Ch. 5 tb
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding profitable and unprofitable growth? A) If a firm wants to increase its share price, it must diversify. B) If a firm retains more earnings, it will pay out less of those earnings, reducing its dividends. C) A firm can increase its growth rate by retaining more of its earnings. D) Cutting a firmʹs dividend to increase investment will raise the stock price if the new investment has a positive net present value (NPV).
A) If a firm wants to increase its share price, it must diversify.
Which of the following will NOT increase a companyʹs dividend payments? A) It can issue more shares. B) It can increase its earnings. C) It can decrease the number of shares outstanding. D) It can increase its dividend payout rate.
A) It can issue more shares.
What is the effective annual rate (EAR)? A) It is the interest rate that would earn the same interest with annual compounding. B) It is the ratio of the number of the annual percentage rate to the number of compounding periods per year. C) It is the interest rate for an n-year time interval, where n may be more than one year or less than or equal to one year (a fraction). D) It refers to the cash flows from an investment over a one-year period divided by the number of times that interest is compounded during the year.
A) It is the interest rate that would earn the same interest with annual compounding.
In an effort to maintain price stability, it is expected that the European Central Bank will raise interest rates in the future. Which of the following is the most likely effect of such an action on short-term and long-term interest rates in Europe? A) Long-term interest rates will tend to be higher than short-term interest rates. B) Long-term interest rates will be about the same as short-term interest rates. C) Both long- and short-term interest rates would be expected to fall sharply. D) No relative change in short and long term interest rates could be predicted.
A) Long-term interest rates will tend to be higher than short-term interest rates.
Why, in general, do investment opportunities offer a rate greater than that offered by U.S. Treasury securities for the same horizon? A) Most investment opportunities bear far greater risk than those offered by U.S. Treasury securities. B) The return from U.S. Treasury securities generally attracts less tax than the returns from other investments. C) The opportunity cost of capital for a given horizon is generally based on U.S. Treasury securities with that same horizon. D) U.S. Treasury securities are generally considered to be the best alternative to most investments.
A) Most investment opportunities bear far greater risk than those offered by U.S. Treasury securities.
Term: 1 year 2 years 3 years 5 years 10 years 20 years Rate: 5.00% 5.20% 5.40% 5.50% 5.76% 5.9% Given the above term structure of interest rates, which of the following is most likely in the future? Option I.Interest rates will fall. Option II. Economic growth will slow. Option III. Long-term rates will rise relative to short term rates. A) Option I only B) Option II only C) Option III only D) Options I and II
A) Option I only
Mary is in contract negotiations with a publishing house for her new novel. She has two options. She may be paid $100,000 up front, and receive royalties that are expected to total $26,000 at the end of each of the next five years. Alternatively, she can receive $200,000 up front and no royalties. Which of the following investment rules would indicate that she should take the former deal, given a discount rate of 8%? Rule I: The Net Present Value rule Rule II: The Payback Rule with a payback period of two years Rule III: The internal rate of return (IRR) Rule A) Rule I only B) Rule III only C) Rule II and III D) Rule I and II
A) Rule I only
Why is the yield to maturity of a zero-coupon, risk-free bond that matures at the end of a given period the risk-free interest rate for that period? A) Since such a bond provides a risk-free return over that period, the Law of One Price guarantees that the risk-free interest rate equals the yield to maturity. B) Since a bondʹs price will converge on its face value as the bond approaches the maturity date, the Law of One Price dictates that the risk-free interest rate will reflect this convergence. C) Since interest rates will rise and fall in response to the movement in bond prices. D) Since there is, by definition, no risk in investing in such bonds, the return from such bonds is the best that can be expected from any investment over the period.
A) Since such a bond provides a risk-free return over that period, the Law of One Price guarantees that the risk-free interest rate equals the yield to maturity.
Which of the following situations would result in lowering of interest rates by the banking authority of a country? A) The economy is slowing down. B) Inflation is rising rapidly. C) The level of investment is quite high. D) The rate of savings is quite low.
A) The economy is slowing down.
Assume your current mortgage payment is $900 per month. If you begin to pay $1,000 per month (with the extra $100 per month going to principal), which of the following will be TRUE? A) The mortgage balance will decrease faster with $1,000 monthly payment compared to $900 monthly payments. B) The total amount paid (principal and interest) will increase with $1,000 monthly payment compared to $900 monthly payments. C) The total interest expense will increase with $1,000 monthly payment compared to $900 monthly payments. D) The total principal paid will decrease with $1,000 monthly payment compared to $900 monthly payments.
