Ch. 54: Mgmt of Pts w/ Kidney Disorders
A client has end-stage renal failure. Which of the following should the nurse include when teaching the client about nutrition to limit the effects of azotemia? Increase carbohydrates and limit protein intake. Eliminate fat intake and increase protein intake. Increase fat intake and limit carbohydrates. Increase protein, carbohydrates, and fat intake.
Correct response: Increase carbohydrates and limit protein intake. Explanation: Calories are supplied by carbohydrates and fat to prevent wasting. Protein is restricted because the breakdown products of dietary and tissue protein (urea, uric acid, and organic acids) accumulate quickly in the blood.
Which of the following occurs late in chronic glomerulonephritis? Nosebleed Peripheral neuropathy Stroke Seizure
Correct response: Peripheral neuropathy Explanation: Peripheral neuropathy with diminished deep tendon reflexes and neurosensory changes occur late in the disease. The patient becomes confused and demonstrates a limited attention span. An additional late finding includes evidence of pericarditis with or without a pericardial friction rub. The first indication of disease may be a sudden, severe nosebleed, a stroke, or a seizure.
What is a hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome? Hyponatremia Proteinuria Hypoalbuminemia Hypokalemia
Correct response: Proteinuria Explanation: Proteinuria (predominantly albumin) exceeding 3.5 g per day is the hallmark of the diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. Hypoalbuminemia, hypernatremia, and hyperkalemia may occur.
A change that occurs during chronic glomerulonephritis is termed hypophosphatemia. anemia. hypokalemia. metabolic alkalosis.
Correct response: anemia. Explanation: Anemia, hyperkalemia, metabolic acidosis, and hyperphosphatemia occur during chronic glomerulonephritis.
After teaching a group of students about how to perform peritoneal dialysis, which statement would indicate to the instructor that the students need additional teaching? "It is important to use strict aseptic technique." "It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave." "The infusion clamp should be open during infusion." "The effluent should be allowed to drain by gravity."
Correct response: "It is appropriate to warm the dialysate in a microwave." Explanation: The dialysate should be warmed in a commercial warmer and never in a microwave oven. Strict aseptic technique is essential. The infusion clamp is opened during the infusion and clamped after the infusion. When the dwell time is done, the drain clamp is opened and the fluid is allowed to drain by gravity into the drainage bag.
The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease. The patient has gained 4 kg in the past 3 days. In milliliters, how much fluid retention does this equal?
Correct response: 4000 Explanation: A 1-kg weight gain is equal to 1,000 mL of retained fluid. 4 kg × 1,000 = 4,000. The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight. An accurate daily weight must be obtained and recorded.
The nurse cares for a client with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). Which acid-base imbalance is associated with this disorder? pH 7.47, PaCO2 45, HCO3 33- pH 7.31, PaCO2 48, HCO3 24- pH 7.50, PaCO2 29, HCO3 22- pH 7.20, PaCO2 36, HCO3 14-
Correct response: pH 7.20, PaCO2 36, HCO3 14- Explanation: Metabolic acidosis occurs in end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) because the kidneys are unable to excrete increased loads of acid. Decreased acid secretion results from the inability of the kidney tubules to excrete ammonia (NH3-) and to reabsorb sodium bicarbonate (HCO3-). There is also decreased excretion of phosphates and other organic acids.
The client with polycystic kidney disease asks the nurse, "Will my kidneys ever function normally again?" The best response by the nurse is: "Genetic testing will determine the best treatment for your condition." "Draining of the cysts and antibiotic therapy will cure your disease." "Dietary changes can reverse the damage that has occurred in your kidneys." "As the disease progresses, you will most likely require renal replacement therapy."
Correct response: "As the disease progresses, you will most likely require renal replacement therapy." Explanation: There is no cure for polycystic kidney disease. Medical management includes therapies to control blood pressure, urinary tract infections, and pain. Renal replacement therapy is indicated as the kidneys fail.
