Ch 38, ch 39, ch 40, ch 41

Trench collapses usually involve large areas of falling dirt that weigh approximately _______ per cubic foot

A. 100 lb

Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category? A. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis B. 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities C. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding D. 36-year-old female with an open brain injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate

A. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis

According to the START triage system, what should you do if you encounter an unresponsive patient who is not breathing? A. Open the airway and reassess breathing status. B. Assign the patient in the "immediate" category. C. Ventilate the patient for 2 minutes and reassess. D. Triage the patient as "expectant" and move on.

A. Open the airway and reassess breathing status.

Which of the following is a typical function of the rescue team? a. Providing safe entry and access to patients b. providing emergency care during extrication c. shutting off power to downed electrical lines d. initial triage and patient prioritization

A. Providing safe entry and access to patients

Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes: Select one: A. at least one EMT. B. at least two EMTs. C. an EMT and a paramedic. D. an EMT and an AEMT.

A. at least one EMT.

The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. cleaning. B. high-level disinfection. C. disinfection. D. sterilization.

A. cleaning.

Which of the following activities occurs in the warm zone? A. command B. personnel staging C. decontamination D. medical monitoring

A. command

The purpose of a jump kit is to: Select one: A. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care. B. carry advanced life support equipment approved by the EMS medical director. C. facilitate defibrillation within 5 to 10 minutes after making patient contact. D. manage a critically injured patient until he or she is loaded into the ambulance.

A. contain anything that you might need during the first 5 minutes of patient care.

Most terrorist attacks are: A. covert. B. impulsive. C. unplanned. D. nuclear attacks.

A. covert.

The Centennial Park bombing during the 1996 Summer Olympics is an example of: A. domestic terrorism. B. apocalyptic violence. C. an ecoterrorist attack. D. state-sponsored terrorism.

A. domestic terrorism.

Phases of an ambulance call include all of the following activities, except: Select one: A. emergency care provided at the scene. B. transport of the patient to the hospital. C. transferring the patient to the ambulance. D. checking equipment on the ambulance.

A. emergency care provided at the scene.

The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions regarding an incident is called: A. freelancing. B. undermining. C. logistical chaos. D. single command

A. freelancing.

Common safety equipment carried on the ambulance includes all of the following, except: Select one: A. hazardous materials gear. B. safety goggles. C. face shields. D. turnout gear.

A. hazardous materials gear.

Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? A. hydrogen cyanide B. phosgene oxime C. organophosphates D. carbon monoxide

A. hydrogen cyanide

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient is not breathing, you should: A. immediately check for a pulse. B. triage him or her as expectant. C. give five rescue breaths and reassess. D. open the airway and reassess breathing.

A. immediately check for a pulse.

The most common and usually the most serious ambulance crashes occur at: Select one: A. intersections. B. stop signs. C. railroad crossings. D. stop lights.

A. intersections.

If the incident command system (ICS) is already established at the scene of a WMD or terrorist attack, the EMT should: A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment. B. begin triaging patients and start treating the most critical ones. C. remain in the rehabilitation area until he or she is assigned a task. D. contact the EMS medical director and obtain further instructions.

A. locate the medical staging officer to obtain his or her assignment.

A 50-year-old female is entrapped in her passenger car after it struck a tree. As the rescue team is preparing to extricate her, you quickly assess her and determine that she is breathing shallowly and that her radial pulse is absent. You should: A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated. B. secure her with a short backboard or vest device. C. stabilize her condition before extrication begins. D. begin CPR as the rescue team begins extrication.

A. maintain spinal stabilization as she is extricated.

Unlike a mass-casualty incident, a natural disaster: A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. C. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. D. usually does not require the ICS process.

A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.

Disentanglement involves: a.) removing a patient from a dangerous position b.) the use of simple access tools such as a pry bar c.) extrication techniques that EMTs are trained in d.) gaining access to a patient in a crashed vehicle

A. removing a patient from a dangerous position

The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: A. skin. B. nervous system. C. vascular system. D. respiratory tract.