A) The mortgage balance will decrease faster with $1,000 monthly payment compared to $900
Which of the following statements is FALSE of the dividend-discount model? A) We cannot use the dividend-discount model to value the stock of a firm with rapid or changing growth. B) As firms mature, their growth slows to rates more typical of established companies. C) The dividend-discount model values the stock based on a forecast of the future dividends paid to shareholders. D) The simplest forecast for the firmʹs future dividends states that they will grow at a constant rate, i.e., forever.
A) We cannot use the dividend-discount model to value the stock of a firm with rapid or changing growth.
When computing a present value, which of the following is TRUE? A) You should adjust the discount rate to match the interval between cash flows. B) You should adjust the future value to match the present value. C) You should adjust the time period to match the present value. D) You should adjust the cash flows to match the time period of the discount rate.
A) You should adjust the discount rate to match the interval between cash flows.
14) Which of the following bonds will be least sensitive to a change in interest rates? A) a ten-year bond with a $2,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.8% and coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually B) a 15-year bond with a $5,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 7.4% and coupon rate is 6.2% APR paid annually C) a 20-year bond with a $3,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 6.0% and coupon rate is 5.4% APR paid semiannually D) a 30-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.5% and coupon rate is 6.4% APR paid annually
A) a ten-year bond with a $2,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.8% and coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually
Which of the following is NOT a way that a firm can increase its dividend? A) by increasing its retention rate B) by decreasing its shares outstanding C) by increasing its earnings (net income) D) by increasing its dividend payout rate
A) by increasing its retention rate
You are trying to decide between three mutually exclusive investment opportunities. The most appropriate tool for identifying the correct decision is ________. A) net present value (NPV) B) profitability index C) internal rate of return (IRR) D) incremental internal rate of return (IRR)
A) net present value (NPV)
The present value (PV) of an investment is ________. A) the amount that an investment would yield if the benefit were realized today B) the difference between the cost of the investment and the benefit of the investment in dollars today C) the amount you need to invest at the current interest rate to re-create the cash flow from the investment D) the amount by which the cash flow of an investment exceeds or falls short of the cash flow generated by the same amount of money invested at market rate
A) the amount that an investment would yield if the benefit were realized today
Which of the following best describes the annual percentage rate? A) the quoted interest rate which, considered with the compounding period, gives the effective interest rate B) the effective annual rate, after compounding is taken into account C) the discount rate, when compounded more than once a year or less than once a year D) the discount rate, when effective annual rate is divided by the number of times it is compounded in a year
A) the quoted interest rate which, considered with the compounding period, gives the effective interest rate
A bond certificate includes ________. A) the terms of the bond B) the individual to whom payments will be made C) the yield to maturity of the bond D) the price of the bond
A) the terms of the bond
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The payback investment rule is based on the notion that an opportunity that pays back its initial investments quickly is a good idea. B) An internal rate of return (IRR) will always exist for an investment opportunity. C) A net present value (NPV) will always exist for an investment opportunity. D) In general, there can be as many internal rates of return (IRRs) as the number of times the projectʹs cash flows change sign over time.
B) An internal rate of return (IRR) will always exist for an investment opportunity.
Suppose that when these bonds were issued, Luther received a price of $972.42 for each bond. What is the likely rating that Lutherʹs bonds received? A) AA B) BBB C) B D) A
B) BBB
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) Bonds are securities sold by governments and corporations to raise money from investors today in exchange for a promised future payment. B) By convention, the coupon rate is expressed as an effective annual rate. C) Bonds typically make two types of payments to their holders. D) The time remaining until the repayment date is known as the term of the bond.
B) By convention, the coupon rate is expressed as an effective annual rate.
The owner of a hair salon spends $1,000,000 to renovate its premises, estimating that this will increase her cash flow by $220,000 per year. She constructs the above graph, which shows the net present value (NPV) as a function of the discount rate. If her discount rate is 6%, should she accept the project? A) Yes, because the NPV is positive at that rate. B) No, because the NPV is negative at that rate. C) No, because the NPV is positive at that rate. D) Cannot be determined from the information given.
B) No, because the NPV is negative at that rate.