During hemodialysis, excess water is removed from the blood by which of the following? Filtration Diffusion Osmosis Ultrafiltration
Correct response: Osmosis Explanation: Excess water is removed from the blood by osmosis, in which water moves from an area of higher solute concentration in the blood toward an area of lower solute concentration into the dialysate.
Which nursing assessment finding indicates that the client who has undergone renal transplant has not met expected outcomes? Weight loss Absence of pain Fever Diuresis
Correct response: Fever Explanation: Fever is an indicator of infection or transplant rejection.
Patient education regarding a fistulae or graft includes which of the following? Select all that apply. Avoid compression of the site. No tight clothing. No IV or blood pressure taken on extremity with dialysis access. Check daily for thrill and bruit. Cleanse site b.i.d.
Correct response: Check daily for thrill and bruit. Avoid compression of the site. No IV or blood pressure taken on extremity with dialysis access. No tight clothing. Explanation: The nurse teaches the patient with fistulae or grafts to check daily for a thrill and bruit. Further teaching includes avoiding compression of the site; not permitting blood to be drawn, an IV to be inserted, or blood pressure to be taken on the extremity with the dialysis access; not to wear tight clothing, carry bags or pocketbooks on that side, and not lie on or sleep on the area. The site is not cleansed unless it is being accessed for hemodialysis.
A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) has developed faulty red blood cell (RBC) production. The nurse should monitor this client for: thrush and circumoral pallor. dyspnea and cyanosis. nausea and vomiting. fatigue and weakness.
Correct response: fatigue and weakness. Explanation: RBCs carry oxygen throughout the body. Decreased RBC production diminishes cellular oxygen, leading to fatigue and weakness. Nausea and vomiting may occur in CRF but don't result from faulty RBC production. Dyspnea and cyanosis are associated with fluid excess, not CRF. Thrush, which signals fungal infection, and circumoral pallor, which reflects decreased oxygenation, aren't signs of CRF.
The nurse cares for a client with a right-arm arteriovenous fistula (AVF) for hemodialysis treatments. Which nursing action is contraindicated? Obtaining blood samples from the left arm Placing the client's watch on the left wrist Palpating the fistula for a "thrill" Obtaining a blood pressure reading from the right arm
Correct response: Obtaining a blood pressure reading from the right arm Explanation: The nurse assesses the vascular access for patency. The bruit, or "thrill," over the venous access site must be evaluated at least every shift. The nurse takes precautions to ensure that the extremity with the vascular access is not used for measuring blood pressure or for obtaining blood specimens; tight dressings, restraints, or jewelry over the vascular access must be avoided as well.
A patient undergoing a CT scan with contrast has a baseline creatinine level of 3 mg/dL, identifying this patient as at a high risk for developing kidney failure. What is the most effective intervention to reduce the risk of developing radiocontrast-induced nephropathy (CIN)? Hydrating with saline intravenously before the test Performing the test without contrast Administering Garamycin (gentamicin) prophylactically Administering sodium bicarbonate after the procedure
Correct response: Hydrating with saline intravenously before the test Explanation: Radiocontrast-induced nephropathy (CIN) is a major cause of hospital-acquired AKI. This is a potentially preventable condition. Baseline levels of creatinine greater than 2 mg/dL identify patients at high risk. Limiting the patient's exposure to contrast agents and nephrotoxic medications will reduce the risk of CIN (Murphy & Byrne, 2010; Rank, 2013). Administration of N-acetylcysteine and sodium bicarbonate before and during procedures reduces risk, but prehydration with saline is considered the most effective method to prevent CIN (Murphy & Byrne, 2010; Rank, 2013).
Which of the following would a nurse classify as a prerenal cause of acute renal failure? Polycystic disease Ureteral stricture Septic shock Prostatic hypertrophy
Correct response: Septic shock Explanation: Prerenal causes of acute renal failure include hypovolemic shock, cardiogenic shock secondary to congestive heart failure, septic shock, anaphylaxis, dehydration, renal artery thrombosis or stenosis, cardiac arrest, and lethal dysrhythmias. Ureteral stricture and prostatic hypertrophy would be classified as postrenal causes. Polycystic disease is classified as an intrarenal cause of acute renal failure.
