Chapter 15: Cancer Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition, Ch 13: Altered Immune Responses and Transplantation, MED SURG CH 14 Infection and Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection, Lewis Ch. 17 - Preoperative Care, Chapter 16: Fluid, Electroly...

3. A patient is being evaluated for possible atopic dermatitis. The nurse expects elevation of which laboratory value? a. IgE b. IgA c. Basophils d. Neutrophils

A Serum IgE is elevated in an allergic response (type 1 hypersensitivity disorders). The eosinophil level will be elevated rather than neutrophil or basophil counts. IgA is located in body secretions and would not be tested when evaluating a patient who has symptoms of atopic dermatitis. REF: 194

13. Ten days after receiving a bone marrow transplant, a patient develops a skin rash. What would the nurse suspect is the cause of the rash? a. The donor T cells are attacking the patient's skin cells. b. The patient needs treatment to prevent hyperacute rejection. c. The patient's antibodies are rejecting the donor bone marrow. d. The patient is experiencing a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.

A The patient's history and symptoms indicate that the patient is experiencing graft-versus-host disease, in which the donated T cells attack the patient's tissues. The history and symptoms are not consistent with rejection or delayed hypersensitivity. REF: 210

4. An older adult patient who is having an annual check-up tells the nurse, "I feel fine, and I don't want to pay for all these unnecessary cancer screening tests!" Which information should the nurse plan to teach this patient? a. Consequences of aging on cell-mediated immunity b. Decrease in antibody production associated with aging c. Impact of poor nutrition on immune function in older people d. Incidence of cancer-associated infections in older individuals

A The primary impact of aging on immune function is on T cells, which are important for immune surveillance and tumor immunity. Antibody function is not affected as much by aging. Poor nutrition can also contribute to decreased immunity, but there is no evidence that it is a contributing factor for this patient. Although some types of cancer are associated with specific infections, this patient does not have an active infection. REF: 196

26. A patient who is receiving an IV antibiotic develops wheezes and dyspnea. In which order should the nurse implement these prescribed actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E]). a. Discontinue the antibiotic. b. Give diphenhydramine IV. c. Inject epinephrine IM or IV. d. Prepare an infusion of dopamine. e. Provide 100% oxygen using a nonrebreather mask.

A, E, C, B, D The nurse should initially discontinue the antibiotic because it is the likely cause of the allergic reaction. Next, oxygen delivery should be maximized, followed by treatment of bronchoconstriction with epinephrine administered IM or IV. Diphenhydramine will work more slowly than epinephrine, but will help prevent progression of the reaction. Because the patient currently does not have evidence of hypotension, the dopamine infusion can be prepared last. REF: 201

A chemotherapy drug that causes alopecia is prescribed for a patient. Which action should the nurse take to support the patient's self-esteem? a. Encourage the patient to purchase a wig or hat to wear when hair loss begins. b. Suggest that the patient limit social contacts until regrowth of the hair occurs. c. Teach the patient to wash hair gently with mild shampoo to minimize hair loss. d. Inform the patient that hair usually grows back once chemotherapy is complete.

ANS: A The patient is taught to anticipate hair loss and to be prepared with wigs, scarves, or hats. Limiting social contacts is not appropriate at a time when the patient is likely to need a good social support system. The damage occurs at the hair follicles and will occur regardless of gentle washing or use of a mild shampoo. The information that the hair will grow back is not immediately helpful in maintaining the patient's self-esteem. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 256 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

11. Which information about a patient population would be most useful to help the nurse plan for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) testing needs? a. Age c. Symptoms b. Lifestyle d. Sexual orientation

ANS: A The current Centers for Disease Control and Prevention policy is to offer routine testing for HIV to all individuals age 13 to 64 years. Although lifestyle, symptoms, and sexual orientation may suggest increased risk for HIV infection, the goal is to test all individuals in this age range. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 226 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient arrives at the ambulatory surgery center for a scheduled laparoscopy procedure in outpatient surgery. Which information is of most concern to the nurse? a. The patient is planning to drive home after surgery. b. The patient had a sip of water 4 hours before arriving. c. The patient's insurance does not cover outpatient surgery. d. The patient has not had surgery using general anesthesia before.

ANS: A After outpatient surgery, the patient should not drive home and will need assistance with transportation and home care. The patient's experience with surgery is assessed, but it does not have as much application to the patient's physiologic safety. The patient's insurance coverage is important to establish, but this is not usually the nurse's role or a priority in nursing care. Having clear liquids a few hours before surgery does not usually increase risk for aspiration

A patient who is diagnosed with cervical cancer classified as Tis, N0, M0 asks the nurse what the letters and numbers mean. Which response by the nurse is accurate? a. "The cancer involves only the cervix." b. "The cancer cells look like normal cells." c. "Further testing is needed to determine the spread of the cancer." d. "It is difficult to determine the original site of the cervical cancer."

ANS: A Cancer in situ indicates that the cancer is localized to the cervix and is not invasive at this time. Cell differentiation is not indicated by clinical staging. Because the cancer is in situ, the origin is the cervix. Further testing is not indicated given that the cancer has not spread. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 241 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. The nurse is advising a clinic patient who was exposed a week ago to human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) through unprotected sexual intercourse. The patient's antigen and antibody test has just been reported as negative for HIV. What instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. "You will need to be retested in 2 weeks." b. "You do not need to fear infecting others." c. "Since you don't have symptoms and you have had a negative test, you do not have HIV)." d. "We won't know for years if you will develop acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."

ANS: A HIV screening tests detect HIV-specific antibodies or antigens, but typically it takes a several week delay after initial infection before HIV can be detected on a screening test. Combination antibody and antigen tests (also known as fourth-generation tests) decrease the window period to within 3 weeks after infection. It is not known based on this information whether the patient is infected with HIV or can infect others. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 221 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is used as adjuvant therapy for a patient with metastatic renal cell carcinoma. Which information should the nurse include when explaining the purpose of this therapy to the patient? a. IL-2 enhances the body's immunologic response to tumor cells. b. IL-2 prevents bone marrow depression caused by chemotherapy. c. IL-2 protects normal cells from harmful effects of chemotherapy. d. IL-2 stimulates malignant cells in the resting phase to enter mitosis.

ANS: A IL-2 enhances the ability of the patient's own immune response to suppress tumor cells. IL-2 does not protect normal cells from damage caused by chemotherapy, stimulate malignant cells to enter mitosis, or prevent bone marrow depression. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 258 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse assesses a patient with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma who is receiving an infusion of rituximab (Rituxan). Which assessment finding would require the most rapid action by the nurse? a. Shortness of breath b. Shivering and chills c. Muscle aches and pains d. Temperature of 100.2° F (37.9° C)

ANS: A Rituximab (Rituxan) is a monoclonal antibody. Shortness of breath should be investigated rapidly because anaphylaxis is a possible reaction to monoclonal antibody administration. The nurse will need to rapidly take actions such as stopping the infusion, assessing the patient further, and notifying the health care provider. The other findings will also require action by the nurse, but are not indicative of life-threatening complications. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 258 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

19. Eight years after seroconversion, a human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patient has a CD4+ cell count of 800/μL and an undetectable viral load. What is the priority nursing intervention at this time? a. Encourage adequate nutrition, exercise, and sleep. b. Teach about the side effects of antiretroviral agents. c. Explain opportunistic infections and antibiotic prophylaxis. d. Monitor symptoms of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

