Chapter 16 - Adaptive Immunity

Which of the following function in agglutination? A) IgE antibodies B) IgG antibodies C) IgA antibodies D) IgD antibodies E) IgA and IgG antibodies

IgA and IgG antibodies

The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is A) IgD. B) IgM. C) IgE. D) IgG. E) IgA.

IgG.

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated in Figure 16.1 is A. IgE. B. IgM. C. IgG. D. IgD. E. IgA.

IgM

Cell-mediated immunity is a function of A. NK cells. B. dendritic cells. C. macrophages. D. T lymphocytes. E. B lymphocytes.

T lymphocytes

Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE? A) T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell-mediated immune response. B) T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize antigen only if it is bound to MHC. C) There are three types of T lymphocytes. D) T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules. E) T lymphocytes are called such because they mature in the thymus.

T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules.

The majority of mature, self-tolerant lymphocytes are found in A. the tonsils. B. lymph nodes. C. the MALT. D. the thymus. E. the spleen.

The MALT

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation? A) The child has neither influenza nor RSV. B) The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza. C) The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections. D) The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV. E) The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.

The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.

Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE? A) Antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains. B) Antibodies have two short peptide chains known as light chains. C) The stem and arm are connected by a hinge. D) Antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains. E) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

Which of the following statements regarding the lymphatic system is FALSE? A. The lymphatic system begins with highly permeable capillaries. B. Lymph fluid is similar to blood plasma. C. The lymphatic vessels contract to move lymphatic fluid. D. Fluid flows through lymph nodes on its way to the bloodstream. E. The lymphatic vessels have valves to control the direction of fluid flow.

The lymphatic vessels contract to move lymphatic fluid

Which of the following is true of chemokines? A) They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes. B) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate. C) They are involved in B lymphocyte activation and differentiation. D) They ensure production of enough leukocytes. E) They are substances used to signal between leukocytes.

They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes.

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE? A) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR. B) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen. C) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs. D) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter. E) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.

They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.

Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies? A) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response. B) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity. C) They are the antibody class found in body secretions. D) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells. E) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.

They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? A) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx). B) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes. C) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens. D) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells. E) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes.

They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.

Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is FALSE? A. The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for weeks. B. They secrete a single type of antibody molecule specific for a single epitope. C. They are descended from activated B cells. D. They live for many years and function as memory cells. E. They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis.

They live for many years and function as memory cells

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name? A) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific. B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function. C) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant. D) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed. E) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.

To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific

Which of the following is an exogenous antigen? A) a bacterium inside a cell B) a bacterium outside a cell C) a virus inside a cell D) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell E) a noninfected human cell

a bacterium outside a cell

IgE antibodies are best described as A) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response. B) the antibodies found in body secretions. C) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation. D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC). E) those involved in complement activation.

a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.

Figure 16.2 illustrates an interaction between A. antigen presenting cell and a T lymphocyte B. antigen presenting cell and a B lymphocyte. C. NK cell and its target cell. D. CTL and its target cell. E. antigen presenting cell and a plasma cell.

antigen presenting cell and a T lymphocyte.

Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they A. are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers. B. are Y-shaped molecules. C. are present in lymph nodes. D. are present in the plasma. E. have unique light chains.

are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to for dimers

Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ________ immunity. A) natural passive B) natural active C) artificial active D) artificial passive E) both active and passive

artificial active

Exogenous antigens are processed for immune recognition by ________ cells. A. all nucleated B. dendritic C. macrophage D. helper T E. dendritic and macrophage

dendritic and macrophage

What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it? A) display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell B) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell C) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins D) suppression of the immune response to the microbe E) display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface

display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface

The immunological synapse refers to the A) interaction between lymphocytes and foreign antigens to produce memory cells. B) interaction of the many cytokines produced by different immunological cells. C) activation of a B cell to become a plasma cell. D) binding of a monocyte or macrophage to antigen so that it can act as an antigen-presenting cell. E) interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized contact area for communication between these cells.

interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized contact area for communication between these cells.

