CH 43 Iggy the spinal cord questions

1. A nurse promotes the prevention of lower back pain by teaching clients at a community center. Which instruction should the nurse include in this education? a. "Participate in an exercise program to strengthen muscles." b. "Purchase a mattress that allows you to adjust the firmness." c. "Wear flat instead of high-heeled shoes to work each day." d. "Keep your weight within 20% of your ideal body weight."

ANS: A Exercise can strengthen back muscles, reducing the incidence of low back pain. The other options will not prevent low back pain.

12. After teaching a client with a spinal cord injury, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statement indicates a correct understanding of how to prevent respiratory problems at home? a. "I'll use my incentive spirometer every 2 hours while I'm awake." b. "I'll drink thinned fluids to prevent choking." c. "I'll take cough medicine to prevent excessive coughing." d. "I'll position myself on my right side so I don't aspirate."

ANS: A Often, the person with a spinal cord injury will have weak intercostal muscles and is at higher risk for developing atelectasis and stasis pneumonia. Using an incentive spirometer every 2 hours helps the client expand the lungs more fully and prevents atelectasis. Clients should drink fluids that they can tolerate; usually thick fluids are easier to tolerate. The client should be encouraged to cough and clear secretions. Clients should be placed in high-Fowler's position to prevent aspiration.

6. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion. Which complication should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? a. Auscultated stridor b. Weak pedal pulses c. Difficulty swallowing d. Inability to shrug shoulders

ANS: A Postoperative swelling can narrow the trachea, cause a partial airway obstruction, and manifest as stridor. The client may also have trouble swallowing, but maintaining an airway takes priority. Weak pedal pulses and an inability to shrug the shoulders are not complications of this surgery.

8. A nurse plans care for a client with a halo fixator. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? (Select all that apply.) a. Tape a halo wrench to the client's vest. b. Assess the pin sites for signs of infection. c. Loosen the pins when sleeping. d. Decrease the client's oral fluid intake. e. Assess the chest and back for skin breakdown.

ANS: A, B, E A special halo wrench should be taped to the client's vest in case of a cardiopulmonary emergency. The nurse should assess the pin sites for signs of infection or loose pins and for complications from the halo. The nurse should also increase fluids and fiber to decrease bowel straining and assess the client's chest and back for skin breakdown from the halo vest.

2. After teaching a client with a spinal cord tumor, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which statements by the client indicate a correct understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.) a. "Even though turning hurts, I will remind you to turn me every 2 hours." b. "Radiation therapy can shrink the tumor but also can cause more problems." c. "Surgery will be scheduled to remove the tumor and reverse my symptoms." d. "I put my affairs in order because this type of cancer is almost always fatal." e. "My family is moving my bedroom downstairs for when I am discharged home."

ANS: A, B, E Although surgery may relieve symptoms by reducing pressure on the spine and debulking the tumor, some motor and sensory deficits may remain. Spinal tumors usually cause disability but are not usually fatal. Radiation therapy is often used to shrink spinal tumors but can cause progressive spinal cord degeneration and neurologic deficits. The client should be turned every 2 hours to prevent skin breakdown and arrangements should be made at home so that the client can complete activities of daily living without needing to go up and down stairs.

7. A nurse assesses a client who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 12 hours ago. Which manifestations should the nurse correlate with neurogenic shock? (Select all that apply.) a. Heart rate of 34 beats/min b. Blood pressure of 185/65 mm Hg c. Urine output less than 30 mL/hr d. Decreased level of consciousness e. Increased oxygen saturation

ANS: A, C, D Neurogenic shock with acute spinal cord injury manifests with decreased oxygen saturation, symptomatic bradycardia, decreased level of consciousness, decreased urine output, and hypotension.

1. A nurse assesses a client who recently experienced a traumatic spinal cord injury. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain to assess the client's coping strategies? (Select all that apply.) a. Spiritual beliefs b. Level of pain c. Family support d. Level of independence e. Annual income f. Previous coping strategies

ANS: A, C, D, F Information about the client's preinjury psychosocial status, usual methods of coping with illness, difficult situations, and disappointments should be obtained. Determine the client's level of independence or dependence and his or her comfort level in discussing feelings and emotions with family members or close friends. Clients who are emotionally secure and have a positive self-image, a supportive family, and financial and job security often adapt to their injury. Information about the client's spiritual and religious beliefs or cultural background also assists the nurse in developing the plan of care. The other options do not supply as much information about coping.