ANS: A The CD4+ level for this patient is in the normal range, indicating that the patient is the stage of asymptomatic chronic infection when the body is able to produce enough CD4+ cells to maintain a normal CD4+ count. Maintaining healthy lifestyle behaviors is an important goal in this stage. AIDS and increased incidence of opportunistic infections typically develop when the CD4+ count is much lower than normal. Although the initiation of ART is highly individual, it would not be likely that a patient with a normal CD4+ level would receive ART. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 220 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. To evaluate the effectiveness of antiretroviral therapy (ART), which laboratory test result will the nurse review? a. Viral load testing c. Rapid HIV antibody testing b. Enzyme immunoassay d. Immunofluorescence assay

ANS: A The effectiveness of ART is measured by the decrease in the amount of virus detectable in the blood. The other tests are used to detect HIV antibodies, which remain positive even with effective ART. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 222 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

21. An older adult with chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection who takes medications for coronary artery disease and hypertension has chosen to begin early antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which information will the nurse include in patient teaching? a. Many drugs interact with antiretroviral medications. b. HIV infections progress more rapidly in older adults. c. Less frequent CD4+ level monitoring is needed in older adults. d. Hospice care is available for patients with terminal HIV infection.

ANS: A The nurse will teach the patient about potential interactions between antiretrovirals and the medications that the patient is using for chronic health problems. Treatment and monitoring of HIV infection is not affected by age. A patient beginning early ART is not a candidate for hospice. Progression of HIV is not affected by age although it may be affected by chronic disease. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 228 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

During a routine health examination, a 40-yr-old patient tells the nurse about a family history of colon cancer. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Obtain more information about the family history. b. Schedule a sigmoidoscopy to provide baseline data. c. Teach the patient about the need for a colonoscopy at age 50. d. Teach the patient how to do home testing for fecal occult blood.

ANS: A The patient may be at increased risk for colon cancer, but the nurse's first action should be further assessment. The other actions may be appropriate, depending on the information that is obtained from the patient with further questioning. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 241 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient scheduled for an elective hysterectomy tells the nurse, "I am afraid that I will die in surgery like my mother did!" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Tell me more about what happened to your mother." b. "You will receive medications to reduce your anxiety." c. "You should talk to the doctor again about the surgery." d. "Surgical techniques have improved a lot in recent years."

ANS: A The patient's statement may indicate an unusually high anxiety level or a family history of problems such as malignant hyperthermia, which will require precautions during surgery. The other statements may also address the patient's concerns, but further assessment is needed first

A patient who is scheduled for a therapeutic abortion tells the nurse, "Having an abortion is not right." Which functional health pattern should the nurse further assess? a. Value-belief b. Cognitive-perceptual c. Sexuality-reproductive d. Coping-stress tolerance

ANS: A The value-belief pattern includes information about conflicts between a patient's values and proposed medical care. In the cognitive-perceptual pattern, the nurse will ask questions about pain and sensory intactness. The sexuality-reproductive pattern includes data about the impact of the surgery on the patient's sexuality. The coping-stress tolerance pattern assessment will elicit information about how the patient feels about the surgery

When caring for a patient who is pancytopenic, which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) indicates a need for the nurse to intervene? a. The UAP assists the patient to use dental floss after eating. b. The UAP adds baking soda to the patient's saline oral rinses. c. The UAP puts fluoride toothpaste on the patient's toothbrush. d. The UAP has the patient rinse after meals with a saline solution.

ANS: A Use of dental floss is avoided in patients with pancytopenia because of the risk for infection and bleeding. The other actions are appropriate for oral care of a pancytopenic patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 261 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

24. The nurse is caring for a patient infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) who has just been diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection. Which prophylactic measures will the nurse include in the plan of care (select all that apply)? a. Hepatitis B vaccine b. Pneumococcal vaccine c. Influenza virus vaccine d. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole e. Varicella zoster immune globulin

ANS: A, B, C Asymptomatic chronic HIV infection is a stage between acute HIV infection and a diagnosis of symptomatic chronic HIV infection. Although called asymptomatic, symptoms (e.g., fatigue, headache, low-grade fever, night sweats) often occur. Prevention of other infections is an important intervention in patients who are HIV positive, and these vaccines are recommended as soon as the HIV infection is diagnosed. Antibiotics and immune globulin are used to prevent and treat infections that occur later in the course of the disease when the CD4+ counts have dropped or when infection has occurred. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 220 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

26. The nurse plans a presentation for community members about how to decrease the risk for antibiotic-resistant infections. Which information will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Antibiotics may sometimes be prescribed to prevent infection. b. Continue taking antibiotics until all of the prescription is gone. c. Unused antibiotics that are more than a year old should be discarded. d. Antibiotics are effective in treating influenza associated with high fevers. e. Hand washing is effective in preventing many viral and bacterial infections.

ANS: A, B, E All prescribed doses of antibiotics should be taken. In some situations, such as before surgery, antibiotics are prescribed to prevent infection. There should not be any leftover antibiotics because all prescribed doses should be taken. However, if there are leftover antibiotics, they should be discarded immediately because the number left will not be enough to treat a future infection. Hand washing is generally considered the single most effective action in decreasing infection transmission. Antibiotics are ineffective in treating viral infections such as influenza. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 216 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

The nurse at the clinic is interviewing a 64-yr-old woman who is 5 feet, 3 inches tall and weighs 125 lb (57 kg). The patient has not seen a health care provider for 20 years. She walks 5 miles most days and has a glass of wine two or three times a week. Which topics will the nurse plan to include in patient teaching about cancer screening and decreasing cancer risk (select all that apply)? a. Pap testing b. Tobacco use c. Sunscreen use d. Mammography e. Colorectal screening

ANS: A, C, D, E The patient's age, gender, and history indicate a need for screening and teaching about colorectal cancer, mammography, Pap smears, and sunscreen. The patient does not use tobacco or excessive alcohol, she is physically active, and her body weight is healthy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 235 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

A patient develops neutropenia after receiving chemotherapy. Which information about ways to prevent infection will the nurse include in the teaching plan (select all that apply)? a. Cook food thoroughly before eating. b. Choose low fiber, low residue foods. c. Avoid public transportation such as buses. d. Use rectal suppositories if needed for constipation. e. Talk to the oncologist before having any dental work.

ANS: A, C, E Eating only cooked food and avoiding public transportation will decrease infection risk. A high-fiber diet is recommended for neutropenic patients to decrease constipation. Because bacteria may enter the circulation during dental work or oral surgery, the patient may need to postpone dental work or take antibiotics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 253 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. The registered nurse (RN) caring for an HIV-positive patient admitted with tuberculosis can delegate which action to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Teach the patient how to dispose of tissues with respiratory secretions. b. Stock the patient's room with the necessary personal protective equipment. c. Interview the patient to obtain the names of family members and close contacts. d. Tell the patient's family members the reason for the use of airborne precautions.

ANS: B A patient diagnosed with tuberculosis would be placed on airborne precautions. Because all health care workers are taught about the various types of infection precautions used in the hospital, the UAP can safely stock the room with personal protective equipment. Obtaining contact information and patient teaching are higher-level skills that require RN education and scope of practice. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 218 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

The nurse supervises the care of a patient with a temporary radioactive cervical implant. Which action by unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), if observed by the nurse, would require an intervention? a. The UAP flushes the toilet once after emptying the patient's bedpan. b. The UAP stands by the patient's bed for 30 minutes talking with the patient. c. The UAP places the patient's bedding in the laundry container in the hallway. d. The UAP gives the patient an alcohol-containing mouthwash to use for oral care.