Which of the following is/are TRUE? I. The EAR can never exceed the APR. II. The APR can never exceed the EAR. III. The APR and EAR can never be equal. A) Only I is true. B) Only II is true. C) Only II & III are true. D) Only I & III are true.
B) Only II is true.
Which of the following formulas is INCORRECT? A) Divt = EPSt × Dividend Payout Rate B) PN = (rE - g) × DivN+1 C) earnings growth rate = retention rate × return on new investment D) rE = (Divt / P0) + g
B) PN = (rE - g) × DivN+1
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) The amount of each coupon payment is determined by the coupon rate of the bond. B) Prior to its maturity date, the price of a zero-coupon bond is always greater than its face value. C) The zero-coupon bond has no periodic interest payments. D) Treasury bills are U.S. government bonds with a maturity of up to one year.
B) Prior to its maturity date, the price of a zero-coupon bond is always greater than its face value.
A lawn maintenance company compares two ride-on mowersthe Excelsior, which has an expected working-life of six years, and the Grassassinator, which has a working life of four years. After examining the equivalent annual annuities of each mower, the company decides to purchase the Excelsior. Which of the following, if true, would be most likely to make them change that decision? A) Fuel prices are expected to rise and raise the annual running costs of all mowers. B) The mower is only expected to be needed for three years. C) The prices of equivalent mowers are expected to grow in the future as lawnmower manufacturers consolidate. D) The number of customers requiring lawn-mowing services is expected to sharply increase in the near future.
B) The mower is only expected to be needed for three years.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The payback rule is useful in cases where the cost of making an incorrect decision might not be large enough to justify the time required for calculating the net present value (NPV). B) The payback rule is reliable because it considers the time value of money and depends on the cost of capital. C) For most investment opportunities, expenses occur initially and cash is received later. D) Fifty percent of firms surveyed reported using the payback rule for making decisions.
B) The payback rule is reliable because it considers the time value of money and depends on the cost of capital.
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) The internal rate of return (IRR) of an investment in a zero-coupon bond is the rate of return that investors will earn on their money if they buy a default-free bond at its current price and hold it to maturity. B) The yield to maturity of a bond is the discount rate that sets the future value (FV) of the promised bond payments equal to the current market price of the bond. C) Financial professionals also use the term spot interest rates to refer to the default-free zero-coupon yields.
B) The yield to maturity of a bond is the discount rate that sets the future value (FV) of the promised bond payments equal to the current market price of the bond.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) As firms mature, their earnings exceed their investment needs and they begin to pay dividends. B) Total return equals earnings multiplied by the dividend payout rate. C) Cutting the firmʹs dividend to increase investment will raise the stock price if, and only if, the new investments have a positive net present value (NPV). D) We cannot use the constant dividend growth model to value the stock of a firm with rapid or changing growth.
B) Total return equals earnings multiplied by the dividend payout rate.
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) One advantage of quoting the yield to maturity rather than the price is that the yield is independent of the face value of the bond. B) Unlike the case of bonds that pay coupons, for zero-coupon bonds, there is no formula to solve for the yield to maturity. C) Because we can convert any bond price into a yield, and vice versa, bond prices and yields are often used interchangeably. D) The internal rate of return (IRR) of a bond is given a special name, the yield to maturity (YTM).
B) Unlike the case of bonds that pay coupons, for zero-coupon bonds, there is no formula to solve for the yield to maturity.
Which of the following will be a source of cash flows for a shareholder of a certain stock? I. Sale of the shares at a future date II. The firm in which the shares are held paying out cash to shareholders in the form of dividends III. The firm in which the shares are held increasing the total number of shares outstanding through a stock split A) I only B) II only C) I and II D) II and III
C) I and II
According to Graham and Harveyʹs 2001 survey (Figure 8.2 in the text), the most popular decision rules for capital budgeting used by CFOs are ________. A) NPV, IRR, MIRR B) MIRR, IRR, Payback period C) IRR, NPV, Payback period D) Profitability index, NPV, IRR
C) IRR, NPV, Payback period
Peter has a business opportunity that requires him to invest $10,000 today, and receive $12,000 in one year. He can either use $10,000 that he already has for this investment or borrow the money from his bank at an interest rate of 10%. However, the $10,000 he has right now is needed for urgent repairs to his home, repairs that will cost at least $15,000 if he delays them for a year. What is the best alternative for Peter out of the following choices? A) No, since the net present value (NPV) of the investment, should he take it, is less than the net present value (NPV) of the home repairs if he delays them for one year. B) Yes, since he can borrow the $10,000 from a bank, repair his home, invest $10,000 in the business opportunity, which, since it has a NPV > 0 will mean he will still come out ahead after repaying the loan. C) Yes, since the net present value (NPV) of the investment is greater than zero he can invest the $10,000 in the business opportunity, and then next year use this money plus the benefit from this money to make the necessary home repairs. D) Yes, since the net present value (NPV) of the investment, should he take it, is greater than the net present value (NPV) of the home repairs if he delays them for one year.