A client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. IV fluid is being infused at 150 mL/hour. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)? Urine output of 250 ml/24 hours Temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 22 mg/dl Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl
Correct response: Urine output of 250 ml/24 hours Explanation: ARF, characterized by abrupt loss of kidney function, commonly causes oliguria, which is characterized by a urine output of 250 ml/24 hours. A serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl isn't diagnostic of ARF. A BUN level of 22 mg/dl or a temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) wouldn't result from this disorder.
A patient has stage 3 chronic kidney failure. What would the nurse expect the patient's glomerular filtration rate (GFR) to be? A GFR of 85 mL/min/1.73 m2 A GFR of 90 mL/min/1.73 m2 A GFR of 120 mL/min/1.73 m2 A GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2
Correct response: A GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2 Explanation: Stage 3 of chronic kidney disease is defined as having a GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m2
The client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute glomerulonephritis. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect to find? Cola-colored urine Peripheral neuropathy Hyperalbuminemia Hypotension
Correct response: Cola-colored urine Explanation: Clinical manifestations of acute glomerulonephritis include cola-colored urine, hematuria, edema, azotemia, and proteinuria.
An investment banker with chronic renal failure informs the nurse of the choice for continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis. Which is the best response by the nurse? "This type of dialysis will provide more independence." "Peritoneal dialysis does not work well for every client." "The risk of peritonitis is greater with this type of dialysis." "Peritoneal dialysis will require more work for you."
Correct response: "This type of dialysis will provide more independence." Explanation: Once a treatment choice has been selected by the client, the nurse should support the client in that decision. Continuous cyclic peritoneal dialysis will provide more independence for this client and supports the client's decision for treatment mode. The risk of peritonitis is greater, and symptoms should be discussed as part of the management of the disorder. Peritoneal dialysis is an effective method of dialysis for many clients.
A history of infection specifically caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci is associated with which disorder? Acute glomerulonephritis Nephrotic syndrome Chronic renal failure Acute renal failure
Correct response: Acute glomerulonephritis Explanation: Acute glomerulonephritis is also associated with varicella zoster virus, hepatitis B, and Epstein-Barr virus. Acute renal failure is associated with hypoperfusion to the kidney, parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or tubules, and obstruction at a point distal to the kidney. Chronic renal failure may be caused by systemic disease, hereditary lesions, medications, toxic agents, infections, and medications. Nephrotic syndrome is caused by disorders such as chronic glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple myeloma, and renal vein thrombosis.
The nurse is reviewing the potassium level of a patient with kidney disease. The results of the test are 6.5 mEq/L, and the nurse observes peaked T waves on the ECG. What priority intervention does the nurse anticipate the physician will order to reduce the potassium level? Administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) Administration of an insulin drip Administration of sodium bicarbonate Administration of a loop diuretic
Correct response: Administration of sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) Explanation: The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract.
Which of the following is a term used to describe excessive nitrogenous waste in the blood, as seen in acute glomerulonephritis? Bacteremia Proteinuria Hematuria Azotemia
Correct response: Azotemia Explanation: The primary presenting features of acute glomerulonephritis are hematuria, edema, azotemia (excessive nitrogenous wastes in the blood), and proteinuria (>3 to 5 g/day). Bacteremia is excessive bacteria in the blood.
A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is admitted to the urology unit. Which diagnostic test results are consistent with CRF? Uric acid analysis 3.5 mg/dL and phenolsulfonphthalein (PSP) excretion 75% Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dL and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/dL Increased pH with decreased hydrogen ions Increased serum levels of potassium, magnesium, and calcium
Correct response: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 100 mg/dL and serum creatinine 6.5 mg/dL Explanation: The normal BUN level ranges 8 to 23 mg/dl; the normal serum creatinine level ranges from 0.7 to 1.5 mg/dl. A BUN level of 100 mg/dl and a serum creatinine of 6.5 mg/dl are abnormally elevated results, reflecting CRF and the kidneys' decreased ability to remove nonprotein nitrogen waste from the blood. CRF causes decreased pH and increased hydrogen ions — not vice versa. CRF also increases serum levels of potassium, magnesium, and phosphorous, and decreases serum levels of calcium. A uric acid analysis of 3.5 mg/dl falls within the normal range of 2.7 to 7.7 mg/dl; PSP excretion of 75% also falls within the normal range of 60% to 75%.
