ch36: immune sys

While monitoring the patient's eosinophil level, the nurse suspects a definite allergic disorder when seeing an eosinophil value of what percentage of the total leukocyte count? 1% to 3% 5% to 10% 3% to 4% 15% to 40%

15% to 40% Eosinophils, which are granular leukocytes, normally make up 0% to 3% of the total number of WBCs (Fischbach & Dunning, 2009). A level between 5% and 15% is nonspecific but does suggest allergic reaction. Higher percentages of eosinophils are considered to represent moderate to severe eosinophilia. Moderate eosinophilia is defined as 15% to 40% eosinophils and may be found in patients with allergic disorders.

Which medication classification is known to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis or release? Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (in large doses) Antibiotics (in large doses) Adrenal corticosteroids Antineoplastic agents

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (in large doses) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include aspirin and ibuprofen. Antibiotics in large doses are known to cause bone marrow suppression. Adrenal corticosteroids and antineoplastic agents are known to cause immunosuppression.

A client is given a dose of ketorolac, a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug for complaints of abdominal pain. Ten minutes after receiving the medication, the client's eyes, lips, and face begin to swell, and the nurse hears stridor. What priority measure should the nurse prepare to do? Perform an electrocardiogram (ECG). Assess the client's vital signs. Administer epinephrine. Intubate the client.

Administer epinephrine. Anaphylaxis is a rapid and profound type I hypersensitivity response. A massive release of histamine causes vasodilation; increased capillary permeability; angioneurotic edema (acute swelling of the face, neck, lips, larynx, hands, feet, genitals, and internal organs); hypotension; and bronchoconstriction. A nurse must administer 0.2 mg of epinephrine subcutaneously to a client experiencing a severe allergic reaction. It is outside of the nurse's practice to intubate a client. Performing an ECG and assessing the vital signs delays the treatment of the client and can have negative outcomes.

Which immunoglobulin assumes a major role in bloodborne and tissue infections? IgM IgG IgD IgA

IgG IgG assumes a major role in bloodborne and tissue infections. IgA protects against respiratory, gastrointestinal, and genitourinary infections. IgM appears as the first immunoglobulin produced in response to bacterial and viral infections. IgD possibly influences B-lymphocyte differentiation.

At 39 weeks' gestation, a pregnant client visits the physician for a scheduled prenatal checkup. The physician determines that the fetus has developed an infection in utero and sends the client for an emergency cesarean delivery. The client is very concerned about the health of her unborn child. Based on knowledge of the immune system, the delivery room nurse explains about which immunoglobulin that will be increased in the fetus at the time of birth and will be actively fighting the infection? IgA IgG IgM IgD

IgG IgG composes 75% of total immunoglobulin. It appears in serum and tissues, assumes a major role in bloodborne and tissue infections, and crosses the placenta.

A nurse encourages a client with an immunologic disorder to eat a nutritionally balanced diet to promote optimal immunologic function. Which snacks have the greatest probability of stimulating autoimmunity? Raisins and carrot sticks Potato chips and chocolate milk shakes Fruit salad and mineral water Applesauce and saltine crackers

Potato chips and chocolate milk shakes A diet containing excessive fat, such as that found in potato chips and milk shakes, seems to contribute to autoimmunity — overreaction of the body against constituents of its own tissues. Raisins, carrot sticks, fruit, mineral water, applesauce, and saltine crackers are snacks containing adequate amounts of vitamin A, zinc, and carotene, which are beneficial for the body.

During an allergic reaction, histamine is released in about 15 minutes. The patient usually takes an antihistamine that has an affinity for bronchiolar smooth muscle cells. Which of the following is most likely the drug described? Tagamet Zyflo Zantac Benadryl

Benadryl Benadryl has an affinity for bronchiolar smooth muscle cells. Tagamet and Zantac work on gastric parietal cells, and Zyflo is a leukotriene antagonist.

A patient with cystic fibrosis has received a double lung transplant and is now experiencing signs of rejection. What is the immune response that predominates in this situation? Humoral Cellular Mitigated Nonspecific

Cellular Most immune responses to antigens involve both humoral and cellular responses, although only one predominates. For example, during transplantation rejection, the cellular response predominates, whereas in the bacterial pneumonias and sepsis, the humoral response plays the dominant role. Mitigated and nonspecific cell response is not noted in this situation.

Which is an action of cytotoxic T cells? Produce circulating antibodies Directly attack foreign antigens Decrease B-cell activity to a level at which the immune system is compatible with life Lyse cells infected with virus

Lyse cells infected with virus Cytotoxic T cells play a role in graft rejection. B cells are lymphocytes important in producing circulating antibodies. Suppressor T cells are lymphocytes that decrease B-cell activity to a level at which the immune system is compatible with life. Helper T cells are lymphocytes that attack antigens directly.

vA middle-aged woman will soon begin treatment for a gastric tumor that has just been discovered by endoscopy. The woman's natural killer (NK) cells are already actively opposing the tumor cells, because the tumor cells lack "self" markers of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) class I. This aspect of the patient's immune response is characteristic of: Humoral immunity Natural immunity Phagocytic immunity Active immunity

Natural immunity The action of NK cells is a component of natural immunity.

The nurse is administering a skin test for detection of exposure to tuberculosis. How would the nurse determine if the client was exposed to tuberculosis? The client will have a productive cough. The injection area swells if the client has developed antibodies against the antigen. The injection area will become painful with in duration if the client has antibodies against the antigen. The injection area will break out in a fine macular rash.

The injection area swells if the client has developed antibodies against the antigen. The injection area swells if the client has developed antibodies against the antigen. The client is not necessarily actively infectious if the test results are positive. Although a productive cough is one of the symptoms of active tuberculosis, it may also indicate other diseases and disorders. The area should not be painful, and the client should not break out with a rash.