B) Yes, since he can borrow the $10,000 from a bank, repair his home, invest $10,000 in the business opportunity, which, since it has a NPV > 0 will mean he will still come out ahead after repaying the loan.
A corporate bond which receives a BBB rating from Standard & Poorʹs is considered ________. A) a junk bond B) an investment grade bond C) a defaulted bond D) a high-yield bond
B) an investment grade bond
You placed an order to purchase stock where you specified the maximum price you were willing to pay. This type of order is known as a ________. A) maximum order B) limit order C) floor order D) market order
B) limit order
When comparing two projects with different lives, why do you compute an annuity with an equivalent present value (PV) to the net present value (NPV)? A) so that you can see which project has the greatest net present value (NPV) B) so that the projects can be compared on their cost or value created per year C) to reduce the danger that changes in the estimate of the discount rate will lead to choosing the project with a shorter timeframe D) to ensure that cash flows from the project with a longer life that occur after the project with the shorter life has ended are considered
B) so that the projects can be compared on their cost or value created per year
What is the dirty price of a bond? A) the bondʹs price based only on the bondʹs yield B) the bondʹs actual cash price C) the bondʹs price based only on coupon payments D) the bondʹs price less an adjustment for changes in interest rates
B) the bondʹs actual cash price
What, typically, is used to calculate the opportunity cost of capital on a risk-free investment? A) the best expected return offered in any investment available in the market B) the interest rate on U.S. Treasury securities with the same term C) the interest rate of any investments alternatives that are available D) the best rate of return offered by U.S. Treasury securities
B) the interest rate on U.S. Treasury securities with the same term
The yield curve is typically ________. A) downward sloping B) upward sloping C) flat D) inverted
B) upward sloping
In which of the following situations would it not be appropriate to use the following formula: PV = C0 + C1/(1 + r) + C2/(1 + r)2 + . . . . + Cn/(1 + r)n when determining the present value (PV) of a cash flow stream? A) when yield curves are flat B) when short-term and long-term interest rates vary widely C) when the inflation rate is high D) when the discount rate is high
B) when short-term and long-term interest rates vary widely
A round lot consists of how many shares? A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1,000
C) 100
Which of the following statements is true of bond prices? A) A fall in bond prices causes interest rates to fall. B) A fall in interest rates causes a fall in bond prices. C) A rise in interest rates causes bond prices to fall. D) Bond prices and interest rates are not connected.
C) A rise in interest rates causes bond prices to fall.
Inflation is calculated as the rate of change in the _______. A) unemployment rate B) Gross Domestic Product C) Consumer Price Index D) risk-free rate
C) Consumer Price Index
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of the payback rule? A) It does not consider the time value of money. B) Lacks a decision criterion that is economically based. C) It is difficult to calculate. D) It does not consider cash flows occurring after the payback period.
C) It is difficult to calculate.
How are investors in zero-coupon bonds compensated for making such an investment? A) Such bonds are purchased at their face value and sold at a premium on a later date. B) Such bonds make regular interest payments. C) Such bonds are purchased at a discount, below their face value. D) Such bonds have a lower face value as compared to other bonds of similar term.
C) Such bonds are purchased at a discount, below their face value.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The actual return kept by an investor will depend on how the interest is taxed. B) The equivalent after-tax interest rate is r(1 - ). C) The highest interest rate for a given horizon is the rate paid on U.S. Treasury securities. D) It is important to use a discount rate that matches both the horizon and the risk of the cash flows.
C) The highest interest rate for a given horizon is the rate paid on U.S. Treasury securities.
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) The bond certificate typically specifies that the coupons will be paid periodically until the maturity date of the bond. B) The bond certificate indicates the amounts and dates of all payments to be made. C) The only cash payments the investor will receive from a zero-coupon bond are the interest payments that are paid up until the maturity date. D) The face value of a bond is repaid at maturity.