The presence of prerenal azotemia is a probable indicator for hospitalization for CAP. Which of the following is an initial laboratory result that would alert a nurse to this condition? Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 100 mL/min. BUN of 18 mg/dL. Serum creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) >20.
Correct response: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)-to-creatinine ratio (BUN:Cr) >20. Explanation: The normal BUN:Cr ratio is less than 15. Prerenal azotemia is caused by hypoperfusion of the kidneys due to a nonrenal cause. Over time, higher than normal blood levels of urea or other nitrogen-containing compounds will develop.
The client with chronic renal failure complains of intense itching. Which assessment finding would indicate the need for further nursing education? Brief, hot daily showers Keeps nails trimmed short Pats skin dry after bathing Uses moisturizing creams
Correct response: Brief, hot daily showers Explanation: Hot water removes more oils from the skin and can increase dryness and itching. Tepid water temperature is preferred in the management of pruritus. The use of moisturizing lotions and creams that do not contain perfumes can be helpful. Avoid scratching and keeping nails trimmed short is indicated in the management of pruritus.
A patient admitted with electrolyte imbalance has carpopedal spasm, ECG changes, and a positive Chvostek sign. What deficit does the nurse suspect the patient has? Sodium Calcium Magnesium Phosphorus
Correct response: Calcium Explanation: Calcium deficit is associated with abdominal and muscle cramps, stridor, carpopedal spasm, hyperactive reflexes, tetany, positive Chvostek's or Trousseau's sign, tingling of fingers and around mouth, and ECG changes.
Diet modifications are part of nutritional therapy for the management of ARF. Select the high-potassium food that should be restricted. Butter White rice Salad oils Citrus fruits
Correct response: Citrus fruits Explanation: Dietary restrictions include foods and fluids containing potassium, such as bananas, citrus, tomatoes, melons, or those with phosphorus, which is found in dairy, beans, nuts legumes, and carbonated beverages. Caffeine is also restricted.
A client is in end-stage chronic renal failure and is being added to the transplant list. The nurse explains to the client how donors are found for clients needing kidneys. Which statement is accurate? Donors are selected from compatible living donors. Donors must be relatives. Donors with hypertension may qualify. The client is placed on a transplant list at the local hospital.
Correct response: Donors are selected from compatible living donors. Explanation: Donors are selected from compatible living donors. Donors do not have to be relatives as long as they are compatible. Potential donors with a history of hypertension, malignant disease, or diabetes are excluded from donation. The client is placed on a national computerized transplant waiting list.
Which of the following causes should the nurse suspect in a client is diagnosed with intrarenal failure? Dysrhythmia Hypovolemia Glomerulonephritis Ureteral calculus
Correct response: Glomerulonephritis Explanation: Intrarenal causes of renal failure include prolonged renal ischemia, nephrotoxic agents, and infectious processes such as acute glomerulonephritis.
The nurse recognizes which condition as an integumentary manifestation of chronic renal failure? Seizures Gray-bronze skin color Tremors Asterixis
Correct response: Gray-bronze skin color Explanation: Integumentary manifestations of chronic renal failure include a gray-bronze skin color. Other manifestations are dry, flaky skin, pruritus, ecchymosis, purpura, thin, brittle nails, and coarse, thinning hair. Asterixis, tremors, and seizures are neurologic manifestations of chronic renal failure.
The nurse passes out medications while a client prepares for hemodialysis. The client is ordered to receive numerous medications including antihypertensives. What is the best action for the nurse to take? Hold the medications until after dialysis. Administer the medications as ordered. Check with the dialysis nurse about the medications. Ask if the client wants to take the medications.