22. A nurse assesses the health history of a client who is prescribed ziconotide (Prialt) for chronic back pain. Which assessment question should the nurse ask? a. "Are you taking a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug?" b. "Do you have a mental health disorder?" c. "Are you able to swallow medications?" d. "Do you smoke cigarettes or any illegal drugs?"

ANS: B Clients who have a mental health or behavioral health problem should not take ziconotide. The other questions do not identify a contraindication for this medication.

5. A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a spinal fusion. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's postoperative instructions? a. "Only lift items that are 10 pounds or less." b. "Wear your brace whenever you are out of bed." c. "You must remain in bed for 3 weeks after surgery." d. "You are prescribed medications to prevent rejection."

ANS: B Clients who undergo spinal fusion are fitted with a brace that they must wear throughout the healing process (usually 3 to 6 months) whenever they are out of bed. The client should not lift anything. The client does not need to remain in bed. Medications for rejection prevention are not necessary for this procedure.

9. An emergency department nurse cares for a client who experienced a spinal cord injury 1 hour ago. Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Intrathecal baclofen (Lioresal) b. Methylprednisolone (Medrol) c. Atropine sulfate d. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

ANS: B Methylprednisolone (Medrol) should be given within 8 hours of the injury. Clients who receive this therapy usually show improvement in motor and sensory function. The other medications are inappropriate for this client.

16. A nurse is teaching a client with multiple sclerosis who is prescribed cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) and methylprednisolone (Medrol). Which statement should the nurse include in this client's discharge teaching? a. "Take warm baths to promote muscle relaxation." b. "Avoid crowds and people with colds." c. "Relying on a walker will weaken your gait." d. "Take prescribed medications when symptoms occur."

ANS: B The client should be taught to avoid people with any type of upper respiratory illness because these medications are immunosuppressive. Warm baths will exacerbate the client's symptoms. Assistive devices may be required for safe ambulation. Medication should be taken at all times and should not be stopped.

4. A nurse cares for a client with a lower motor neuron injury who is experiencing a flaccid bowel elimination pattern. Which actions should the nurse take to assist in relieving this client's constipation? (Select all that apply.) a. Pour warm water over the perineum. b. Provide a diet high in fluids and fiber. c. Administer daily tap water enemas. d. Implement a consistent daily time for elimination. e. Massage the abdomen from left to right. f. Perform manual disimpaction.

ANS: B, D, F For the client with a lower motor neuron injury, the resulting flaccid bowel may require a bowel program for the client that includes stool softeners, increased fluid intake, a high-fiber diet, and a consistent elimination time. If the client becomes impacted, the nurse would need to perform manual disimpaction. Pouring warm water over the perineum, administering daily enemas, and massaging the abdomen would not assist this client.

18. A nurse cares for several clients on a neurologic unit. Which prescription for a client should direct the nurse to ensure that an informed consent has been obtained before the test or procedure? a. Sensation measurement via the pinprick method b. Computed tomography of the cranial vault c. Lumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid sampling d. Venipuncture for autoantibody analysis

ANS: C A lumbar puncture is an invasive procedure with many potentially serious complications. The other assessments or tests are considered noninvasive and do not require an informed consent.

13. A nurse assesses a client with early-onset multiple sclerosis (MS). Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Hyperresponsive reflexes b. Excessive somnolence c. Nystagmus d. Heat intolerance

ANS: C Early signs and symptoms of MS include changes in motor skills, vision, and sensation. Hyperresponsive reflexes, excessive somnolence, and heat intolerance are later manifestations of MS.

15. A nurse assesses a client with multiple sclerosis after administering prescribed fingolimod (Gilenya). For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor? a. Peripheral edema b. Black tarry stools c. Bradycardia d. Nausea and vomiting

ANS: C Fingolimod (Gilenya) is an antineoplastic agent that can cause bradycardia, especially within the first 6 hours after administration. Peripheral edema, black and tarry stools, and nausea and vomiting are not adverse effects of fingolimod.

