ch 6
Matching 1) The distance between two Z 2) Otherwise known as thick 3) Contains only the actin 4) Both actin and myosin are 5) The type of filament that is studded with myosin heads 6) Tiny contractile unit that shortens during muscle contraction 7) Actin filaments are anchored to these disclike membranes 8) Lighter central portion of the A band A) I band discs B) myosin filaments C) actin filaments filaments D) Z discs E) sarcomere filaments F) H zone G) A band found in this band
1) E 2) B 3) A 4) G 5) B 6) E 7) D 8) F
Match 15) Type of movement that decreases the angle of the joint 16) Type of movement that results when the forearm rotates laterally so that the palm faces anteriorly 17) The movement of a limb toward the body midline 18) Type of movement that increases the angle of the joint 19) The movement of a bone around its longitudinal axis 20) The movement of a limb away from the body midline 21) Type of movement that results when the forearm rotates medially so the palm faces posteriorly 22) Primary action of the deltoid 23) Primary action of the adductor muscles 24) Primary action of the erector spinae 25) Primary action of the rectus abdominis A) supination B) extension C) pronation D) rotation E) adduction F) flexion G) abduction
15) F 16) A 17) E 18) B 19) D 20) G 21) C 22) G 23) E 24) B 25) F
Match 9) Serves as the actual "go" signal for muscle contraction 10) Neurotransmitter substance released at motor end plates by the motor neuron 11) Normally stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum 12) A metabolic pathway that produces water, carbon dioxide, and ATP, and provides for a large amount of ATP per glucose because oxygen is used 13) A reserve, high-energy compound used to convert ADP to ATP by the transfer of a high-energy phosphate group 14) Destroys acetylcholine (ACh) A) creatine phosphate B) acetylcholine C) enzymes D) potassium ions E) calcium ions F) aerobic respiration G) anaerobic respiration H) sodium ions
9) E 10) B 11) E 12) F 13) A 14) C
10) Place these structures of the skeletal muscle in order from largest to smallest: 1. fascicle 2. myofilament 3. muscle fiber (cell) 4. myofibril 5. sarcomere A) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2 B) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5 C) 2, 5, 4, 3, 1 D) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 E) 3, 2, 5, 4, 1
A
25) Which one of the following muscle actions would NOT be classified as an ISOTONIC contraction: A) pushing against a stationary wall B) lifting a glass of water to your mouth C) writing a letter D) tying your shoe E) throwing a ball
A
33) A muscle located on the ventral (anterior) side of the body is the: A) pectoralis major B) occipitalis C) gastrocnemius D) gluteus medius E) latissimus dorsi
A
38) Which one of the following is the action of the orbicularis oris: A) closes, purses, and protrudes the lips B) pulls the lower lip down and back C) draws the eyebrows together D) allows blinking, squinting, and various other protective mechanisms for the eye E) closes the jaw
A
4) The plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called the: A) sarcolemma B) sarcomere C) myofilament D) sarcoplasm E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
A
40) Which one of the following muscles is involved in abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint: A) deltoid B) biceps brachii C) triceps brachii D) latissimus dorsi E) pectoralis major
A
43) Which of the following muscles are antagonists: A) biceps brachii and triceps brachii B) bicpes femoris and biceps brachii C) vastus medialis and vastus lateralis D) masseter and temporalis E) gastrocnemius and soleus
A
44) Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the knee: A) hamstring muscle group B) gluteal muscle group C) gastrocnemius D) sartorius E) iliopsoas
A
9) Which one of the following is composed of myosin protein: A) thick filaments B) thin filaments C) all myofilaments D) Z discs E) light bands
A
17) The only energy source that can be used to directly power muscle activity is __________.