A. skin.

Command functions under the ICS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. triage officer. B. safety officer. C. liaison officer. D. public information officer

A. triage officer.

The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a(n): A. violent religious group. B. extremist political group. C. single-issue terrorist group. D. group of domestic terrorists.

A. violent religious group.

Which of the following statements regarding trench rescue is correct? A) Rescue vehicles should park at least 250′ from the scene. B) Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse. C) A trench deeper than 10′ should be shored prior to entry. D) Most deaths involving cave-ins are caused by head injury

B) Ground vibration is a primary cause of secondary collapse.

You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: A) break the window and unlock the door. B) ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C) request the rescue team to extricate him. D) use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.

B) ask the patient if he can unlock the door.

Upon arriving at the scene of a law enforcement tactical situation, you should ensure your own safety and then: A) begin immediate triage of any injured personnel. B) report to the incident commander for instructions. C) locate all injured personnel and begin treatment. D) apprise medical control of the tactical situation.

B) report to the incident commander for instructions.

While en route to a call for a patient in cardiac arrest, you approach a stopped school bus with its red warning lights flashing. You should: Select one: A. pass the bus only after all the children have exited. B, stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing. C. slowly and carefully pass the bus on the left side. D. back up and take an alternate route to the scene.

B, stop and wait until the warning lights stop flashing.

Which of the following statements regarding a "dirty bomb" is correct? A. The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits. B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it. C. Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile. D. The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD.

B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.

Which of the following is the BEST example of gaining simple access to a patient? A. Using a pry bar to open a damaged door B. Entering a vehicle through an open window C. Breaking glass to gain access to the patient D. Removing the roof to access a critical patient

B. Entering a vehicle through an open window

A type ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. IlI B. I C. IV D. Il

B. I

Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct? A. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred. B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical. C. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards. D. A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label.

B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.

The LEAST harmful form of ionizing radiation is: A. beta. B. alpha. C. gamma. D. neutron.

B. alpha.

A disease vector is defined as: A. the spectrum of signs that define a disease. B. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. C. the period of time between exposure and illness. D. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread.

B. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.

Unlike viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins: A. cause high fever. B. are not contagious. C. cause skin blistering. D. have a slow onset of symptoms.

B. are not contagious.

If a technical rescue team is required at the scene but is not present when you arrive, you should: A. have fire personnel initiate the rescue process if they are at the scene B. check with the incident commander to ensure that thee team is en route C. remain with your ambulance until the rescue team arrives at the scene D. don PPE and begin the rescue process

B. check with the incident commander to ensure that thee team is en route

A carboy is a container that would MOST likely be used to store and transport: A. explosives. B. corrosives. C. flammable liquids. D. combustible materials.

B. corrosives.

During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the IC would MOST likely: A. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions. B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions. C. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel. D. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene.

B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions.

The purpose of the incident command system (ICS) is to: A. reduce overall mortality and morbidity from large-scale mass-casualty incidents and to restore key infrastructure. B. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources. C. quickly and efficiently respond to natural disasters and terrorist incidents, regardless of the complexity of the incident. D. protect the public from the effects of large- and small-scale disasters and to minimize the financial impact from such incidents.

B. ensure responder and public safety, achieve incident management goals, and ensure the effective use of resources.

Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, except. Select one: A. completing a detailed written report. B. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk. C. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. D. restocking any disposable items you used.

B. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk.

When victims involved in a mass-casualty incident are moved to the treatment area: A. definitive care is provided and preparations for transport will be made. B. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered. C. they will be rapidly assessed and prioritized according to their injuries. D. all uninjured patients are placed in a holding area and closely observed.

B. secondary triage is performed and the appropriate treatment is rendered.

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (VHF), such as Ebola, cause the blood to: A. become thick and spontaneously clot. B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues. C. attack the bone marrow and destroy cells. D. engorge the brain and cause hemorrhaging.