ANS: B Because patients with temporary implants emit radioactivity while the implants are in place, exposure to the patient is limited. Laundry and urine and feces do not have any radioactivity and do not require special precautions. Cervical radiation will not affect the oral mucosa, and alcohol-based mouthwash is not contraindicated. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 250 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

The nurse assesses a patient who is receiving interleukin-2. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the health care provider? a. Generalized muscle aches b. Crackles heard at the lung bases c. Complaints of nausea and anorexia d. Oral temperature of 100.6° F (38.1° C)

ANS: B Capillary leak syndrome and acute pulmonary edema are possible toxic effects of interleukin-2. The patient may need oxygen and the nurse should rapidly notify the health care provider. The other findings are common side effects of interleukin-2. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 257 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has never had any prior surgeries tells the nurse doing the preoperative assessment about an allergy to bananas and avocados. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Notify the dietitian about the food allergies. b. Alert the surgery center about a possible latex allergy. c. Reassure the patient that all allergies are noted on the medical record. d. Ask whether the patient uses antihistamines to reduce allergic reactions.

ANS: B Certain food allergies (e.g., eggs, avocados, bananas, chestnuts, potatoes, peaches) are related to latex allergies. When a patient is allergic to latex, special nonlatex materials are used during surgical procedures, and the staff will need to know about the allergy in advance to obtain appropriate nonlatex materials and have them available during surgery. The other actions also may be appropriate, but prevention of allergic reaction during surgery is the most important action

The home health nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving interferon therapy for treatment of cancer. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further assessment? a. "I have frequent muscle aches and pains." b. "I rarely have the energy to get out of bed." c. "I experience chills after I inject the interferon." d. "I take acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours."

ANS: B Fatigue can be a dose-limiting toxicity for use of immunotherapy. Flulike symptoms, such as muscle aches and chills, are common side effects with interferon use. Patients are advised to use acetaminophen every 4 hours. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 258 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A hospitalized patient who has received chemotherapy for leukemia develops neutropenia. Which observation by the nurse would indicate a need for further teaching? a. The patient ambulates around the room. b. The patient's visitors bring in fresh peaches. c. The patient cleans with a warm washcloth after having a stool. d. The patient uses soap and shampoo to shower every other day.

ANS: B Fresh, thinned-skin fruits are not permitted in a neutropenic diet because of the risk of bacteria being present. The patient should ambulate in the room rather than the hospital hallway to avoid exposure to other patients or visitors. Because overuse of soap can dry the skin and increase infection risk, showering every other day is acceptable. Careful cleaning after having a bowel movement will help prevent skin breakdown and infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 253 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. A pregnant woman with asymptomatic chronic human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is seen at the clinic. The patient states, "I am very nervous about making my baby sick." Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient? a. The antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV infection are teratogenic. b. Most infants born to HIV-positive mothers are not infected with the virus. c. Because it is an early stage of HIV infection, the infant will not contract HIV. d. Her newborn will be born with HIV unless she uses antiretroviral therapy (ART).

ANS: B Only 25% of infants born to HIV-positive mothers develop HIV infection, even when the mother does not use ART during pregnancy. The percentage drops to 2% when ART is used. Perinatal transmission can occur at any stage of HIV infection (although it is less likely to occur when the viral load is lower). ART can safely be used in pregnancy, although some ART drugs should be avoided. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 219 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

10. The nurse palpates enlarged cervical lymph nodes on a patient diagnosed with acute human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which action would be appropriate for the nurse to take? a. Instruct the patient to apply ice to the neck. b. Explain to the patient that this is an expected finding. c. Request that an antibiotic be prescribed for the patient. d. Advise the patient that this indicates influenza infection.

ANS: B Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy is common in the early stages of HIV infection. No antibiotic is needed because the enlarged nodes are probably not caused by bacteria. Lymphadenopathy is common with acute HIV infection and is therefore not likely the flu. Ice will not decrease the swelling in persistent generalized lymphadenopathy DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 225 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse should suggest which food choice when providing dietary teaching for a patient scheduled to receive external-beam radiation for abdominal cancer? a. Fruit salad c. Creamed broccoli b. Baked chicken d. Toasted wheat bread

ANS: B Protein is needed for wound healing. To minimize the diarrhea that is commonly associated with bowel radiation, the patient should avoid foods high in roughage, such as fruits and whole grains. Lactose intolerance may develop secondary to radiation, so dairy products should also be avoided. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 254 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who is being treated for stage IV lung cancer tells the nurse about new-onset back pain. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Give the patient the prescribed PRN opioid. b. Assess for sensation and strength in the legs. c. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms. d. Teach the patient how to use relaxation to reduce pain.

ANS: B Spinal cord compression, an oncologic emergency, can occur with invasion of tumor into the epidural space. The nurse will need to assess the patient further for symptoms such as decreased leg sensation and strength and then notify the health care provider. Administration of opioids or the use of relaxation may be appropriate but only after the nurse has assessed for possible spinal cord compression. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 264 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse administers an IV vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a patient. Which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Infuse the medication over a short period of time. b. Stop the infusion if swelling is observed at the site. c. Administer the chemotherapy through a small-bore catheter. d. Hold the medication unless a central venous line is available.

ANS: B Swelling at the site may indicate extravasation, and the IV should be stopped immediately. The medication generally should be given slowly to avoid irritation of the vein. The size of the catheter is not as important as administration of vesicants into a running IV line to allow dilution of the chemotherapy drug. These medications can be given through peripheral lines, although central vascular access devices are preferred. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 246 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient with colon cancer who is scheduled for external radiation therapy to the abdomen. Which information obtained by the nurse would indicate a need for patient teaching? a. The patient has a history of dental caries. b. The patient swims several days each week. c. The patient snacks frequently during the day. d. The patient showers each day with mild soap.

ANS: B The patient is instructed to avoid swimming in salt water or chlorinated pools during the treatment period. The patient does not need to change habits of eating frequently or showering with a mild soap. A history of dental caries will not impact the patient who is scheduled for abdominal radiation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 255 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 38-year-old female is admitted for an elective surgical procedure. Which information obtained by the nurse during the preoperative assessment is most important to report to the anesthesiologist before surgery? a. The patient's lack of knowledge about postoperative pain control measures b. The patient's statement that her last menstrual period was 8 weeks previously c. The patient's history of a postoperative infection following a prior cholecystectomy d. The patient's concern that she will be unable to care for her children postoperatively

ANS: B This statement suggests that the patient may be pregnant, and pregnancy testing is needed before administration of anesthetic agents. Although the other data may also be communicated with the surgeon and anesthesiologist, they will affect postoperative care and do not indicate a need for further assessment before surgery

A patient with leukemia is considering whether to have hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). The nurse will include which information in the patient's teaching plan? a. Donor bone marrow is transplanted through a sternal or hip incision. b. Hospitalization is required for several weeks after the stem cell transplant. c. The transplant procedure takes place in a sterile operating room to minimize the risk for infection. d. Transplant of the donated cells can be very painful because of the nerves in the tissue lining the bone.

ANS: B The patient requires strict protective isolation to prevent infection for 2 to 4 weeks after HSCT while waiting for the transplanted marrow to start producing cells. The transplanted cells are infused through an IV line so the transplant is not painful, nor is an operating room or incision required. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 261 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A widowed mother of four school-age children is hospitalized with metastatic ovarian cancer. The patient is crying and tells the nurse that she does not know what will happen to her children when she dies. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Don't you have any friends that will raise the children for you?" b. "Would you like to talk about options for the care of your children?" c. "For now you need to concentrate on getting well and not worrying about your children." d. "Many patients with cancer live for a long time, so there is time to plan for your children."