C) The only cash payments the investor will receive from a zero-coupon bond are the interest payments that are paid up until the maturity date.
Why are the interest rates of U.S. Treasury securities less than the interest rates of equivalent corporate bonds? A) The U.S. government has a high credit spread. B) There is significant risk that the U.S. government will default. C) U.S. Treasury securities are widely regarded to be risk-free. D) U.S. Treasury securities yield inflation adjusted interest rates.
C) U.S. Treasury securities are widely regarded to be risk-free.
Which of the following bonds will be most sensitive to a change in interest rates if all bonds have the same initial yield to maturity? A) a ten-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually B) a ten-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 7.4% APR paid semiannually C) a 20-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually D) a 20-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 7.4% APR paid semiannually
C) a 20-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually
Which of the following bonds is trading at par? A) a bond with a $2,000 face value trading at $1,987 B) a bond with a $1,000 face value trading at $999 C) a bond with a $1,000 face value trading at $1,000 D) a bond with a $2,000 face value trading at $2,012
C) a bond with a $1,000 face value trading at $1,000
Suppose the term structure of interest rates is shown below: Term 1 year 2 years 3 years 5 years 10 years Rate (EAR%) 5.00% 4.80% 4.60% 4.50% 4.25% 20 years 4.15% What is the shape of the yield curve and what expectations are investors likely to have about future interest rates? A) inverted; higher B) normal; higher C) inverted; lower D) normal; lower
C) inverted; lower
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Estimating dividends, especially for the distant future, is difficult. B) A firm can only pay out its earnings to investors or reinvest their earnings. C) Successful young firms often have high initial earnings growth rates. D) According to the constant dividend growth model, the value of the firm depends on the current dividend level, divided by the equity cost of capital plus the grow rate.
D) According to the constant dividend growth model, the value of the firm depends on the current dividend level, divided by the equity cost of capital plus the grow rate.
Which of the following is true about the face value of a bond? A) It is the notional amount we use to compute coupon payments. B) It is the amount that is repaid at maturity. C) It is usually denominated in standard increments, such as $1,000. D) All of the above are true.
D) All of the above are true.
Which of the following situations can lead to IRR giving a different decision than NPV? A) delayed investment B) multiple IRRs C) differences in project scale D) All of the above can lead to IRR giving a different decision than NPV.
D) All of the above can lead to IRR giving a different decision than NPV.
A bond is currently trading below par. Which of the following must be true about that bond? A) The bondʹs yield to maturity is less than its coupon rate. B) The bond is a zero-coupon bond. C) The bondʹs yield to maturity is greater than its coupon rate. D) B or C above
D) B or C above
Emma runs a small factory that needs a vacuum oven for brazing small fittings. She can purchase the model she needs for $180,000 up front, or she can lease it for five years for $4,200 per month. She can borrow at 7% APR, compounded monthly. Assuming that the oven will be used for five years, should she purchase the oven or should she lease it? A) Lease, since the present value (PV) of the lease is $12,224 less than the cost of the oven. B) Lease, since the present value (PV) of the lease is $8,642 less than the cost of the oven. C) Lease, since the present value (PV) of the lease is $2,212 less than the cost of the oven. D) Buy, since the present value (PV) of the lease is $32,108 more than the cost of the oven.
D) Buy, since the present value (PV) of the lease is $32,108 more than the cost of the oven.
Which of the following statements is FALSE about dividend payout and growth? A) A common approximation is to assume that in the long run, dividends will grow at a constant rate. B) The dividend each year is the firmʹs earnings per share (EPS) multiplied by its dividend payout rate. C) There is a tremendous amount of uncertainty associated with any forecast of a firmʹs future dividends. D) During periods of high growth, it is not unusual for firms to pay out 100% of their earnings to shareholders in the form of dividends.
D) During periods of high growth, it is not unusual for firms to pay out 100% of their earnings to shareholders in the form of dividends.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The opportunity cost of capital is the best available expected return offered in the market on an investment of comparable risk and term of the cash flows being discounted. B) Interest rates we observe in the market will vary based on quoting conventions, the term of investment, and risk. C) The opportunity cost of capital is the return the investor forgoes when the investor takes on a new investment. D) For a risk-free project, the opportunity cost of capital will typically be greater than the interest rate of U.S. Treasury securities with a similar term.