Correct response: Hold the medications until after dialysis. Explanation: Antihypertensive therapy, often part of the regimen of clients on dialysis, is one example when communication, education, and evaluation can make a difference in client outcomes. The client must know when—and when not—to take the medication. For example, if an antihypertensive agent is taken on a dialysis day, hypotension may occur during dialysis, causing dangerously low blood pressure. Many medications that are taken once daily can be held until after dialysis treatment.
A client in chronic renal failure becomes confused and complains of abdominal cramping, racing heart rate, and numbness of the extremities. The nurse relates these symptoms to which of the following lab values? Elevated white blood cells Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Elevated urea levels
Correct response: Hyperkalemia Explanation: Hyperkalemia is the life-threatening effect of renal failure. The client can become apathetic; confused; and have abdominal cramping, dysrhythmias, nausea, muscle weakness, and numbness of the extremities. Symptoms of hypocalcemia are muscle twitching, irritability, and tetany. Elevation in urea levels can result in azotemia, which can be exhibited in fluid and electrolyte and/or acid-base imbalance. Elevation of WBCs is not indicated.
A client with chronic renal failure complains of generalized bone pain and tenderness. Which assessment finding would alert the nurse to an increased potential for the development of spontaneous bone fractures? Elevated serum creatinine Elevated urea and nitrogen Hyperphosphatemia Hyperkalemia
Correct response: Hyperphosphatemia Explanation: Osteodystrophy is a condition in which the bone becomes demineralized due to hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia. In an effort to raise blood calcium levels, the parathyroid glands secrete more parathormone. Elevated creatinine, urea, nitrogen, and potassium levels are expected in chronic renal failure and do not contribute to bone fractures.
A client is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which symptom would the nurse most likely assess? Hypertension Flank pain Periorbital edema Fever
Correct response: Hypertension Explanation: Hypertension is often present in clients with polycystic kidney disease at the time of diagnosis. Pain from retroperitoneal bleeding, lumbar discomfort, and abdominal pain also may be noted based on the size and effects of the cysts. Fever would suggest an infection. Periorbital edema is noted with acute glomerulonephritis.
The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. What major danger should the nurse closely monitor for? Pneumonia caused by shallow breathing because of severe incisional pain Hypovolemic shock caused by hemorrhage Abdominal distention owing to reflex cessation of intestinal peristalsis Paralytic ileus caused by manipulation of the colon during surgery
Correct response: Hypovolemic shock caused by hemorrhage Explanation: If bleeding goes undetected or is not detected promptly, the patient may lose significant amounts of blood and may experience hypoxemia. In addition to hypovolemic shock due to hemorrhage, this type of blood loss may precipitate a myocardial infarction or transient ischemic attack.
What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI)? Decreased urine sodium Decreased creatinine High specific gravity Increased BUN
Correct response: Increased BUN Explanation: The intrarenal category of acute kidney injury (AKI) encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low-normal specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium. Intrarenal AKI is the result of actual parenchymal damage to the glomeruli or kidney tubules. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN), AKI in which there is damage to the kidney tubules, is the most common type of intrinsic AKI. Characteristics of ATN are intratubular obstruction, tubular back leak (abnormal reabsorption of filtrate and decreased urine flow through the tubule), vasoconstriction, and changes in glomerular permeability. These processes result in a decrease of GFR, progressive azotemia, and fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
What is a characteristic of the intrarenal category of acute renal failure? Decreased creatinine Decreased urine sodium Increased BUN High specific gravity
Correct response: Increased BUN Explanation: The intrarenal category of acute renal failure encompasses an increased BUN, increased creatinine, a low specific gravity of urine, and increased urine sodium.
A client has undergone a renal transplant and returns to the health care agency for a follow-up evaluation. Which finding would lead to the suspicion that the client is experiencing rejection? Hypotension Tenderness over transplant site Weight loss Polyuria
Correct response: Tenderness over transplant site Explanation: Signs and symptoms of transplant rejection include abdominal pain, hypertension, weight gain, oliguria, edema, fever, increased serum creatinine levels, and swelling or tenderness over the transplanted kidney site.
