is extremely restless, and describes a pain beneath the breastbone. What should the nurse suspect?
Oxygen toxicity Explanation: Oxygen toxicity may occur when too high a concentration of oxygen (greater than 50%) is administered for an extended period (longer than 48 hours) (Urden, Stacy, & Lough, 2010). Signs and symptoms of oxygen toxicity include substernal discomfort, paresthesias, dyspnea, restlessness, fatigue, malaise, progressive respiratory difficulty, refractory hypoxemia, alveolar atelectasis, and alveolar infiltrates evident on chest x-rays.
A client is receiving supplemental oxygen. When determining the effectiveness of oxygen therapy, which arterial blood gas value is most important?
Partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) Explanation: The most significant and direct indicator of the effectiveness of oxygen therapy is the PaO2 value. Based on the PaO2 value, the nurse may adjust the type of oxygen delivery (cannula, Venturi mask, or mechanical ventilator), flow rate, and oxygen percentage. The other options reflect the client's ventilation status, not oxygenation. The pH, HCO3-, and PaCO2
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. If the chest drainage system is accidentally disconnected, what should the nurse plan to do?
Place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline. Explanation: If a chest drainage system is disconnected, the nurse may place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline or water to prevent air from entering the chest tube, thereby preventing negative respiratory pressure. The nurse should apply an occlusive dressing if the chest tube is pulled out — not if the system is disconnected. The nurse shouldn't clamp the chest tube because clamping increases the risk of tension pneumothorax. The nurse should tape the chest tube securely to prevent it from being disconnected, rather than taping it after it has been disconnected.
The nurse is teaching the client in respiratory distress ways to prolong exhalation to improve respiratory status. The nurse tells the client to
Purse the lips when exhaling air from the lungs. Explanation: To prolong exhalation, the client may perform breathing while sitting in a chair or walking. The client is to inhale through the nose and then exhale against pursed lips. There is no holding the breath.
A nurse is weaning a client from mechanical ventilation. Which assessment finding indicates the weaning process should be stopped?
Runs of ventricular tachycardia Explanation: Ventricular tachycardia indicates that the client isn't tolerating the weaning process. The weaning process should be stopped before lethal ventricular arrhythmias occur. A respiratory rate of 16 breaths/minute and an oxygen saturation of 93% are normal findings. Although the client's blood pressure has increased, it hasn't increased more than 20% over baseline, which would indicate that the client isn't tolerating the weaning process.
A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving continuous mechanical ventilation. When the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds, what should the nurse do?
Suction the client's artificial airway. Explanation: A high-pressure alarm on a continuous mechanical ventilator indicates an obstruction in the flow of gas from the machine to the client. The nurse should suction the client's artificial airway to remove respiratory secretions that could be causing the obstruction. The sounding of a ventilator alarm has no relationship to the apical pulse. Increasing the oxygen percentage and ventilating with a handheld mechanical ventilator wouldn't correct the airflow blockage.
The nurse is assisting a physician with an endotracheal intubation for a client in respiratory failure. It is most important for the nurse to assess for:
Symmetry of the client's chest expansion Explanation: Immediately after intubation, the nurse should check for symmetry of chest expansion. This is one finding that indicates successful endotracheal placement. The tracheal cuff pressure is set between 15 and 20 mm Hg. Routine deflation of the tracheal cuff is not recommended, because the client could then aspirate secretions during the period of deflation. Warm, high, humidified air is administered through the endotracheal tube.
A nurse observes constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber of a closed chest drainage system. What should the nurse conclude?
The system has an air leak. Explanation: Constant bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak and requires immediate intervention. The client with a pneumothorax will have intermittent bubbling in the water-seal chamber. Clients without a pneumothorax should have no evidence of bubbling in the chamber. If the tube is obstructed, the fluid would stop fluctuating in the water-seal chamber.
A client in acute respiratory distress is brought to the emergency department. After endotracheal (ET) intubation and initiation of mechanical ventilation, the client is transferred to the intensive care unit. Before suctioning the ET tube, the nurse hyperventilates and hyperoxygenates the client. What is the rationale for these interventions?
They help prevent cardiac arrhythmias. Explanation: ET suctioning removes oxygen, lowering the partial pressure of arterial oxygen; this, in turn, may induce a cardiac arrhythmia. Hyperventilating and hyperoxygenating the client before and during (or after) suctioning helps prevent this complication. Subcutaneous emphysema occurs when air from the pleural cavity leaks into subcutaneous tissue; it isn't a complication associated with suctioning. Hyperventilation and hyperoxygenation can't prevent a pneumothorax because this condition itself indicates air in the pleural space. Pulmonary edema is associated with cardiac dysfunction, not ET suctioning.
Which type of ventilator has a preset volume of air to be delivered with each inspiration?
Volume-controlled Explanation: With volume-controlled ventilation, the volume of air to be delivered with each inspiration is preset. Negative-pressure ventilators exert a negative pressure on the external chest. Time-cycled ventilators terminate or control inspiration after a preset time. When the pressure-cycled ventilator cycles on, it delivers a flow of air (inspiration) until it reaches a preset pressure, and then cycles off, and expiration occurs passively.
After lobectomy for lung cancer, a client receives a chest tube connected to a disposable chest drainage system. The nurse observes that the drainage system is functioning correctly when she notes tidal movements or fluctuations in which compartment of the system as the client breathes?
Water-seal chamber Explanation: Fluctuations in the water-seal compartment are called tidal movements and indicate normal function of the system as the pressure in the tubing changes with the client's respirations. The air-leak meter — not chamber — detects air leaking from the pleural space. The collection chamber connects the chest tube from the client to the system. Drainage from the tube drains into and collects in a series of calibrated columns in this chamber. The suction control chamber provides the suction, which can be controlled to provide negative pressure to the chest.
A client with supraglottic cancer undergoes a partial laryngectomy. Postoperatively, a cuffed tracheostomy tube is in place. When removing secretions that pool above the cuff, the nurse should instruct the client to:
cough as the cuff is being deflated. Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to cough during cuff deflation. If the client can't cough, the nurse should perform suctioning to prevent aspiration of secretions. Because the cuff should be deflated during expiration, the client shouldn't take a deep breath as the nurse deflates the cuff. Likewise, because the cuff is reinflated during inspiration, the client shouldn't hold the breath or exhale deeply during reinflation.
SIMV
delivers a preset tidal volume and number of breaths per minute. Between ventilator-delivered breaths, the client can breathe spontaneously with no assistance from the ventilator for those extra breaths. Pressure support ventilation assists SIMV by applying a pressure plateau to the airway throughout the client-triggered inspiration to decrease resistance within the tracheal tube and ventilator tubing.
Assist-control ventilation provides
full ventilator support by delivering a preset tidal volume and respiratory rate.
A nurse is caring for a client who was intubated because of respiratory failure. The client is now receiving mechanical ventilation with a preset tidal volume and number of breaths each minute. The client has the ability to breathe spontaneously between the ventilator breaths with no ventilator assistance. The nurse should document the ventilator setting as:
synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV). Explanation: In SIMV mode, the ventilator delivers a preset number of breaths at a preset tidal volume. The client can breathe on his own in between the breaths delivered by the ventilator. In PSV, a pressure plateau is added to the ventilator to prevent the airway pressure from falling beneath a preset level. In AC ventilation, the ventilator delivers a preset number of breaths at a preset tidal volume and any breaths that the client takes on his own are assisted by the ventilator so they reach the preset tidal volume. In CPAP, the ventilator provides only positive airway pressure; it doesn't provide any breaths to the client.