D) For a risk-free project, the opportunity cost of capital will typically be greater than the interest rate of U.S. Treasury securities with a similar term.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) The interest rates that banks offer on investments or charge on loans depend on the horizon of the investment or loan. B) The Federal Reserve determines very short-term interest rates through its influence on the federal funds rate. C) The interest rates that are quoted by banks and other financial institutions are nominal interest rates. D) Fundamentally, interest rates are determined by the Federal Reserve.
D) Fundamentally, interest rates are determined by the Federal Reserve.
A garage is comparing the cost of buying two different car hoists. Hoist A will cost $20,000, will require servicing of $1000 every two years, and last ten years. Hoist B will cost $15,000, require servicing of $800 per year, and last eight years. If the cost of capital is 7%, which is the better option, given that the firm has an ongoing requirement for a hoist? A) Hoist A, since it has a greater present value (PV). B) Hoist B, since it has a greater present value (PV). C) Hoist A, since it has a greater equivalent annual annuity. D) Hoist B, since it has a greater equivalent annual annuity.
D) Hoist B, since it has a greater equivalent annual annuity.
Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) In general, the difference between the cost of capital and the internal rate of return (IRR) is the maximum amount of estimation error in the cost of capital estimate that can exist without altering the original decision. B) The internal rate of return (IRR) can provide information on how sensitive your analysis is to errors in the estimate of your cost of capital. C) If you are unsure of your cost of capital estimate, it is important to determine how sensitive your analysis is to errors in this estimate. D) If the cost of capital estimate is more than the internal rate of return (IRR), the net present value (NPV) will be positive.
D) If the cost of capital estimate is more than the internal rate of return (IRR), the net present value (NPV) will be positive.
When the costs of an investment come before that investmentʹs benefits, what will be the effect of a rise in interest rates on the attractiveness of that investment to potential investors? A) It will make it more attractive, since it will increase the investmentʹs net present value (NPV). B) It will make it more attractive, since it will decrease the investmentʹs net present value (NPV). C) It will make it less attractive, since it will increase the investmentʹs net present value (NPV). D) It will make it less attractive, since it will decrease the investmentʹs net present value (NPV).
D) It will make it less attractive, since it will decrease the investmentʹs net present value (NPV).
The above screen shot from Google Finance shows the basic stock information for Logitech International SA (USA). What is Logitech International SA (USA)ʹs ticker symbol? A) LIS B) LOGITECH C) LOG D) LOGI
D) LOGI
A convenience store owner is contemplating putting a large neon sign over his store. It would cost $50,000, but is expected to bring an additional $24,000 of profit to the store every year for five years. Would this project be worthwhile if evaluated using a payback period of two years or less and if the cost of capital is 10%? A) Yes, since it will pay back its initial investment in two years. B) Yes, since the value of the cash flows into the store, in present dollars, are greater than the initial investment. C) Yes, since the cash flows after two years are greater than the initial investment. D) No, since the value of the cash flows over the first two years are less than the initial investment.
D) No, since the value of the cash flows over the first two years are less than the initial investment.
A janitorial services firm is considering two brands of industrial vacuum cleaners to equip their staff. Option A will cost $1,500, require servicing of $200 per year, and it will last five years. Option B will cost $1,000, require servicing of $100 per year, and it will last three years. If the cost of capital is 8%, which is the better option, given that the firm has an ongoing requirement for vacuum cleaners? A) Option A, since it has a lower equivalent annual annuity. B) Option B, since it has a lower equivalent annual annuity. C) Option A, since it has a greater equivalent annual annuity. D) Option B, since it has a greater equivalent annual annuity.
D) Option B, since it has a greater equivalent annual annuity.
Tanner is choosing between two investment options. He can invest $500 now and get (guaranteed) $550 in one year, or invest $500 now and get (guaranteed) $531.40 back later today. The risk-free rate is 3.5%. Which investment should Tanner prefer? A) $531.40 later today, since $1 today is worth more than $1 in one year. B) $550 in one year, since it is $50 more than he invested rather than $31.40 more than he invested. C) Neither - both investments have a negative NPV. D) Tanner should be indifferent between the two investments, since both are equivalent to the same amount of cash today.
D) Tanner should be indifferent between the two investments, since both are equivalent to the same amount of cash today.