A client diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) has developed congestive heart failure. The client has received 40 mg of intravenous push (IVP) Lasix and 2 hours later, the nurse notes that there are 50 mL of urine in the Foley catheter bag. The client's vital signs are stable. Which health care order should the nurse anticipate? Lasix 80 mg IVP Normal saline bolus of 500 mL Mannitol 12.5 g IVP Chest x-ray
Correct response: Lasix 80 mg IVP Explanation: Diuretic agents are often used to control fluid volume in clients with acute kidney injury (AKI). The client's urine output indicates an inadequate response to the initial dosage of Lasix and the nurse should anticipate administering Lasix 80 mg IVP. Often in this situation, the initial dosage of Lasix is doubled. The client is experiencing fluid overload, thus, a 500-mL bolus of normal saline bolus would be contraindicated. There is no need to complete a chest x-ray. Mannitol is widely used in the management of cerebral edema and increased intracranial pressure from multiple causes.
The nurse is caring for a patient in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). What does the nurse know would be the daily urine output? 1.5 L 1.0 L Less than 400 mL Less than 50 mL
Correct response: Less than 400 mL Explanation: The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The minimum amount of urine needed to rid the body of normal metabolic waste products is 400 mL. In this phase, uremic symptoms first appear and life-threatening conditions such as hyperkalemia develop.
The nurse cares for a client with acute kidney injury (AKI). The client is experiencing an increase in the serum concentration of urea and creatinine. The nurse determines the client is experiencing which phase of AKI? Diuresis Initiation Recovery Oliguria
Correct response: Oliguria Explanation: The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys (urea, creatinine, uric acid, organic acids, and the intracellular cations [potassium and magnesium]). The initiation periods begins with the initial insult and ends when oliguria develops. The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output. The recovery period signals the improvement of renal function and may take 6 to 12 months.
Which period of acute renal failure is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys? Initiation Oliguria Recovery Diuresis
Correct response: Oliguria Explanation: The oliguria period is accompanied by an increase in the serum concentration of substances usually excreted by the kidneys, such as urea and creatinine. The initiation periods begins with the initial insult and ends when oliguria develops. The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output. The recovery period signals the improvement of renal function and may take 6 to 12 months.
A nurse is reviewing the history of a client who is suspected of having glomerulonephritis. Which of the following would the nurse consider significant? History of hyperparathyroidism History of osteoporosis Recent history of streptococcal infection Previous episode of acute pyelonephritis
Correct response: Recent history of streptococcal infection Explanation: Glomerulonephritis can occur as a result of infections from group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infections, bacterial endocarditis, or viral infections such as hepatitis B or C or human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). A history of hyperparathyroidism or osteoporosis would place the client at risk for developing renal calculi. A history of pyelonephritis would increase the client's risk for chronic pyelonephritis.
A patient has been diagnosed with postrenal failure. The nurse reviews the patient's electronic health record and notes a possible cause. Which of the following is the possible cause? Renal calculi Acute pyelonephritis Dysrhythmias Osmotic dieresis.
Correct response: Renal calculi Explanation: Postrenal ARF is the result of an obstruction that develops anywhere from the collecting ducts of the kidney to the urethra. This results from ureteral blockage, such as from bilateral renal calculi or benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
Following a nephrectomy, which assessment finding is most important in determining nursing care for the client? Pain of 3 out of 10, 1 hour after analgesic administration Blood tinged drainage in Jackson-Pratt drainage tube SpO2 at 90% with fine crackles in the lung bases Urine output of 35 to 40 mL/hour
Correct response: SpO2 at 90% with fine crackles in the lung bases Explanation: The Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern is often a challenge in caring for clients postnephrectomy due to location of incision. Nursing interventions should be directed to improve and maintain SpO2levels at 90% or greater and keep lungs clear of adventitious sounds. Intake and output is monitored to maintain a urine output of greater than 30 mL/hour. Pain control is important and should allow for movement, deep breathing, and rest. Blood-tinged drainage from the JP tube is expected in the initial postoperative period.