B. seep out of the blood vessels and tissues.

An attack on an abortion clinic would MOST likely be carried out by a(n): A. doomsday cult. B. single-issue group. C. violent religious group. D. extremist political group.

B. single-issue group.

Which of the following chemicals is a nerve agent? A. phosgene B. soman C. lewisite D. chlorine

B. soman

When determining the exact location and position of the patients in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, Except: A) The position of the crashed vehicle B) Hazards that pose a risk to rescuers C) The make and model of the vehicle D) The possibility of vehicle instability

C) The make and model of the vehicle

When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: A) remove him or her using a short backboard. B) move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C) protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D) release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal.

C) protect the cervical spine during the entire process.

Typically, medevac helicopters fly at speeds between: Select one: A. 120 and 140 mph. B. 100 and 120 mph. C. 130 and 150 mph D. 150 and 200 mph.

C. 130 and 150 mph

Which of the following situations would require the use of a specialized rescue team? a. A patient in a badly damaged car, not entrapped b. a patient found floating face down in a swimming pool c. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space d. an obese patient who must be removed to the ambulance

C. A patient trapped in a cave or a confined space

Which of the following statements regarding anthrax is correct? A. Anthrax is a deadly virus that replicates. B. Cutaneous anthrax has a 90% mortality rate. C. Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form. D. There is presently no vaccine against anthrax.

C. Pulmonary anthrax is the most deadly form.

Characteristics of a safe ambulance operator include: Select one; A. realizing that lights and siren will be effective traffic tools. B. the ability to operate an ambulance at a high rate of speed. C. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers. D. an offensive attitude about driving during an emergency call.

C. a positive attitude about the ability to tolerate other drivers.

Points of distribution (PODs) are strategically placed facilities where: A. weapons of mass destruction are distributed. B. chemical and biologic weapons are stockpiled. C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed. D. chemical weapons are manufactured and distributed.

C. antidotes, antibiotics, and vaccines are distributed.

During the transport phase of an ambulance call, it is most important to: Select one: A. reassess unstable patients at least every 15 minutes. B. complete the run form before arrival at the hospital. C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance. D. reassess the patient only if he or she deteriorates.

C. converse with the patient and provide reassurance.

A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should:A 19-year-old female has just been extricated from her severely damaged car. She is on a long backboard and has been moved to a place of safety. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a rapid assessment. The patient is unresponsive, has slow and shallow respirations, and has bilaterally closed femur deformities. You should:

C. direct your partner to begin ventilatory assistance

The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: A. type of material used to manufacture the device. B. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. D. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion.

C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.

When introduced into the body, ricin causes: A. intestinal obstruction and severe sepsis. B. enlarged lymph nodes and extreme pain. C. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure. D. necrosis of muscle tissue and cell destruction.

C. pulmonary edema and circulatory failure.

When being tailgated by another vehicle while responding to an emergency call, you should: Select one: A. stop the ambulance and confront the driver. B. slam on the brakes to frighten the tailgater. C. slow down and allow the driver to pass you. D. increase your speed to create more distance.

C. slow down and allow the driver to pass you.

The __________ area is where incoming ambulances meet and await further instructions at the scene of a mass-casualty incident. A. triage B. support C. staging D. transportation

C. staging

Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs? A. air-reactive solids B. flammable liquids C. water-reactive solids D. nonflammable gases

C. water-reactive solids

The EMT's role at the scene of a search and rescue attempt is to: A) accompany search team members and provide care. B) reassure the family members of the missing person. C) report to a location where the patient will be carried. D) stand by at the command post until the person is located.

D) stand by at the command post until the person is located.

Your primary concern when arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash is: A) gaining access to the patient(s). B) requesting additional resources. C) immediately beginning triage. D) surveying the area for hazards.

D) surveying the area for hazards.