2. A nurse plans care for a client with lower back pain from a work-related injury. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care? a. Encourage the client to stretch the back by reaching toward the toes. b. Massage the affected area with ice twice a day. c. Apply a heating pad for 20 minutes at least four times daily. d. Advise the client to avoid warm baths or showers.

ANS: C Heat increases blood flow to the affected area and promotes healing of injured nerves. Stretching and ice will not promote healing, and there is no need to avoid warm baths or showers.

4. A nurse assesses clients at a community center. Which client is at greatest risk for lower back pain? a. A 24-year-old female who is 25 weeks pregnant b. A 36-year-old male who uses ergonomic techniques c. A 45-year-old male with osteoarthritis d. A 53-year-old female who uses a walker

ANS: C Osteoarthritis causes changes to support structures, increasing the client's risk for low back pain. The other clients are not at high risk.

11. A nurse is caring for a client with paraplegia who is scheduled to participate in a rehabilitation program. The client states, "I do not understand the need for rehabilitation; the paralysis will not go away and it will not get better." How should the nurse respond? a. "If you don't want to participate in the rehabilitation program, I'll let the provider know." b. "Rehabilitation programs have helped many clients with your injury. You should give it a chance." c. "The rehabilitation program will teach you how to maintain the functional ability you have and prevent further disability." d. "When new discoveries are made regarding paraplegia, people in rehabilitation programs will benefit first."

ANS: C Participation in rehabilitation programs has many purposes, including prevention of disability, maintenance of functional ability, and restoration of function. The other responses do not meet this client's needs.

7. A nurse assesses a client with a spinal cord injury at level T5. The client's blood pressure is 184/95 mm Hg, and the client presents with a flushed face and blurred vision. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Initiate oxygen via a nasal cannula. b. Place the client in a supine position. c. Palpate the bladder for distention. d. Administer a prescribed beta blocker.

ANS: C The client is manifesting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. Common causes include bladder distention, tight clothing, increased room temperature, and fecal impaction. If persistent, the client could experience neurologic injury. Precipitating conditions should be eliminated and the physician notified. The other actions would not be appropriate.

20. A nurse cares for a client with a spinal cord injury. With which interdisciplinary team member should the nurse consult to assist the client with activities of daily living? a. Social worker b. Physical therapist c. Occupational therapist d. Case manager

ANS: C The occupational therapist instructs the client in the correct use of all adaptive equipment. In collaboration with the therapist, the nurse instructs family members or the caregiver about transfer skills, feeding, bathing, dressing, positioning, and skin care. The other team members are consulted to assist the client with unrelated issues.

5. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a lumbar laminectomy. Which complications should alert the nurse to urgently communicate with the health care provider? (Select all that apply.) a. Surgical discomfort b. Redness and itching at the incision site c. Incisional bulging d. Clear drainage on the dressing e. Sudden and severe headache

ANS: C, D, E Bulging at the incision site or clear fluid on the dressing after a laminectomy strongly suggests a cerebrospinal fluid leak, which constitutes an emergency. Loss of cerebral spinal fluid may cause a sudden and severe headache, which is also an emergency situation. Pain, redness, and itching at the site are normal.

3. After teaching a male client with a spinal cord injury at the T4 level, the nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which client statements indicate a correct understanding of the teaching related to sexual effects of this injury? (Select all that apply.) a. "I will explore other ways besides intercourse to please my partner." b. "I will not be able to have an erection because of my injury." c. "Ejaculation may not be as predictable as before." d. "I may urinate with ejaculation but this will not cause infection." e. "I should be able to have an erection with stimulation."

ANS: C, D, E Men with injuries above T6 often are able to have erections by stimulating reflex activity. For example, stroking the penis will cause an erection. Ejaculation is less predictable and may be mixed with urine. However, urine is sterile, so the client's partner will not get an infection.

6. A nurse assesses a client with paraplegia from a spinal cord injury and notes reddened areas over the client's hips and sacrum. Which actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.) a. Apply a barrier cream to protect the skin from excoriation. b. Perform range-of-motion (ROM) exercises for the hip joint. c. Re-position the client off of the reddened areas. d. Get the client out of bed and into a chair once a day. e. Obtain a low-air-loss mattress to minimize pressure.