A client is admitted with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. His blood pressure on admission is 74/30 mm Hg. The client is oliguric and his blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated. The physician will most likely write an order for which treatment? Start IV fluids with a normal saline solution bolus followed by a maintenance dose. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 20 mg IV Start hemodialysis after a temporary access is obtained. Encourage oral fluids.
Correct response: Start IV fluids with a normal saline solution bolus followed by a maintenance dose. Explanation: The client is in prerenal failure caused by hypovolemia. I.V. fluids should be given with a bolus of normal saline solution followed by maintenance I.V. therapy. This treatment should rehydrate the client, causing his blood pressure to rise, his urine output to increase, and the BUN and creatinine levels to normalize. The client wouldn't be able to tolerate oral fluids because of the nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. The client isn't fluid-overloaded so his urine output won't increase with furosemide, which would actually worsen the client's condition. The client doesn't require dialysis because the oliguria and elevated BUN and creatinine levels are caused by dehydration.
Hyperkalemia is a serious side effect of acute renal failure. Identify the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing that is diagnostic for hyperkalemia. Tall, peaked T waves Prolonged ST segment Multiple spiked P waves Shortened QRS complex
Correct response: Tall, peaked T waves Explanation: Characteristic ECG signs of hyperkalemia are tall, tented, or peaked T waves, absent P waves, and a widened QRS complex.
The nurse is providing supportive care to a client receiving hemodialysis in the management of acute renal failure. Which statement from the nurse best reflects the ability of the kidneys to recover from acute renal failure? Acute renal failure tends to turn to end-stage failure. Kidney function will improve with transplant. The kidneys can improve over a period of months. Once on dialysis, the need will be permanent.
Correct response: The kidneys can improve over a period of months. Explanation: The kidneys have a remarkable ability to recover from serious insult. Recovery may take 3 to 12 months. As long as recovery is continuing, there is no need to consider transplant or permanent hemodialysis. Acute renal failure can progress to chronic renal failure.
A patient is placed on hemodialysis for the first time. The patient complains of a headache with nausea and begins to vomit, and the nurse observes a decreased level of consciousness. What does the nurse determine has happened? The patient is experiencing a cerebral fluid shift. Too much fluid was pulled off during dialysis. The dialysis was performed too rapidly. The patient is having an allergic reaction to the dialysate.
Correct response: The patient is experiencing a cerebral fluid shift. Explanation: Dialysis disequilibrium results from cerebral fluid shifts. Signs and symptoms include headache, nausea and vomiting, restlessness, decreased level of consciousness, and seizures. It is rare and more likely to occur in AKI or when BUN levels are very high (exceeding 150 mg/dL).
Which clinical finding should a nurse look for in a client with chronic renal failure? Hypotension Uremia Polycythemia Metabolic alkalosis
Correct response: Uremia Explanation: Uremia is the buildup of nitrogenous wastes in the blood, evidenced by an elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatine levels. Uremia, anemia, and acidosis are consistent clinical manifestations of chronic renal failure. Metabolic acidosis results from the inability to excrete hydrogen ions. Anemia results from a lack of erythropoietin. Hypertension (from fluid overload) may or may not be present in chronic renal failure. Hypotension, metabolic alkalosis, and polycythemia aren't present in renal failure.
A nurse assesses a client shortly after living donor kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the physician immediately? Urine output of 20 ml/hour Temperature of 99.2° F (37.3° C) Serum potassium level of 4.9 mEq/L Serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L
Correct response: Urine output of 20 ml/hour Explanation: Because kidney transplantation carries the risk of transplant rejection, infection, and other serious complications, the nurse should monitor the client's urinary function closely. A decrease from the normal urine output of 30 ml/hour is significant and warrants immediate physician notification. A serum potassium level of 4.9 mEq/L, a serum sodium level of 135 mEq/L, and a temperature of 99.2° F are normal assessment findings.