ANS: B This response expresses the nurse's willingness to listen and recognizes the patient's concern. The responses beginning "Many patients with cancer live for a long time" and "For now you need to concentrate on getting well" close off discussion of the topic and indicate that the nurse is uncomfortable with the topic. In addition, the patient with metastatic ovarian cancer may not have a long time to plan. Although it is possible that the patient's friends will raise the children, more assessment information is needed before making plans. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

A patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who is undergoing external radiation therapy tells the nurse, "I am so tired I can hardly get out of bed in the morning." Which intervention should the nurse add to the plan of care? a. Minimize activity until the treatment is completed. b. Establish time to take a short walk almost every day. c. Consult with a psychiatrist for treatment of depression. d. Arrange for delivery of a hospital bed to the patient's home.

ANS: B Walking programs are used to keep the patient active without excessive fatigue. Having a hospital bed does not necessarily address the fatigue. The better option is to stay as active as possible while combating fatigue. Fatigue is expected during treatment and is not an indication of depression. Minimizing activity may lead to weakness and other complications of immobility. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 253 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse teaches a patient with cancer of the liver about high-protein, high-calorie diet choices. Which snack choice by the patient indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. Lime sherbet c. Fresh strawberries b. Blueberry yogurt d. Cream cheese bagel

ANS: B Yogurt has high biologic value because of the protein and fat content. Fruit salad does not have high amounts of protein or fat. Lime sherbet is lower in fat and protein than yogurt. Cream cheese is low in protein. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 261 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

25. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which personal protective equipment will the nurse put on before assessing a patient who is on contact precautions for Clostridium difficile diarrhea (select all that apply)? a. Mask b. Gown c. Gloves d. Shoe covers e. Eye protection

ANS: B, C Because the nurse will have substantial contact with the patient and bedding when doing an assessment, gloves and gowns are needed. Eye protection and masks are needed for patients in contact precautions only when spraying or splashing is anticipated. Shoe covers are not recommended in the CDC guidelines. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 218 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

The nurse teaches a patient who is scheduled for a prostate needle biopsy about the procedure. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates that teaching was effective? a. "The biopsy will remove the cancer in my prostate gland." b. "The biopsy will determine how much longer I have to live." c. "The biopsy will help decide the treatment for my enlarged prostate." d. "The biopsy will indicate whether the cancer has spread to other organs."

ANS: C A biopsy is used to determine whether the prostate enlargement is benign or malignant and determines the type of treatment that will be needed. A biopsy does not give information about metastasis, life expectancy, or the impact of cancer on the patient's life. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 238 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

External-beam radiation is planned for a patient with cervical cancer. What instructions should the nurse give to the patient to prevent complications from the effects of the radiation? a. Test all stools for the presence of blood. b. Maintain a high-residue, high-fiber diet. c. Clean the perianal area carefully after every bowel movement. d. Inspect the mouth and throat daily for the appearance of thrush.

ANS: C Radiation to the abdomen will affect organs in the radiation path, such as the bowel, and cause frequent diarrhea. Careful cleaning of this area will help decrease the risk for skin breakdown and infection. Stools are likely to have occult blood from the inflammation associated with radiation, so routine testing of stools for blood is not indicated. Radiation to the abdomen will not cause stomatitis. A low-residue diet is recommended to avoid irritation of the bowel when patients receive abdominal radiation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 251 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient with left-sided lung cancer. Which finding would be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit of 32% b. Pain with deep inspiration c. Serum sodium of 126 mEq/L d. Decreased breath sounds on left side

ANS: C The syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (and the resulting hyponatremia) is an oncologic metabolic emergency and requires rapid treatment to prevent complications such as seizures and coma. The other findings also require intervention but are common in patients with lung cancer and not immediately life threatening. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 263 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with a large stomach tumor attached to the liver is scheduled for a debulking procedure. Which information should the nurse teach the patient about the outcome of this procedure? a. Pain will be relieved by cutting sensory nerves in the stomach. b. Relief of pressure in the stomach will promote better nutrition. c. Decreasing the tumor size will improve the effects of other therapy. d. Tumor growth will be controlled by the removal of malignant tissue.

ANS: C A debulking surgery reduces the size of the tumor and makes radiation and chemotherapy more effective. Debulking surgeries do not control tumor growth. The tumor is debulked because it is attached to the liver, a vital organ (not to relieve pressure on the stomach). Debulking does not sever the sensory nerves, although pain may be lessened by the reduction in pressure on the abdominal organs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 245 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. A patient treated for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection for 6 years has developed fat redistribution to the trunk with wasting of the arms, legs, and face. What recommendation will the nurse give to the patient? a. Review foods that are higher in protein. b. Teach about the benefits of daily exercise. c. Discuss a change in antiretroviral therapy. d. Talk about treatment with antifungal agents.

ANS: C A frequent first intervention for metabolic disorders is a change in antiretroviral therapy (ART). Treatment with antifungal agents would not be appropriate because there is no indication of fungal infection. Changes in diet or exercise have not proven helpful for this problem. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 230 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. A patient informed of a positive rapid antibody test result for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is anxious and does not appear to hear what the nurse is saying. What action by the nurse is most important at this time? a. Teach the patient how to reduce risky behaviors. b. Inform the patient about the available treatments. c. Remind the patient about the need to return for retesting to verify the results. d. Ask the patient to identify individuals who had intimate contact with the patient.

ANS: C After an initial positive antibody test result, the next step is retesting to confirm the results. A patient who is anxious is not likely to be able to take in new information or be willing to disclose information about the HIV status of other individuals. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 222 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

A patient undergoing external radiation has developed a dry desquamation of the skin in the treatment area. The nurse teaches the patient about the management of the skin reaction. Which statement, if made by the patient, indicates the teaching was effective? a. "I can use ice packs to relieve itching." b. "I will scrub the area with warm water." c. "I can buy aloe vera gel to use on my skin." d. "I will expose my skin to a sun lamp each day."

ANS: C Aloe vera gel and cream may be used on the radiated skin area. Ice and sunlamps may injure the skin. Treatment areas should be cleaned gently to avoid further injury. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 255 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

18. The nurse is caring for a patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive and taking antiretroviral therapy (ART). Which information is most important for the nurse to address when planning care? a. The patient complains of feeling "constantly tired." b. The patient can't explain the effects of indinavir (Crixivan). c. The patient reports missing some doses of zidovudine (AZT). d. The patient reports having no side effects from the medications.