Hydroplaning of the ambulance on wet roads would most likely occur at speeds of greater than mph. Select one: A. 10 B. 20 C. 15 D. 30

D. 30

Portable and mounted suction units must be powerful enough to generate a vacuum of at least mm Hg when the tubing is clamped. Select one: A. 100 B. 200 C. 400 D. 300

D. 300

Other than personal safety equipment, which of the following should be the most readily accessible item in the back of an ambulance? Select one; A. Long bone splinting device B. Emergency childbirth kit C. Stethoscope and penlight D. Bleeding control supplies

D. Bleeding control supplies

Which of the following statements regarding the use of the warning lights and siren on the ambulance is correct? Select one: A. It is generally acceptable to increase your speed if lights and siren are in use. B. If the patient is stable, you may use the warning lights without the siren. C. Warning lights and siren should be avoided, even if the patient is unstable. D. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.

D. If it is necessary to use the siren, you should tell the patient beforehand.

Interoperability, an important feature of the NIMS, refers to the ability of: A. the federal government to intervene during any large- or small-scale incident involving terrorism. B. EMS systems and fire departments in the same jurisdiction to effectively work as a team. C. county and state law enforcement agencies to acquire information and pass it along to EMS personnel. D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

D. agencies of different types or from different jurisdictions to communicate with each other.

Cross-contamination occurs when: A. an EMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated. B. two EMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated. C. an EMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. D. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.

D. an EMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.

The skin lesions associated with smallpox: A. initially form on the lower trunk. B. are of different shapes and sizes. C. develop early during the disease. D. are identical in their development.

D. are identical in their development.

Regardless of where portable and mounted oxygen cylinders are stored in the ambulance, they must: Select one: A. be easily identifiable by their bright green color. B. hold a minimum capacity of 1,500 L of oxygen. C. undergo hydrostatic testing on a weekly basis. D. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.

D. be capable of delivering oxygen at 1 to 15 L/min.

Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: A. accountability. B. lack of personnel. C. incident briefing. D. communication.

D. communication.

Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the medical branch of the ICS? A. triage B. transport C. treatment D. extrication

D. extrication

When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C. park downhill from the scene. D. position the ambulance upwind.

D. position the ambulance upwind.

When driving an ambulance on a multilane highway in emergency mode, you should: Select one: A. pass other drivers on the right side. B. remain in the extreme right-hand lane. C. drive in the center lane of the highway. D. remain in the extreme left-hand lane.

D. remain in the extreme left-hand lane.

Extrication is defined as: A. using heavy equipment to access a patient B. immobilizing a patient before moving him or heer C. dismantling an automobile to remove a victim D. removal from a dangerous situation or position

D. removal from a dangerous situation or position

The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are: A. the bill of lading. B. your local EMS protocols. C. the material safety data sheet (MSDS). D. the Emergency Response Guidebook.

D. the Emergency Response Guidebook.

The ____________ supervisor is responsible for notifying area hospitals and determining their availability and capabilities. A. triage B. medical C. treatment D. transportation

D. transportation

The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired effect, is called: A. potentiation. B. alkalinization. C. dissemination. D. weaponization.

D. weaponization.

A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, would be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. A. red B. green C. black D. yellow

D. yellow

The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: a.) is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated b.) should be performed by the most experienced EMT c.) is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry d.) determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone

a.) is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated

Once entrance and access to the patient have been provided, you should: a.) allow extrication to commence b.) perform a primary assessment c.) administer high-flow oxygen d.) begin treating his or her injuries

b.) perform a primary assessment

Situational awareness is MOST accurately defined as: a.) an ongoing process of information gathering and scene evaluation to determine appropriate strategies and tactics b.) the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact c.) predicting the presence of certain hazards at the scene after receiving initial information from the dispatcher d.) performing an initial scan of the scene in order to identify hazards that will pose an immediate threat to you and your crew

b.) the ability to recognize any possible issues once you arrive at the scene and act proactively to avoid a negative impact

The reasons for rescue failure can be referred to by the mnemonic FAILURE. According to his mnemonic, the "U" stands for: a.) underutilizing personnel at the scene b.) unprepared to effectively manage the scene c.) underestimating the logistics of the incident d.) undertrained to correctly utilize equipment

c.) underestimating the logistics of the incident