You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the A) spleen. B) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla). C) lymph nodes of the groin. D) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical). E) appendix.

lymph nodes of the groin

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as ________ responses. A) primary immune B) autoimmune C) allergic D) memory E) third-degree immune

memory

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease? A) naturally acquired passive immunity B) artificially acquired passive immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) naturally acquired active immunity E) innate immunity

naturally acquired active immunity

Class I MHC molecules are essential for A. presentation of endogenous antigens. B. detection of IL-2. C. recognition of chemokines. D. recognition of class II MHC. E. presentation of exogenous antigens.

presentation of endogenous antigens

Class II MHC are found on A) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells. B) professional antigen-presenting cells. C) the skin. D) red blood cells. E) muscle.

professional antigen-presenting cells.

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs. B) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs. C) red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. D) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue. E) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents.

red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been

What is the role of interleukins? A) signaling between leukocytes B) complement activation C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes D) production of virally infected cells E) chemotaxis of leukocytes

signaling between leukocytes

Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE? A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target. B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated. C) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells. D) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. E) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide.

A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are activated directly by a. Antigens presented on the surface of APCs via MHC II molecules. b. Antigens presented on the surface of nucleated cells via MHC I molecules. c. The presentation of exogenous antigens on the surface of APCs. d. The presentation of endogenous antigens via MHC II molecules. e. The presentation of exogenous antigens via MHC I molecules.

Antigens presented on the surface of nucleated cells via MHC I molecules.

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE? A) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope. B) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized. C) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation." D) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs. E) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.

B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.

The lymphocytes of adaptive immunity called ________ mature in the red bone marrow. A. B cells B. T cells C. macrophages D. dendritic cells E. NK cells

B cells

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are A) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils. B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes. C) macrophages and neutrophils. D) macrophages and eosinophils. E) neutrophils and dendritic cells.

B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.

What types of antigens are bound to Class I MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins? A) autoantigens B) endogenous antigens C) exogenous antigens D) both autoantigens and endogenous antigens E) autoantigens, endogenous, and exogenous antigens

B) endogenous antigens

Antigens are A) proteins the body produces against invading substances. B) specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign. C) enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogen's cell wall. D) cells that protect the body against invaders. E) proteins on the surface of our cells to which pathogens attach.

B) specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign.

Which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell? A. The CTL produces IL-12. B. The cell undergoes apoptosis. C. The cell produces MHC II with epitope attached. D. The CTL produces oxidizing chemicals. E. The cell releases interferon-gamma (INF-γ).

the cell undergoes apoptosis

The antibody immune response is attributed to the action of A) monocytes. B) neutrophils. C) B lymphocytes. D) T lymphocytes. E) macrophages.

C) B lymphocytes.

Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC I proteins and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors? A. MHC I B. CD26 C. CD8 D. CD4 E. CD95

CD8

How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented? A) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses. B) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion. C) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation. D) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated. E) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.

Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.

Which of the following is a characteristic of the third line of defense that makes it significantly different from the second line? A. The response is specific to a single antigen. B. The responding cells are a variety of cell types. C. The response is effective on a broad range of antigens. D. The response to a second exposure is similar to the response to a first exposure. E. The initial response is very rapid, beginning in minutes to a couple of hours.

the response is specific to a single antigen

Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT? A) the appendix B) the spleen C) lymphoid tissue in the small intestine D) lymphoid tissue in the respiratory tract E) Peyer's patches

the spleen

The perforin-granzyme pathway involves A) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis. B) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen. C) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells. D) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen. E) the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells.

the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells

Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body? A) the bone marrow B) the liver C) the spleen D) the thymus E) both the bone marrow and the spleen

the thymus

The antibody-binding site of an antibody is made up of A. one heavy chain. B. the light chains only. C. the variable regions of both light and heavy chains. D. portions of both of the heavy chains only. E. the variable regions of the heavy chains.

the variable regions of both light and heavy chains

Which of the following cytokines promotes the development of a cell-mediated immune response? A. tumor necrosis factor (TNF) B. IL-12 C. chemokines D. IL-4 (interleukin-4) E. alpha interferon

IL-12