A male client has doubts about performing peritoneal dialysis at home. He informs the nurse about his existing upper respiratory infection. Which of the following suggestions can the nurse offer to the client while performing an at-home peritoneal dialysis? Perform deep-breathing exercises vigorously. Wear a mask when performing exchanges. Avoid carrying heavy items. Auscultate the lungs frequently.
Correct response: Wear a mask when performing exchanges. Explanation: The nurse should advise the client to wear a mask while performing exchanges. This prevents contamination of the dialysis catheter and tubing, and is usually advised to clients with upper respiratory infection. Auscultation of the lungs will not prevent contamination of the catheter or tubing. The client may also be advised to perform deep-breathing exercises to promote optimal lung expansion, but this will not prevent contamination. Clients with a fistula or graft in the arm should be advised against carrying heavy items.
Which of the following is the most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain? Urine output Caloric intake Body temperature Weight
Correct response: Weight Explanation: The most accurate indicator of fluid loss or gain in an acutely ill patient is weight, as accurate intake and output and assessment of insensible losses may be difficult. Urine output, caloric intake, and body temperature would not be the most reliable indicator of fluid loss or gain.
Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a client's uremia. Which finding during this procedure signals a significant problem? White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl Hematocrit (HCT) of 35% Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L
Correct response: White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3 Explanation: An increased WBC count indicates infection, probably resulting from peritonitis, which may have been caused by insertion of the peritoneal catheter into the peritoneal cavity. Peritonitis can cause the peritoneal membrane to lose its ability to filter solutes; therefore, peritoneal dialysis would no longer be a treatment option for this client. Hyperglycemia (evidenced by a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl) occurs during peritoneal dialysis because of the high glucose content of the dialysate; it's readily treatable with sliding-scale insulin. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L can be treated by adding potassium to the dialysate solution. An HCT of 35% is lower than normal. However, in this client, the value isn't abnormally low because of the daily blood samplings. A lower HCT is common in clients with chronic renal failure because of the lack of erythropoietin.
A client has been diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. This condition causes: pyuria. polyuria. proteinuria. No option is correct.
Correct response: proteinuria. Explanation: The disruption of membrane permeability causes red blood cells (RBCs) and protein molecules to filter from the glomeruli into Bowman's capsule and eventually become lost in the urine. Pyuria is pus in the urine. Polyuria is an increased volume of urine voided
A client diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI) has a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates administering: sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) IV dextrose 50% Calcium supplements Sorbitol
Correct response: sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) Explanation: The elevated potassium levels may be reduced by administering cation-exchange resins (sodium polystyrene sulfonate [Kayexalate]) orally or by retention enema. Kayexalate works by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestinal tract. Sorbitol may be administered in combination with Kayexalate to induce a diarrhea-type effect (it induces water loss in the GI tract). If the client is hemodynamically unstable (low blood pressure, changes in mental status, dysrhythmia), IV dextrose 50%, insulin, and calcium replacement may be administered to shift potassium back into the cells.
A client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). The nurse knows that this disorder increases the client's risk of: an increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure. water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate. metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions. a decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure.
Correct response: water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate. Explanation: The client with CRF is at risk for fluid imbalance — dehydration if the kidneys fail to concentrate urine, or fluid retention if the kidneys fail to produce urine. Electrolyte imbalances associated with this disorder result from the kidneys' inability to excrete phosphorus; such imbalances may lead to hyperphosphatemia with reciprocal hypocalcemia. CRF may cause metabolic acidosis, not metabolic alkalosis, secondary to inability of the kidneys to excrete hydrogen ions.
A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, the nurse knows that the client is most likely to experience: hematuria. increased urine output. weight loss. increased blood pressure.
Correct response: weight loss. Explanation: Because CRF causes loss of renal function, the client with this disorder retains fluid. Hemodialysis removes this fluid, causing weight loss. Hematuria is unlikely to follow hemodialysis because the client with CRF usually forms little or no urine. Hemodialysis doesn't increase urine output because it doesn't correct the loss of kidney function, which severely decreases urine production in this disorder. By removing fluids, hemodialysis decreases rather than increases the blood pressure.