Which of the following statements is FALSE about interest rates? A) As interest rates may be quoted for different time intervals, it is often necessary to adjust the interest rate to a time period that matches that of cash flows. B) The effective annual rate indicates the amount of interest that will be earned at the end of one year. C) The annual percentage rate indicates the amount of simple interest earned in one year. D) The annual percentage rate indicates the amount of interest including the effect of compounding.
D) The annual percentage rate indicates the amount of interest including the effect of compounding.
Which of the following reasons for considering long-term loans inherently more risky than short-term loans is most accurate? A) There is a greater chance that inflation may fall in a longer time-frame. B) The penalties for closing out a long term loan early make them unattractive to many investors. C) Long-term loans typically have ongoing costs that accumulate over the life of the loan. D) The loan values are very sensitive to changes in market interest rates.
D) The loan values are very sensitive to changes in market interest rates.
Which of the following would be LEAST likely to lower the interest rate that a bank offers a borrower? A) The number of borrowers seeking funds is low. B) The expected inflation rate is expected to be low. C) The borrower is judged to have a low degree of risk. D) The loan will be for a long period of time.
D) The loan will be for a long period of time.
Given that the inflation rate in 2006 was about 3.24%, while a short-term municipal bond offered a rate of 2.9%, which of the following statements is correct? A) The purchasing power of investors in these bonds grew over the course of the year. B) The real interest rate for investors in these bonds was greater than the rate of inflation. C) Investors in these bonds were able to buy less at the end of the year than they could have purchased at the start of the year. D) The nominal interest rate offered by these bonds gave the true increase in purchasing power that resulted from investing in these bonds.
D) The nominal interest rate offered by these bonds gave the true increase in purchasing power that resulted from investing in these bonds.
Which of the following formulas is INCORRECT? A) g = Retention Rate × Return on New Investment B) Divt = EPSt × Dividend Payout Rate C) P0=Div1/(rE-g) D) rE = (Div1 / P0) - g
D) rE = (Div1 / P0) - g
Historically, why were high inflation rates associated with high nominal interest rates? A) Individuals will spend more when they expect their investments to increase in value. B) Growth in investment and savings is encouraged when consumers are judged to be overspending. C) High inflation leads to a decrease in purchasing power and thus increases the attractiveness of investment over consumption in the short term. D) The real interest rate needs to be high enough so that individuals can expect their savings to have greater purchasing power in the future than in the present.
D) The real interest rate needs to be high enough so that individuals can expect their savings to have greater purchasing power in the future than in the present.
The owner of a hair salon spends $1,000,000 to renovate its premises, estimating that this will increase her cash flow by $220,000 per year. She constructs the above graph, which shows the net present value (NPV) as a function of the discount rate. At what dollar value should the NPV profile cross the vertical axis? A) $780,000 B) $1,000,000 C) Cannot be determined because inadequate information is given. D) The vertical axis crossing point cannot be calculated since the cash inflows are in perpetuity.
D) The vertical axis crossing point cannot be calculated since the cash inflows are in perpetuity.
Which of the following is NOT a valid method of modifying cash flows to produce a MIRR? A) Discount all of the negative cash flows to time 0 and leave the positive cash flows alone. B) Leave the initial cash flow alone and compound all of the remaining cash flows to the final period of the project. C) Discount all of the negative cash flows to the present and compound all of the positive cash flows to the end of the project. D) Turn multiple negative cash flows into a single negative cash flow by summing all negative cash flows over the projectʹs lifetime.
D) Turn multiple negative cash flows into a single negative cash flow by summing all negative cash flows over the projectʹs lifetime.
Which of the following best illustrates why a bond is a type of loan? A) The issuers of bonds make regular payments to bondholders. B) When a company issues a bond, the buyer of that bond becomes an owner of the issuing company. C) Funds raised are used to finance long-term projects. D) When an investor buys a bond from an issuer, the investor is giving money to the issuer, with the assurance that it will be repaid at a date in the future.
D) When an investor buys a bond from an issuer, the investor is giving money to the issuer, with the assurance that it will be repaid at a date in the future.
Which of the following statements regarding bonds and their terms is FALSE? A) Zero-coupon bonds are also called pure discount bonds. B) The internal rate of return (IRR) of an investment opportunity is the discount rate at which the net present value (NPV) of the investment opportunity is equal to zero. C) The yield to maturity for a zero-coupon bond is the return you will earn as an investor from holding the bond to maturity and receiving the promised face value payment. D) When prices are quoted in the bond market, they are conventionally quoted in increments of $1,000.