ANS: C Because missing doses of ART can lead to drug resistance, this patient statement indicates the need for interventions such as teaching or changes in the drug scheduling. Fatigue is a common side effect of ART. The nurse should discuss medication actions and side effects with the patient, but this is not as important as addressing the skipped doses of AZT. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 228 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse receives change-of-shift report on the oncology unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. A 35-yr-old patient who has wet desquamation associated with abdominal radiation b. A 42-yr-old patient who is sobbing after receiving a new diagnosis of ovarian cancer c. A 24-yr-old patient who received neck radiation and has blood oozing from the neck d. A 56-yr-old patient who developed a new pericardial friction rub after chest radiation

ANS: C Because neck bleeding may indicate possible carotid artery rupture in a patient who is receiving radiation to the neck, this patient should be seen first. The diagnoses and clinical manifestations for the other patients are not immediately life threatening. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 263 OBJ: Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

16. The nurse prepares to administer the following medications to a hospitalized patient with human immunodeficiency (HIV). Which medication is most important to administer at the scheduled time? a. Nystatin tablet b. Oral acyclovir (Zovirax) c. Oral saquinavir (Invirase) d. Aerosolized pentamidine (NebuPent)

ANS: C It is important that antiretrovirals be taken at the prescribed time every day to avoid developing drug-resistant HIV. The other medications should also be given as close as possible to the correct time, but they are not as essential to receive at the same time every day. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 228 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has severe pain associated with terminal pancreatic cancer is being cared for at home by family members. Which finding by the nurse indicates that teaching regarding pain management has been effective? a. The patient uses the ordered opioid pain medication whenever the pain is greater than 5 (0 to 10 scale). b. The patient agrees to take the medications by the IV route in order to improve analgesic effectiveness. c. The patient takes opioids around the clock on a regular schedule and uses additional doses when breakthrough pain occurs. d. The patient states that nonopioid analgesics may be used when the maximal dose of the opioid is reached without adequate pain relief.

ANS: C For chronic cancer pain, analgesics should be taken on a scheduled basis, with additional doses as needed for breakthrough pain. Taking the medications only when pain reaches a certain level does not provide effective pain control. Although nonopioid analgesics may also be used, there is no maximum dose of opioid. Opioids are given until pain control is achieved. The IV route is not more effective than the oral route, and usually the oral route is preferred. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 264 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with stage I colon cancer. When assessing the need for psychologic support, which question by the nurse will provide the most information? a. "How long ago were you diagnosed with this cancer?" b. "Do you have any concerns about body image changes?" c. "Can you tell me what has been helpful to you in the past when coping with stressful events?" d. "Are you familiar with the stages of emotional adjustment to a diagnosis like cancer of the colon?"

ANS: C Information about how the patient has coped with past stressful situations helps the nurse determine usual coping mechanisms and their effectiveness. The length of time since the diagnosis will not provide much information about the patient's need for support. The patient's knowledge of typical stages in adjustment to a critical diagnosis does not provide insight into patient needs for assistance. Because surgical interventions for stage I cancer of the colon may not cause any body image changes, this question is not appropriate at this time. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

4. A patient who is diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) tells the nurse, "I feel obsessed with morbid thoughts about dying." Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS." b. "Do you think that taking an antidepressant might be helpful?" c. "Can you tell me more about the thoughts that you are having?" d. "It is important to focus on the good things about your life now."

ANS: C More assessment of the patient's psychosocial status is needed before taking any other action. The statements, "Thinking about dying will not improve the course of AIDS" and "It is important to focus on the good things in life" or suggesting an antidepressant discourage the patient from sharing any further information with the nurse and decrease the nurse's ability to develop a trusting relationship with the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 227 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

12. A patient who uses injectable illegal drugs asks the nurse about preventing acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Clean drug injection equipment before each use." b. "Ask those who share equipment to be tested for HIV." c. "Consider participating in a needle-exchange program." d. "Avoid sexual intercourse when using injectable drugs."

ANS: C Participation in needle-exchange programs has been shown to decrease and control the rate of HIV infection. Cleaning drug equipment before use also reduces risk, but it might not be consistently practiced. HIV antibodies do not appear for several weeks to months after exposure, so testing drug users would not be very effective in reducing risk for HIV exposure. It is difficult to make appropriate decisions about sexual activity when under the influence of drugs. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 226 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

6. Which patient exposure by the nurse is most likely to require postexposure prophylaxis when the patient's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) status is unknown? a. Needle stick injury with a suture needle during a surgery b. Splash into the eyes while emptying a bedpan containing stool c. Needle stick with a needle and syringe used for a venipuncture d. Contamination of open skin lesions with patient vaginal secretions

ANS: C Puncture wounds are the most common means for workplace transmission of blood-borne diseases, and a needle with a hollow bore that had been contaminated with the patient's blood would be a high-risk situation. The other situations described would be much less likely to result in transmission of the virus. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 219 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

23. The nurse designs a program to decrease the incidence of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in the adolescent and young adult populations. Which information should the nurse assign as the highest priority? a. Methods to prevent perinatal HIV transmission b. Ways to sterilize needles used by injectable drug users c. Prevention of HIV transmission between sexual partners d. Means to prevent transmission through blood transfusions

ANS: C Sexual transmission is the most common way that HIV is transmitted. The nurse should also provide teaching about perinatal transmission, needle sterilization, and blood transfusion, but the rate of HIV infection associated with these situations is lower. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 218 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After change-of-shift report on the oncology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient who has a platelet count of 82,000/μL after chemotherapy b. Patient who has xerostomia after receiving head and neck radiation c. Patient who is neutropenic and has a temperature of 100.5° F (38.1° C) d. Patient who is worried about getting the prescribed long-acting opioid on time

ANS: C Temperature elevation is an emergency in neutropenic patients because of the risk for rapid progression to severe infections and sepsis. The other patients also require assessments or interventions but do not need to be assessed as urgently. Patients with thrombocytopenia do not have spontaneous bleeding until the platelets are 20,000/μL. Xerostomia does not require immediate intervention. Although breakthrough pain needs to be addressed rapidly, the patient does not appear to have breakthrough pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 253 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravesical bladder chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? a. Nausea c. Hematuria b. Alopecia d. Xerostomia

ANS: C The adverse effects of intravesical chemotherapy are confined to the bladder. The other adverse effects are associated with systemic chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 252 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who is scheduled for a breast biopsy asks the nurse the difference between a benign tumor and a malignant tumor. Which answer by the nurse is correct? a. "Benign tumors do not cause damage to other tissues." b. "Benign tumors are likely to recur in the same location." c. "Malignant tumors may spread to other tissues or organs." d. "Malignant cells reproduce more rapidly than normal cells."

ANS: C The major difference between benign and malignant tumors is that malignant tumors invade adjacent tissues and spread to distant tissues and benign tumors do not metastasize. The other statements are inaccurate. Both types of tumors may cause damage to adjacent tissues. Malignant cells do not reproduce more rapidly than normal cells. Benign tumors do not usually recur. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 240 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

20. Which of these patients who have arrived at the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) clinic should the nurse assess first? a. Patient whose rapid HIV-antibody test is positive b. Patient whose latest CD4+ count has dropped to 250/μL c. Patient who has had 10 liquid stools in the last 24 hours d. Patient who has nausea from prescribed antiretroviral drugs

ANS: C The nurse should assess the patient for dehydration and hypovolemia. The other patients also will require assessment and possible interventions, but do not require immediate action to prevent complications such as hypovolemia and shock. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 229 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

A patient with cancer has a nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to altered taste sensation. Which nursing action would address the cause of the patient problem? a. Add protein powder to foods such as casseroles. b. Tell the patient to eat foods that are high in nutrition. c. Avoid giving the patient foods that are strongly disliked. d. Add spices to enhance the flavor of foods that are served.

ANS: C The patient will eat more if disliked foods are avoided and foods that the patient likes are included instead. Additional spice is not usually an effective way to enhance taste. Adding protein powder does not address the issue of taste. The patient's poor intake is not caused by a lack of information about nutrition. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 262 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse teaches a postmenopausal patient with stage III breast cancer about the expected outcomes of cancer treatment. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "After cancer has not recurred for 5 years, it is considered cured." b. "The cancer will be cured if the entire tumor is surgically removed." c. "I will need follow-up examinations for many years after treatment before I can be considered cured." d. "Cancer is never cured, but the tumor can be controlled with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation."