ANS: C, E Appropriate interventions to relieve pressure on these areas include frequent re-positioning and a low-air-loss mattress. Reddened areas should not be rubbed because this action could cause more extensive damage to the already fragile capillary system. Barrier cream will not protect the skin from pressure wounds. ROM exercises are used to prevent contractures. Sitting the client in a chair once a day will decrease the client's risk of respiratory complications but will not decrease pressure on the client's hips and sacrum.

3. A nurse assesses a client who is recovering from a diskectomy 6 hours ago. Which assessment finding should the nurse address first? a. Sleepy but arouses to voice b. Dry and cracked oral mucosa c. Pain present in lower back d. Bladder palpated above pubis

ANS: D A distended bladder may indicate damage to the sacral spinal nerves. The other findings require the nurse to provide care but are not the priority or a complication of the procedure.

21. A nurse cares for a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). The client states, "I do not want to be placed on a mechanical ventilator." How should the nurse respond? a. "You should discuss this with your family and health care provider." b. "Why are you afraid of being placed on a breathing machine?" c. "Using the incentive spirometer each hour will delay the need for a ventilator." d. "What would you like to be done if you begin to have difficulty breathing?"

ANS: D ALS is an adult-onset upper and lower motor neuron disease characterized by progressive weakness, muscle wasting, and spasticity, eventually leading to paralysis. Once muscles of breathing are involved, the client must indicate in the advance directive what is to be done when breathing is no longer possible without intervention. The other statements do not address the client's needs.

17. A nurse assesses a client with a neurologic disorder. Which assessment finding should the nurse identify as a late manifestation of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)? a. Dysarthria b. Dysphagia c. Muscle weakness d. Impairment of respiratory muscles

ANS: D In ALS, progressive muscle atrophy occurs until a flaccid quadriplegia develops. Eventually, the respiratory muscles are involved, which leads to respiratory compromise. Dysarthria, dysphagia, and muscle weakness are early clinical manifestations of ALS.

10. A nurse teaches a client with a lower motor neuron lesion who wants to achieve bladder control. Which statement should the nurse include in this client's teaching? a. "Stroke the inner aspect of your thigh to initiate voiding." b. "Use a clean technique for intermittent catheterization." c. "Implement digital anal stimulation when your bladder is full." d. "Tighten your abdominal muscles to stimulate urine flow."

ANS: D In clients with lower motor neuron problems such as spinal cord injury, performing a Valsalva maneuver or tightening the abdominal muscles are interventions that can initiate voiding. Stroking the inner aspect of the thigh may initiate voiding in a client who has an upper motor neuron problem. Intermittent catheterization and digital anal stimulation do not initiate voiding or bladder control.

19. A nurse prepares a client for prescribed magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Which action should the nurse implement prior to the test? a. Implement nothing by mouth (NPO) status for 8 hours. b. Withhold all daily medications until after the examination. c. Administer morphine sulfate to prevent claustrophobia during the test. d. Place the client in a gown that has cloth ties instead of metal snaps.

ANS: D Metal objects are a hazard because of the magnetic field used in the MRI procedure. Morphine sulfate is not administered to prevent claustrophobia; lorazepam (Ativan) or diazepam (Valium) may be used instead. The client does not need to be NPO, and daily medications do not need to be withheld prior to MRI.

14. A nurse cares for a client who presents with an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis (MS). Which prescribed medication should the nurse prepare to administer? a. Baclofen (Lioresal) b. Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) c. Dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) d. Methylprednisolone (Medrol)

ANS: D Methylprednisolone is the drug of choice for acute exacerbations of the disease. The other drugs are not used to treat acute exacerbations of MS. Interferon beta-1b is used to treat and control MS, decrease specific symptoms, and slow the progression of the disease. Baclofen and dantrolene sodium are prescribed to lessen muscle spasticity associated with MS.

8. An emergency room nurse initiates care for a client with a cervical spinal cord injury who arrives via emergency medical services. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Assess level of consciousness. b. Obtain vital signs. c. Administer oxygen therapy. d. Evaluate respiratory status.

ANS: D The first priority for a client with a spinal cord injury is assessment of respiratory status and airway patency. Clients with cervical spine injuries are particularly prone to respiratory compromise and may even require intubation. The other assessments should be performed after airway and breathing are assessed.