ATP
11) The axon terminals of a nerve cell and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell join at the: A) motor unit B) neuromuscular junction C) synaptic cleft D) action potential E) myofibril
B
18) During skeletal muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to active sites of: A) myosin filaments B) actin filaments C) Z discs D) thick filaments E) the H zone
B
20) The striations that give skeletal muscle its characteristic striped appearance are produced, for the most part, by: A) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma B) the arrangement of myofilaments C) the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) the T tubules E) the "cocked" positions of the heads of the thick filaments
B
21) Which of these events must occur first to trigger the skeletal muscle to generate an action potential and contract: A) sodium ions rush into the cell B) acetylcholine (ACh) causes temporary permeability to sodium C) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell D) operation of the sodium-potassium pump E) acetylcholinesterase (AchE) breaks down acetylcholine (ACh)
B
26) Anaerobic glycolysis occurs without: A) ATP B) oxygen C) lactic acid D) carbon dioxide E) glucose
B
8) A sarcomere is: A) the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle B) the contractile unit between two Z discs C) the area between two intercalated discs D) the wavy lines on the cell, as seen in a microscope E) a compartment in a myofilament
B
12) Which one of the following functions do calcium ions perform during skeletal muscle contraction: A) increase the action potential transmitted along the sarcolemma B) release the inhibition on Z discs C) expose myosin binding sites on the actin D) cause ATP binding to actin E) bind to regulatory proteins on the myosin filaments, changing both their shape and their position on the thick filaments
C
13) The mechanical force of contraction is generated by: A) shortening of the thick filaments B) shortening of the thin filaments C) a sliding of thin filaments past thick ones D) the "accordian-like" folding of thin and thick filaments E) the temporary disappearance of thin filaments
C
2) The muscle tissue type that consists of single, very long, cylindrical, multinucleate cells with very obvious striations is: A) cardiac muscle only B) smooth muscle only C) skeletal muscle only D) cardiac and smooth muscle E) cardiac and skeletal muscle
C
24) The condition of skeletal muscle fatigue can be best explained by: A) the all-or-none law B) the inability to generate sufficient quantities of ATP due to feedback regulation of synthesis C) insufficient intracellular quantities of ATP due to excessive consumption D) a total lack of ATP E) inadequate numbers of mitochondria
C
27) Which of these pathways to regenerate ATP during muscle activity is the fastest: A) direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate B) aerobic respiration C) anaerobic glycolysis and lactic acid formation D) oxidative phosphorylation E) both aerobic respiration and anaerobic glycolysis
C
36) A muscle group that works with and assists the action of a prime mover is a(n): A) antagonist only B) fixator only C) synergist only D) antagonist and synergist E) antagonist and fixator
C
42) While doing "jumping jacks" during an exercise class, your arms and legs move laterally away from the midline of your body. This motion is called: A) extension B) flexion C) abduction D) adduction E) circumduction
C
1) Muscle tissue that has involuntary regulation of contraction is: A) cardiac muscle only B) smooth muscle only C) skeletal muscle only D) cardiac muscle and smooth muscle E) cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle
D
15) The gap between the axon terminal of a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of a skeletal muscle cell is called the: A) motor unit B) sarcomere C) neuromuscular junction D) synaptic cleft E) cross bridge
D
16) Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the: A) myofibrils B) motor unit C) thick filaments D) axon terminals of the motor neuron E) sarcolemma of the muscle cell
D
19) The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle contraction is to: A) make and store phosphocreatine B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments C) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration E) store ATP
D
23) Creatine phosphate (CP) functions within the muscle cells by: A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) forming a chemical compound with actin C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP as needed E) storing energy that will be transferred to ATP to resynthesize ADP as needed
D
30) Sandra is playing the piano for her recital. Which muscle is not involved in the movement of her hands and/or fingers: A) flexor carpi radialis B) flexor carpi ulnaris C) extensor digitorum D) extensor digitorum longus E) extensor carpi radialis
D
31) Which of the following muscles inserts on the calcaneus: A) the semitendinosus B) the sartorius C) the tibialis anterior D) the soleus E) the iliopsoas
D
32) Which one of the following does NOT compress the abdomen: A) internal oblique B) external oblique C) transversus abdominis D) latissimus dorsi E) rectus abdominis
D
34) A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling or blowing a trumpet called the: A) platysma B) masseter C) zygomaticus D) buccinator E) temporalis
D
35) Which of these muscles is not responsibile for flexion or extension of the arm? A) biceps brachii B) triceps brachii C) brachialis D) platysma E) latissimus dorsi
D
45) Which one of the following is NOT a criteria generally used in naming muscles: A) relative size of the muscle B) number of origins of the muscle C) shape of the muscle D) method of attachment of the muscle to bone E) action of the muscle
D
6) What type of membrane wraps a fascicle: A) endomysium B) epimysium C) aponeuroses D) perimysium E) tendons
D
14) Acetylcholine is: A) an ion pump on the postsynaptic membrane B) a source of energy for muscle contraction C) a component of thick myofilaments D) an oxygen-binding protein E) a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle
E
17) An elaborate and specialized network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that function in calcium storage is the: A) sarcolemma B) mitochondria C) intermediate filament network D) myofibrillar network E) sarcoplasmic reticulum
E
22) A skeletal muscle twitch differs from a tetanic contraction in that: A) the tetanic contraction is considered abnormal, while the twitch is a normal muscle response B) the tetanic contraction is caused by a single stimulus, while the twitch is caused by very rapid multiple stimuli C) the muscle twitch is prolonged and continuous while a tetanic contraction is brief and "jerky" D) the muscle twitch occurs only in small muscles while a tetanic contraction occurs in large muscle groups E) the muscle twitch is a brief and "jerky" movement, while the tetanic contraction is prolonged and continuous
E
28) The insertion of the gluteus maximus is the: A) sacrum B) tibia C) ilium D) calcaneus E) femur
E
29) Which of the following muscles closes the jaw: A) the buccinator B) the masseter C) the frontalis D) the sternocleidomastoid E) the masseter and the temporalis
E
37) Which of the following muscles is not involved in dorsiflexion and/or plantar flexion of the foot: A) gastrocnemius B) tibialis anterior C) extensor digitorum longus D) soleus E) iliopsoas
E
39) Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh: A) biceps femoris B) vastus medialis C) vastus lateralis D) vastus intermedius E) iliopsoas and rectus femoris
E
41) Which of the following muscles adducts the thigh: A) peroneus muscles B) gluteus maximus C) sartorius D) quadriceps group E) adductor muscles
E
5) Which of the following does not describe cardiac muscle tissue: A) uninucleate B) striations C) involuntary D) rhythmic contractions E) attached to bones
E
7) Which of the following is NOT a function of the muscular system: A) production of movement B) maintenance of posture C) stabilization of joints D) generation of heat E) hematopoiesis
E
True/False 1) Skeletal muscle is considered involuntary because it is the only type of muscle usually subject to conscious control.