ANS: C The risk of recurrence varies by the type of cancer. Some cancers are considered cured after a shorter time span or after surgery, but stage III breast cancer will require additional therapies and ongoing follow-up. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 243 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with metastatic cancer of the colon experiences severe vomiting after each administration of chemotherapy. Which action, if taken by the nurse, is appropriate? a. Have the patient eat large meals when nausea is not present. b. Offer dry crackers and carbonated fluids during chemotherapy. c. Administer prescribed antiemetics 1 hour before the treatments. d. Give the patient a glass of a citrus fruit beverage during treatments.

ANS: C Treatment with antiemetics before chemotherapy may help prevent nausea. The patient should eat small, frequent meals. Offering food and beverages during chemotherapy is likely to cause nausea. The acidity of citrus fruits may be further irritating to the stomach. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 251 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient has been assigned the nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to painful oral ulcers. Which nursing action will be most effective in improving oral intake? a. Offer the patient frequent small snacks between meals. b. Assist the patient to choose favorite foods from the menu. c. Provide teaching about the importance of nutritional intake. d. Apply prescribed anesthetic gel to oral lesions before meals.

ANS: D Because the etiology of the patient's poor nutrition is the painful oral ulcers, the best intervention is to apply anesthetic gel to the lesions before the patient eats. The other actions might be helpful for other patients with impaired nutrition but would not be as helpful for this patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 254 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse obtains information about a hospitalized patient who is receiving chemotherapy for colorectal cancer. Which information about the patient alerts the nurse to discuss a possible change in cancer therapy with the health care provider? a. Frequent loose stools b. Nausea and vomiting c. Elevated white blood count (WBC) d. Increased carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

ANS: D An increase in CEA indicates that the chemotherapy is not effective for the patient's cancer and may need to be modified. Gastrointestinal adverse effects are common with chemotherapy. The nurse may need to address these, but they would not necessarily indicate a need for a change in therapy. An elevated WBC may indicate infection but does not reflect the effectiveness of the colorectal cancer therapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 236 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. The nurse will most likely prepare a medication teaching plan about antiretroviral therapy (ART) for which patient? a. Patient who is currently HIV negative but has unprotected sex with multiple partners b. Patient who was infected with HIV 15 years ago and now has a CD4+ count of 840/μL c. HIV-positive patient with a CD4+ count of 160/μL who drinks a fifth of whiskey daily d. Patient who tested positive for HIV 2 years ago and now has cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis

ANS: D CMV retinitis is an AIDS-defining illness and indicates that the patient is appropriate for ART even though the HIV infection period is relatively short. An HIV-negative patient would not be offered ART. A patient with a CD4+ count in the normal range would not typically be started on ART. A patient who drinks alcohol heavily would be unlikely to be able to manage the complex drug regimen and would not be appropriate for ART despite the low CD4+ count. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 221 OBJ: Special Questions: Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. A patient who has a positive test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibodies is admitted to the hospital with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PCP) and a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/L. Based on diagnostic criteria established by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), which statement by the nurse is correct? a. "The patient will develop symptomatic HIV infection within 1 year." b. "The patient meets the criteria for a diagnosis of acute HIV infection." c. "The patient will be diagnosed with asymptomatic chronic HIV infection." d. "The patient has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)."

ANS: D Development of PCP meets the diagnostic criteria for AIDS. The other responses indicate earlier stages of HIV infection than is indicated by the PCP infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 221 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected has a CD4+ cell count of 400/μL. Which factor is most important for the nurse to determine before the initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) for this patient? a. CD4+ cell count trajectory b. HIV genotype and phenotype c. Patient's tolerance for potential medication side effects d. Patient's ability to follow a complex medication regimen

ANS: D Drug resistance develops quickly unless the patient takes ART medications on a strict, regular schedule. In addition, drug resistance endangers both the patient and community. The other information is also important to consider, but patients who are unable to manage and follow a complex drug treatment regimen should not be considered for ART. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 223 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

An older adult patient who has colorectal cancer is receiving IV fluids at 175 mL/hr in conjunction with the prescribed chemotherapy. Which finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient complains of severe fatigue. b. Patient voids every hour during the day. c. Patient takes only 50% of meals and refuses snacks. d. Patient has crackles up to the midline posterior chest.

ANS: D Rapid fluid infusions may cause heart failure, especially in older patients. The other findings are common in patients who have cancer or are receiving chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 266 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is caring for a patient who smokes two packs/day. Which action by the nurse could help reduce the patient's risk of lung cancer? a. Teach the patient about the seven warning signs of cancer. b. Plan to monitor the patient's carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level. c. Teach the patient about annual chest x-rays for lung cancer screening. d. Discuss risks associated with cigarette smoking during each patient encounter.

ANS: D Teaching about the risks associated with cigarette smoking is recommended at every patient encounter because cigarette smoking is associated with multiple health problems. The other options may detect lung cancer that is already present but do not reduce the risk. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 237 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

13. Which nursing action will be most useful in assisting a college student to adhere to a newly prescribed antiretroviral therapy (ART) regimen? a. Give the patient detailed information about possible medication side effects. b. Remind the patient of the importance of taking the medications as scheduled. c. Encourage the patient to join a support group for students who are HIV positive. d. Check the patient's class schedule to help decide when the drugs should be taken.

ANS: D The best approach to improve adherence is to learn about important activities in the patient's life and adjust the ART around those activities. The other actions are also useful, but they will not improve adherence as much as individualizing the ART to the patient's schedule. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 228 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has ovarian cancer is crying and tells the nurse, "My husband rarely visits. He just doesn't care." The husband indicates to the nurse that he does not know what to say to his wife. Which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the nurse to add to the plan of care? a. Compromised family coping related to disruption in lifestyle b. Impaired home maintenance related to perceived role changes c. Risk for caregiver role strain related to burdens of caregiving responsibilities d. Dysfunctional family processes related to effect of illness on family members

ANS: D The data indicate that this diagnosis is most appropriate because poor communication among the family members is affecting family processes. No data suggest a change in lifestyle or its role as an etiology. The data do not support impairment in home maintenance or a burden caused by caregiving responsibilities. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

The nurse reviews the laboratory results of a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. Which laboratory result is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Hematocrit 30% b. Platelets 95,000/μL c. Hemoglobin 10 g/L d. White blood cells (WBC) 2700/μL

ANS: D The low WBC count places the patient at risk for severe infection and is an indication that the chemotherapy dose may need to be lower or that WBC growth factors such as filgrastim (Neupogen) are needed. Although the other laboratory data indicate decreased levels, they do not indicate any immediate life-threatening adverse effects of the chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 235 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. A patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has developed Mycobacterium avium complex infection. Which outcome would be appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care? a. The patient will be free from injury. b. The patient will receive immunizations. c. The patient will have adequate oxygenation. d. The patient will maintain intact perineal skin.

ANS: D The major manifestation of M. avium infection is loose, watery stools, which would increase the risk for perineal skin breakdown. The other outcomes would be appropriate for other complications (e.g., pneumonia, dementia, influenza) associated with HIV infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 222 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient receiving head and neck radiation for larynx cancer has ulcerations over the oral mucosa and tongue and thick, ropey saliva. Which instructions should the nurse give to this patient? a. Remove food debris from the teeth and oral mucosa with a stiff toothbrush. b. Use cotton-tipped applicators dipped in hydrogen peroxide to clean the teeth. c. Gargle and rinse the mouth several times a day with an antiseptic mouthwash. d. Rinse the mouth before and after each meal and at bedtime with a saline solution.