D) When prices are quoted in the bond market, they are conventionally quoted in increments of $1,000.
Which of the following bonds will be most sensitive to a change in interest rates? A) a ten-year bond with a $2,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.8% and coupon rate is 5.8% APR paid semiannually B) a 15-year bond with a $5,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 7.4% and coupon rate is 6.2% APR paid annually C) a 20-year bond with a $3,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 6.0% and coupon rate is 5.4% APR paid semiannually D) a 30-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.5% and coupon rate is 6.4% APR paid annually
D) a 30-year bond with a $1,000 face value whose yield to maturity is 5.5% and coupon rate is 6.4% APR paid annually
If the yield to maturity of all of the following bonds is 6%, which will trade at the greatest premium per $100 face value? A) a bond with a $10,000 face value, four years to maturity and 6.2% semiannual coupon payments B) a bond with a $500 face value, seven years to maturity and 5.2% annual coupon payments C) a bond with a $5,000 face value, seven years to maturity and 5.5% annual coupon payments D) a bond with a $1,000 face value, five years to maturity and 6.3% annual coupon payments
D) a bond with a $1,000 face value, five years to maturity and 6.3% annual coupon payments
What are dividend payments? A) payments made to a company by investors for a share of the ownership of that company B) incremental increases in the value of the stock held by an investor due to rises in share price C) the difference between the original cost price of a share and the price an investor receives when that share is sold D) a share of the profits paid to each shareholder on the basis of the number of shares they hold
D) a share of the profits paid to each shareholder on the basis of the number of shares they hold
Which of the following best describes a bond rated by Standard & Poorʹs and Moody as B? A) judged to be high quality by all standards B) considered to be medium grade obligations C) neither highly protected nor poorly secured D) generally lacks the characteristics of a desirable investment
D) generally lacks the characteristics of a desirable investment
Which of the following computes the growth in purchasing power? A) growth of money + growth of prices B) (1 + real rate) / (1 + nominal rate) C) (1 + inflation rate) / (1 + nominal rate) D) growth of money / growth of prices
D) growth of money / growth of prices
Most corporations measure the value of a project in terms of which of the following? A) discount value B) discount factor C) future value (FV) D) present value (PV)
D) present value (PV)
A floor broker is a person at the NASDAQ with a trading license who represents orders on the floor.
FALSE
Before it matures, the price of any bond is always less than its face value.
FALSE
Bond traders generally quote bond yields rather than bond prices, since yield to maturity depends on the face value of the bond.
FALSE
For a free-risk investment, the opportunity cost of capital will generally be more than the interest rate offered by U.S. Treasury securities with a similar term.
FALSE
Internal rate of return (IRR) can reliably be used to choose between mutually exclusive projects.
FALSE
Joe borrows $100,000 and agrees to repay the principal, plus 7% APR interest compounded monthly, at the end of three years. Joe has taken out an amortizing loan.
FALSE
Preference for cash today versus cash in the future in part determines net present value (NPV).
FALSE
Prior to its maturity date, the price of a zero-coupon bond is its face value.
FALSE
The annual percentage rate indicates the amount of interest, including the effect of any compounding.
FALSE
The coupon value of a bond is the face value of the bond.
FALSE
The credit spread of a bond shrinks if it is perceived that the probability of the issuer defaulting increases.
FALSE
The internal rate of return (IRR) rule will agree with the Net Present Value rule even when positive cash flows precede negative cash flows.
FALSE
The real interest rate is the rate of growth of oneʹs purchasing power due to money invested.
FALSE
The term opportunity in opportunity cost of capital comes from the fact that any worthwhile opportunity for investment will have a cost: the risk to the capital invested.
FALSE
Treasury bonds have original maturities from one to ten years, while Treasury notes have original maturities of more than ten years.
FALSE
When different projects put different demands on a limited resource, then net present value (NPV) is always the best way to choose the best project.
FALSE
When there are large numbers of people looking to save their money and there is little demand for loans, one would expect interest rates to be high.
FALSE
When using equivalent annual annuities to compare the costs of projects with different lives, you should not consider any changes in the expected replacement cost of equipment.
FALSE