False
True/False 10) Lactic acid results from aerobic respiration.
False
True/False 12) An aponeurosis is a ropelike piece of muscle fascia that forms indirect connections to muscles of the leg.
False
True/False 13) A muscle twitch results when the muscle is stimulated so rapidly that no evidence of relaxation is seen.
False
True/False 16) The insertion of the biceps brachii muscle is on the radius.
False
True/False 17) A prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction is the deltoid.
False
True/False 19) Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion are synergistic actions.
False
True/False 2) The epimysium covers individual muscle fibers.
False
True/False 20) Plantar flexion at the ankle joint is accomplished by the tibialis anterior muscle.
False
True/False 22) There are 206 skeletal muscles in the human body.
False
True/False 23) Supination and pronation refer to up and down movements of the foot at the ankle
False
True/False 6) Cardiac muscle fibers are relatively short, tapering cells within a single centrally located nucleus.
False
True/False 8) Thick filaments are made of a protein called actin.
False
13) The __________ zone of a sarcomere contains no actin filaments while the skeletal muscle is at rest (noncontractile state).
H
True/False 11) A sustained partial contraction of skeletal muscle is called muscle tone.
True
True/False 14) The effect of the neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to temporarily modify its permeability of ions such as Na+ and K+.
True
True/False 15) When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands move closer together but do not diminish in length.
True
True/False 18) The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the transversus abdominis
True
True/False 21) The bicpes brachii muscle is named for the two heads that orginiate from the shoulder girdle.
True
True/False 3) Skeletal muscles need nerve stimulation for contraction to occur.
True
True/False 4) A nerve cell and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor unit.
True
True/False 5) A contraction in which a skeletal muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric.
True
True/False 7) The neurotransmitter used by the nervous system to activate skeletal muscle cells is acetylcholine.
True
True/False 9) One of the important functions of skeletal muscle is to generate heat.
True
16) When a skeletal muscle is fully contracted, the __________ are closer to the thick filaments.
Z discs
11) Only __________ muscle cells possess intercalated discs.
cardiac
22) The arrangement of fascicles in orbicularis oris is __________.
circular
20) The movement that is commonly seen in a ball-in-socket joint, that includes a combination of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction, is called __________.
circumduction
14) The heads of the myosin myofilaments are called __________ when they link the thick and thin filaments together during skeletal muscle contraction.
cross bridges
24) The __________ muscle runs deep to the external oblique muscle.
internal oblique
26) An inherited disease that causes muscles to degenerate and atrophy is known as __________.
muscular dystrophy
19) The __________ of a muscle is attached to the immovable or less movable bone.
origin
21) The muscle that has the major responsibility for causing a particular movement is the __________.
prime mover
25) The quadriceps femoris muscle group is composed of the three vastus muscles and the __________ muscle.
rectus femoris
10) The muscle tissue that normally exhibits voluntary contractions is __________ muscle.
skeletal
9) Only __________ muscle cells are cylindrical and multinucleated.
skeletal
15) The gap between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber it supplies at the neuromuscular junction is called the __________.
synaptic cleft
12) Skeletal muscle is often attached to bone by strong, cordlike structures called __________.
tendons
18) A smooth, sustained contraction is called __________.
tetanus
23) The muscle referred to as the "smiling" muscle because it raised the corners of the mouth upward is the __________.
zygomaticus