ANS: D The patient should rinse the mouth with a saline solution frequently. A soft toothbrush is used for oral care. Hydrogen peroxide may damage tissues. Antiseptic mouthwashes may irritate the oral mucosa and are not recommended. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 251 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

During the teaching session for a patient who has a new diagnosis of acute leukemia, the patient is restless and looks away without making eye contact. The patient asks the nurse to repeat the information about the complications associated with chemotherapy. Based on this assessment, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the patient? a. Risk for ineffective adherence to treatment related to denial of need for chemotherapy b. Acute confusion related to infiltration of leukemia cells into the central nervous system c. Deficient knowledge: chemotherapy related to a lack of interest in learning about treatment d. Risk for ineffective health maintenance related to possible anxiety about leukemia diagnosis

ANS: D The patient who has a new cancer diagnosis is likely to have high anxiety, which may impact learning and require that the nurse repeat and reinforce information. The patient's history of a recent diagnosis suggests that infiltration of the leukemia is not a likely cause of the confusion. The patient asks for the information to be repeated, indicating that lack of interest in learning and denial are not etiologic factors. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 265 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

7. A young adult female patient who is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive has a new prescription for efavirenz (Sustiva). Which information is most important to include in the medication teaching plan? a. Take this medication on an empty stomach. b. Take this medication with a full glass of water. c. You may have vivid and bizarre dreams as a side effect. d. Continue to use contraception while taking this medication.

ANS: D To prevent harm, it is most critical to inform patients that efavirenz can cause fetal anomalies and should not be used in patients who may be or may become pregnant. The other information is also accurate, but it does not directly prevent harm. The medication should be taken on an empty stomach with water and patients should be informed that many people who use the drug have reported vivid and sometimes bizarre dreams. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 224 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy and complains of problems with concentration? a. Teach the patient to rest the brain by avoiding new activities. b. Teach that "chemo-brain" is a short-term effect of chemotherapy. c. Report patient symptoms immediately to the health care provider. d. Suggest use of a daily planner and encourage adequate rest and sleep.

ANS: D Use of tools to enhance memory and concentration such as a daily planner and adequate rest are helpful for patients who develop "chemo-brain" while receiving chemotherapy. Patients should be encouraged to exercise the brain through new activities. Chemo-brain may be short or long term. There is no urgent need to report common chemotherapy side effects to the provider. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 252 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. A patient is admitted to the hospital with acute rejection of a kidney transplant. Which intervention will the nurse prepare for this patient? a. Testing for human leukocyte antigen (HLA) match b. Administration of immunosuppressant medications c. Insertion of an arteriovenous graft for hemodialysis d. Placement of the patient on the transplant waiting list

B Acute rejection is treated with the administration of additional immunosuppressant drugs such as corticosteroids. Because acute rejection is potentially reversible, there is no indication that the patient will require another transplant or hemodialysis. There is no indication for repeat HLA testing. REF: 208

21. Immediately after the nurse administers an intracutaneous injection of an allergen on the forearm, the patient complains of itching at the site, weakness, and dizziness. What action should the nurse take first? a. Apply antiinflammatory cream. b. Place a tourniquet above the site. c. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine. d. Reschedule the patient's other allergen tests.

B Application of a tourniquet will decrease systemic circulation of the allergen and should be the first reaction. The other actions may occur, but the tourniquet application slows the allergen progress into the patient's system, allowing treatment of the anaphylactic response. A local antiinflammatory cream may be applied to the site of a cutaneous test if the itching persists. Epinephrine will be needed if the allergic reaction progresses to anaphylaxis. Other testing may be delayed and rescheduled after development of anaphylaxis. REF: 201

5. A patient who collects honey to earn supplemental income has developed a hypersensitivity to bee stings. Which statement, if made by the patient, would indicate a need for additional teaching? a. "I need to find a different way to earn extra money." b. "I will take oral antihistamines before going to work." c. "I will get a prescription for epinephrine and learn to self-inject it." d. "I should wear a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating my allergy to bee stings."

B Because the patient is at risk for bee stings and the severity of allergic reactions tends to increase with added exposure to allergen, taking oral antihistamines will not adequately control the patient's hypersensitivity reaction. The other patient statements indicate a good understanding of management of the problem. REF: 197

1. The nurse provides discharge instructions to a patient who has an immune deficiency involving the T lymphocytes. Which health screening should the nurse include in the teaching plan for this patient? a. Screening for allergies b. Screening for malignancies c. Screening for antibody deficiencies d. Screening for autoimmune disorders

B Cell-mediated immunity is responsible for the recognition and destruction of cancer cells. Allergic reactions, autoimmune disorders, and antibody deficiencies are mediated primarily by B lymphocytes and humoral immunity. REF 196

2. Which example should the nurse use to explain an infant's "passive immunity" to a new mother? a. Vaccinations b. Breastfeeding c. Stem cells in peripheral blood d. Exposure to communicable diseases

B Colostrum in breast milk provides passive immunity through antibodies from the mother. These antibodies protect the infant for a few months. However, memory cells are not retained, so the protection is not permanent. Active immunity is acquired by being immunized with vaccinations or having an infection. Stem cells are unspecialized cells used to repopulate a person's bone marrow after high-dose chemotherapy. REF: 192

15. The nurse teaches a patient about drug therapy after a kidney transplant. Which statement by the patient would indicate a need for further instructions? a. "I need to be monitored closely for development of malignant tumors." b. "After a couple of years I will be able to stop taking the cyclosporine." c. "If I develop acute rejection episode, I will need additional types of drugs." d. "The drugs are combined to inhibit different ways the kidney can be rejected."

B Cyclosporine, a calcineurin inhibitor, will need to be continued for life. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate that no further teaching is necessary about those topics. REF: 209

19. A patient in the health care provider's office for allergen testing using the cutaneous scratch method develops itching and swelling at the skin site. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Monitor the patient's edema. b. Administer a dose of epinephrine. c. Provide a prescription for oral antihistamines d. Ask the patient about the use of new skin products.

B Rapid administration of epinephrine when excessive itching or swelling at the skin site is observed can prevent the progression to anaphylaxis. The initial symptoms of anaphylaxis are itching and edema at the site of the exposure. The nurse should not wait and assess for development of additional edema. Hypotension, tachycardia, dilated pupils, and wheezes occur later. Exposure to skin products does not address the immediate concern of a possible anaphylactic reaction. REF: 202

11. Which statement by a patient would alert the nurse to a risk for decreased immune function? a. "I had a chest x-ray 6 months ago." b. "I had my spleen removed after a car accident." c. "I take one baby aspirin every day to prevent stroke." d. "I usually eat eggs or meat for at least two meals a day."

B Splenectomy increases the risk for septicemia from bacterial infections. The patient's protein intake is good and should improve immune function. Daily aspirin use does not affect immune function. A chest x-ray does not have enough radiation to suppress immune function. REF: 206

14. A patient seeks care in the emergency department after sharing needles for heroin injection with a friend who has hepatitis B. To provide immediate protection from infection, what medication will the nurse expect to administer? a. Corticosteroids b. Gamma globulin c. Hepatitis B vaccine d. Fresh frozen plasma

B The patient should first receive antibodies for hepatitis B from injection of gamma globulin. The hepatitis B vaccination series should be started to provide active immunity. Fresh frozen plasma and corticosteroids will not be effective in preventing hepatitis B in the patient. REF: 192

12. Which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with urticaria after receiving an IV antibiotic b. Patient who is sneezing after subcutaneous immunotherapy c. Patient who has graft-versus-host disease and severe diarrhea d. Patient with multiple chemical sensitivities who has muscle stiffness

B Sneezing after subcutaneous immunotherapy may indicate impending anaphylaxis and assessment and emergency measures should be initiated. The other patients also have findings that need assessment and intervention by the nurse, but do not have evidence of life-threatening complications. REF: 203

8. The nurse taking a health history learns that the patient, who has worked in rubber tire manufacturing, has allergic rhinitis and multiple food allergies. Which action by the nurse is correct? a. Recommend that the patient use latex gloves in preventing blood-borne pathogen contact. b. Document the patient's history and teach about clinical manifestations of a type I latex allergy. c. Encourage the patient to carry an epinephrine kit in case a type IV allergic reaction to latex develops. d. Advise the patient to use oil-based hand creams to decrease contact with natural proteins in latex gloves.

B The patient's allergy history and occupation indicate a risk of developing a latex allergy. The patient should be taught about symptoms that may occur. Epinephrine is not an appropriate treatment for contact dermatitis that is caused by a type IV allergic reaction to latex. Using latex gloves increases the chance of developing latex sensitivity. Oil-based creams will increase the exposure to latex from latex gloves. REF: 203

6. Which information about intradermal skin testing should the nurse teach to a patient with possible allergies? a. "Do not eat anything for about 6 hours before the testing." b. "Take an oral antihistamine about an hour before the testing." c. "Plan to wait in the clinic for 20 to 30 minutes after the testing." d. "Reaction to the testing will take about 48 to 72 hours to occur."

C Allergic reactions usually occur within minutes after injection of an allergen, and the patient will be monitored for at least 20 minutes for anaphylactic reactions after the testing. Medications that might modify the response, such as antihistamines, should be avoided before allergy testing. There is no reason to be NPO for skin testing. Results with intradermal testing occur within minutes. REF: 200

23. The health care provider asks the nurse whether a patient's angioedema has responded to prescribed therapies. Which assessment should the nurse perform? a. Obtain the patient's blood pressure and heart rate. b. Question the patient about any clear nasal discharge. c. Observe for swelling of the patient's lips and tongue. d. Assess the patient's extremities for wheal and flare lesions.

C Angioedema is characterized by swelling of the eyelids, lips, and tongue. Wheal and flare lesions, clear nasal drainage, and hypotension and tachycardia are characteristic of other allergic reactions. REF: 199

16. An older adult patient has a prescription for cyclosporine following a kidney transplant. Which information in the patient's health history has implications for planning patient teaching about the medication at this time? a. The patient restricts salt to 2 grams per day. b. The patient eats green leafy vegetables daily. c. The patient drinks grapefruit juice every day. d. The patient drinks 3 to 4 quarts of fluid each day.

C Grapefruit juice can increase the toxicity of cyclosporine. The patient should be taught to avoid grapefruit juice. Normal fluid and sodium intake or eating green leafy vegetables will not affect cyclosporine levels or renal function. REF: 209

9. What instructions about plasmapheresis should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a patient diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? a. Plasmapheresis eliminates eosinophils and basophils from blood. b. Plasmapheresis decreases the damage to organs from T lymphocytes. c. Plasmapheresis removes antibody-antigen complexes from circulation. d. Plasmapheresis prevents foreign antibodies from damaging various body tissues.

C Plasmapheresis is used in SLE to remove antibodies, antibody-antigen complexes, and complement from blood. T lymphocytes, foreign antibodies, eosinophils, and basophils do not directly contribute to the tissue damage in SLE. REF: 205

24. A nurse has obtained donor tissue typing information about a patient who is waiting for a kidney transplant. Which results should be reported to the transplant surgeon? a. Patient is Rh positive and donor is Rh negative b. Six antigen matches are present in HLA typing c. Results of patient-donor crossmatching are positive d. Panel of reactive antibodies (PRA) percentage is low

C Positive crossmatching is an absolute contraindication to kidney transplantation because a hyperacute rejection will occur after the transplant. The other information indicates that the tissue match between the patient and potential donor is acceptable. REF: 208

20. A patient is anxious and reports difficulty breathing after being stung by a wasp. What is the nurse's priority action? a. Provide high-flow oxygen. b. Administer antihistamines. c. Assess the patient's airway. d. Remove the stinger from the site.

C The initial action with any patient with difficulty breathing is to assess and maintain the airway. The patient's symptoms of anxiety and difficulty breathing may have other causes than anaphylaxis, so additional assessment is warranted. The other actions are part of the emergency management protocol for anaphylaxis, but the priority is airway assessment and maintenance. REF: 202

18. The charge nurse is assigning semiprivate rooms for new admissions. Which patient could safely be assigned as a roommate for a patient who has acute rejection of an organ transplant? a. A patient who has viral pneumonia b. A patient with second-degree burns c. A patient who is recovering from an anaphylactic reaction to a bee sting d. A patient with graft-versus-host disease after a recent bone marrow transplant

C There is no increased exposure to infection from a patient who had an anaphylactic reaction. Treatment for a patient with acute rejection includes administration of additional immunosuppressants and the patient should not be exposed to increased risk for infection as would occur from patients with viral pneumonia, graft-versus-host disease, and burns. REF: 201

7. The nurse reviewing a clinic patient's medical record notes that the patient missed the previous appointment for weekly immunotherapy. Which action by the nurse is appropriate? a. Schedule an additional dose the following week. b. Administer the scheduled dosage of the allergen. c. Consult with the health care provider about giving a lower allergen dose. d. Re-evaluate the patient's sensitivity to the allergen with a repeat skin test.

C Because there is an increased risk for adverse reactions after a patient misses a scheduled dose of allergen, the nurse should check with the health care provider before administration of the injection. A skin test is used to identify the allergen and would not be used at this time. An additional dose for the week may increase the risk for a reaction. REF: 203

25. A patient who is receiving immunotherapy has just received an allergen injection. Which assessment finding is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient's IgG level is increased. b. The injection site is red and swollen. c. The patient's symptoms did not improve in 2 months. d. There is a 2-cm wheal at the site of the allergen injection.

D A local reaction larger than quarter size may indicate that a decrease in the allergen dose is needed. An increase in IgG indicates that the therapy is effective. Redness and swelling at the site are not unusual. Because immunotherapy usually takes 1 to 2 years to achieve an effect, an improvement in the patient's symptoms is not expected after a few months. REF: 203

22. A clinic patient is experiencing an allergic reaction to an unknown allergen. Which action is appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)? a. Perform a focused physical assessment. b. Obtain the health history from the patient. c. Teach the patient about the various diagnostic studies. d. Administer a skin test by the cutaneous scratch method.

D LPN/LVNs are educated and licensed to administer medications under the supervision of an RN. RN-level education and the scope of practice include assessment of health history, focused physical assessment, and patient teaching. REF: 200

10. The nurse should assess the patient undergoing plasmapheresis for which clinical manifestation? a. Shortness of breath b. High blood pressure c. Transfusion reaction d. Extremity numbness

D Numbness and tingling may occur as the result of the hypocalcemia caused by the citrate used to prevent coagulation. The other clinical manifestations are not associated with plasmapheresis. REF: 205